公司理财 罗斯 第9 版Chap030

罗斯《公司理财》（第9版）课后习题第1章公司理财导论一、概念题1．资本预算（capital budgeting）答：资本预算是指综合反映投资资金来源与运用的预算，是为了获得未来产生现金流量的长期资产而现在投资支出的预算。

资本预算决策也称为长期投资决策，它是公司创造价值的主要方法。

资本预算决策一般指固定资产投资决策，耗资大，周期长，长期影响公司的产销能力和财务状况，决策正确与否影响公司的生存与发展。

完整的资本预算过程包括：寻找增长机会，制定长期投资战略，预测投资项目的现金流，分析评估投资项目，控制投资项目的执行情况。

资本预算可通过不同的资本预算方法来解决，如回收期法、净现值法和内部收益率法等。

2．货币市场（money markets）答：货币市场指期限不超过一年的资金借贷和短期有价证券交易的金融市场，亦称“短期金融市场”或“短期资金市场”，包括同业拆借市场、银行短期存贷市场、票据市场、短期证券市场、大额可转让存单市场、回购协议市场等。

其参加者为各种政府机构、各种银行和非银行金融机构及公司等。

货币市场具有四个基本特征：①融资期限短，一般在一年以内，最短的只有半天，主要用于满足短期资金周转的需要；②流动性强，金融工具可以在市场上随时兑现，交易对象主要是期限短、流动性强、风险小的信用工具，如票据、存单等，这些工具变现能力强，近似于货币，可称为“准货币”，故称货币市场；③安全性高，由于货币市场上的交易大多采用即期交易，即成交后马上结清，通常不存在因成交与结算日之间时间相对过长而引起价格巨大波动的现象，对投资者来说，收益具有较大保障；④政策性明显，货币市场由货币当局直接参加，是中央银行同商业银行及其他金融机构的资金连接的主渠道，是国家利用货币政策工具调节全国金融活动的杠杆支点。

货币市场的交易主体是短期资金的供需者。

需求者是为了获得现实的支付手段，调节资金的流动性并保持必要的支付能力，供应者提供的资金也大多是短期临时闲置性的资金。

公司理财第九版罗斯课后案例答案 Case Solutions CorporateFinance1. 案例一：公司资金需求分析问题：一家公司需要资金支持其新项目。

通过分析现金流量，推断该公司是否需要向外部借款或筹集其他资金。

解答：为了确定公司是否需要外部资金，我们需要分析公司的现金流量状况。

首先，我们需要计算公司的净现金流量（净收入加上非现金项目）。

然后，我们需要将净现金流量与项目的投资现金流量进行对比。

假设公司预计在项目开始时投资100万美元，并在项目运营期为5年。

预计该项目每年将产生50万美元的净现金流量。

现在，我们需要进行以下计算：净现金流量 = 年度现金流量 - 年度投资现金流量年度投资现金流量 = 100万美元年度现金流量 = 50万美元净现金流量 = 50万美元 - 100万美元 = -50万美元根据计算结果，公司的净现金流量为负数（即净现金流出），意味着公司每年都会亏损50万美元。

因此，公司需要从外部筹集资金以支持项目的运营。

2. 案例二：公司股权融资问题：一家公司正在考虑通过股权融资来筹集资金。

根据公司的财务数据和资本结构分析，我们需要确定公司最佳的股权融资方案。

解答：为了确定最佳的股权融资方案，我们需要参考公司的财务数据和资本结构分析。

首先，我们需要计算公司的资本结构比例，即股本占总资本的比例。

然后，我们将不同的股权融资方案与资本结构比例进行对比，选择最佳的方案。

假设公司当前的资本结构比例为60%的股本和40%的债务，在当前的资本结构下，公司的加权平均资本成本（WACC）为10%。

现在，我们需要进行以下计算：•方案一：以新股发行筹集1000万美元，并将其用于项目投资。

在这种方案下，公司的资本结构比例将发生变化。

假设公司的股本增加至80%，债务比例减少至20%。

根据资本结构比例的变化，WACC也将发生变化。

新的WACC可以通过以下公式计算得出：新的WACC = (股本比例 * 股本成本) + (债务比例 * 债务成本)假设公司的股本成本为12%，债务成本为8%：新的WACC = (0.8 * 12%) + (0.2 * 8%) = 9.6%•方案二：以新股发行筹集5000万美元，并将其用于项目投资。

罗斯《公司理财》第9版精要版英文原书课后部分章节答案详细»1 / 17 CH5 11，13，18，19，20 11. To find the PV of a lump sum, we use: PV = FV / (1 + r) t PV = $1,000,000 / (1.10) 80 = $488.19 13. To answer this question, we can use either the FV or the PV formula. Both will give the same answer since they are the inverse of each other. We will use the FV formula, that is: FV = PV(1 + r) t Solving for r, we get: r = (FV / PV) 1 / t –1 r = ($1,260,000 / $150) 1/112 – 1 = .0840 or 8.40% To find the FV of the first prize, we use: FV = PV(1 + r) t FV = $1,260,000(1.0840) 33 = $18,056,409.94 18. To find the FV of a lump sum, we use: FV = PV(1 + r) t FV = $4,000(1.11) 45 = $438,120.97 FV = $4,000(1.11) 35 = $154,299.40 Better start early! 19. We need to find the FV of a lump sum. However, the money will only be invested for six years, so the number of periods is six. FV = PV(1 + r) t FV = $20,000(1.084)6 = $32,449.33 20. To answer this question, we can use either the FV or the PV formula. Both will give the same answer since they are the inverse of each other. We will use the FV formula, that is: FV = PV(1 + r) t Solving for t, we get: t = ln(FV / PV) / ln(1 + r) t = ln($75,000 / $10,000) / ln(1.11) = 19.31 So, the money must be invested for 19.31 years. However, you will not receive the money for another two years. From now, you’ll wait: 2 years + 19.31 years = 21.31 years CH6 16，24，27，42，58 16. For this problem, we simply need to find the FV of a lump sum using the equation: FV = PV(1 + r) t 2 / 17 It is important to note that compounding occurs semiannually. To account for this, we will divide the interest rate by two (the number of compounding periods in a year), and multiply the number of periods by two. Doing so, we get: FV = $2,100[1 + (.084/2)] 34 = $8,505.93 24. This problem requires us to find the FV A. The equation to find the FV A is: FV A = C{[(1 + r) t – 1] / r} FV A = $300[{[1 + (.10/12) ] 360 – 1} / (.10/12)] = $678,146.38 27. The cash flows are annual and the compounding period is quarterly, so we need to calculate the EAR to make the interest rate comparable with the timing of the cash flows. Using the equation for the EAR, we get: EAR = [1 + (APR / m)] m – 1 EAR = [1 + (.11/4)] 4 – 1 = .1146 or 11.46% And now we use the EAR to find the PV of each cash flow as a lump sum and add them together: PV = $725 / 1.1146 + $980 / 1.1146 2 + $1,360 / 1.1146 4 = $2,320.36 42. The amount of principal paid on the loan is the PV of the monthly payments you make. So, the present value of the $1,150 monthly payments is: PV A = $1,150[(1 – {1 / [1 + (.0635/12)]} 360 ) / (.0635/12)] = $184,817.42 The monthly payments of $1,150 will amount to a principal payment of $184,817.42. The amount of principal you will still owe is: $240,000 – 184,817.42 = $55,182.58 This remaining principal amount will increase at the interest rate on the loan until the end of the loan period. So the balloon payment in 30 years, which is the FV of the remaining principal will be: Balloon payment = $55,182.58[1 + (.0635/12)] 360 = $368,936.54 58. To answer this question, we should find the PV of both options, and compare them. Since we are purchasing the car, the lowest PV is the best option. The PV of the leasing is simply the PV of the lease payments, plus the $99. The interest rate we would use for the leasing option is the same as the interest rate of the loan. The PV of leasing is: PV = $99 + $450{1 –[1 / (1 + .07/12) 12(3) ]} / (.07/12) = $14,672.91 The PV of purchasing the car is the current price of the car minus the PV of the resale price. The PV of the resale price is: PV = $23,000 / [1 + (.07/12)] 12(3) = $18,654.82 The PV of the decision to purchase is: $32,000 – 18,654.82 = $13,345.18 3 / 17 In this case, it is cheaper to buy the car than leasing it since the PV of the purchase cash flows is lower. To find the breakeven resale price, we need to find the resale price that makes the PV of the two options the same. In other words, the PV of the decision to buy should be: $32,000 – PV of resale price = $14,672.91 PV of resale price = $17,327.09 The resale price that would make the PV of the lease versus buy decision is the FV ofthis value, so: Breakeven resale price = $17,327.09[1 + (.07/12)] 12(3) = $21,363.01 CH7 3，18，21，22，31 3. The price of any bond is the PV of the interest payment, plus the PV of the par value. Notice this problem assumes an annual coupon. The price of the bond will be: P = $75({1 – [1/(1 + .0875)] 10 } / .0875) + $1,000[1 / (1 + .0875) 10 ] = $918.89 We would like to introduce shorthand notation here. Rather than write (or type, as the case may be) the entire equation for the PV of a lump sum, or the PV A equation, it is common to abbreviate the equations as: PVIF R,t = 1 / (1 + r) t which stands for Present V alue Interest Factor PVIFA R,t = ({1 – [1/(1 + r)] t } / r ) which stands for Present V alue Interest Factor of an Annuity These abbreviations are short hand notation for the equations in which the interest rate and the number of periods are substituted into the equation and solved. We will use this shorthand notation in remainder of the solutions key. 18. The bond price equation for this bond is: P 0 = $1,068 = $46(PVIFA R%,18 ) + $1,000(PVIF R%,18 ) Using a spreadsheet, financial calculator, or trial and error we find: R = 4.06% This is thesemiannual interest rate, so the YTM is: YTM = 2 4.06% = 8.12% The current yield is:Current yield = Annual coupon payment / Price = $92 / $1,068 = .0861 or 8.61% The effective annual yield is the same as the EAR, so using the EAR equation from the previous chapter: Effective annual yield = (1 + 0.0406) 2 – 1 = .0829 or 8.29% 20. Accrued interest is the coupon payment for the period times the fraction of the period that has passed since the last coupon payment. Since we have a semiannual coupon bond, the coupon payment per six months is one-half of the annual coupon payment. There are four months until the next coupon payment, so two months have passed since the last coupon payment. The accrued interest for the bond is: Accrued interest = $74/2 × 2/6 = $12.33 And we calculate the clean price as: 4 / 17 Clean price = Dirty price –Accrued interest = $968 –12.33 = $955.67 21. Accrued interest is the coupon payment for the period times the fraction of the period that has passed since the last coupon payment. Since we have a semiannual coupon bond, the coupon payment per six months is one-half of the annual coupon payment. There are two months until the next coupon payment, so four months have passed since the last coupon payment. The accrued interest for the bond is: Accrued interest = $68/2 × 4/6 = $22.67 And we calculate the dirty price as: Dirty price = Clean price + Accrued interest = $1,073 + 22.67 = $1,095.67 22. To find the number of years to maturity for the bond, we need to find the price of the bond. Since we already have the coupon rate, we can use the bond price equation, and solve for the number of years to maturity. We are given the current yield of the bond, so we can calculate the price as: Current yield = .0755 = $80/P 0 P 0 = $80/.0755 = $1,059.60 Now that we have the price of the bond, the bond price equation is: P = $1,059.60 = $80[(1 – (1/1.072) t ) / .072 ] + $1,000/1.072 t We can solve this equation for t as follows: $1,059.60(1.072) t = $1,111.11(1.072) t –1,111.11 + 1,000 111.11 = 51.51(1.072) t2.1570 = 1.072 t t = log 2.1570 / log 1.072 = 11.06 11 years The bond has 11 years to maturity.31. The price of any bond (or financial instrument) is the PV of the future cash flows. Even though Bond M makes different coupons payments, to find the price of the bond, we just find the PV of the cash flows. The PV of the cash flows for Bond M is: P M = $1,100(PVIFA 3.5%,16 )(PVIF 3.5%,12 ) + $1,400(PVIFA3.5%,12 )(PVIF 3.5%,28 ) + $20,000(PVIF 3.5%,40 ) P M = $19,018.78 Notice that for the coupon payments of $1,400, we found the PV A for the coupon payments, and then discounted the lump sum back to today. Bond N is a zero coupon bond with a $20,000 par value, therefore, the price of the bond is the PV of the par, or: P N = $20,000(PVIF3.5%,40 ) = $5,051.45 CH8 4，18，20，22，244. Using the constant growth model, we find the price of the stock today is: P 0 = D 1 / (R – g) = $3.04 / (.11 – .038) = $42.22 5 / 17 18. The price of a share of preferred stock is the dividend payment divided by the required return. We know the dividend payment in Year 20, so we can find the price of the stock in Y ear 19, one year before the first dividend payment. Doing so, we get: P 19 = $20.00 / .064 P 19 = $312.50 The price of the stock today is the PV of the stock price in the future, so the price today will be: P 0 = $312.50 / (1.064) 19 P 0 = $96.15 20. We can use the two-stage dividend growth model for this problem, which is: P 0 = [D 0 (1 + g 1 )/(R – g 1 )]{1 – [(1 + g 1 )/(1 + R)] T }+ [(1 + g 1 )/(1 + R)] T [D 0 (1 + g 2 )/(R –g 2 )] P0 = [$1.25(1.28)/(.13 –.28)][1 –(1.28/1.13) 8 ] + [(1.28)/(1.13)] 8 [$1.25(1.06)/(.13 – .06)] P 0 = $69.55 22. We are asked to find the dividend yield and capital gains yield for each of the stocks. All of the stocks have a 15 percent required return, which is the sum of the dividend yield and the capital gains yield. To find the components of the total return, we need to find the stock price for each stock. Using this stock price and the dividend, we can calculate the dividend yield. The capital gains yield for the stock will be the total return (required return) minus the dividend yield. W: P 0 = D 0 (1 + g) / (R – g) = $4.50(1.10)/(.19 – .10) = $55.00 Dividend yield = D 1 /P 0 = $4.50(1.10)/$55.00 = .09 or 9% Capital gains yield = .19 – .09 = .10 or 10% X: P 0 = D 0 (1 + g) / (R – g) = $4.50/(.19 – 0) = $23.68 Dividend yield = D 1 /P 0 = $4.50/$23.68 = .19 or 19% Capital gains yield = .19 – .19 = 0% Y: P 0 = D 0 (1 + g) / (R – g) = $4.50(1 – .05)/(.19 + .05) = $17.81 Dividend yield = D 1 /P 0 = $4.50(0.95)/$17.81 = .24 or 24% Capital gains yield = .19 – .24 = –.05 or –5% Z: P 2 = D 2 (1 + g) / (R – g) = D 0 (1 + g 1 ) 2 (1 +g 2 )/(R – g 2 ) = $4.50(1.20) 2 (1.12)/(.19 – .12) = $103.68 P 0 = $4.50 (1.20) / (1.19) + $4.50(1.20) 2 / (1.19) 2 + $103.68 / (1.19) 2 = $82.33 Dividend yield = D 1 /P 0 = $4.50(1.20)/$82.33 = .066 or 6.6% Capital gains yield = .19 – .066 = .124 or 12.4% In all cases, the required return is 19%, but the return is distributed differently between current income and capital gains. High growth stocks have an appreciable capital gains component but a relatively small current income yield; conversely, mature, negative-growth stocks provide a high current income but also price depreciation over time. 24. Here we have a stock with supernormal growth, but the dividend growth changes every year for the first four years. We can find the price of the stock in Y ear 3 since the dividend growth rate is constant after the third dividend. The price of the stock in Y ear 3 will be the dividend in Y ear 4, divided by the required return minus the constant dividend growth rate. So, the price in Y ear 3 will be: 6 / 17 P3 = $2.45(1.20)(1.15)(1.10)(1.05) / (.11 – .05) = $65.08 The price of the stock today will be the PV of the first three dividends, plus the PV of the stock price in Y ear 3, so: P 0 = $2.45(1.20)/(1.11) + $2.45(1.20)(1.15)/1.11 2 + $2.45(1.20)(1.15)(1.10)/1.11 3 + $65.08/1.11 3 P 0 = $55.70 CH9 3，4，6，9，15 3. Project A has cash flows of $19,000 in Y ear 1, so the cash flows are short by $21,000 of recapturing the initial investment, so the payback for Project A is: Payback = 1 + ($21,000 / $25,000) = 1.84 years Project B has cash flows of: Cash flows = $14,000 + 17,000 + 24,000 = $55,000 during this first three years. The cash flows are still short by $5,000 of recapturing the initial investment, so the payback for Project B is: B: Payback = 3 + ($5,000 / $270,000) = 3.019 years Using the payback criterion and a cutoff of 3 years, accept project A and reject project B. 4. When we use discounted payback, we need to find the value of all cash flows today. The value today of the project cash flows for the first four years is: V alue today of Y ear 1 cash flow = $4,200/1.14 = $3,684.21 V alue today of Y ear 2 cash flow = $5,300/1.14 2 = $4,078.18 V alue today of Y ear 3 cash flow = $6,100/1.14 3 = $4,117.33 V alue today of Y ear 4 cash flow = $7,400/1.14 4 = $4,381.39 To findthe discounted payback, we use these values to find the payback period. The discounted first year cash flow is $3,684.21, so the discounted payback for a $7,000 initial cost is: Discounted payback = 1 + ($7,000 – 3,684.21)/$4,078.18 = 1.81 years For an initial cost of $10,000, the discounted payback is: Discounted payback = 2 + ($10,000 –3,684.21 –4,078.18)/$4,117.33 = 2.54 years Notice the calculation of discounted payback. We know the payback period is between two and three years, so we subtract the discounted values of the Y ear 1 and Y ear 2 cash flows from the initial cost. This is the numerator, which is the discounted amount we still need to make to recover our initial investment. We divide this amount by the discounted amount we will earn in Y ear 3 to get the fractional portion of the discounted payback. If the initial cost is $13,000, the discounted payback is: Discounted payback = 3 + ($13,000 – 3,684.21 – 4,078.18 – 4,117.33) / $4,381.39 = 3.26 years 7 / 17 6. Our definition of AAR is the average net income divided by the average book value. The average net income for this project is: A verage net income = ($1,938,200 + 2,201,600 + 1,876,000 + 1,329,500) / 4 = $1,836,325 And the average book value is: A verage book value = ($15,000,000 + 0) / 2 = $7,500,000 So, the AAR for this project is: AAR = A verage net income / A verage book value = $1,836,325 / $7,500,000 = .2448 or 24.48% 9. The NPV of a project is the PV of the outflows minus the PV of the inflows. Since the cash inflows are an annuity, the equation for the NPV of this project at an 8 percent required return is: NPV = –$138,000 + $28,500(PVIFA 8%, 9 ) = $40,036.31 At an 8 percent required return, the NPV is positive, so we would accept the project. The equation for the NPV of the project at a 20 percent required return is: NPV = –$138,000 + $28,500(PVIFA 20%, 9 ) = –$23,117.45 At a 20 percent required return, the NPV is negative, so we would reject the project. We would be indifferent to the project if the required return was equal to the IRR of the project, since at that required return the NPV is zero. The IRR of the project is: 0 = –$138,000 + $28,500(PVIFA IRR, 9 ) IRR = 14.59% 15. The profitability index is defined as the PV of the cash inflows divided by the PV of the cash outflows. The equation for the profitability index at a required return of 10 percent is: PI = [$7,300/1.1 + $6,900/1.1 2 + $5,700/1.1 3 ] / $14,000 = 1.187 The equation for the profitability index at a required return of 15 percent is: PI = [$7,300/1.15 + $6,900/1.15 2 + $5,700/1.15 3 ] / $14,000 = 1.094 The equation for the profitability index at a required return of 22 percent is: PI = [$7,300/1.22 + $6,900/1.22 2 + $5,700/1.22 3 ] / $14,000 = 0.983 8 / 17 We would accept the project if the required return were 10 percent or 15 percent since the PI is greater than one. We would reject the project if the required return were 22 percent since the PI。

罗斯《公司理财》第9版笔记和课后习题（含考研真题）详解[视频详解]（股票估值）【圣才出品】罗斯《公司理财》第9版笔记和课后习题（含考研真题）详解[视频详解]第9章股票估值9.1复习笔记1．不同类型股票的估值（1）零增长股利股利不变时，一股股票的价格由下式给出：在这里假定Div1=Div2=…=Div。

（2）固定增长率股利如果股利以恒定的速率增长，那么一股股票的价格就为：式中，g是增长率；Div是第一期期末的股利。

（3）变动增长率股利2．股利折现模型中的参数估计（1）对增长率g的估计有效估计增长率的方法是：g=留存收益比率×留存收益收益率（ROE）只要公司保持其股利支付率不变，g就可以表示公司的股利增长率以及盈利增长率。

（2）对折现率R的估计对于折现率R的估计为：R=Div/P0+g该式表明总收益率R由两部分组成。

其中，第一部分被称为股利收益率，是预期的现金股利与当前的价格之比。

3．增长机会每股股价可以写做：该式表明，每股股价可以看做两部分的加和。

第一部分（EPS/R）是当公司满足于现状，而将其盈利全部发放给投资者时的价值；第二部分是当公司将盈利留存并用于投资新项目时的新增价值。

当公司投资于正NPVGO的增长机会时，公司价值增加。

反之，当公司选择负NPVGO 的投资机会时，公司价值降低。

但是，不管项目的NPV是正的还是负的，盈利和股利都是增长的。

不应该折现利润来获得每股价格，因为有部分盈利被用于再投资了。

只有股利被分到股东手中，也只有股利可以加以折现以获得股票价格。

4．市盈率即股票的市盈率是三个因素的函数：（1）增长机会。

拥有强劲增长机会的公司具有高市盈率。

（2）风险。

低风险股票具有高市盈率。

（3）会计方法。

采用保守会计方法的公司具有高市盈率。

5．股票市场交易商：持有一项存货，然后准备在任何时点进行买卖。

经纪人：将买者和卖者撮合在一起，但并不持有存货。

9.2课后习题详解一、概念题1．股利支付率（payout ratio）答：股利支付率一般指公司发放给普通股股东的现金股利占总利润的比例。

《公司理财》罗斯中文第九版南大笔记DOC第一篇综述企业经营活动中三类不同的重要问题：1、资本预算问题（长期投资项目）2、融资：如何筹集资金？3、短期融资和净营运资本管理第一章公司理财导论1.1什么是公司理财？1.1.1资产负债表流动资产?固定资产?有形?无形??流动负债?长期负债+所有者权益流动资产-流动负债?净营运资本短期负债：那些必须在一年之内必须偿还的代款和债务；长期负债：不必再一年之内偿还的贷款和债务。

资本结构：公司短期债务、长期债务和股东权益的比例。

1.1.2资本结构债权人和股东V（公司的价值）=B（负债的价值）+S（所有者权益的价值）如何确定资本结构将影响公司的价值。

1.1.3财务经理财务经理的大部分工作在于通过资本预算、融资和资产流动性管理为公司创造价值。

图1.3企业组织结构图（P5）两个问题：1. 现金流量的确认：财务分析的大量工作就是从会计报表中获得现金流量的信息（注意会计角度与财务角度的区别）2. 3.现金流量的时点现金流量的风险1.2公司证券对公司价值的或有索取权负债的基本特征是借债的公司承诺在某一确定的时间支付给债权人一笔固定的金额。

债券和股票时伴随或依附于公司总价值的收益索取权。

1.3公司制企业1.3.1个体业主制 1.3.2合伙制 1.3.3公司制有限责任、产权易于转让和永续经营是其主要优点。

1.4公司制企业的目标系列契约理论：公司制企业力图通过采取行动提高现有公司股票的价值以使股东财富最大化。

1.4.1代理成本和系列契约理论的观点代理成本：股东的监督成本和实施控制的成本 1.4.2管理者的目标管理者的目标可能不同于股东的目标。

Donaldson提出的管理者的两大动机：① （组织的）生存；② 独立性和自我满足。

1.4.3所有权和控制权的分离――谁在经营企业？ 1.4.4股东应控制管理者行为吗？促使股东可以控制管理者的因素：① 股东通过股东大会选举董事；② ③报酬计划和业绩激励计划；被接管的危险；④ 经理市场的激烈竞争。

罗斯《公司理财》第9版笔记和课后习题（含考研真题）详解[视频详解]第1章公司理财导论[视频讲解]1.1复习笔记公司的首要目标——股东财富最大化决定了公司理财的目标。

公司理财研究的是稀缺资金如何在企业和市场内进行有效配置，它是在股份有限公司已成为现代企业制度最主要组织形式的时代背景下，就公司经营过程中的资金运动进行预测、组织、协调、分析和控制的一种决策与管理活动。

从决策角度来讲，公司理财的决策内容包括投资决策、筹资决策、股利决策和净流动资金决策；从管理角度来讲，公司理财的管理职能主要是指对资金筹集和资金投放的管理。

公司理财的基本内容包括：投资决策（资本预算）、融资决策（资本结构）、短期财务管理（营运资本）。

1．资产负债表资产负债表是总括反映企业某一特定日期财务状况的会计报表，它是根据资产、负债和所有者权益之间的相互关系，按照一定的分类标准和一定的顺序，把企业一定日期的资产、负债和所有者权益各项目予以适当排列，并对日常工作中形成的大量数据进行高度浓缩整理后编制而成的。

资产负债表可以反映资本预算、资本支出、资本结构以及经营中的现金流量管理等方面的内容。

2．资本结构资本结构是指企业各种资本的构成及其比例关系，它有广义和狭义之分。

广义资本结构，亦称财务结构，指企业全部资本的构成，既包括长期资本，也包括短期资本（主要指短期债务资本）。

狭义资本结构，主要指企业长期资本的构成，而不包括短期资本。

通常人们将资本结构表示为债务资本与权益资本的比例关系（D/E）或债务资本在总资本的构成（D/A）。

准确地讲，企业的资本结构应定义为有偿负债与所有者权益的比例。

资本结构是由企业采用各种筹资方式筹集资本形成的。

筹资方式的选择及组合决定着企业资本结构及其变化。

资本结构是企业筹资决策的核心问题。

企业应综合考虑影响资本结构的因素，运用适当方法优化资本结构，从而实现最佳资本结构。

资本结构优化有利于降低资本成本，获取财务杠杆利益。

3．财务经理财务经理是公司管理团队中的重要成员，其主要职责是通过资本预算、融资和资产流动性管理为公司创造价值。