罗斯公司理财第9版ch01配套练习题及答案

罗斯《公司理财》（第9版）课后习题第1章公司理财导论一、概念题1．资本预算（capital budgeting）答：资本预算是指综合反映投资资金来源与运用的预算，是为了获得未来产生现金流量的长期资产而现在投资支出的预算。

资本预算决策也称为长期投资决策，它是公司创造价值的主要方法。

资本预算决策一般指固定资产投资决策，耗资大，周期长，长期影响公司的产销能力和财务状况，决策正确与否影响公司的生存与发展。

完整的资本预算过程包括：寻找增长机会，制定长期投资战略，预测投资项目的现金流，分析评估投资项目，控制投资项目的执行情况。

资本预算可通过不同的资本预算方法来解决，如回收期法、净现值法和内部收益率法等。

2．货币市场（money markets）答：货币市场指期限不超过一年的资金借贷和短期有价证券交易的金融市场，亦称“短期金融市场”或“短期资金市场”，包括同业拆借市场、银行短期存贷市场、票据市场、短期证券市场、大额可转让存单市场、回购协议市场等。

其参加者为各种政府机构、各种银行和非银行金融机构及公司等。

货币市场具有四个基本特征：①融资期限短，一般在一年以内，最短的只有半天，主要用于满足短期资金周转的需要；②流动性强，金融工具可以在市场上随时兑现，交易对象主要是期限短、流动性强、风险小的信用工具，如票据、存单等，这些工具变现能力强，近似于货币，可称为“准货币”，故称货币市场；③安全性高，由于货币市场上的交易大多采用即期交易，即成交后马上结清，通常不存在因成交与结算日之间时间相对过长而引起价格巨大波动的现象，对投资者来说，收益具有较大保障；④政策性明显，货币市场由货币当局直接参加，是中央银行同商业银行及其他金融机构的资金连接的主渠道，是国家利用货币政策工具调节全国金融活动的杠杆支点。

货币市场的交易主体是短期资金的供需者。

需求者是为了获得现实的支付手段，调节资金的流动性并保持必要的支付能力，供应者提供的资金也大多是短期临时闲置性的资金。

第一章1.在所有权形式的公司中,股东是公司的所有者。

股东选举公司的董事会,董事会任命该公司的管理层。

企业的所有权和控制权分离的组织形式是导致的代理关系存在的主要原因。

管理者可能追求自身或别人的利益最大化,而不是股东的利益最大化。

在这种环境下,他们可能因为目标不一致而存在代理问题。

2.非营利公司经常追求社会或政治任务等各种目标。

非营利公司财务管理的目标是获取并有效使用资金以最大限度地实现组织的社会使命。

3.这句话是不正确的。

管理者实施财务管理的目标就是最大化现有股票的每股价值，当前的股票价值反映了短期和长期的风险、时间以及未来现金流量。

4.有两种结论。

一种极端,在市场经济中所有的东西都被定价。

因此所有目标都有一个最优水平，包括避免不道德或非法的行为，股票价值最大化。

另一种极端,我们可以认为这是非经济现象,最好的处理方式是通过政治手段。

一个经典的思考问题给出了这种争论的答案:公司估计提高某种产品安全性的成本是30美元万。

然而,该公司认为提高产品的安全性只会节省20美元万。

请问公司应该怎么做呢?”5.财务管理的目标都是相同的,但实现目标的最好方式可能是不同的,因为不同的国家有不同的社会、政治环境和经济制度。

6.管理层的目标是最大化股东现有股票的每股价值。

如果管理层认为能提高公司利润，使股价超过35美元,那么他们应该展开对恶意收购的斗争。

如果管理层认为该投标人或其它未知的投标人将支付超过每股35美元的价格收购公司,那么他们也应该展开斗争。

然而,如果管理层不能增加企业的价值,并且没有其他更高的投标价格,那么管理层不是在为股东的最大化权益行事。

现在的管理层经常在公司面临这些恶意收购的情况时迷失自己的方向。

7.其他国家的代理问题并不严重,主要取决于其他国家的私人投资者占比重较小。

较少的私人投资者能减少不同的企业目标。

高比重的机构所有权导致高学历的股东和管理层讨论决策风险项目。

此外,机构投资者比私人投资者可以根据自己的资源和经验更好地对管理层实施有效的监督机制。

公司理财第九版罗斯课后案例答案 Case Solutions CorporateFinance1. 案例一：公司资金需求分析问题：一家公司需要资金支持其新项目。

通过分析现金流量，推断该公司是否需要向外部借款或筹集其他资金。

解答：为了确定公司是否需要外部资金，我们需要分析公司的现金流量状况。

首先，我们需要计算公司的净现金流量（净收入加上非现金项目）。

然后，我们需要将净现金流量与项目的投资现金流量进行对比。

假设公司预计在项目开始时投资100万美元，并在项目运营期为5年。

预计该项目每年将产生50万美元的净现金流量。

现在，我们需要进行以下计算：净现金流量 = 年度现金流量 - 年度投资现金流量年度投资现金流量 = 100万美元年度现金流量 = 50万美元净现金流量 = 50万美元 - 100万美元 = -50万美元根据计算结果，公司的净现金流量为负数（即净现金流出），意味着公司每年都会亏损50万美元。

因此，公司需要从外部筹集资金以支持项目的运营。

2. 案例二：公司股权融资问题：一家公司正在考虑通过股权融资来筹集资金。

根据公司的财务数据和资本结构分析，我们需要确定公司最佳的股权融资方案。

解答：为了确定最佳的股权融资方案，我们需要参考公司的财务数据和资本结构分析。

首先，我们需要计算公司的资本结构比例，即股本占总资本的比例。

然后，我们将不同的股权融资方案与资本结构比例进行对比，选择最佳的方案。

假设公司当前的资本结构比例为60%的股本和40%的债务，在当前的资本结构下，公司的加权平均资本成本（WACC）为10%。

现在，我们需要进行以下计算：•方案一：以新股发行筹集1000万美元，并将其用于项目投资。

在这种方案下，公司的资本结构比例将发生变化。

假设公司的股本增加至80%，债务比例减少至20%。

根据资本结构比例的变化，WACC也将发生变化。

新的WACC可以通过以下公式计算得出：新的WACC = (股本比例 * 股本成本) + (债务比例 * 债务成本)假设公司的股本成本为12%，债务成本为8%：新的WACC = (0.8 * 12%) + (0.2 * 8%) = 9.6%•方案二：以新股发行筹集5000万美元，并将其用于项目投资。

第一章公司理财导论1.代理么问题谁拥有公司?描述所有者控制公司管理层的过程。

代理关系在公司的组织形式中存在的主要原因是什?在这种环境下，可能会出现什么样的问题?2.非营利企业的目标假设你是一家非营利企业（或许是非营利医院）的财务经理，你认为什么样的财务管理目标将会是恰当的?3.公司的目标评价下面这句话：管理者不应该只关注现在的股票价值，因为这么做将会导致过分强调短期利润而牺牲长期利润。

4.道德规范和公司目标股票价值最大化的目标可能和其他目标，比如避免不道德或者非法的行为相冲突吗?特别是，你认为顾客和员工的安全、环境和社会的总体利益是否在这个框架之内，或者他们完全被忽略了?考虑一些具体的情形来阐明你的回答。

5.跨国公司目标股票价值最大化的财务管理目标在外国会有不同吗?为什么?6.代理问题假设你拥有一家公司的股票，每股股票现在的价格是25 美元。

另外一家公司刚刚宣布它想要购买这个公司，愿意以每股35 美元的价格收购发行在外的所有股票。

你公司的管理层立即展开对这次恶意收购的斗争。

管理层是为股东的最大利益行事吗?为什么?7.代理问题和公司所有权公司所有权在世界各地都不相同。

历史上，美国个人投资者占了上市公司股份的大多数，但是在德国和日本，银行和其他金融机构拥有上市公司股份的大部分。

你认为代理问题在德国和日本会比在美国更严重吗?8.代理问题和公司所有权近年来，大型金融机构比如共同基金和养老基金已经成为美国股票的主要持有者。

这些机构越来越积极地参与公司事务。

这一趋势对代理问题和公司控制有什么样的启示?9.高管薪酬批评家指责美国公司高级管理人员的薪酬过高，应该削减。

比如在大型公司中，甲骨文的LarryEllison 是美国薪酬最高的首席执行官之一，2004～2008 年收入高达4.29 亿美元，仅2008 年就有1.93 亿美元之多。

这样的金额算多吗?如果承认超级运动员比如老虎·伍兹，演艺界的知名人士比如汤姆·汉克斯和奥普拉·温弗瑞，还有其他在他们各自领域非常出色的人赚的都不比这少或许有助于回答这个问题。

第2章会计报表与现金流量一、概念题1．资产负债表（balance sheet）答：资产负债表指反映企业某一特定日期财务状况的会计报表。

它是根据资产、负债和所有者权益之间的相互关系，按照一定的分类标准和一定的顺序，把企业一定日期的资产、负债和所有者权益各项目予以适当排列，并对日常会计核算工作中形成的大量数据进行高度浓缩整理后编制而成的。

资产负债表是企业最重要的对外报表之一，它能为投资者和企业管理当局提供有关企业的资源分布状况、债权人和股东对资产的要求权、企业的偿债能力和未来财务状况趋势等信息。

资产负债表的格式主要有账户式和垂直式两种，当前会计实务中采用较多的是账户式资产负债表。

账户式资产负债表分左右两方列示，左边列示企业的资产，右边列示负债和所有者权益，左右两方的合计数相等。

通常，资产负债表还提供期初数和期末数的比较资料。

2．损益表（income statement）答：损益表是指反映一个企业某一会计期间经营成果的会计报表，亦称“利润表”或“收益表”。

它把一定期间的收入与相关的费用进行配比，从而计算出企业一定期间的净利润（或净亏损）。

它反映企业生产经营的收入实现和成本耗费情况，表明企业的生产经营成果。

同时，通过该表提供不同时期的比较数字（如本月数、本年累计数、上年数），可以分析企业今后利润的发展趋势和获利能力。

损益表的结果可以分为多步式和单步式两种。

多步式损益表中的损益是通过多步配比而来的。

单步式损益表则是将本期所有的收入加在一起，然后将所有的费用加总在一起，通过一次配比求出本期损益。

3．现金流量（cash flow）答：现金流量是指某一段时期内企业现金流入和流出的数量。

如企业销售商品、提供劳务、出售固定资产、向银行借款等取得现金，形成企业的现金流入；购买原材料、接受劳务、购建固定资产、对外投资、偿还债务等而支付现金，形成企业的现金流出。

现金流量信息能够表明企业经营状况是否良好、资金是否紧缺、企业偿付能力大小，从而为投资者、债权人、企业管理者提供非常有用的信息。

罗斯《公司理财》第9版笔记和课后习题（含考研真题）详解[视频详解]（股票估值）【圣才出品】罗斯《公司理财》第9版笔记和课后习题（含考研真题）详解[视频详解]第9章股票估值9.1复习笔记1．不同类型股票的估值（1）零增长股利股利不变时，一股股票的价格由下式给出：在这里假定Div1=Div2=…=Div。

（2）固定增长率股利如果股利以恒定的速率增长，那么一股股票的价格就为：式中，g是增长率；Div是第一期期末的股利。

（3）变动增长率股利2．股利折现模型中的参数估计（1）对增长率g的估计有效估计增长率的方法是：g=留存收益比率×留存收益收益率（ROE）只要公司保持其股利支付率不变，g就可以表示公司的股利增长率以及盈利增长率。

（2）对折现率R的估计对于折现率R的估计为：R=Div/P0+g该式表明总收益率R由两部分组成。

其中，第一部分被称为股利收益率，是预期的现金股利与当前的价格之比。

3．增长机会每股股价可以写做：该式表明，每股股价可以看做两部分的加和。

第一部分（EPS/R）是当公司满足于现状，而将其盈利全部发放给投资者时的价值；第二部分是当公司将盈利留存并用于投资新项目时的新增价值。

当公司投资于正NPVGO的增长机会时，公司价值增加。

反之，当公司选择负NPVGO 的投资机会时，公司价值降低。

但是，不管项目的NPV是正的还是负的，盈利和股利都是增长的。

不应该折现利润来获得每股价格，因为有部分盈利被用于再投资了。

只有股利被分到股东手中，也只有股利可以加以折现以获得股票价格。

4．市盈率即股票的市盈率是三个因素的函数：（1）增长机会。

拥有强劲增长机会的公司具有高市盈率。

（2）风险。

低风险股票具有高市盈率。

（3）会计方法。

采用保守会计方法的公司具有高市盈率。

5．股票市场交易商：持有一项存货，然后准备在任何时点进行买卖。

经纪人：将买者和卖者撮合在一起，但并不持有存货。

9.2课后习题详解一、概念题1．股利支付率（payout ratio）答：股利支付率一般指公司发放给普通股股东的现金股利占总利润的比例。

【最新整理，下载后即可编辑】Case SolutionsFundamentals of Corporate FinanceRoss, Westerfield, and Jordan9th editionCHAPTER 1THE McGEE CAKE COMPANY1.The advantages to a LLC are: 1) Reduction of personal liability. A soleproprietor has unlimited liability, which can include the potential loss of all personal assets. 2) Taxes. Forming an LLC may mean that more expenses can be considered business expenses and be deducted from the company’s income. 3) Improved credibility. The business may have increased credibility in the business world compared to a sole proprietorship. 4) Ability to attract investment. Corporations, even LLCs, can raise capital through the sale of equity. 5) Continuous life. Sole proprietorships have a limited life, while corporations have a potentially perpetual life. 6) Transfer of ownership. It is easier to transfer ownership in a corporation through the sale of stock.The biggest disadvantage is the potential cost, although the cost of forminga LLC can be relatively small. There are also other potential costs, includingmore expansive record-keeping.2.Forming a corporation has the same advantages as forming a LLC, but thecosts are likely to be higher.3.As a small company, changing to a LLC is probably the most advantageousdecision at the current time. If the company grows, and Doc and Lyn are willing to sell more equity ownership, the company can reorganize as a corporation at a later date. Additionally, forming a LLC is likely to be less expensive than forming a corporation.CHAPTER 2CASH FLOWS AND FINANCIAL STATEMENTS AT SUNSET BOARDS Below are the financial statements that you are asked to prepare.1.The income statement for each year will look like this:Income statement2008 2009Sales $247,259 $301,392Cost of goods sold 126,038 159,143Selling & administrative 24,787 32,352Depreciation 35,581 40,217EBIT $60,853 $69,680Interest 7,735 8,866EBT $53,118 $60,814Taxes 10,624 12,163Net income $42,494 $48,651Dividends $21,247 $24,326Addition to retainedearnings 21,247 24,3262.The balance sheet for each year will be:Balance sheet as of Dec. 31, 2008C-26 CASE SOLUTIONSCash $18,187 Accounts payable $32,143 Accountsreceivable 12,887 Notes payable 14,651 Inventory 27,119 Current liabilities $46,794 Current assets $58,193Long-term debt $79,235 Net fixed assets $156,975 Owners' equity 89,139Total assets $215,168 Total liab. &equity $215,168In the first year, equity is not given. Therefore, we must calculate equity as a plug variable. Since total liabilities & equity is equal to total assets, equity can be calculated as:Equity = $215,168 – 46,794 – 79,235Equity = $89,139CHAPTER 2 C-5Balance sheet as of Dec. 31, 2009Cash $27,478 Accounts payable $36,404 Accountsreceivable 16,717 Notes payable 15,997 Inventory 37,216 Current liabilities $52,401 Current assets $81,411Long-term debt $91,195 Net fixed assets $191,250 Owners' equity 129,065Total assets $272,661 Total liab. &equity $272,661The owner’s equity for 2009 is the beginning of year owner’s equity, plus the addition to retained earnings, plus the new equity, so:Equity = $89,139 + 24,326 + 15,600Equity = $129,065ing the OCF equation:OCF = EBIT + Depreciation – TaxesThe OCF for each year is:OCF2008 = $60,853 + 35,581 – 10,624OCF2008 = $85,180OCF2009 = $69,680 + 40,217 – 12,163OCF2009 = $97,734C-26 CASE SOLUTIONS4.To calculate the cash flow from assets, we need to find the capital spendingand change in net working capital. The capital spending for the year was: Capital spendingEnding net fixed assets $191,250– Beginning net fixedassets 156,975+ Depreciation 40,217Net capital spending $74,492And the change in net working capital was:Change in net working capitalEnding NWC $29,010– Beginning NWC 11,399Change in NWC $17,611CHAPTER 2 C-5 So, the cash flow from assets was:Cash flow from assetsOperating cash flow $97,734– Net capital spending 74,492– Change in NWC 17,611Cash flow from assets $ 5,6315.The cash flow to creditors was:Cash flow to creditorsInterest paid $8,866– Net new borrowing 11,960Cash flow to creditors –$3,0946.The cash flow to stockholders was:Cash flow tostockholdersDividends paid $24,326– Net new equityraised 15,600Cash flow tostockholders $8,726Answers to questions1.The firm had positive earnings in an accounting sense (NI > 0) and hadpositive cash flow from operations. The firm invested $17,611 in new netC-26 CASE SOLUTIONSworking capital and $74,492 in new fixed assets. The firm gave $5,631 to its stakeholders. It raised $3,094 from bondholders, and paid $8,726 to stockholders.2.The expansion plans may be a little risky. The company does have a positivecash flow, but a large portion of the operating cash flow is already going to capital spending. The company has had to raise capital from creditors and stockholders for its current operations. So, the expansion plans may be too aggressive at this time. On the other hand, companies do need capital to grow. Before investing or loaning the company money, you would want to know where the current capital spending is going, and why the company is spending so much in this area already.CHAPTER 3RATIOS ANALYSIS AT S&S AIR1.The calculations for the ratios listed are:Current ratio = $2,186,520 / $2,919,000Current ratio = 0.75 timesQuick ratio = ($2,186,250 – 1,037,120) / $2,919,000Quick ratio = 0.39 timesCash ratio = $441,000 / $2,919,000Cash ratio = 0.15 timesTotal asset turnover = $30,499,420 / $18,308,920Total asset turnover = 1.67 timesInventory turnover = $22,224,580 / $1,037,120Inventory turnover = 21.43 timesReceivables turnover = $30,499,420 / $708,400Receivables turnover = 43.05 timesTotal debt ratio = ($18,308,920 – 10,069,920) / $18,308,920 Total debt ratio = 0.45 timesDebt-equity ratio = ($2,919,000 + 5,320,000) / $10,069,920C-26 CASE SOLUTIONSDebt-equity ratio = 0.82 timesEquity multiplier = $18,308,920 / $10,069,920Equity multiplier = 1.82 timesTimes interest earned = $3,040,660 / $478,240Times interest earned = 6.36 timesCash coverage = ($3,040,660 + 1,366,680) / $478,420 Cash coverage = 9.22 timesProfit margin = $1,537,452 / $30,499,420Profit margin = 5.04%Return on assets = $1,537,452 / $18,308,920Return on assets = 8.40%Return on equity = $1,537,452 / $10,069,920Return on equity = 15.27%CHAPTER 3 C-11 2. Boeing is probably not a good aspirant company. Even though bothcompanies manufacture airplanes, S&S Air manufactures small airplanes, while Boeing manufactures large, commercial aircraft. These are two different markets. Additionally, Boeing is heavily involved in the defense industry, as well as Boeing Capital, which finances airplanes.Bombardier is a Canadian company that builds business jets, short-range airliners and fire-fighting amphibious aircraft and also provides defense-related services. It is the third largest commercial aircraft manufacturer in the world. Embraer is a Brazilian manufacturer than manufactures commercial, military, and corporate airplanes. Additionally, the Brazilian government is a part owner of the company. Bombardier and Embraer are probably not good aspirant companies because of the diverse range of products and manufacture of larger aircraft.Cirrus is the world's second largest manufacturer of single-engine, piston-powered aircraft. Its SR22 is the world's best selling plane in its class. The company is noted for its innovative small aircraft and is a good aspirant company.Cessna is a well known manufacturer of small airplanes. The company produces business jets, freight- and passenger-hauling utility Caravans, personal and small-business single engine pistons. It may be a good aspirant company, however, its products could be considered too broad and diversified since S&S Air produces only small personal airplanes.3. S&S is below the median industry ratios for the current and cash ratios.This implies the company has less liquidity than the industry in general.However, both ratios are above the lower quartile, so there are companiesC-26 CASE SOLUTIONSin the industry with lower liquidity ratios than S&S Air. The company may have more predictable cash flows, or more access to short-term borrowing.If you created an Inventory to Current liabilities ratio, S&S Air would havea ratio that is lower than the industry median. The current ratio is below theindustry median, while the quick ratio is above the industry median. This implies that S&S Air has less inventory to current liabilities than the industry median. S&S Air has less inventory than the industry median, but more accounts receivable than the industry since the cash ratio is lower than the industry median.The turnover ratios are all higher than the industry median; in fact, all three turnover ratios are above the upper quartile. This may mean that S&S Air is more efficient than the industry.The financial leverage ratios are all below the industry median, but above the lower quartile. S&S Air generally has less debt than comparable companies, but still within the normal range.The profit margin, ROA, and ROE are all slightly below the industry median, however, not dramatically lower. The company may want to examine its costs structure to determine if costs can be reduced, or price can be increased.Overall, S&S Air’s performance seems good, although the liquidity ratios indicate that a closer look may be needed in this area.CHAPTER 3 C-11 Below is a list of possible reasons it may be good or bad that each ratio is higher or lower than the industry. Note that the list is not exhaustive, but merely one possible explanation for each ratio.Ratio Good BadCurrent ratio Better at managingcurrent accounts. May be having liquidity problems.Quick ratio Better at managingcurrent accounts. May be having liquidity problems.Cash ratio Better at managingcurrent accounts. May be having liquidity problems.Total asset turnover Better at utilizing assets. Assets may be older anddepreciated, requiringextensive investmentsoon.Inventory turnover Better at inventorymanagement, possibly dueto better procedures.Could be experiencinginventory shortages.Receivables turnover Better at collectingreceivables.May have credit termsthat are too strict.Decreasing receivablesturnover may increasesales.Total debt ratio Less debt than industrymedian means thecompany is less likely toexperience creditproblems. Increasing the amount of debt can increase shareholder returns. Especially notice that it will increase ROE.Debt-equity Less debt than industry Increasing the amount ofC-26 CASE SOLUTIONSratio median means thecompany is less likely toexperience creditproblems. debt can increase shareholder returns. Especially notice that it will increase ROE.Equity multiplier Less debt than industrymedian means thecompany is less likely toexperience creditproblems.Increasing the amount ofdebt can increaseshareholder returns.Especially notice that itwill increase ROE.TIE Higher quality materialscould be increasing costs. The company may have more difficulty meeting interest payments in a downturn.Cash coverage Less debt than industrymedian means thecompany is less likely toexperience creditproblems. Increasing the amount of debt can increase shareholder returns. Especially notice that it will increase ROE.Profit margin The PM is slightly belowthe industry median. Itcould be a result of higherquality materials or bettermanufacturing. Company may be having trouble controlling costs.ROA Company may have newerassets than the industry. Company may have newer assets than the industry.ROE Lower profit margin maybe a result of higherquality. Profit margin and EM are lower than industry, which results in the lower ROE.CHAPTER 4PLANNING FOR GROWTH AT S&S AIR1.To calculate the internal growth rate, we first need to find the ROA and theretention ratio, so:ROA = NI / TAROA = $1,537,452 / $18,309,920ROA = .0840 or 8.40%b = Addition to RE / NIb = $977,452 / $1,537,452b = 0.64Now we can use the internal growth rate equation to get:Internal growth rate = (ROA × b) / [1 – (ROA × b)]Internal growth rate = [0.0840(.64)] / [1 – 0.0840(.64)]Internal growth rate = .0564 or 5.64%To find the sustainable growth rate, we need the ROE, which is:ROE = NI / TEROE = $1,537,452 / $10,069,920ROE = .1527 or 15.27%C-26 CASE SOLUTIONSUsing the retention ratio we previously calculated, the sustainable growth rate is:Sustainable growth rate = (ROE × b) / [1 – (ROE × b)]Sustainable growth rate = [0.1527(.64)] / [1 – 0.1527(.64)]Sustainable growth rate = .1075 or 10.75%The internal growth rate is the growth rate the company can achieve with no outside financing of any sort. The sustainable growth rate is the growth rate the company can achieve by raising outside debt based on its retained earnings and current capital structure.CHAPTER 4 C-21 2.Pro forma financial statements for next year at a 12 percent growth rate are:Income statementSales $ 34,159,35COGS 24,891,530 Other expenses 4,331,600 Depreciation 1,366,680EBIT $ 3,569,541Interest 478,240Taxable income $ 3,091,301Taxes (40%) 1,236,520Net income $ 1,854,78Dividends $ 675,583C-26 CASE SOLUTIONSAdd to RE 1,179,197Balance sheetAssets Liabilities & EquityCurrent Assets Current LiabilitiesCash $ 493,92AccountsPayable $ 995,680Accounts rec. 793,408 Notes Payable 2,030,000 Inventory 1,161,574 Total CL $ 3,025,680 Total CA $ 2,448,902Long-term debt $ 5,320,000ShareholderEquityCommon stock $ 350,000Fixed assets Retainedearnings 10,899,117Net PP&E $ 18,057,088 Total Equity $ 11,249,117Total Assets $ 20,505,990 Total L&E $ 19,594,787CHAPTER 4 C-21 So, the EFN is:EFN = Total assets – Total liabilities and equityEFN = $20,505,990 – 19,594,797EFN = $911,193The company can grow at this rate by changing the way it operates. For example, if profit margin increases, say by reducing costs, the ROE increases, it will increase the sustainable growth rate. In general, as long as the company increases the profit margin, total asset turnover, or equity multiplier, the higher growth rate is possible. Note however, that changing any one of these will have the effect of changing the pro forma financial statements.C-26 CASE SOLUTIONS3.Now we are assuming the company can only build in amounts of $5 million.We will assume that the company will go ahead with the fixed asset acquisition. To estimate the new depreciation charge, we will find the current depreciation as a percentage of fixed assets, then, apply this percentage to the new fixed assets. The depreciation as a percentage of assets this year was:Depreciation percentage = $1,366,680 / $16,122,400Depreciation percentage = .0848 or 8.48%The new level of fixed assets with the $5 million purchase will be:New fixed assets = $16,122,400 + 5,000,000 = $21,122,400So, the pro forma depreciation will be:Pro forma depreciation = .0848($21,122,400)Pro forma depreciation = $1,790,525We will use this amount in the pro forma income statement. So, the pro forma income statement will be:Income statementSales $ 34,159,35COGS 24,891,530 Other expensesCHAPTER 4 C-214,331,600Depreciation 1,790,525EBIT $ 3,145,696Interest 478,240Taxable income $ 2,667,456Taxes (40%) 1,066,982Net income $ 1,600,473Dividends $ 582,955Add to RE 1,017,519C-26 CASE SOLUTIONSThe pro forma balance sheet will remain the same except for the fixed asset and equity accounts. The fixed asset account will increase by $5 million, rather than the growth rate of sales.Balance sheetAssets Liabilities & EquityCurrent Assets Current LiabilitiesCash $ 493,92AccountsPayable $ 995,680Accounts rec. 793,408 Notes Payable 2,030,000 Inventory 1,161,574 Total CL $ 3,025,680 Total CA $ 2,448,902Long-term debt $ 5,320,000ShareholderEquityCommon stock $ 350,000Fixed assets Retainedearnings 10,737,439Net PP&E $ 21,122,400 Total Equity $ 11,087,439Total Assets $ 23,571,302 Total L&E $ 19,433,119CHAPTER 4 C-21 So, the EFN is:EFN = Total assets – Total liabilities and equityEFN = $23,581,302 – 19,433,119EFN = $4,138,184Since the fixed assets have increased at a faster percentage than sales, the capacity utilization for next year will decrease.CHAPTER 6THE MBA DECISION1. Age is obviously an important factor. The younger an individual is, the moretime there is for the (hopefully) increased salary to offset the cost of the decision to return to school for an MBA. The cost includes both the explicit costs such as tuition, as well as the opportunity cost of the lost salary.2. Perhaps the most important nonquantifiable factors would be whether ornot he is married and if he has any children. With a spouse and/or children, he may be less inclined to return for an MBA since his family may be less amenable to the time and money constraints imposed by classes. Other factors would include his willingness and desire to pursue an MBA, job satisfaction, and how important the prestige of a job is to him, regardless of the salary.3.He has three choices: remain at his current job, pursue a Wilton MBA, orpursue a Mt. Perry MBA. In this analysis, room and board costs are irrelevant since presumably they will be the same whether he attends college or keeps his current job. We need to find the aftertax value of each, so:Remain at current job:Aftertax salary = $55,000(1 – .26) = $40,700CHAPTER 6 C-27 His salary will grow at 3 percent per year, so the present value of his aftertax salary is:PV = C {1 – [(1 + g)/(1 + r)]t} / (r–g)]PV = $40,700{[1 – [(1 +.065)/(1 + .03)]38} / (.065 – .03)PV = $836,227.34Wilton MBA:Costs:Total direct costs = $63,000 + 2,500 + 3,000 = $68,500PV of direct costs = $68,500 + 68,500 / (1.065) = $132,819.25PV of indirect costs (lost salary) = $40,700 / (1.065) + $40,700(1 + .03) / (1 + .065)2 = $75,176.00Salary:PV of aftertax bonus paid in 2 years = $15,000(1 –.31) / 1.0652= $9,125.17Aftertax salary = $98,000(1 – .31) = $67,620C-26 CASE SOLUTIONSHis salary will grow at 4 percent per year. We must also remember that he will now only work for 36 years, so the present value of his aftertax salary is: PV = C {1 – [(1 + g)/(1 + r)]t} / (r–g)]PV = $67,620{[1 – [(1 +.065)/(1 + .04)]36} / (.065 – .04)PV = $1,554,663.22Since the first salary payment will be received three years from today, so we need to discount this for two years to find the value today, which will be: PV = $1,544,663.22 / 1.0652PV = $1,370,683.26So, the total value of a Wilton MBA is:Value = –$75,160 – 132,819.25 + 9,125.17 + 1,370,683.26 =$1,171,813.18Mount Perry MBA:Costs:Total direct costs = $78,000 + 3,500 + 3,000 = $86,500. Note, this is also the PV of the direct costs since they are all paid today.PV of indirect costs (lost salary) = $40,700 / (1.065) = $38,215.96Salary:CHAPTER 6 C-27 PV of aftertax bonus paid in 1 year = $10,000(1 – .29) / 1.065 = $6,666.67 Aftertax salary = $81,000(1 – .29) = $57,510His salary will grow at 3.5 percent per year. We must also remember that he will now only work for 37 years, so the present value of his aftertax salary is: PV = C {1 – [(1 + g)/(1 + r)]t} / (r–g)]PV = $57,510{[1 – [(1 +.065)/(1 + .035)]37} / (.065 – .035)PV = $1,250,991.81Since the first salary payment will be received two years from today, so we need to discount this for one year to find the value today, which will be:PV = $1,250,991.81 / 1.065PV = $1,174,640.20So, the total value of a Mount Perry MBA is:Value = –$86,500 – 38,215.96 + 6,666.67 + 1,174,640.20 = $1,056,590.90C-26 CASE SOLUTIONS4.He is somewhat correct. Calculating the future value of each decision willresult in the option with the highest present value having the highest future value. Thus, a future value analysis will result in the same decision. However, his statement that a future value analysis is the correct method is wrong since a present value analysis will give the correct answer as well.5. To find the salary offer he would need to make the Wilton MBA asfinancially attractive as the as the current job, we need to take the PV of his current job, add the costs of attending Wilton, and the PV of the bonus on an aftertax basis. So, the necessary PV to make the Wilton MBA the same as his current job will be:PV = $836,227.34 + 132,819.25 + 75,176.00 – 9,125.17 = $1,035,097.42This PV will make his current job exactly equal to the Wilton MBA on a financial basis. Since his salary will still be a growing annuity, the aftertax salary needed is:PV = C {1 – [(1 + g)/(1 + r)]t} / (r–g)]$1,035,097.42 = C {[1 – [(1 +.065)/(1 + .04)]36} / (.065 – .04)C = $45,021.51This is the aftertax salary. So, the pretax salary must be:Pretax salary = $45,021.51 / (1 – .31) = $65,248.576.The cost (interest rate) of the decision depends on the riskiness of the use offunds, not the source of the funds. Therefore, whether he can pay cash orCHAPTER 6 C-27 must borrow is irrelevant. This is an important concept which will be discussed further in capital budgeting and the cost of capital in later chapters.CHAPTER 7FINANCING S&S AIR’S EXPANSION PLANS WITH A BOND ISSUEA rule of thumb with bond provisions is to determine who benefits by theprovision. If the company benefits, the bond will have a higher coupon rate.If the bondholders benefit, the bond will have a lower coupon rate.1. A bond with collateral will have a lower coupon rate. Bondholders have theclaim on the collateral, even in bankruptcy. Collateral provides an asset that bondholders can claim, which lowers their risk in default. The downside of collateral is that the company generally cannot sell the asset used as collateral, and they will generally have to keep the asset in good working order.2.The more senior the bond is, the lower the coupon rate. Senior bonds getfull payment in bankruptcy proceedings before subordinated bonds receive any payment. A potential problem may arise in that the bond covenant may restrict the company from issuing any future bonds senior to the current bonds.3. A sinking fund will reduce the coupon rate because it is a partial guaranteeto bondholders. The problem with a sinking fund is that the company must make the interim payments into a sinking fund or face default. This means the company must be able to generate these cash flows.4. A provision with a specific call date and prices would increase the couponrate. The call provision would only be used when it is to the company’s advantage, thus the bondholder’s disadvantage. The downside is theCHAPTER 7 C-29 higher coupon rate. The company benefits by being able to refinance at a lower rate if interest rates fall significantly, that is, enough to offset the call provision cost.5. A deferred call would reduce the coupon rate relative to a call provision witha deferred call. The bond will still have a higher rate relative to a plain vanillabond. The deferred call means that the company cannot call the bond for a specified period. This offers the bondholders protection for this period. The disadvantage of a deferred call is that the company cannot call the bond during the call protection period. Interest rates could potentially fall to the point where it would be beneficial for the company to call the bond, yet the company is unable to do so.6. A make-whole call provision should lower the coupon rate in comparison toa call provision with specific dates since the make-whole call repays thebondholder the present value of the future cash flows. However, a make-whole call provision should not affect the coupon rate in comparison to a plain vanilla bond. Since the bondholders are made whole, they should be indifferent between a plain vanilla bond and a make-whole bond. If a bond with a make-whole provision is called, bondholders receive the market value of the bond, which they can reinvest in another bond with similar characteristics. If we compare this to a bond with a specific call price, investors rarely receive the full market value of the future cash flows.CASE 3 C-30 7. A positive covenant would reduce the coupon rate. The presence of positivecovenants protects bondholders by forcing the company to undertake actions that benefit bondholders. Examples of positive covenants would be: the company must maintain audited financial statements; the company must maintain a minimum specified level of working capital or a minimum specified current ratio; the company must maintain any collateral in good working order. The negative side of positive covenants is that the company is restricted in its actions. The positive covenant may force the company into actions in the future that it would rather not undertake.8. A negative covenant would reduce the coupon rate. The presence ofnegative covenants protects bondholders from actions by the company that would harm the bondholders. Remember, the goal of a corporation is to maximize shareholder wealth. This says nothing about bondholders.Examples of negative covenants would be: the company cannot increase dividends, or at least increase beyond a specified level; the company cannot issue new bonds senior to the current bond issue; the company cannot sell any collateral. The downside of negative covenants is the restriction of the company’s actions.9.Even though the company is not public, a conversion feature would likelylower the coupon rate. The conversion feature would permit bondholders to benefit if the company does well and also goes public. The downside is that the company may be selling equity at a discounted price.10. The downside of a floating-rate coupon is that if interest rates rise, thecompany has to pay a higher interest rate. However, if interest rates fall, the company pays a lower interest rate.CHAPTER 8STOCK VALUATION AT RAGAN, INC.1.The total dividends paid by the company were $126,000. Since there are100,000 shares outstanding, the total earnings for the company were: Total earnings = 100,000($4.54) = $454,000This means the payout ratio was:Payout ratio = $126,000/$454,000 = 0.28So, the retention ratio was:Retention ratio = 1 – .28 = 0.72Using the retention ratio, the company’s growth rate is:g = ROE × b = 0.25*(.72) = .1806 or 18.06%The dividend per share paid this year was:= $63,000 / 50,000D= $1.26DNow we can find the stock price, which is:C-84 CASE SOLUTIONSP 0 = D 1 / (R – g )P 0 = $1.26(1.1806) / (.20 – .1806)P 0 = $76.752.Since Expert HVAC had a write off which affected its earnings per share, we need to recalculate the industry EPS. So, the industry EPS is:Industry EPS = ($0.79 + 1.38 + 1.06) / 3 = $1.08Using this industry EPS, the industry payout ratio is:Industry payout ratio = $0.40/$1.08 = .3715 or 37.15%So, the industry retention ratio isIndustry retention ratio = 1 – .3715 = .6285 or 62.85%。

第29章收购、兼并与剥离一、概念题1．熊式收购（bear hug）答：熊式收购是指收购方采取高溢价的敌意收购方式，即使在遭到目标公司董事会的抵制时，也能够得到目标公司一些股东的支持。

在企业收购中，一家企业获得对另一家企业的控制权，前者称为“收购公司”，后者称为“目标公司”。

收购公司首先致函目标公司的董事们，向他们表达收购的意愿，并要求他们对报价迅速作出决定。

如果董事们不同意这个收购，收购公司就可以直接通过要约收购的方式向目标公司的股东们提出收购要求。

2．资产锁定（lockup）答：资产锁定是公司赋予善意收购人（如白衣骑士）的一项选择权，当目标企业在面临敌意收购时，善意收购人可以以一个固定的价格购买目标企业的股票或部分资产（比如皇冠宝石），这只是善意收购人的权利。

由于恶意收购者在收购后，可能失去目标企业的优良资产，资产锁定降低了企业对于收购者的吸引力。

3．投标者（bidder）答：投标者是指计划接管有关企业而向其发出要约，要求用现金或证券换取该企业的股票或资产的企业。

如果该要约被接受，目标企业将会放弃对其股票或资产的控制权，将控制权转移给投标者以换取相应的报酬（如投标者的股票、债务或现金）。

4．吸收合并（merger）答：吸收合并是指一家企业被另一家企业吸收，兼并企业保持其名称和身份，并且收购被兼并企业的全部资产和负债的收购形式。

吸收合并的目标企业不再作为一个独立经营实体而存在。

5．新设合并（consolidation）答：新设合并是指兼并企业和被兼并企业终止各自的法人形式，共同组成一家新的企业。

6．毒丸计划（poison pill）答：毒丸计划包括“负债毒丸计划”和“人员毒丸计划”两种。

其中，“负债毒丸计划”是指目标企业在受到收购威胁的情况下大量增加自身负债，降低企业被收购的吸引力。

例如，发行债券并约定在企业股权发生大规模转移时，债券持有人可要求立刻兑付，从而使收购企业在收购后立即面临巨额现金支出的危险，从而降低了收购企业的收购兴趣。

CH5 11，13，18，19，2011.To find the PV of a lump sum, we use:PV = FV / (1 + r)tPV = $1,000,000 / (1.10)80 = $488.1913.To answer this question, we can use either the FV or the PV formula. Both will give the sameanswer since they are the inverse of each other. We will use the FV formula, that is:FV = PV(1 + r)tSolving for r, we get:r = (FV / PV)1 / t– 1r = ($1,260,000 / $150)1/112– 1 = .0840 or 8.40%To find the FV of the first prize, we use:FV = PV(1 + r)tFV = $1,260,000(1.0840)33 = $18,056,409.9418.To find the FV of a lump sum, we use:FV = PV(1 + r)tFV = $4,000(1.11)45 = $438,120.97FV = $4,000(1.11)35 = $154,299.40Better start early!19. We need to find the FV of a lump sum. However, the money will only be invested for six years,so the number of periods is six.FV = PV(1 + r)tFV = $20,000(1.084)6 = $32,449.3320.To answer this question, we can use either the FV or the PV formula. Both will give the sameanswer since they are the inverse of each other. We will use the FV formula, that is:FV = PV(1 + r)tSolving for t, we get:t = ln(FV / PV) / ln(1 + r)t = ln($75,000 / $10,000) / ln(1.11) = 19.31So, the money must be invested for 19.31 years. However, you will not receive the money for another two years. From now, you’ll wait:2 years + 19.31 years = 21.31 yearsCH6 16，24，27，42，5816.For this problem, we simply need to find the FV of a lump sum using the equation:FV = PV(1 + r)tIt is important to note that compounding occurs semiannually. To account for this, we will divide the interest rate by two (the number of compounding periods in a year), and multiply the number of periods by two. Doing so, we get:FV = $2,100[1 + (.084/2)]34 = $8,505.9324.This problem requires us to find the FVA. The equation to find the FVA is:FVA = C{[(1 + r)t– 1] / r}FVA = $300[{[1 + (.10/12) ]360 – 1} / (.10/12)] = $678,146.3827.The cash flows are annual and the compounding period is quarterly, so we need to calculate theEAR to make the interest rate comparable with the timing of the cash flows. Using the equation for the EAR, we get:EAR = [1 + (APR / m)]m– 1EAR = [1 + (.11/4)]4– 1 = .1146 or 11.46%And now we use the EAR to find the PV of each cash flow as a lump sum and add them together: PV = $725 / 1.1146 + $980 / 1.11462 + $1,360 / 1.11464 = $2,320.3642.The amount of principal paid on the loan is the PV of the monthly payments you make. So, thepresent value of the $1,150 monthly payments is:PVA = $1,150[(1 – {1 / [1 + (.0635/12)]}360) / (.0635/12)] = $184,817.42The monthly payments of $1,150 will amount to a principal payment of $184,817.42. The amount of principal you will still owe is:$240,000 – 184,817.42 = $55,182.58This remaining principal amount will increase at the interest rate on the loan until the end of the loan period. So the balloon payment in 30 years, which is the FV of the remaining principal will be:Balloon payment = $55,182.58[1 + (.0635/12)]360 = $368,936.5458.To answer this question, we should find the PV of both options, and compare them. Since we arepurchasing the car, the lowest PV is the best option. The PV of the leasing is simply the PV of the lease payments, plus the $99. The interest rate we would use for the leasing option is thesame as the interest rate of the loan. The PV of leasing is:PV = $99 + $450{1 – [1 / (1 + .07/12)12(3)]} / (.07/12) = $14,672.91The PV of purchasing the car is the current price of the car minus the PV of the resale price. The PV of the resale price is:PV = $23,000 / [1 + (.07/12)]12(3) = $18,654.82The PV of the decision to purchase is:$32,000 – 18,654.82 = $13,345.18In this case, it is cheaper to buy the car than leasing it since the PV of the purchase cash flows is lower. To find the breakeven resale price, we need to find the resale price that makes the PV of the two options the same. In other words, the PV of the decision to buy should be:$32,000 – PV of resale price = $14,672.91PV of resale price = $17,327.09The resale price that would make the PV of the lease versus buy decision is the FV of this value, so:Breakeven resale price = $17,327.09[1 + (.07/12)]12(3) = $21,363.01CH7 3，18，21，22，313.The price of any bond is the PV of the interest payment, plus the PV of the par value. Notice thisproblem assumes an annual coupon. The price of the bond will be:P = $75({1 – [1/(1 + .0875)]10 } / .0875) + $1,000[1 / (1 + .0875)10] = $918.89We would like to introduce shorthand notation here. Rather than write (or type, as the case may be) the entire equation for the PV of a lump sum, or the PVA equation, it is common to abbreviate the equations as:PVIF R,t = 1 / (1 + r)twhich stands for Present Value Interest FactorPVIFA R,t= ({1 – [1/(1 + r)]t } / r )which stands for Present Value Interest Factor of an AnnuityThese abbreviations are short hand notation for the equations in which the interest rate and the number of periods are substituted into the equation and solved. We will use this shorthand notation in remainder of the solutions key.18.The bond price equation for this bond is:P0 = $1,068 = $46(PVIFA R%,18) + $1,000(PVIF R%,18)Using a spreadsheet, financial calculator, or trial and error we find:R = 4.06%This is the semiannual interest rate, so the YTM is:YTM = 2 4.06% = 8.12%The current yield is:Current yield = Annual coupon payment / Price = $92 / $1,068 = .0861 or 8.61%The effective annual yield is the same as the EAR, so using the EAR equation from the previous chapter:Effective annual yield = (1 + 0.0406)2– 1 = .0829 or 8.29%20. Accrued interest is the coupon payment for the period times the fraction of the period that haspassed since the last coupon payment. Since we have a semiannual coupon bond, the coupon payment per six months is one-half of the annual coupon payment. There are four months until the next coupon payment, so two months have passed since the last coupon payment. The accrued interest for the bond is:Accrued interest = $74/2 × 2/6 = $12.33And we calculate the clean price as:Clean price = Dirty price – Accrued interest = $968 – 12.33 = $955.6721. Accrued interest is the coupon payment for the period times the fraction of the period that haspassed since the last coupon payment. Since we have a semiannual coupon bond, the coupon payment per six months is one-half of the annual coupon payment. There are two months untilthe next coupon payment, so four months have passed since the last coupon payment. The accrued interest for the bond is:Accrued interest = $68/2 × 4/6 = $22.67And we calculate the dirty price as:Dirty price = Clean price + Accrued interest = $1,073 + 22.67 = $1,095.6722.To find the number of years to maturity for the bond, we need to find the price of the bond. Sincewe already have the coupon rate, we can use the bond price equation, and solve for the number of years to maturity. We are given the current yield of the bond, so we can calculate the price as: Current yield = .0755 = $80/P0P0 = $80/.0755 = $1,059.60Now that we have the price of the bond, the bond price equation is:P = $1,059.60 = $80[(1 – (1/1.072)t ) / .072 ] + $1,000/1.072tWe can solve this equation for t as follows:$1,059.60(1.072)t = $1,111.11(1.072)t– 1,111.11 + 1,000111.11 = 51.51(1.072)t2.1570 = 1.072tt = log 2.1570 / log 1.072 = 11.06 11 yearsThe bond has 11 years to maturity.31.The price of any bond (or financial instrument) is the PV of the future cash flows. Even thoughBond M makes different coupons payments, to find the price of the bond, we just find the PV of the cash flows. The PV of the cash flows for Bond M is:P M= $1,100(PVIFA3.5%,16)(PVIF3.5%,12) + $1,400(PVIFA3.5%,12)(PVIF3.5%,28) + $20,000(PVIF3.5%,40)P M= $19,018.78Notice that for the coupon payments of $1,400, we found the PVA for the coupon payments, and then discounted the lump sum back to today.Bond N is a zero coupon bond with a $20,000 par value, therefore, the price of the bond is the PV of the par, or:P N= $20,000(PVIF3.5%,40) = $5,051.45CH8 4，18，20，22，24ing the constant growth model, we find the price of the stock today is:P0 = D1 / (R– g) = $3.04 / (.11 – .038) = $42.2218.The price of a share of preferred stock is the dividend payment divided by the required return.We know the dividend payment in Year 20, so we can find the price of the stock in Year 19, one year before the first dividend payment. Doing so, we get:P19 = $20.00 / .064P19 = $312.50The price of the stock today is the PV of the stock price in the future, so the price today will be: P0 = $312.50 / (1.064)19P0 = $96.1520.We can use the two-stage dividend growth model for this problem, which is:P0 = [D0(1 + g1)/(R –g1)]{1 – [(1 + g1)/(1 + R)]T}+ [(1 + g1)/(1 + R)]T[D0(1 + g2)/(R –g2)]P0= [$1.25(1.28)/(.13 – .28)][1 – (1.28/1.13)8] + [(1.28)/(1.13)]8[$1.25(1.06)/(.13 – .06)]P0= $69.5522.We are asked to find the dividend yield and capital gains yield for each of the stocks. All of thestocks have a 15 percent required return, which is the sum of the dividend yield and the capital gains yield. To find the components of the total return, we need to find the stock price for each stock. Using this stock price and the dividend, we can calculate the dividend yield. The capital gains yield for the stock will be the total return (required return) minus the dividend yield.W: P0 = D0(1 + g) / (R–g) = $4.50(1.10)/(.19 – .10) = $55.00Dividend yield = D1/P0 = $4.50(1.10)/$55.00 = .09 or 9%Capital gains yield = .19 – .09 = .10 or 10%X: P0 = D0(1 + g) / (R–g) = $4.50/(.19 – 0) = $23.68Dividend yield = D1/P0 = $4.50/$23.68 = .19 or 19%Capital gains yield = .19 – .19 = 0%Y: P0 = D0(1 + g) / (R–g) = $4.50(1 – .05)/(.19 + .05) = $17.81Dividend yield = D1/P0 = $4.50(0.95)/$17.81 = .24 or 24%Capital gains yield = .19 – .24 = –.05 or –5%Z: P2 = D2(1 + g) / (R–g) = D0(1 + g1)2(1 + g2)/(R–g2) = $4.50(1.20)2(1.12)/(.19 – .12) = $103.68P0 = $4.50 (1.20) / (1.19) + $4.50 (1.20)2/ (1.19)2 + $103.68 / (1.19)2 = $82.33Dividend yield = D1/P0 = $4.50(1.20)/$82.33 = .066 or 6.6%Capital gains yield = .19 – .066 = .124 or 12.4%In all cases, the required return is 19%, but the return is distributed differently between current income and capital gains. High growth stocks have an appreciable capital gains component but a relatively small current income yield; conversely, mature, negative-growth stocks provide a high current income but also price depreciation over time.24.Here we have a stock with supernormal growth, but the dividend growth changes every year forthe first four years. We can find the price of the stock in Year 3 since the dividend growth rate is constant after the third dividend. The price of the stock in Year 3 will be the dividend in Year 4, divided by the required return minus the constant dividend growth rate. So, the price in Year 3 will be:P3 = $2.45(1.20)(1.15)(1.10)(1.05) / (.11 – .05) = $65.08The price of the stock today will be the PV of the first three dividends, plus the PV of the stock price in Year 3, so:P0 = $2.45(1.20)/(1.11) + $2.45(1.20)(1.15)/1.112 + $2.45(1.20)(1.15)(1.10)/1.113 + $65.08/1.113 P0 = $55.70CH9 3，4，6，9，153.Project A has cash flows of $19,000 in Year 1, so the cash flows are short by $21,000 ofrecapturing the initial investment, so the payback for Project A is:Payback = 1 + ($21,000 / $25,000) = 1.84 yearsProject B has cash flows of:Cash flows = $14,000 + 17,000 + 24,000 = $55,000during this first three years. The cash flows are still short by $5,000 of recapturing the initial investment, so the payback for Project B is:B: Payback = 3 + ($5,000 / $270,000) = 3.019 yearsUsing the payback criterion and a cutoff of 3 years, accept project A and reject project B.4.When we use discounted payback, we need to find the value of all cash flows today. The valuetoday of the project cash flows for the first four years is:Value today of Year 1 cash flow = $4,200/1.14 = $3,684.21Value today of Year 2 cash flow = $5,300/1.142 = $4,078.18Value today of Year 3 cash flow = $6,100/1.143 = $4,117.33Value today of Year 4 cash flow = $7,400/1.144 = $4,381.39To find the discounted payback, we use these values to find the payback period. The discounted first year cash flow is $3,684.21, so the discounted payback for a $7,000 initial cost is:Discounted payback = 1 + ($7,000 – 3,684.21)/$4,078.18 = 1.81 yearsFor an initial cost of $10,000, the discounted payback is:Discounted payback = 2 + ($10,000 – 3,684.21 – 4,078.18)/$4,117.33 = 2.54 yearsNotice the calculation of discounted payback. We know the payback period is between two and three years, so we subtract the discounted values of the Year 1 and Year 2 cash flows from the initial cost. This is the numerator, which is the discounted amount we still need to make to recover our initial investment. We divide this amount by the discounted amount we will earn in Year 3 to get the fractional portion of the discounted payback.If the initial cost is $13,000, the discounted payback is:Discounted payback = 3 + ($13,000 – 3,684.21 – 4,078.18 – 4,117.33) / $4,381.39 = 3.26 years 6.Our definition of AAR is the average net income divided by the average book value. The averagenet income for this project is:Average net income = ($1,938,200 + 2,201,600 + 1,876,000 + 1,329,500) / 4 = $1,836,325And the average book value is:Average book value = ($15,000,000 + 0) / 2 = $7,500,000So, the AAR for this project is:AAR = Average net income / Average book value = $1,836,325 / $7,500,000 = .2448 or 24.48% 9.The NPV of a project is the PV of the outflows minus the PV of the inflows. Since the cashinflows are an annuity, the equation for the NPV of this project at an 8 percent required return is: NPV = –$138,000 + $28,500(PVIFA8%, 9) = $40,036.31At an 8 percent required return, the NPV is positive, so we would accept the project.The equation for the NPV of the project at a 20 percent required return is:NPV = –$138,000 + $28,500(PVIFA20%, 9) = –$23,117.45At a 20 percent required return, the NPV is negative, so we would reject the project.We would be indifferent to the project if the required return was equal to the IRR of the project, since at that required return the NPV is zero. The IRR of the project is:0 = –$138,000 + $28,500(PVIFA IRR, 9)IRR = 14.59%15.The profitability index is defined as the PV of the cash inflows divided by the PV of the cashoutflows. The equation for the profitability index at a required return of 10 percent is:PI = [$7,300/1.1 + $6,900/1.12 + $5,700/1.13] / $14,000 = 1.187The equation for the profitability index at a required return of 15 percent is:PI = [$7,300/1.15 + $6,900/1.152 + $5,700/1.153] / $14,000 = 1.094The equation for the profitability index at a required return of 22 percent is:PI = [$7,300/1.22 + $6,900/1.222 + $5,700/1.223] / $14,000 = 0.983We would accept the project if the required return were 10 percent or 15 percent since the PI is greater than one. We would reject the project if the required return were 22 percent since the PI is less than one.CH10 9，13，14，17，18ing the tax shield approach to calculating OCF (Remember the approach is irrelevant; the finalanswer will be the same no matter which of the four methods you use.), we get:OCF = (Sales – Costs)(1 – t C) + t C DepreciationOCF = ($2,650,000 – 840,000)(1 – 0.35) + 0.35($3,900,000/3)OCF = $1,631,50013.First we will calculate the annual depreciation of the new equipment. It will be:Annual depreciation = $560,000/5Annual depreciation = $112,000Now, we calculate the aftertax salvage value. The aftertax salvage value is the market price minus (or plus) the taxes on the sale of the equipment, so:Aftertax salvage value = MV + (BV – MV)t cVery often the book value of the equipment is zero as it is in this case. If the book value is zero, the equation for the aftertax salvage value becomes:Aftertax salvage value = MV + (0 – MV)t cAftertax salvage value = MV(1 – t c)We will use this equation to find the aftertax salvage value since we know the book value is zero.So, the aftertax salvage value is:Aftertax salvage value = $85,000(1 – 0.34)Aftertax salvage value = $56,100Using the tax shield approach, we find the OCF for the project is:OCF = $165,000(1 – 0.34) + 0.34($112,000)OCF = $146,980Now we can find the project NPV. Notice we include the NWC in the initial cash outlay. The recovery of the NWC occurs in Year 5, along with the aftertax salvage value.NPV = –$560,000 – 29,000 + $146,980(PVIFA10%,5) + [($56,100 + 29,000) / 1.105]NPV = $21,010.2414.First we will calculate the annual depreciation of the new equipment. It will be:Annual depreciation charge = $720,000/5Annual depreciation charge = $144,000The aftertax salvage value of the equipment is:Aftertax salvage value = $75,000(1 – 0.35)Aftertax salvage value = $48,750Using the tax shield approach, the OCF is:OCF = $260,000(1 – 0.35) + 0.35($144,000)OCF = $219,400Now we can find the project IRR. There is an unusual feature that is a part of this project.Accepting this project means that we will reduce NWC. This reduction in NWC is a cash inflow at Year 0. This reduction in NWC implies that when the project ends, we will have to increase NWC. So, at the end of the project, we will have a cash outflow to restore the NWC to its levelbefore the project. We also must include the aftertax salvage value at the end of the project. The IRR of the project is:NPV = 0 = –$720,000 + 110,000 + $219,400(PVIFA IRR%,5) + [($48,750 – 110,000) / (1+IRR)5] IRR = 21.65%17.We will need the aftertax salvage value of the equipment to compute the EAC. Even though theequipment for each product has a different initial cost, both have the same salvage value. The aftertax salvage value for both is:Both cases: aftertax salvage value = $40,000(1 – 0.35) = $26,000To calculate the EAC, we first need the OCF and NPV of each option. The OCF and NPV for Techron I is:OCF = –$67,000(1 – 0.35) + 0.35($290,000/3) = –9,716.67NPV = –$290,000 – $9,716.67(PVIFA10%,3) + ($26,000/1.103) = –$294,629.73EAC = –$294,629.73 / (PVIFA10%,3) = –$118,474.97And the OCF and NPV for Techron II is:OCF = –$35,000(1 – 0.35) + 0.35($510,000/5) = $12,950NPV = –$510,000 + $12,950(PVIFA10%,5) + ($26,000/1.105) = –$444,765.36EAC = –$444,765.36 / (PVIFA10%,5) = –$117,327.98The two milling machines have unequal lives, so they can only be compared by expressing both on an equivalent annual basis, which is what the EAC method does. Thus, you prefer the Techron II because it has the lower (less negative) annual cost.18.To find the bid price, we need to calculate all other cash flows for the project, and then solve forthe bid price. The aftertax salvage value of the equipment is:Aftertax salvage value = $70,000(1 – 0.35) = $45,500Now we can solve for the necessary OCF that will give the project a zero NPV. The equation for the NPV of the project is:NPV = 0 = –$940,000 – 75,000 + OCF(PVIFA12%,5) + [($75,000 + 45,500) / 1.125]Solving for the OCF, we find the OCF that makes the project NPV equal to zero is:OCF = $946,625.06 / PVIFA12%,5 = $262,603.01The easiest way to calculate the bid price is the tax shield approach, so:OCF = $262,603.01 = [(P – v)Q – FC ](1 – t c) + t c D$262,603.01 = [(P – $9.25)(185,000) – $305,000 ](1 – 0.35) + 0.35($940,000/5)P = $12.54CH14 6、9、20、23、246. The pretax cost of debt is the YTM of the company’s bonds, so:P0 = $1,070 = $35(PVIFA R%,30) + $1,000(PVIF R%,30)R = 3.137%YTM = 2 × 3.137% = 6.27%And the aftertax cost of debt is:R D = .0627(1 – .35) = .0408 or 4.08%9. ing the equation to calculate the WACC, we find:WACC = .60(.14) + .05(.06) + .35(.08)(1 – .35) = .1052 or 10.52%b.Since interest is tax deductible and dividends are not, we must look at the after-tax cost ofdebt, which is:.08(1 – .35) = .0520 or 5.20%Hence, on an after-tax basis, debt is cheaper than the preferred stock.ing the debt-equity ratio to calculate the WACC, we find:WACC = (.90/1.90)(.048) + (1/1.90)(.13) = .0912 or 9.12%Since the project is riskier than the company, we need to adjust the project discount rate for the additional risk. Using the subjective risk factor given, we find:Project discount rate = 9.12% + 2.00% = 11.12%We would accept the project if the NPV is positive. The NPV is the PV of the cash outflows plus the PV of the cash inflows. Since we have the costs, we just need to find the PV of inflows. The cash inflows are a growing perpetuity. If you remember, the equation for the PV of a growing perpetuity is the same as the dividend growth equation, so:PV of future CF = $2,700,000/(.1112 – .04) = $37,943,787The project should only be undertaken if its cost is less than $37,943,787 since costs less than this amount will result in a positive NPV.23. ing the dividend discount model, the cost of equity is:R E = [(0.80)(1.05)/$61] + .05R E = .0638 or 6.38%ing the CAPM, the cost of equity is:R E = .055 + 1.50(.1200 – .0550)R E = .1525 or 15.25%c.When using the dividend growth model or the CAPM, you must remember that both areestimates for the cost of equity. Additionally, and perhaps more importantly, each methodof estimating the cost of equity depends upon different assumptions.Challenge24.We can use the debt-equity ratio to calculate the weights of equity and debt. The debt of thecompany has a weight for long-term debt and a weight for accounts payable. We can use the weight given for accounts payable to calculate the weight of accounts payable and the weight of long-term debt. The weight of each will be:Accounts payable weight = .20/1.20 = .17Long-term debt weight = 1/1.20 = .83Since the accounts payable has the same cost as the overall WACC, we can write the equation for the WACC as:WACC = (1/1.7)(.14) + (0.7/1.7)[(.20/1.2)WACC + (1/1.2)(.08)(1 – .35)]Solving for WACC, we find:WACC = .0824 + .4118[(.20/1.2)WACC + .0433]WACC = .0824 + (.0686)WACC + .0178(.9314)WACC = .1002WACC = .1076 or 10.76%We will use basically the same equation to calculate the weighted average flotation cost, except we will use the flotation cost for each form of financing. Doing so, we get:Flotation costs = (1/1.7)(.08) + (0.7/1.7)[(.20/1.2)(0) + (1/1.2)(.04)] = .0608 or 6.08%The total amount we need to raise to fund the new equipment will be:Amount raised cost = $45,000,000/(1 – .0608)Amount raised = $47,912,317Since the cash flows go to perpetuity, we can calculate the present value using the equation for the PV of a perpetuity. The NPV is:NPV = –$47,912,317 + ($6,200,000/.1076)NPV = $9,719,777CH16 1，4，12，14，171. a. A table outlining the income statement for the three possible states of the economy isshown below. The EPS is the net income divided by the 5,000 shares outstanding. The lastrow shows the percentage change in EPS the company will experience in a recession or anexpansion economy.Recession Normal ExpansionEBIT $14,000 $28,000 $36,400Interest 0 0 0NI $14,000 $28,000 $36,400EPS $ 2.80 $ 5.60 $ 7.28%∆EPS –50 –––+30b.If the company undergoes the proposed recapitalization, it will repurchase:Share price = Equity / Shares outstandingShare price = $250,000/5,000Share price = $50Shares repurchased = Debt issued / Share priceShares repurchased =$90,000/$50Shares repurchased = 1,800The interest payment each year under all three scenarios will be:Interest payment = $90,000(.07) = $6,300The last row shows the percentage change in EPS the company will experience in arecession or an expansion economy under the proposed recapitalization.Recession Normal ExpansionEBIT $14,000 $28,000 $36,400Interest 6,300 6,300 6,300NI $7,700 $21,700 $30,100EPS $2.41 $ 6.78 $9.41%∆EPS –64.52 –––+38.714. a.Under Plan I, the unlevered company, net income is the same as EBIT with no corporate tax.The EPS under this capitalization will be:EPS = $350,000/160,000 sharesEPS = $2.19Under Plan II, the levered company, EBIT will be reduced by the interest payment. The interest payment is the amount of debt times the interest rate, so:NI = $500,000 – .08($2,800,000)NI = $126,000And the EPS will be:EPS = $126,000/80,000 sharesEPS = $1.58Plan I has the higher EPS when EBIT is $350,000.b.Under Plan I, the net income is $500,000 and the EPS is:EPS = $500,000/160,000 sharesEPS = $3.13Under Plan II, the net income is:NI = $500,000 – .08($2,800,000)NI = $276,000And the EPS is:EPS = $276,000/80,000 sharesEPS = $3.45Plan II has the higher EPS when EBIT is $500,000.c.To find the breakeven EBIT for two different capital structures, we simply set the equationsfor EPS equal to each other and solve for EBIT. The breakeven EBIT is:EBIT/160,000 = [EBIT – .08($2,800,000)]/80,000EBIT = $448,00012. a.With the information provided, we can use the equation for calculating WACC to find thecost of equity. The equation for WACC is:WACC = (E/V)R E + (D/V)R D(1 – t C)The company has a debt-equity ratio of 1.5, which implies the weight of debt is 1.5/2.5, and the weight of equity is 1/2.5, soWACC = .10 = (1/2.5)R E + (1.5/2.5)(.07)(1 – .35)R E = .1818 or 18.18%b.To find the unlevered cost of equity we need to use M&M Proposition II with taxes, so:R E = R U + (R U– R D)(D/E)(1 – t C).1818 = R U + (R U– .07)(1.5)(1 – .35)R U = .1266 or 12.66%c.To find the cost of equity under different capital structures, we can again use M&MProposition II with taxes. With a debt-equity ratio of 2, the cost of equity is:R E = R U + (R U– R D)(D/E)(1 – t C)R E = .1266 + (.1266 – .07)(2)(1 – .35)R E = .2001 or 20.01%With a debt-equity ratio of 1.0, the cost of equity is:R E = .1266 + (.1266 – .07)(1)(1 – .35)R E = .1634 or 16.34%And with a debt-equity ratio of 0, the cost of equity is:R E = .1266 + (.1266 – .07)(0)(1 – .35)R E = R U = .1266 or 12.66%14. a.The value of the unlevered firm is:V U = EBIT(1 – t C)/R UV U = $92,000(1 – .35)/.15V U = $398,666.67b.The value of the levered firm is:V U = V U + t C DV U = $398,666.67 + .35($60,000)V U = $419,666.6717.With no debt, we are finding the value of an unlevered firm, so:V U = EBIT(1 – t C)/R UV U = $14,000(1 – .35)/.16V U = $56,875With debt, we simply need to use the equation for the value of a levered firm. With 50 percent debt, one-half of the firm value is debt, so the value of the levered firm is:V L = V U + t C(D/V)V UV L = $56,875 + .35(.50)($56,875)V L = $66,828.13And with 100 percent debt, the value of the firm is:V L = V U + t C(D/V)V UV L = $56,875 + .35(1.0)($56,875)V L = $76,781.25c.The net cash flows is the present value of the average daily collections times the daily interest rate, minus the transaction cost per day, so:Net cash flow per day = $1,276,275(.0002) – $0.50(385)Net cash flow per day = $62.76The net cash flow per check is the net cash flow per day divided by the number of checks received per day, or:Net cash flow per check = $62.76/385Net cash flow per check = $0.16Alternatively, we could find the net cash flow per check as the number of days the system reduces collection time times the average check amount times the daily interest rate, minus the transaction cost per check. Doing so, we confirm our previous answer as:Net cash flow per check = 3($1,105)(.0002) – $0.50Net cash flow per check = $0.16 per checkThis makes the total costs:Total costs = $18,900,000 + 56,320,000 = $75,220,000The flotation costs as a percentage of the amount raised is the total cost divided by the amount raised, so:Flotation cost percentage = $75,220,000/$180,780,000 = .4161 or 41.61%8.The number of rights needed per new share is:Number of rights needed = 120,000 old shares/25,000 new shares = 4.8 rights per new share.Using P RO as the rights-on price, and P S as the subscription price, we can express the price per share of the stock ex-rights as:P X = [NP RO + P S]/(N + 1)a.P X = [4.8($94) + $94]/(4.80 + 1) = $94.00; No change.b. P X = [4.8($94) + $90]/(4.80 + 1) = $93.31; Price drops by $0.69 per share.c. P X = [4.8($94) + $85]/(4.80 + 1) = $92.45; Price drops by $1.55 per share.To get EBITD (earnings before interest, taxes, and depreciation), the numerator in the cash coverageratio, add depreciation to EBIT:EBITD = EBIT + Depreciation = $23,556.52 + 2,382 = $25,938.52Now, simply plug the numbers into the cash coverage ratio and calculate:。

罗斯《公司理财》（第9版）笔记和课后习题详解第1章公司理财导论1.1复习笔记公司的首要目标——股东财富最大化决定了公司理财的目标。

公司理财研究的是稀缺资金如何在企业和市场内进行有效配置，它是在股份有限公司已成为现代企业制度最主要组织形式的时代背景下，就公司经营过程中的资金运动进行预测、组织、协调、分析和控制的一种决策与管理活动。

从决策角度来讲，公司理财的决策内容包括投资决策、筹资决策、股利决策和净流动资金决策；从管理角度来讲，公司理财的管理职能主要是指对资金筹集和资金投放的管理。

公司理财的基本内容包括：投资决策（资本预算）、融资决策（资本结构）、短期财务管理（营运资本）。

1．资产负债表资产负债表是总括反映企业某一特定日期财务状况的会计报表，它是根据资产、负债和所有者权益之间的相互关系，按照一定的分类标准和一定的顺序，把企业一定日期的资产、负债和所有者权益各项目予以适当排列，并对日常工作中形成的大量数据进行高度浓缩整理后编制而成的。

资产负债表可以反映资本预算、资本支出、资本结构以及经营中的现金流量管理等方面的内容。

2．资本结构资本结构是指企业各种资本的构成及其比例关系，它有广义和狭义之分。

广义资本结构，亦称财务结构，指企业全部资本的构成，既包括长期资本，也包括短期资本（主要指短期债务资本）。

狭义资本结构，主要指企业长期资本的构成，而不包括短期资本。

通常人们将资本结构表示为债务资本与权益资本的比例关系（D/E）或债务资本在总资本的构成（D/A）。

准确地讲，企业的资本结构应定义为有偿负债与所有者权益的比例。

资本结构是由企业采用各种筹资方式筹集资本形成的。

筹资方式的选择及组合决定着企业资本结构及其变化。

资本结构是企业筹资决策的核心问题。

企业应综合考虑影响资本结构的因素，运用适当方法优化资本结构，从而实现最佳资本结构。

资本结构优化有利于降低资本成本，获取财务杠杆利益。

3．财务经理财务经理是公司管理团队中的重要成员，其主要职责是通过资本预算、融资和资产流动性管理为公司创造价值。