英文版罗斯公司理财习题答案Chap016
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Chapter 01 - Introduction to Corporate FinanceChapter 01 Introduction to Corporate Finance Answer KeyMultiple Choice Questions1. The person generally directly responsible for overseeing the tax management, cost accounting, financial accounting, and information system functions is the:A. treasurer.B. director.C. controller.D. chairman of the board.E. chief executive officer.Difficulty level: EasyTopic: CONTROLLERType: DEFINITIONS2. The person generally directly responsible for overseeing the cash and credit functions,financial planning, and capital expenditures is the:A. treasurer.B. director.C. controller.D. chairman of the board.E. chief operations officer.1-1Chapter 01 - Introduction to Corporate Finance3. The process of planning and managing a firm's long-term investments is called:A. working capital management.B. financial depreciation.C. agency cost analysis.D. capital budgeting.E. capital structure.Difficulty level: EasyTopic: CAPITAL BUDGETINGType: DEFINITIONS4. The mixture of debt and equity used by a firm to finance its operations is called:A. working capital management.B. financial depreciation.C. cost analysis.D. capital budgeting.E. capital structure.5. The management of a firm's short-term assets and liabilities is called:A. working capital management.B. debt management.C. equity management.D. capital budgeting.E. capital structure.1-2Chapter 01 - Introduction to Corporate Finance6. A business owned by a single individual is called a:A. corporation.B. sole proprietorship.C. general partnership.D. limited partnership.E. limited liability company.7. A business formed by two or more individuals who each have unlimited liability for businessdebts is called a:A. corporation.B. sole proprietorship.C. general partnership.D. limited partnership.E. limited liability company.8. The division of profits and losses among the members of a partnership is formalized in the:A. indemnity clause.B. indenture contract.C. statement of purpose.D. partnership agreement.E. group charter.9. A business created as a distinct legal entity composed of one or more individuals or entities iscalled a:A. corporation.B. sole proprietorship.C. general partnership.D. limited partnership.E. unlimited liability company.Difficulty level: EasyTopic: CORPORATIONType: DEFINITIONS1-3Chapter 01 - Introduction to Corporate Finance10. The corporate document that sets forth the business purpose of a firm is the:A. indenture contract.B. state tax agreement.C. corporate bylaws.D. debt charter.E. articles of incorporation.11. The rules by which corporations govern themselves are called:A. indenture provisions.B. indemnity provisions.C. charter agreements.D. bylaws.E. articles of incorporation.12. A business entity operated and taxed like a partnership, but with limited liability for theowners, is called a:A. limited liability company.B. general partnership.C. limited proprietorship.D. sole proprietorship.E. corporation.13. The primary goal of financial management is to:A. maximize current dividends per share of the existing stock.B. maximize the current value per share of the existing stock.C. avoid financial distress.D. minimize operational costs and maximize firm efficiency.E. maintain steady growth in both sales and net earnings.14. A conflict of interest between the stockholders and management of a firm is called:A. stockholders' liability.B. corporate breakdown.C. the agency problem.D. corporate activism.E. legal liability.1-4Chapter 01 - Introduction to Corporate Finance15. Agency costs refer to:A. the total dividends paid to stockholders over the lifetime of a firm.B. the costs that result from default and bankruptcy of a firm.C. corporate income subject to double taxation.D. the costs of any conflicts of interest between stockholders and management.E. the total interest paid to creditors over the lifetime of the firm.16. A stakeholder is:A. any person or entity that owns shares of stock of a corporation.B. any person or entity that has voting rights based on stock ownership of a corporation.C. a person who initially started a firm and currently has management control over the cashflows of the firm due to his/her current ownership of company stock.D. a creditor to whom the firm currently owes money and who consequently has a claim on thecash flows of the firm.E. any person or entity other than a stockholder or creditor who potentially has a claim on thecash flows of the firm.17. The Sarbanes Oxley Act of 2002 is intended to:A. protect financial managers from investors.B. not have any effect on foreign companies.C. reduce corporate revenues.D. protect investors from corporate abuses.E. decrease audit costs for U.S. firms.18. The treasurer and the controller of a corporation generally report to the:A. board of directors.B. chairman of the board.C. chief executive officer.D. president.E. chief financial officer.19. Which one of the following statements is correct concerning the organizational structure ofa corporation?A. The vice president of finance reports to the chairman of the board.B. The chief executive officer reports to the board of directors.C. The controller reports to the president.D. The treasurer reports to the chief executive officer.E. The chief operations officer reports to the vice president of production.Difficulty level: MediumTopic: ORGANIZATIONAL STRUCTUREType: CONCEPTS1-5Chapter 01 - Introduction to Corporate Finance20. Which one of the following is a capital budgeting decision?A. determining how much debt should be borrowed from a particular lenderB. deciding whether or not to open a new storeC. deciding when to repay a long-term debtD. determining how much inventory to keep on handE. determining how much money should be kept in the checking account21. The Sarbanes Oxley Act was enacted in:A. 1952.B. 1967.C. 1998.D. 2002.E. 2006.22. Since the implementation of Sarbanes-Oxley, the cost of going public in the United Stateshas:A. increased.B. decreased.C. remained about the same.D. been erratic, but over time has decreased.E. It is impossible to tell since Sarbanes-Oxley compliance does not involve direct cost to thefirm.23. Working capital management includes decisions concerning which of the following?I. accounts payableII. long-term debtIII. accounts receivableIV. inventoryA. I and II onlyB. I and III onlyC. II and IV onlyD. I, II, and III onlyE. I, III, and IV onlyDifficulty level: MediumTopic: WORKING CAPITAL MANAGEMENTType: CONCEPTS1-6Chapter 01 - Introduction to Corporate Finance24. Working capital management:A. ensures that sufficient equipment is available to produce the amount of product desired on adaily basis.B. ensures that long-term debt is acquired at the lowest possible cost.C. ensures that dividends are paid to all stockholders on an annual basis.D. balances the amount of company debt to the amount of available equity.E. is concerned with the upper portion of the balance sheet.Difficulty level: EasyTopic: WORKING CAPITAL MANAGEMENTType: CONCEPTS25. Which one of the following statements concerning a sole proprietorship is correct?A. A sole proprietorship is the least common form of business ownership.B. The profits of a sole proprietorship are taxed twice.C. The owners of a sole proprietorship share profits as established by the partnership agreement.D. The owner of a sole proprietorship may be forced to sell his/her personal assets to paycompany debts.E. A sole proprietorship is often structured as a limited liability company.Difficulty level: EasyTopic: SOLE PROPRIETORSHIPType: CONCEPTS26. Which one of the following statements concerning a sole proprietorship is correct?A. The life of the firm is limited to the life span of the owner.B. The owner can generally raise large sums of capital quite easily.C. The ownership of the firm is easy to transfer to another individual.D. The company must pay separate taxes from those paid by the owner.E. The legal costs to form a sole proprietorship are quite substantial.Difficulty level: EasyTopic: SOLE PROPRIETORSHIPType: CONCEPTS1-7Chapter 01 - Introduction to Corporate Finance27. Which one of the following best describes the primary advantage of being a limited partnerrather than a general partner?A. entitlement to a larger portion of the partnership's incomeB. ability to manage the day-to-day affairs of the businessC. no potential financial lossD. greater management responsibilityE. liability for firm debts limited to the capital investedDifficulty level: EasyTopic: PARTNERSHIPType: CONCEPTS28. A general partner:A. has less legal liability than a limited partner.B. has more management responsibility than a limited partner.C. faces double taxation whereas a limited partner does not.D. cannot lose more than the amount of his/her equity investment.E. is the term applied only to corporations which invest in partnerships.Difficulty level: EasyTopic: PARTNERSHIPType: CONCEPTS29. A partnership:A. is taxed the same as a corporation.B. agreement defines whether the business income will be taxed like a partnership or acorporation.C. terminates at the death of any general partner.D. has less of an ability to raise capital than a proprietorship.E. allows for easy transfer of interest from one general partner to another.Difficulty level: EasyTopic: PARTNERSHIPType: CONCEPTS1-8Chapter 01 - Introduction to Corporate Finance30. Which of the following are disadvantages of a partnership?I. limited life of the firmII. personal liability for firm debtIII. greater ability to raise capital than a sole proprietorshipIV. lack of ability to transfer partnership interestA. I and II onlyB. III and IV onlyC. II and III onlyD. I, II, and IV onlyE. I, III, and IV onlyDifficulty level: MediumTopic: PARTNERSHIPType: CONCEPTS31. Which of the following are advantages of the corporate form of business ownership?I. limited liability for firm debtII. double taxationIII. ability to raise capitalIV. unlimited firm lifeA. I and II onlyB. III and IV onlyC. I, II, and III onlyD. II, III, and IV onlyE. I, III, and IV onlyDifficulty level: MediumTopic: CORPORATIONType: CONCEPTS32. Which one of the following statements is correct concerning corporations?A. The largest firms are usually corporations.B. The majority of firms are corporations.C. The stockholders are usually the managers of a corporation.D. The ability of a corporation to raise capital is quite limited.E. The income of a corporation is taxed as personal income of the stockholders.Difficulty level: EasyTopic: CORPORATIONType: CONCEPTS1-9Chapter 01 - Introduction to Corporate Finance33. Which one of the following statements is correct?A. Both partnerships and corporations incur double taxation.B. Both sole proprietorships and partnerships are taxed in a similar fashion.C. Partnerships are the most complicated type of business to form.D. Both partnerships and corporations have limited liability for general partners and shareholders.E. All types of business formations have limited lives.Difficulty level: MediumTopic: BUSINESS TYPESType: CONCEPTS34. The articles of incorporation:A. can be used to remove company management.B. are amended annually by the company stockholders.C. set forth the number of shares of stock that can be issued.D. set forth the rules by which the corporation regulates its existence.E. can set forth the conditions under which the firm can avoid double taxation.35. The bylaws:A. establish the name of the corporation.B. are rules which apply only to limited liability companies.C. set forth the purpose of the firm.D. mandate the procedure for electing corporate directors.E. set forth the procedure by which the stockholders elect the senior managers of the firm.36. The owners of a limited liability company prefer:A. being taxed like a corporation.B. having liability exposure similar to that of a sole proprietor.C. being taxed personally on all business income.D. having liability exposure similar to that of a general partner.E. being taxed like a corporation with liability like a partnership.Difficulty level: MediumTopic: LIMITED LIABILITY COMPANYType: CONCEPTS1-10Chapter 01 - Introduction to Corporate Finance37. Which one of the following business types is best suited to raising large amounts ofcapital?A. sole proprietorshipB. limited liability companyC. corporationD. general partnershipE. limited partnershipDifficulty level: EasyTopic: CORPORATIONType: CONCEPTS38. Which type of business organization has all the respective rights and privileges ofa legalperson?A. sole proprietorshipB. general partnershipC. limited partnershipD. corporationE. limited liability companyDifficulty level: EasyTopic: CORPORATIONType: CONCEPTS39. Financial managers should strive to maximize the current value per share of the existingstock because:A. doing so guarantees the company will grow in size at the maximum possible rate.B. doing so increases the salaries of all the employees.C. the current stockholders are the owners of the corporation.D. doing so means the firm is growing in size faster than its competitors.E. the managers often receive shares of stock as part of their compensation.Difficulty level: EasyTopic: GOAL OF FINANC IAL MANAGEMENTType: CONCEPTS1-11Chapter 01 - Introduction to Corporate Finance40. The decisions made by financial managers should all be ones which increase the:A. size of the firm.B. growth rate of the firm.C. marketability of the managers.D. market value of the existing owners' equity.E. financial distress of the firm.Difficulty level: EasyTopic: GOAL OF FINANCIAL MANAGEMENTType: CONCEPTS41. Which one of the following actions by a financial manager creates an agency problem?A. refusing to borrow money when doing so will create losses for the firmB. refusing to lower selling prices if doing so will reduce the net profitsC. agreeing to expand the company at the expense of stockholders' valueD. agreeing to pay bonuses based on the book value of the company stockE. increasing current costs in order to increase the market value of the stockholders' equity42. Which of the following help convince managers to work in the best interest of the stockholders?I. compensation based on the value of the stockII. stock option plansIII. threat of a proxy fightIV. threat of conversion to a partnershipA. I and II onlyB. II and III onlyC. I, II and III onlyD. I and III onlyE. I, II, III, and IVDifficulty level: MediumTopic: AGENCY PROBLEMType: CONCEPTS1-12Chapter 01 - Introduction to Corporate Finance43. Which form of business structure faces the greatest agency problems?A. sole proprietorshipB. general partnershipC. limited partnershipD. corporationE. limited liability company44. A proxy fight occurs when:A. the board solicits renewal of current members.B. a group solicits proxies to replace the board of directors.C. a competitor offers to sell their ownership in the firm.D. the firm files for bankruptcy.E. the firm is declared insolvent.45. Which one of the following parties is considered a stakeholder of a firm?A. employeeB. short-term creditorC. long-term creditorD. preferred stockholderE. common stockholderDifficulty level: EasyTopic: STAKEHOLDERSType: CONCEPTS46. Which of the following are key requirements of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act?I. Officers of the corporation must review and sign annual reports.II. Officers of the corporation must now own more than 5% of the firm's stock. III. Annual reports must list deficiencies in internal controlsIV. Annual reports must be filed with the SEC within 30 days of year end.A. I onlyB. II onlyC. I and III onlyD. II and III onlyE. II and IV onlyDifficulty level: MediumTopic: SARBANES-OXLEYType: CONCEPTS1-13Chapter 01 - Introduction to Corporate Finance47. Insider trading is:A. legal.B. illegal.C. impossible to have in our efficient market.D. discouraged, but legal.E. list only the securities of the largest firms.48. Sole proprietorships are predominantly started because:A. they are easily and cheaply setup.B. the proprietorship life is limited to the business owner's life.C. all business taxes are paid as individual tax.D. All of the above.E. None of the above.Difficulty level: EasyTopic: SOLE PROPRIETORSHIPSType: CONCEPTS49. Managers are encouraged to act in shareholders' interests by:A. shareholder election of a board of directors who select management.B. the threat of a takeover by another firm.C. compensation contracts that tie compensation to corporate success.D. Both A and B.E. All of the above.Difficulty level: MediumTopic: GOVERNANCEType: CONCEPTS50. The Securities Exchange Act of 1934 focuses on:A. all stock transactions.B. sales of existing securities.C. issuance of new securities.D. insider trading.E. Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC) insurance.Difficulty level: MediumTopic: REGULATIONType: CONCEPTS1-14Chapter 01 - Introduction to Corporate Finance51. The basic regulatory framework in the United States was provided by:A. the Securities Act of 1933.B. the Securities Exchange Act of 1934.C. the monetary system.D. A and B.E. All of the above.Difficulty level: MediumTopic: REGULATIONType: CONCEPTS52. The Securities Act of 1933 focuses on:A. all stock transactions.B. sales of existing securities.C. issuance of new securities.D. insider trading.E. Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC) insurance.Difficulty level: EasyTopic: REGULATIONType: CONCEPTS53. In a limited partnership:A. each limited partner's liability is limited to his net worth.B. each limited partner's liability is limited to the amount he put into the partnership.C. each limited partner's liability is limited to his annual salary.D. there is no limitation on liability; only a limitation on what the partner can earn.E. None of the above.Difficulty level: EasyTopic: LIMITED PARTNERSHIPType: CONCEPTS1-15Chapter 01 - Introduction to Corporate Finance54. Accounting profits and cash flows are:A. generally the same since they reflect current laws and accounting standards.B. generally the same since accounting profits reflect when the cash flows are received.C. generally not the same since GAAP allows for revenue recognition separate from the receiptof cash flows.D. generally not the same because cash inflows occur before revenue recognition.E. Both c and d.1-16。
CHAPTER 8MAKING CAPITAL INVESTMENT DECISIONSAnswers to Concepts Review and Critical Thinking Questions1.In this context, an opportunity cost refers to the value of an asset or other input that will be used in aproject. The relevant cost is what the asset or input is actually worth today, not, for example, what it cost to acquire.2. a.Yes, the reduction in the sales of the company’s other products, referred to as erosion, andshould be treated as an incremental cash flow. These lost sales are included because they are a cost (a revenue reduction) that the firm must bear if it chooses to produce the new product.b. Yes, expenditures on plant and equipment should be treated as incremental cash flows. Theseare costs of the new product line. However, if these expenditures have already occurred, they are sunk costs and are not included as incremental cash flows.c. No, the research and development costs should not be treated as incremental cash flows. Thecosts of research and development undertaken on the product during the past 3 years are sunk costs and should not be included in the evaluation of the project. Decisions made and costs incurred in the past cannot be changed. They should not affect the decision to accept or reject the project.d. Yes, the annual depreciation expense should be treated as an incremental cash flow.Depreciation expense must be taken into account when calculating the cash flows related to a given project. While depreciation is not a cash expense that directly affects cash flow, it decreases a firm’s net income and hence, lowers its tax bill for the year. Because of this depreciation tax shield, the firm has more cash on hand at the end of the year than it would have had without expensing depreciation.e.No, dividend payments should not be treated as incremental cash flows. A firm’s decision topay or not pay dividends is independent of the decision to accept or reject any given investment project. For this reason, it is not an incremental cash flow to a given project. Dividend policy is discussed in more detail in later chapters.f.Yes, the resale value of plant and equipment at the end of a project’s life should be treated as anincremental cash flow. The price at which the firm sells the equipment is a cash inflow, and any difference between the book value of the equipment and its sale price will create gains or lossesthat result in either a tax credit or liability.g.Yes, salary and medical costs for production employees hired for a project should be treated asincremental cash flows. The salaries of all personnel connected to the project must be included as costs of that project.3.Item I is a relevant cost because the opportunity to sell the land is lost if the new golf club is produced. Item II is also relevant because the firm must take into account the erosion of sales of existing products when a new product is introduced. If the firm produces the new club, the earnings from the existing clubs will decrease, effectively creating a cost that must be included in the decision.Item III is not relevant because the costs of Research and Development are sunk costs. Decisions made in the past cannot be changed. They are not relevant to the production of the new clubs.4.For tax purposes, a firm would choose MACRS because it provides for larger depreciationdeductions earlier. These larger deductions reduce taxes, but have no other cash consequences.Notice that the choice between MACRS and straight-line is purely a time value issue; the total depreciation is the same; only the timing differs.5.It’s probably only a mild over-simplification. Current liabilities will all be paid, presumably. Thecash portion of current assets will be retrieved. Some receivables won’t be collected, and some inventory will not be sold, of course. Counterbalancing these losses is the fact that inventory sold above cost (and not replaced at the end of the project’s life) acts to increase working capital. These effects tend to offset one another.6.Management’s discretion to set the firm’s capital structure is applicable at the firm level. Since anyone particular project could be financed entirely with equity, another project could be financed with debt, and the firm’s overall capital structure remains unchanged, financing cost s are not relevant in the analysis of a project’s incremental cash flows according to the stand-alone principle.7.The EAC approach is appropriate when comparing mutually exclusive projects with different livesthat will be replaced when they wear out. This type of analysis is necessary so that the projects havea common life span over which they can be compared; in effect, each project is assumed to existover an infinite horizon of N-year repeating projects. Assuming that this type of analysis is valid implies that the project cash flows remain the same forever, thus ignoring the possible effects of, among other things: (1) inflation, (2) changing economic conditions, (3) the increasing unreliability of cash flow estimates that occur far into the future, and (4) the possible effects of future technology improvement that could alter the project cash flows.8.Depreciation is a non-cash expense, but it is tax-deductible on the income statement. Thusdepreciation causes taxes paid, an actual cash outflow, to be reduced by an amount equal to the depreciation tax shield, t c D. A reduction in taxes that would otherwise be paid is the same thing as a cash inflow, so the effects of the depreciation tax shield must be added in to get the total incremental aftertax cash flows.9.There are two particularly important considerations. The first is erosion. Will the “essentialized”book simply displace copies of the existing book that would have otherwise been sold? This is of special concern given the lower price. The second consideration is competition. Will other publishers step in and produce such a product? If so, then any erosion is much less relevant. A particular concern to book publishers (and producers of a variety of other product types) is that the publisher only makes money from the sale of new books. Thus, it is important to examine whether the new book would displace sales of used books (good from the publisher’s perspective) or new books (not good). The concern arises any time there is an active market for used product.10.Definitely. The damage to Porsche’s reputation is definitely a factor the company needed to consider.If the reputation was damaged, the company would have lost sales of its existing car lines.11.One company may be able to produce at lower incremental cost or market better. Also, of course,one of the two may have made a mistake!12.Porsche would recognize that the outsized profits would dwindle as more products come to marketand competition becomes more intense.Solutions to Questions and ProblemsNOTE: All end-of-chapter problems were solved using a spreadsheet. Many problems require multiple steps. Due to space and readability constraints, when these intermediate steps are included in this solutions manual, rounding may appear to have occurred. However, the final answer for each problem is found without rounding during any step in the problem.Basicing the tax shield approach to calculating OCF, we get:OCF = (Sales – Costs)(1 – t C) + t C DepreciationOCF = [($5 × 2,000 – ($2 × 2,000)](1 – 0.35) + 0.35($10,000/5)OCF = $4,600So, the NPV of the project is:NPV = –$10,000 + $4,600(PVIFA17%,5)NPV = $4,7172.We will use the bottom-up approach to calculate the operating cash flow for each year. We also mustbe sure to include the net working capital cash flows each year. So, the total cash flow each year will be:Year 1 Year 2 Year 3 Year 4 Sales Rs.7,000 Rs.7,000 Rs.7,000 Rs.7,000Costs 2,000 2,000 2,000 2,000Depreciation 2,500 2,500 2,500 2,500EBT Rs.2,500 Rs.2,500 Rs.2,500 Rs.2,500Tax 850 850 850 850Net income Rs.1,650 Rs.1,650 Rs.1,650 Rs.1,650OCF 0 Rs.4,150 Rs.4,150 Rs.4,150 Rs.4,150Capital spending –Rs.10,000 0 0 0 0NWC –200 –250 –300 –200 950Incremental cashflow –Rs.10,200 Rs.3,900 Rs.3,850 Rs.3,950 Rs.5,100The NPV for the project is:NPV = –Rs.10,200 + Rs.3,900 / 1.10 + Rs.3,850 / 1.102 + Rs.3,950 / 1.103 + Rs.5,100 / 1.104NPV = Rs.2,978.333. Using the tax shield approach to calculating OCF, we get:OCF = (Sales – Costs)(1 – t C) + t C DepreciationOCF = (R2,400,000 – 960,000)(1 – 0.30) + 0.30(R2,700,000/3)OCF = R1,278,000So, the NPV of the project is:NPV = –R2,700,000 + R1,278,000(PVIFA15%,3)NPV = R217,961.704.The cash outflow at the beginning of the project will increase because of the spending on NWC. Atthe end of the project, the company will recover the NWC, so it will be a cash inflow. The sale of the equipment will result in a cash inflow, but we also must account for the taxes which will be paid on this sale. So, the cash flows for each year of the project will be:Year Cash Flow0 – R3,000,000 = –R2.7M – 300K1 1,278,0002 1,278,0003 1,725,000 = R1,278,000 + 300,000 + 210,000 + (0 – 210,000)(.30)And the NPV of the project is:NPV = –R3,000,000 + R1,278,000(PVIFA15%,2) + (R1,725,000 / 1.153)NPV = R211,871.465. First we will calculate the annual depreciation for the equipment necessary for the project. Thedepreciation amount each year will be:Year 1 depreciation = R2.7M(0.3330) = R899,100Year 2 depreciation = R2.7M(0.4440) = R1,198,800Year 3 depreciation = R2.7M(0.1480) = R399,600So, the book value of the equipment at the end of three years, which will be the initial investment minus the accumulated depreciation, is:Book value in 3 years = R2.7M – (R899,100 + 1,198,800 + 399,600)Book value in 3 years = R202,500The asset is sold at a gain to book value, so this gain is taxable.Aftertax salvage value = R202,500 + (R202,500 – 210,000)(0.30)Aftertax salvage value = R207,750To calculate the OCF, we will use the tax shield approach, so the cash flow each year is:OCF = (Sales – Costs)(1 – t C) + t C DepreciationYear Cash Flow0 – R3,000,000 = –R2.7M – 300K1 1,277,730.00 = (R1,440,000)(.70) + 0.30(R899,100)2 1,367,640.00 = (R1,440,000)(.70) + 0.30(R1,198,800)3 1,635,630.00 = (R1,440,000)(.70) + 0.30(R399,600) + R207,750 + 300,000Remember to include the NWC cost in Year 0, and the recovery of the NWC at the end of the project.The NPV of the project with these assumptions is:NPV = – R3.0M + (R1,277,730/1.15) + (R1,367,640/1.152) + (R1,635,630/1.153)NPV = R220,655.206. First, we will calculate the annual depreciation of the new equipment. It will be:Annual depreciation charge = €925,000/5Annual depreciation charge = €185,000The aftertax salvage value of the equipment is:Aftertax salvage value = €90,000(1 – 0.35)Aftertax salvage value = €58,500Using the tax shield approach, the OCF is:OCF = €360,000(1 – 0.35) + 0.35(€185,000)OCF = €298,750Now we can find the project IRR. There is an unusual feature that is a part of this project. Accepting this project means that we will reduce NWC. This reduction in NWC is a cash inflow at Year 0. This reduction in NWC implies that when the project ends, we will have to increase NWC. So, at the end of the project, we will have a cash outflow to restore the NWC to its level before the project. We also must include the aftertax salvage value at the end of the project. The IRR of the project is:NPV = 0 = –€925,000 + 125,000 + €298,750(PVIFA IRR%,5) + [(€58,500 – 125,000) / (1+IRR)5]IRR = 23.85%7.First, we will calculate the annual depreciation of the new equipment. It will be:Annual depreciation = £390,000/5Annual depreciation = £78,000Now, we calculate the aftertax salvage value. The aftertax salvage value is the market price minus (or plus) the taxes on the sale of the equipment, so:Aftertax salvage value = MV + (BV – MV)t cVery often, the book value of the equipment is zero as it is in this case. If the book value is zero, the equation for the aftertax salvage value becomes:Aftertax salvage value = MV + (0 – MV)t cAftertax salvage value = MV(1 – t c)We will use this equation to find the aftertax salvage value since we know the book value is zero. So, the aftertax salvage value is:Aftertax salvage value = £60,000(1 – 0.34)Aftertax salvage value = £39,600Using the tax shield approach, we find the OCF for the project is:OCF = £120,000(1 – 0.34) + 0.34(£78,000)OCF = £105,720Now we can find the project NPV. Notice that we include the NWC in the initial cash outlay. The recovery of the NWC occurs in Year 5, along with the aftertax salvage value.NPV = –£390,000 – 28,000 + £105,720(PVIFA10%,5) + [(£39,600 + 28,000) / 1.15]NPV = £24,736.268.To find the BV at the end of four years, we need to find the accumulated depreciation for the firstfour years. We could calculate a table with the depreciation each year, but an easier way is to add the MACRS depreciation amounts for each of the first four years and multiply this percentage times the cost of the asset. We can then subtract this from the asset cost. Doing so, we get:BV4 = $9,300,000 – 9,300,000(0.2000 + 0.3200 + 0.1920 + 0.1150)BV4 = $1,608,900The asset is sold at a gain to book value, so this gain is taxable.Aftertax salvage value = $2,100,000 + ($1,608,900 – 2,100,000)(.40)Aftertax salvage value = $1,903,5609. We will begin by calculating the initial cash outlay, that is, the cash flow at Time 0. To undertake theproject, we will have to purchase the equipment and increase net working capital. So, the cash outlay today for the project will be:Equipment –€2,000,000NWC –100,000Total –€2,100,000Using the bottom-up approach to calculating the operating cash flow, we find the operating cash flow each year will be:Sales €1,200,000Costs 300,000Depreciation 500,000EBT €400,000Tax 140,000Net income €260,000The operating cash flow is:OCF = Net income + DepreciationOCF = €260,000 + 500,000OCF = €760,000To find the NPV of the project, we add the present value of the project cash flows. We must be sure to add back the net working capital at the end of the project life, since we are assuming the net working capital will be recovered. So, the project NPV is:NPV = –€2,100,000 + €760,000(PVIFA14%,4) + €100,000 / 1.144NPV = €173,629.3810.We will need the aftertax salvage value of the equipment to compute the EAC. Even though theequipment for each product has a different initial cost, both have the same salvage value. The aftertax salvage value for both is:Both cases: aftertax salvage value = $20,000(1 – 0.35) = $13,000To calculate the EAC, we first need the OCF and NPV of each option. The OCF and NPV for Techron I is:OCF = – $34,000(1 – 0.35) + 0.35($210,000/3) = $2,400NPV = –$210,000 + $2,400(PVIFA14%,3) + ($13,000/1.143) = –$195,653.45EAC = –$195,653.45 / (PVIFA14%,3) = –$84,274.10And the OCF and NPV for Techron II is:OCF = – $23,000(1 – 0.35) + 0.35($320,000/5) = $7,450NPV = –$320,000 + $7,450(PVIFA14%,5) + ($13,000/1.145) = –$287,671.75EAC = –$287,671.75 / (PVIFA14%,5) = –$83,794.05The two milling machines have unequal lives, so they can only be compared by expressing both on an equivalent annual basis, which is what the EAC method does. Thus, you prefer the Techron II because it has the lower (less negative) annual cost.。
Chapter 2: Accounting Statements and Cash Flow2.10AssetsCurrent assetsCash $ 4,000Accounts receivable 8,000Total current assets $ 12,000Fixed assetsMachinery $ 34,000Patents 82,000Total fixed assets $116,000Total assets $128,000Liabilities and equityCurrent liabilitiesAccounts payable $ 6,000Taxes payable 2,000Total current liabilities $ 8,000Long-term liabilitiesBonds payable $7,000Stockholders equityCommon stock ($100 par) $ 88,000Capital surplus 19,000Retained earnings 6,000Total stockholders equity $113,000Total liabilities and equity $128,0002.11One year ago TodayLong-term debt $50,000,000 $50,000,000Preferred stock 30,000,000 30,000,000Common stock 100,000,000 110,000,000Retained earnings 20,000,000 22,000,000Total $200,000,000 $212,000,0002.12Total Cash Flow ofthe Stancil CompanyCash flows from the firmCapital spending $(1,000)Additions to working capital (4,000)Total $(5,000)Cash flows to investors of the firmShort-term debt $(6,000)Long-term debt (20,000)Equity (Dividend - Financing) 21,000Total $(5,000)[Note: This table isn’t the Statement of Cash Flows, which is only covered in Appendix 2B, since the latter has th e change in cash (on the balance sheet) as a final entry.]2.13 a. The changes in net working capital can be computed from:Sources of net working capitalNet income $100Depreciation 50Increases in long-term debt 75Total sources $225Uses of net working capitalDividends $50Increases in fixed assets* 150Total uses $200Additions to net working capital $25*Includes $50 of depreciation.b.Cash flow from the firmOperating cash flow $150Capital spending (150)Additions to net working capital (25)Total $(25)Cash flow to the investorsDebt $(75)Equity 50Total $(25)Chapter 3: Financial Markets and Net Present Value: First Principles of Finance (Advanced)3.14 $120,000 - ($150,000 - $100,000) (1.1) = $65,0003.15 $40,000 + ($50,000 - $20,000) (1.12) = $73,6003.16 a. ($7 million + $3 million) (1.10) = $11.0 millionb.i. They could spend $10 million by borrowing $5 million today.ii. They will have to spend $5.5 million [= $11 million - ($5 million x 1.1)] at t=1.Chapter 4: Net Present Valuea. $1,000 ⨯ 1.0510 = $1,628.89b. $1,000 ⨯ 1.0710 = $1,967.15c. $1,000 ⨯ 1.0520 = $2,653.30d. Interest compounds on the interest already earned. Therefore, the interest earned inSince this bond has no interim coupon payments, its present value is simply the present value of the $1,000 that will be received in 25 years. Note: As will be discussed in the next chapter, the present value of the payments associated with a bond is the price of that bond.PV = $1,000 /1.125 = $92.30PV = $1,500,000 / 1.0827 = $187,780.23a. At a discount rate of zero, the future value and present value are always the same. Remember, FV =PV (1 + r) t. If r = 0, then the formula reduces to FV = PV. Therefore, the values of the options are $10,000 and $20,000, respectively. You should choose the second option.b. Option one: $10,000 / 1.1 = $9,090.91Option two: $20,000 / 1.15 = $12,418.43Choose the second option.c. Option one: $10,000 / 1.2 = $8,333.33Option two: $20,000 / 1.25 = $8,037.55Choose the first option.d. You are indifferent at the rate that equates the PVs of the two alternatives. You know that rate mustfall between 10% and 20% because the option you would choose differs at these rates. Let r be thediscount rate that makes you indifferent between the options.$10,000 / (1 + r) = $20,000 / (1 + r)5(1 + r)4 = $20,000 / $10,000 = 21 + r = 1.18921r = 0.18921 = 18.921%The $1,000 that you place in the account at the end of the first year will earn interest for six years. The $1,000 that you place in the account at the end of the second year will earn interest for five years, etc. Thus, the account will have a balance of$1,000 (1.12)6 + $1,000 (1.12)5 + $1,000 (1.12)4 + $1,000 (1.12)3= $6,714.61PV = $5,000,000 / 1.1210 = $1,609,866.18a. $1.000 (1.08)3 = $1,259.71b. $1,000 [1 + (0.08 / 2)]2 ⨯ 3 = $1,000 (1.04)6 = $1,265.32c. $1,000 [1 + (0.08 / 12)]12 ⨯ 3 = $1,000 (1.00667)36 = $1,270.24d. $1,000 e0.08 ⨯ 3 = $1,271.25e. The future value increases because of the compounding. The account is earning interest on interest. Essentially, the interest is added to the account balance at the e nd of every compounding period. During the next period, the account earns interest on the new balance. When the compounding period shortens, the balance that earns interest is rising faster.The price of the consol bond is the present value of the coupon payments. Apply the perpetuity formula to find the present value. PV = $120 / 0.15 = $800a. $1,000 / 0.1 = $10,000b. $500 / 0.1 = $5,000 is the value one year from now of the perpetual stream. Thus, the value of theperpetuity is $5,000 / 1.1 = $4,545.45.c. $2,420 / 0.1 = $24,200 is the value two years from now of the perpetual stream. Thus, the value of the perpetuity is $24,200 / 1.12 = $20,000.pply the NPV technique. Since the inflows are an annuity you can use the present value of an annuity factor.ANPV = -$6,200 + $1,200 81.0= -$6,200 + $1,200 (5.3349)= $201.88Yes, you should buy the asset.Use an annuity factor to compute the value two years from today of the twenty payments. Remember, the annuity formula gives you the value of the stream one year before the first payment. Hence, the annuity factor will give you the value at the end of year two of the stream of payments.A= $2,000 (9.8181)Value at the end of year two = $2,000 20.008= $19,636.20The present value is simply that amount discounted back two years.PV = $19,636.20 / 1.082 = $16,834.88The easiest way to do this problem is to use the annuity factor. The annuity factor must be equal to $12,800 / $2,000 = 6.4; remember PV =C A T r. The annuity factors are in the appendix to the text. To use the factor table to solve this problem, scan across the row labeled 10 years until you find 6.4. It is close to the factor for 9%, 6.4177. Thus, the rate you will receive on this note is slightly more than 9%.You can find a more precise answer by interpolating between nine and ten percent.[ 10% ⎤[6.1446 ⎤a ⎡r ⎥bc ⎡6.4 ⎪ d⎣9%⎦⎣6.4177 ⎦By interpolating, you are presuming that the ratio of a to b is equal to the ratio of c to d.(9 - r ) / (9 - 10) = (6.4177 - 6.4 ) / (6.4177 - 6.1446)r = 9.0648%The exact value could be obtained by solving the annuity formula for the interest rate. Sophisticated calculators can compute the rate directly as 9.0626%.[Note: A standard financial calculator’s TVM keys can solve for this rate. With annuity flows, the IRR key on “advanced” financial c alculators is unnecessary.]a. The annuity amount can be computed by first calculating the PV of the $25,000 which youThat amount is $17,824.65 [= $25,000 / 1.075]. Next compute the annuity which has the same present value.A$17,824.65 = C 507.0$17,824.65 = C (4.1002)C = $4,347.26Thus, putting $4,347.26 into the 7% account each year will provide $25,000 five years from today.b. The lump sum payment must be the present value of the $25,000, i.e., $25,000 / 1.075 =$17,824.65The formula for future value of any annuity can be used to solve the problem (see footnote 11 of the text).Option one: This cash flow is an annuity due. To value it, you must use the after-tax amounts. Theafter-tax payment is $160,000 (1 - 0.28) = $115,200. Value all except the first payment using the standard annuity formula, then add back the first payment of $115,200 to obtain the value of this option.AValue = $115,200 + $115,200 30.010= $115,200 + $115,200 (9.4269)= $1,201,178.88Option two: This option is valued similarly. You are able to have $446,000 now; this is already on an after-tax basis. You will receive an annuity of $101,055 for each of the next thirty years. Those payments are taxable when you receive them, so your after-tax payment is $72,759.60 [= $101,055 (1 - 0.28)].AValue = $446,000 + $72,759.60 30.010= $446,000 + $72,759.60 (9.4269)= $1,131,897.47Since option one has a higher PV, you should choose it.et r be the rate of interest you must earn.$10,000(1 + r)12 = $80,000(1 + r)12= 8r = 0.18921 = 18.921%First compute the present value of all the payments you must make for your children’s educati on. The value as of one year before matriculation of one child’s education isA= $21,000 (2.8550) = $59,955.$21,000 415.0This is the value of the elder child’s education fourteen years from now. It is the value of the younger child’s education sixteen years from today. The present value of these isPV = $59,955 / 1.1514 + $59,955 / 1.1516= $14,880.44You want to make fifteen equal payments into an account that yields 15% so that the present value of the equal payments is $14,880.44.A= $14,880.44 / 5.8474 = $2,544.80Payment = $14,880.44 / 15.015This problem applies the growing annuity formula. The first payment is$50,000(1.04)2(0.02) = $1,081.60.PV = $1,081.60 [1 / (0.08 - 0.04) - {1 / (0.08 - 0.04)}{1.04 / 1.08}40]= $21,064.28This is the present value of the payments, so the value forty years from today is$21,064.28 (1.0840) = $457,611.46se the discount factors to discount the individual cash flows. Then compute the NPV of the project. NoticeYou can still use the factor tables to compute their PV. Essentially, they form cash flows that are a six year annuity less a two year annuity. Thus, the appropriate annuity factor to use with them is 2.6198 (= 4.3553 - 1.7355).Year Cash Flow Factor PV0.9091 $636.371$70020.8264 743.769003 1,000 ⎤4 1,000 ⎥ 2.6198 2,619.805 1,000 ⎥6 1,000 ⎦7 1,250 0.5132 641.508 1,375 0.4665 641.44Total $5,282.87NPV = -$5,000 + $5,282.87= $282.87Purchase the machine.Chapter 5: How to Value Bonds and StocksThe amount of the semi-annual interest payment is $40 (=$1,000 ⨯ 0.08 / 2). There are a total of 40 periods;i.e., two half years in each of the twenty years in the term to maturity. The annuity factor tables can be usedto price these bonds. The appropriate discount rate to use is the semi-annual rate. That rate is simply the annual rate divided by two. Thus, for part b the rate to be used is 5% and for part c is it 3%.A+F/(1+r)40PV=C Tra. $40 (19.7928) + $1,000 / 1.0440 = $1,000Notice that whenever the coupon rate and the market rate are the same, the bond is priced at par.b. $40 (17.1591) + $1,000 / 1.0540 = $828.41Notice that whenever the coupon rate is below the market rate, the bond is priced below par.c. $40 (23.1148) + $1,000 / 1.0340 = $1,231.15Notice that whenever the coupon rate is above the market rate, the bond is priced above par.a. The semi-annual interest rate is $60 / $1,000 = 0.06. Thus, the effective annual rate is 1.062 - 1 =0.1236 = 12.36%.A+ $1,000 / 1.0612b. Price = $30 12.006= $748.48A+ $1,000 / 1.0412c. Price = $30 1204.0= $906.15Note: In parts b and c we are implicitly assuming that the yield curve is flat. That is, the yield in year 5applies for year 6 as well.rice = $2 (0.72) / 1.15 + $4 (0.72) / 1.152 + $50 / 1.153= $36.31The number of shares you own = $100,000 / $36.31 = 2,754 sharesPrice = $1.15 (1.18) / 1.12 + $1.15 (1.182) / 1.122 + $1.152 (1.182) / 1.123+ {$1.152 (1.182)(1.06) / (0.12 - 0.06)} / 1.123= $26.95[Insert before last sentence of question: Assume that dividends are a fixed proportion of earnings.] Dividend one year from now = $5 (1 - 0.10) = $4.50Price = $5 + $4.50 / {0.14 - (-0.10)}= $23.75Since the current $5 dividend has not yet been paid, it is still included in the stock price.Chapter 6: Some Alternative Investment Rulesa. Payback period of Project A = 1 + ($7,500 - $4,000) / $3,500 = 2 yearsPayback period of Project B = 2 + ($5,000 - $2,500 -$1,200) / $3,000 = 2.43 yearsProject A should be chosen.b. NPV A = -$7,500 + $4,000 / 1.15 + $3,500 / 1.152 + $1,500 / 1.153 = -$388.96NPV B = -$5,000 + $2,500 / 1.15 + $1,200 / 1.152 + $3,000 / 1.153 = $53.83Project B should be chosen.a. Average Investment:($16,000 + $12,000 + $8,000 + $4,000 + 0) / 5 = $8,000Average accounting return:$4,500 / $8,000 = 0.5625 = 56.25%b. 1. AAR does not consider the timing of the cash flows, hence it does not consider the timevalue of money.2. AAR uses an arbitrary firm standard as the decision rule.3. AAR uses accounting data rather than net cash flows.aAverage Investment = (8000 + 4000 + 1500 + 0)/4 = 3375.00Average Net Income = 2000(1-0.75) = 1500=> AAR = 1500/3375=44.44%a. Solve x by trial and error:-$8,000 + $4,000 / (1 + x) + $3000 / (1 + x)2 + $2,000 / (1 + x)3 = 0x = 6.93%b. No, since the IRR (6.93%) is less than the discount rate of 8%.Alternatively, the NPV @ a discount rate of 0.08 = -$136.62.a. Solve r in the equation:$5,000 - $2,500 / (1 + r) - $2,000 / (1 + r)2 - $1,000 / (1 + r)3- $1,000 / (1 + r)4 = 0By trial and error,IRR = r = 13.99%b. Since this problem is the case of financing, accept the project if the IRR is less than the required rate of return.IRR = 13.99% > 10%Reject the offer.c. IRR = 13.99% < 20%Accept the offer.d. When r = 10%:NPV = $5,000 - $2,500 / 1.1 - $2,000 / 1.12 - $1,000 / 1.13 - $1,000 / 1.14When r = 20%:NPV = $5,000 - $2,500 / 1.2 - $2,000 / 1.22 - $1,000 / 1.23 - $1,000 / 1.24= $466.82Yes, they are consistent with the choices of the IRR rule since the signs of the cash flows change only once.A/ $160,000 = 1.04PI = $40,000 715.0Since the PI exceeds one accept the project.Chapter 7: Net Present Value and Capital BudgetingSince there is uncertainty surrounding the bonus payments, which McRae might receive, you must use the expected value of McRae’s bonuses in the computation of the PV of his contract. McRae’s salary plus the expected value of his bonuses in years one through three is$250,000 + 0.6 ⨯ $75,000 + 0.4 ⨯ $0 = $295,000.Thus the total PV of his three-year contract isPV = $400,000 + $295,000 [(1 - 1 / 1.12363) / 0.1236]+ {$125,000 / 1.12363} [(1 - 1 / 1.123610 / 0.1236]= $1,594,825.68EPS = $800,000 / 200,000 = $4NPVGO = (-$400,000 + $1,000,000) / 200,000 = $3Price = EPS / r + NPVGO= $4 / 0.12 + $3=$36.33Year 0 Year 1 Year 2 Year 3 Year 4 Year 51. Annual Salary$120,000 $120,000 $120,000 $120,000 $120,000 Savings2. Depreciation 100,000 160,000 96,000 57,600 57,6003. Taxable Income 20,000 -40,000 24,000 62,400 62,4004. Taxes 6,800 -13,600 8,160 21,216 21,2165. Operating Cash Flow113,200 133,600 111,840 98,784 98,784 (line 1-4)$100,000 -100,0006. ∆ Net workingcapital7. Investment $500,000 75,792*8. Total Cash Flow -$400,000 $113,200 $133,600 $111,840 $98,784 $74,576*75,792 = $100,000 - 0.34 ($100,000 - $28,800)NPV = -$400,000+ $113,200 / 1.12 + $133,600 / 1.122 + $111,840 / 1.123+ $98,784 / 1.124 + $74,576 / 1.125= -$7,722.52Real interest rate = (1.15 / 1.04) - 1 = 10.58%NPV A = -$40,000+ $20,000 / 1.1058 + $15,000 / 1.10582 + $15,000 / 1.10583= $1,446.76NPV B = -$50,000+ $10,000 / 1.15 + $20,000 / 1.152 + $40,000 / 1.153= $119.17Choose project A.PV = $120,000 / {0.11 - (-0.06)}t = 0 t = 1 t = 2 t = 3 t = 4 t = 5 t = 6 ...$12,000 $6,000 $6,000 $6,000$4,000$12,000 $6,000 $6,000 ...The present value of one cycle is:A+ $4,000 / 1.064PV = $12,000 + $6,000 306.0= $12,000 + $6,000 (2.6730) + $4,000 / 1.064= $31,206.37The cycle is four years long, so use a four year annuity factor to compute the equivalent annual cost (EAC).AEAC = $31,206.37 / 406.0= $31,206.37 / 3.4651= $9,006The present value of such a stream in perpetuity is$9,006 / 0.06 = $150,100o evaluate the word processors, compute their equivalent annual costs (EAC).BangAPV(costs) = (10 ⨯ $8,000) + (10 ⨯ $2,000) 414.0= $80,000 + $20,000 (2.9137)= $138,274EAC = $138,274 / 2.9137= $47,456IOUAPV(costs) = (11 ⨯ $5,000) + (11 ⨯ $2,500) 3.014- (11 ⨯ $500) / 1.143= $55,000 + $27,500 (2.3216) - $5,500 / 1.143= $115,132EAC = $115,132 / 2.3216= $49,592BYO should purchase the Bang word processors.Chapter 8: Strategy and Analysis in Using Net Present ValueThe accounting break-even= (120,000 + 20,000) / (1,500 - 1,100)= 350 units. The accounting break-even= 340,000 / (2.00 - 0.72)= 265,625 abalonesb. [($2.00 ⨯ 300,000) - (340,000 + 0.72 ⨯ 300,000)] (0.65)= $28,600This is the after tax profit.Chapter 9: Capital Market Theory: An Overviewa. Capital gains = $38 - $37 = $1 per shareb. Total dollar returns = Dividends + Capital Gains = $1,000 + ($1*500) = $1,500 On a per share basis, this calculation is $2 + $1 = $3 per sharec. On a per share basis, $3/$37 = 0.0811 = 8.11% On a total dollar basis, $1,500/(500*$37) = 0.0811 = 8.11%d. No, you do not need to sell the shares to include the capital gains in the computation of the returns. The capital gain is included whether or not you realize the gain. Since you could realize the gain if you choose, you should include it.The expected holding period return is:()[]%865.1515865.052$/52$75.54$50.5$==-+There appears to be a lack of clarity about the meaning of holding period returns. The method used in the answer to this question is the one used in Section 9.1. However, the correspondence is not exact, because in this question, unlike Section 9.1, there are cash flows within the holding period. The answer above ignores the dividend paid in the first year. Although the answer above technically conforms to the eqn at the bottom of Fig. 9.2, the presence of intermediate cash flows that aren’t accounted for renders th is measure questionable, at best. There is no similar example in the body of the text, and I have never seen holding period returns calculated in this way before.Although not discussed in this book, there are two generally accepted methods of computing holding period returns in the presence of intermediate cash flows. First, the time weighted return calculates averages (geometric or arithmetic) of returns between cash flows. Unfortunately, that method can’t be used here, because we are not given the va lue of the stock at the end of year one. Second, the dollar weighted measure calculates the internal rate of return over the entire holding period. Theoretically, that method can be applied here, as follows: 0 = -52 + 5.50/(1+r) + 60.25/(1+r)2 => r = 0.1306.This produces a two year holding period return of (1.1306)2 – 1 = 0.2782. Unfortunately, this book does not teach the dollar weighted method.In order to salvage this question in a financially meaningful way, you would need the value of the stock at the end of one year. Then an illustration of the correct use of the time-weighted return would be appropriate. A complicating factor is that, while Section 9.2 illustrates the holding period return using the geometric return for historical data, the arithmetic return is more appropriate for expected future returns.E(R) = T-Bill rate + Average Excess Return = 6.2% + (13.0% -3.8%) = 15.4%. Common Treasury Realized Stocks Bills Risk Premium -7 32.4% 11.2% 21.2%-6 -4.9 14.7 -19.6-5 21.4 10.5 10.9 -4 22.5 8.8 13.7 -3 6.3 9.9 -3.6 -2 32.2 7.7 24.5 Last 18.5 6.2 12.3 b. The average risk premium is 8.49%.49.873.125.246.37.139.106.192.21=++-++- c. Yes, it is possible for the observed risk premium to be negative. This can happen in any single year. The.b.Standard deviation = 03311.0001096.0=.b.Standard deviation = = 0.03137 = 3.137%.b.Chapter 10: Return and Risk: The Capital-Asset-Pricing Model (CAPM)a. = 0.1 (– 4.5%) + 0.2 (4.4%) + 0.5 (12.0%) + 0.2 (20.7%) = 10.57%b.σ2 = 0.1 (–0.045 – 0.1057)2 + 0.2 (0.044 – 0.1057)2 + 0.5 (0.12 – 0.1057)2+ 0.2 (0.207 – 0.1057)2 = 0.0052σ = (0.0052)1/2 = 0.072 = 7.20%Holdings of Atlas stock = 120 ⨯ $50 = $6,000 ⨯ $20 = $3,000Weight of Atlas stock = $6,000 / $9,000 = 2 / 3Weight of Babcock stock = $3,000 / $9,000 = 1 / 3a. = 0.3 (0.12) + 0.7 (0.18) = 0.162 = 16.2%σP 2= 0.32 (0.09)2 + 0.72 (0.25)2 + 2 (0.3) (0.7) (0.09) (0.25) (0.2)= 0.033244σP= (0.033244)1/2 = 0.1823 = 18.23%a.State Return on A Return on B Probability1 15% 35% 0.4 ⨯ 0.5 = 0.22 15% -5% 0.4 ⨯ 0.5 = 0.23 10% 35% 0.6 ⨯ 0.5 = 0.34 10% -5% 0.6 ⨯ 0.5 = 0.3b. = 0.2 [0.5 (0.15) + 0.5 (0.35)] + 0.2[0.5 (0.15) + 0.5 (-0.05)]+ 0.3 [0.5 (0.10) + 0.5 (0.35)] + 0.3 [0.5 (0.10) + 0.5 (-0.05)]= 0.135= 13.5%Note: The solution to this problem requires calculus.Specifically, the solution is found by minimizing a function subject to a constraint. Calculus ability is not necessary to understand the principles behind a minimum variance portfolio.Min { X A2 σA2 + X B2σB2+ 2 X A X B Cov(R A , R B)}subject to X A + X B = 1Let X A = 1 - X B. Then,Min {(1 - X B)2σA2 + X B2σB2+ 2(1 - X B) X B Cov (R A, R B)}Take a derivative with respect to X B.d{∙} / dX B = (2 X B - 2) σA2+ 2 X B σB2 + 2 Cov(R A, R B) - 4 X B Cov(R A, R B)Set the derivative equal to zero, cancel the common 2 and solve for X B.X BσA2- σA2+ X B σB2 + Cov(R A, R B) - 2 X B Cov(R A, R B) = 0X B = {σA2 - Cov(R A, R B)} / {σA2+ σB2 - 2 Cov(R A, R B)}andX A = {σB2 - Cov(R A, R B)} / {σA2+ σB2 - 2 Cov(R A, R B)}Using the data from the problem yields,X A = 0.8125 andX B = 0.1875.a. Using the weights calculated above, the expected return on the minimum variance portfolio isE(R P) = 0.8125 E(R A) + 0.1875 E(R B)= 0.8125 (5%) + 0.1875 (10%)= 5.9375%b. Using the formula derived above, the weights areX A = 2 / 3 andX B = 1 / 3c. The variance of this portfolio is zero.σP 2= X A2 σA2 + X B2σB2+ 2 X A X B Cov(R A , R B)= (4 / 9) (0.01) + (1 / 9) (0.04) + 2 (2 / 3) (1 / 3) (-0.02)= 0This demonstrates that assets can be combined to form a risk-free portfolio.14.2%= 3.7%+β(7.5%) ⇒β = 1.40.25 = R f + 1.4 [R M– R f] (I)0.14 = R f + 0.7 [R M– R f] (II)(I) – (II)=0.11 = 0.7 [R M– R f] (III)[R M– R f ]= 0.1571Put (III) into (I) 0.25 = R f + 1.4[0.1571]R f = 3%[R M– R f ]= 0.1571R M = 0.1571 + 0.03= 18.71%a. = 4.9% + βi (9.4%)βD= Cov(R D, R M) / σM 2 = 0.0635 / 0.04326 = 1.468= 4.9 + 1.468 (9.4) = 18.70%Weights:X A = 5 / 30 = 0.1667X B = 10 / 30 = 0.3333X C = 8 / 30 = 0.2667X D = 1 - X A - X B - X C = 0.2333Beta of portfolio= 0.1667 (0.75) + 0.3333 (1.10) + 0.2667 (1.36) + 0.2333 (1.88)= 1.293= 4 + 1.293 (15 - 4) = 18.22%a. (i) βA= ρA,MσA / σMρA,M= βA σM / σA= (0.9) (0.10) / 0.12= 0.75(ii) σB= βB σM / ρB,M= (1.10) (0.10) / 0.40= 0.275(iii) βC= ρC,MσC / σM= (0.75) (0.24) / 0.10= 1.80(iv) ρM,M= 1(v) βM= 1(vi) σf= 0(vii) ρf,M= 0(viii) βf= 0b. SML:E(R i) = R f + βi {E(R M) - R f}= 0.05 + (0.10) βiSecurity βi E(R i)A 0.13 0.90 0.14B 0.16 1.10 0.16C 0.25 1.80 0.23Security A performed worse than the market, while security C performed better than the market.Security B is fairly priced.c. According to the SML, security A is overpriced while security C is under-priced. Thus, you could invest in security C while sell security A (if you currently hold it).a. The typical risk-averse investor seeks high returns and low risks. To assess thetwo stocks, find theReturns:State of economy ProbabilityReturn on A*Recession 0.1 -0.20 Normal 0.8 0.10 Expansion0.10.20* Since security A pays no dividend, the return on A is simply (P 1 / P 0) - 1. = 0.1 (-0.20) + 0.8 (0.10) + 0.1 (0.20) = 0.08 = 0.09 This was given in the problem.Risk:R A - (R A -)2 P ⨯ (R A -)2 -0.28 0.0784 0.00784 0.02 0.0004 0.00032 0.12 0.0144 0.00144 Variance 0.00960Standard deviation (R A ) = 0.0980βA = {Corr(R A , R M ) σ(R A )} / σ(R M ) = 0.8 (0.0980) / 0.10= 0.784βB = {Corr(R B , R M ) σ(R B )} / σ(R M ) = 0.2 (0.12) / 0.10= 0.24The return on stock B is higher than the return on stock A. The risk of stock B, as measured by itsbeta, is lower than the risk of A. Thus, a typical risk-averse investor will prefer stock B.b. = (0.7) + (0.3) = (0.7) (0.8) + (0.3) (0.09) = 0.083σP 2= 0.72 σA 2 + 0.32 σB 2 + 2 (0.7) (0.3) Corr (R A , R B ) σA σB = (0.49) (0.0096) + (0.09) (0.0144) + (0.42) (0.6) (0.0980) (0.12) = 0.0089635 σP = = 0.0947 c. The beta of a portfolio is the weighted average of the betas of the components of the portfolio. βP = (0.7) βA + (0.3) βB = (0.7) (0.784) + (0.3) (0.240) = 0.621Chapter 11:An Alternative View of Risk and Return: The Arbitrage Pricing Theorya. Stock A:()()R R R R R A A A m m Am A=+-+=+-+βεε105%12142%...Stock B:()()R R R R R B B m m Bm B=+-+=+-+βεε130%098142%...Stock C:()R R R R R C C C m m Cm C=+-+=+-+βεε157%137142%)..(.b.()[]()[]()[]()()()()()()[]()()CB A m cB A m c m B m A m CB A P 25.045.030.0%2.14R 1435.1%925.1225.045.030.0%2.14R 37.125.098.045.02.130.0%7.1525.0%1345.0%5.1030.0%2.14R 37.1%7.1525.0%2.14R 98.0%0.1345.0%2.14R 2.1%5.1030.0R 25.0R 45.0R 30.0R ε+ε+ε+-+=ε+ε+ε+-+++++=ε+-++ε+-++ε+-+=++= c.i.()R R R A B C =+-==+-==+-=105%1215%142%)1113%09815%142%)137%157%13715%142%168%..(..46%.(......ii.R P =+-=12925%1143515%142%)138398%..(..To determine which investment investor would prefer, you must compute the variance of portfolios created bymany stocks from either market. Note, because you know that diversification is good, it is reasonable to assume that once an investor chose the market in which he or she will invest, he or she will buy many stocks in that market.Known:E EF ====001002 and and for all i.i σσεε..Assume: The weight of each stock is 1/N; that is, X N i =1/for all i.If a portfolio is composed of N stocks each forming 1/N proportion of the portfolio, the return on the portfolio is 1/N times the sum of the returns on the N stocks. Recall that the return on each stock is 0.1+βF+ε.()()()()()()[]()()()()()()()[]()[]()[]()()[]()()()()()j i 2j i 22j i i 2222222222P P P P iP ,0.04Corr 0.01,Cov s =isvariance the ,N as limit In the ,Cov 1/N 1s 1/N s )(1/N 1/N F 2F E 1/N F E 0.10.1/N F 0.1E R E R E R Var 0.101/N 00.1E 1/N F E 0.11/N F 0.1E R E 1/N F 0.1F 0.1(1/N)R 1/N R εε+β=εε+β∞⇒εε-+ε+β=ε∑+εβ+β=ε+β=-ε+β+=-==+β+=ε+β+=ε∑+β+=ε+β+=ε+β+==∑∑∑∑∑∑∑∑()()()()()()Thus,F R f E R E R Var R Corr Var R Corr ii ip P p i j PijR 1i =++=++===+=+010*********002250040002500412212111222.........,,εεεεεεa.()()()()Corr Corr Var R Var R i j i j p pεεεε112212000225000225,,..====Since Var ()()R p 1 Var R 2p 〉, a risk averse investor will prefer to invest in the second market.b. Corr ()()εεεε112090i j j ,.,== and Corr 2i()()Var R Var R pp120058500025==..。
CHAPTER 20INTERNATIONAL CORPORATE FINANCEAnswers to Concepts Review and Critical Thinking Questions1. a.The dollar is selling at a premium because it is more expensive in the forward market than inthe spot market (SFr 1.53 versus SFr 1.50).b.The franc is expected to depreciate relative to the dollar because it will take more francs to buyone dollar in the future than it does today.c.Inflation in Switzerland is higher than in the United States, as are nominal interest rates.2.The exchange rate will increase, as it will take progressively more pesos to purchase a dollar. This isthe relative PPP relationship.3. a.The Australian dollar is expected to weaken relative to the dollar, because it will take moreA$ in the future to buy one dollar than it does today.b.The inflation rate in Australia is higher.c.Nominal interest rates in Australia are higher; relative real rates in the two countries are thesame.4. A Yankee bond is most accurately described by d.5. No. For example, if a country’s currency strengthens, imports become cheaper (good), but its exportsbecome more expensive for others to buy (bad). The reverse is true for currency depreciation.6.Additional advantages include being closer to the final consumer and, thereby, saving ontransportation, significantly lower wages, and less exposure to exchange rate risk. Disadvantages include political risk and costs of supervising distant operations.7.One key thing to remember is that dividend payments are made in the home currency. Moregenerally, it may be that the owners of the multinational are primarily domestic and are ultimately concerned about their wealth denominated in their home currency because, unlike a multinational, they are not internationally diversified.8. a.False. If prices are rising faster in Great Britain, it will take more pounds to buy the sameamount of goods that one dollar can buy; the pound will depreciate relative to the dollar.b.False. The forward market would already reflect the projected deterioration of the euro relativeto the dollar. Only if you feel that there might be additional, unanticipated weakening of the euro that isn’t reflected in forward rates today, will the forward hedge protect you against additional declines.c.True. The market would only be correct on average, while you would be correct all the time.9. a.American exporters: their situation in general improves because a sale of the exported goods fora fixed number of euros will be worth more dollars.American importers: their situation in general worsens because the purchase of the imported goods for a fixed number of euros will cost more in dollars.b.American exporters: they would generally be better off if the British government’s intentionsresult in a strengthened pound.American importers: they would generally be worse off if the pound strengthens.c.American exporters: they would generally be much worse off, because an extreme case of fiscalexpansion like this one will make American goods prohibitively expensive to buy, or else Brazilian sales, if fixed in cruzeiros, would become worth an unacceptably low number of dollars.American importers: they would generally be much better off, because Brazilian goods will become much cheaper to purchase in dollars.10.IRP is the most likely to hold because it presents the easiest and least costly means to exploit anyarbitrage opportunities. Relative PPP is least likely to hold since it depends on the absence of market imperfections and frictions in order to hold strictly.11.It all depends on whether the forward market expects the same appreciation over the period andwhether the expectation is accurate. Assuming that the expectation is correct and that other traders do not have the same information, there will be value to hedging the currency exposure.12.One possible reason investment in the foreign subsidiary might be preferred is if this investmentprovides direct diversification that shareholders could not attain by investing on their own. Another reason could be if the political climate in the foreign country was more stable than in the home country. Increased political risk can also be a reason you might prefer the home subsidiary investment. Indonesia can serve as a great example of political risk. If it cannot be diversified away, investing in this type of foreign country will increase the systematic risk. As a result, it will raise the cost of the capital, and could actually decrease the NPV of the investment.13.Yes, the firm should undertake the foreign investment. If, after taking into consideration all risks, aproject in a foreign country has a positive NPV, the firm should undertake it. Note that in practice, the stated assumption (that the adjustment to the discount rate has taken into consideration all political and diversification issues) is a huge task. But once that has been addressed, the net present value principle holds for foreign operations, just as for domestic.14.If the foreign currency depreciates, the U.S. parent will experience an exchange rate loss when theforeign cash flow is remitted to the U.S. This problem could be overcome by selling forward contracts. Another way of overcoming this problem would be to borrow in the country where the project is located.15.False. If the financial markets are perfectly competitive, the difference between the Eurodollar rateand the U.S. rate will be due to differences in risk and government regulation. Therefore, speculating in those markets will not be beneficial.16.The difference between a Eurobond and a foreign bond is that the foreign bond is denominated in thecurrency of the country of origin of the issuing company. Eurobonds are more popular than foreign bonds because of registration differences. Eurobonds are unregistered securities.Solutions to Questions and ProblemsNOTE: All end-of-chapter problems were solved using a spreadsheet. Many problems require multiple steps. Due to space and readability constraints, when these intermediate steps are included in this solutions manual, rounding may appear to have occurred. However, the final answer for each problem is found without rounding during any step in the problem.Basicing the quotes from the table, we get:a.$50(€0.7870/$1) = €39.35b.$1.2706c.€5M($1.2706/€) = $6,353,240d.New Zealand dollare.Mexican pesof.(P11.0023/$1)($1.2186/€1) = P13.9801/€This is a cross rate.g.The most valuable is the Kuwait dinar. The least valuable is the Indonesian rupiah.2. a.You would prefer £100, since:(£100)($.5359/£1) = $53.59b.You would still prefer £100. Using the $/£ exchange rate and the SF/£ exchange rate to find theamount of Swiss francs £100 will buy, we get:(£100)($1.8660/£1)(SF .8233) = SF 226.6489ing the quotes in the book to find the SF/£ cross rate, we find:(SF 1.2146/$1)($0.5359/£1) = SF 2.2665/£1The £/SF exchange rate is the inverse of the SF/£ exchange rate, so:£1/SF .4412 = £0.4412/SF 13. a.F180= ¥104.93 (per $). The yen is selling at a premium because it is more expensive in theforward market than in the spot market ($0.0093659 versus $0.009530).b.F90 = $1.8587/£. The pound is selling at a discount because it is less expensive in the forwardmarket than in the spot market ($0.5380 versus $0.5359).c.The value of the dollar will fall relative to the yen, since it takes more dollars to buy one yen inthe future than it does today. The value of the dollar will rise relative to the pound, because it will take fewer dollars to buy one pound in the future than it does today.4. a.The U.S. dollar, since one Canadian dollar will buy:(Can$1)/(Can$1.26/$1) = $0.7937b.The cost in U.S. dollars is:(Can$2.19)/(Can$1.26/$1) = $1.74Among the reasons that absolute PPP doe sn’t hold are tariffs and other barriers to trade, transactions costs, taxes, and different tastes.c.The U.S. dollar is selling at a discount, because it is less expensive in the forward market thanin the spot market (Can$1.22 versus Can$1.26).d.The Canadian dollar is expected to appreciate in value relative to the dollar, because it takesfewer Canadian dollars to buy one U.S. dollar in the future than it does today.e.Interest rates in the United States are probably higher than they are in Canada.5. a.The cross rate in ¥/£ terms is:(¥115/$1)($1.70/£1) = ¥195.5/£1b.The yen is quoted too low relative to the pound. Take out a loan for $1 and buy ¥115. Use the¥115 to purchase pounds at the cross-rate, which will give you:¥115(£1/¥185) = £0.6216Use the pounds to buy back dollars and repay the loan. The cost to repay the loan will be:£0.6216($1.70/£1) = $1.0568You arbitrage profit is $0.0568 per dollar used.6.We can rearrange the interest rate parity condition to answer this question. The equation we will useis:R FC = (F T– S0)/S0 + R USUsing this relationship, we find:Great Britain: R FC = (£0.5394 – £0.5359)/£0.5359 + .038 = 4.45%Japan: R FC = (¥104.93 – ¥106.77)/¥106.77 + .038 = 2.08%Switzerland: R FC = (SFr 1.1980 – SFr 1.2146)/SFr 1.2146 + .038 = 2.43%7.If we invest in the U.S. for the next three months, we will have:$30M(1.0045)3 = $30,406,825.23If we invest in Great Britain, we must exchange the dollars today for pounds, and exchange the pounds for dollars in three months. After making these transactions, the dollar amount we would have in three months would be:($30M)(£0.56/$1)(1.0060)3/(£0.59/$1) = $28,990,200.05We should invest in U.S.ing the relative purchasing power parity equation:F t = S0 × [1 + (h FC– h US)]tWe find:Z3.92 = Z3.84[1 + (h FC– h US)]3h FC– h US = (Z3.92/Z3.84)1/3– 1h FC– h US = .0069Inflation in Poland is expected to exceed that in the U.S. by 0.69% over this period.9.The profit will be the quantity sold, times the sales price minus the cost of production. Theproduction cost is in Singapore dollars, so we must convert this to U.S. dollars. Doing so, we find that if the exchange rates stay the same, the profit will be:Profit = 30,000[$145 – {(S$168.50)/(S$1.6548/$1)}]Profit = $1,295,250.18If the exchange rate rises, we must adjust the cost by the increased exchange rate, so:Profit = 30,000[$145 – {(S$168.50)/1.1(S$1.6548/$1)}]Profit = $1,572,954.71If the exchange rate falls, we must adjust the cost by the decreased exchange rate, so:Profit = 30,000[$145 – {(S$168.50)/0.9(S$1.6548/$1)}]Profit = $955,833.53To calculate the breakeven change in the exchange rate, we need to find the exchange rate that make the cost in Singapore dollars equal to the selling price in U.S. dollars, so:$145 = S$168.50/S TS T = S$1.1621/$1S T = –.2978 or –29.78% decline10. a.If IRP holds, then:F180 = (Kr 6.43)[1 + (.08 – .05)]1/2F180 = Kr 6.5257Since given F180 is Kr6.56, an arbitrage opportunity exists; the forward premium is too high.Borrow Kr1 today at 8% interest. Agree to a 180-day forward contract at Kr 6.56. Convert the loan proceeds into dollars:Kr 1 ($1/Kr 6.43) = $0.15552Invest these dollars at 5%, ending up with $0.15931. Convert the dollars back into krone as$0.15931(Kr 6.56/$1) = Kr 1.04506Repay the Kr 1 loan, ending with a profit of:Kr1.04506 – Kr1.03868 = Kr 0.00638b.To find the forward rate that eliminates arbitrage, we use the interest rate parity condition, so:F180 = (Kr 6.43)[1 + (.08 – .05)]1/2F180 = Kr 6.525711.The international Fisher effect states that the real interest rate across countries is equal. We canrearrange the international Fisher effect as follows to answer this question:R US– h US = R FC– h FCh FC = R FC + h US– R USa.h AUS = .05 + .035 – .039h AUS = .046 or 4.6%b.h CAN = .07 + .035 – .039h CAN = .066 or 6.6%c.h TAI = .10 + .035 – .039h TAI = .096 or 9.6%12. a.The yen is expected to get stronger, since it will take fewer yen to buy one dollar in the futurethan it does today.b.h US– h JAP (¥129.76 – ¥131.30)/¥131.30h US– h JAP = – .0117 or –1.17%(1 – .0117)4– 1 = –.0461 or –4.61%The approximate inflation differential between the U.S. and Japan is – 4.61% annually.13. We need to find the change in the exchange rate over time, so we need to use the relative purchasingpower parity relationship:F t = S0 × [1 + (h FC– h US)]TUsing this relationship, we find the exchange rate in one year should be:F1 = 215[1 + (.086 – .035)]1F1 = HUF 225.97The exchange rate in two years should be:F2 = 215[1 + (.086 – .035)]2F2 = HUF 237.49And the exchange rate in five years should be:F5 = 215[1 + (.086 – .035)]5F5 = HUF 275.71ing the interest-rate parity theorem:(1 + R US) / (1 + R FC) = F(0,1) / S0We can find the forward rate as:F(0,1) = [(1 + R US) / (1 + R FC)] S0F(0,1) = (1.13 / 1.08)$1.50/£F(0,1) = $1.57/£Intermediate15.First, we need to forecast the future spot rate for each of the next three years. From interest rate andpurchasing power parity, the expected exchange rate is:E(S T) = [(1 + R US) / (1 + R FC)]T S0So:E(S1) = (1.0480 / 1.0410)1 $1.22/€ = $1.2282/€E(S2) = (1.0480 / 1.0410)2 $1.22/€ = $1.2365/€E(S3) = (1.0480 / 1.0410)3 $1.22/€ = $1.2448/€Now we can use these future spot rates to find the dollar cash flows. The dollar cash flow each year will be:Year 0 cash flow = –€$12,000,000($1.22/€) = –$14,640,000.00Year 1 cash flow = €$2,700,000($1.2282/€) = $3,316,149.86Year 2 cash flow = €$3,500,000($1.2365/€) = $4,327,618.63Year 3 cash flow = (€3,300,000 + 7,400,000)($1.2448/€) = $13,319,111.90And the NPV of the project will be:NPV = –$14,640,000 + $3,316,149.86/1.13 + $4,4327,618.63/1.132 + $13,319,111.90/1.133NPV = $914,618.7316. a.Implicitly, it is assumed that interest rates won’t change over the life of the project, but theexchange rate is projected to decline because the Euroswiss rate is lower than the Eurodollar rate.b.We can use relative purchasing power parity to calculate the dollar cash flows at each time. Theequation is:E[S T] = (SFr 1.72)[1 + (.07 – .08)]TE[S T] = 1.72(.99)TSo, the cash flows each year in U.S. dollar terms will be:t SFr E[S T] US$0 –27.0M –$15,697,674.421 +7.5M 1.7028 $4,404,510.222 +7.5M 1.6858 $4,449,000.223 +7.5M 1.6689 $4,493,939.624 +7.5M 1.6522 $4,539,332.955 +7.5M 1.6357 $4,585,184.79And the NPV is:NPV = –$15,697,674.42 + $4,404,510.22/1.13 + $4,449,000.22/1.132 + $4,493,939.62/1.133 + $4,539,332.95/1.134 + $4,585,184.79/1.135NPV = $71,580.10c.Rearranging the relative purchasing power parity equation to find the required return in Swissfrancs, we get:R SFr = 1.13[1 + (.07 – .08)] – 1R SFr = 11.87%So, the NPV in Swiss francs is:NPV = –SFr 27.0M + SFr 7.5M(PVIFA11.87%,5)NPV = SFr 123,117.76Converting the NPV to dollars at the spot rate, we get the NPV in U.S. dollars as:NPV = (SFr 123,117.76)($1/SFr 1.72)NPV = $71,580.10Challenge17. a.The domestic Fisher effect is:1 + R US = (1 + r US)(1 + h US)1 + r US = (1 + R US)/(1 + h US)This relationship must hold for any country, that is:1 + r FC = (1 + R FC)/(1 + h FC)The international Fisher effect states that real rates are equal across countries, so:1 + r US = (1 + R US)/(1 + h US) = (1 + R FC)/(1 + h FC) = 1 + r FCb.The exact form of unbiased interest rate parity is:E[S t] = F t = S0 [(1 + R FC)/(1 + R US)]tc.The exact form for relative PPP is:E[S t] = S0 [(1 + h FC)/(1 + h US)]td.For the home currency approach, we calculate the expected currency spot rate at time t as:E[S t] = (€0.5)[1.07/1.05]t= (€0.5)(1.019)tWe then convert the euro cash flows using this equation at every time, and find the present value. Doing so, we find:NPV = –[€2M/(€0.5)] + {€0.9M/[1.019(€0.5)]}/1.1 + {€0.9M/[1.0192(€0.5)]}/1.12 + {€0.9M/[1.0193(€0.5/$1)]}/1.13NPV = $316,230.72For the foreign currency approach, we first find the return in the euros as:R FC = 1.10(1.07/1.05) – 1 = 0.121Next, we find the NPV in euros as:NPV = –€2M + (€0.9M)/1.121 + (€0.9M)/1.1212+ (€0.9M)/1.1213= €158,115.36And finally, we convert the euros to dollars at the current exchange rate, which is:NPV ($) = €158,115.36 /(€0.5/$1) = $316,230.72。
罗斯《公司理财》第9版精要版英文原书课后部分章节答案详细»1 / 17 CH5 11,13,18,19,20 11. To find the PV of a lump sum, we use: PV = FV / (1 + r) t PV = $1,000,000 / (1.10) 80 = $488.19 13. To answer this question, we can use either the FV or the PV formula. Both will give the same answer since they are the inverse of each other. We will use the FV formula, that is: FV = PV(1 + r) t Solving for r, we get: r = (FV / PV) 1 / t –1 r = ($1,260,000 / $150) 1/112 – 1 = .0840 or 8.40% To find the FV of the first prize, we use: FV = PV(1 + r) t FV = $1,260,000(1.0840) 33 = $18,056,409.94 18. To find the FV of a lump sum, we use: FV = PV(1 + r) t FV = $4,000(1.11) 45 = $438,120.97 FV = $4,000(1.11) 35 = $154,299.40 Better start early! 19. We need to find the FV of a lump sum. However, the money will only be invested for six years, so the number of periods is six. FV = PV(1 + r) t FV = $20,000(1.084)6 = $32,449.33 20. To answer this question, we can use either the FV or the PV formula. Both will give the same answer since they are the inverse of each other. We will use the FV formula, that is: FV = PV(1 + r) t Solving for t, we get: t = ln(FV / PV) / ln(1 + r) t = ln($75,000 / $10,000) / ln(1.11) = 19.31 So, the money must be invested for 19.31 years. However, you will not receive the money for another two years. From now, you’ll wait: 2 years + 19.31 years = 21.31 years CH6 16,24,27,42,58 16. For this problem, we simply need to find the FV of a lump sum using the equation: FV = PV(1 + r) t 2 / 17 It is important to note that compounding occurs semiannually. To account for this, we will divide the interest rate by two (the number of compounding periods in a year), and multiply the number of periods by two. Doing so, we get: FV = $2,100[1 + (.084/2)] 34 = $8,505.93 24. This problem requires us to find the FV A. The equation to find the FV A is: FV A = C{[(1 + r) t – 1] / r} FV A = $300[{[1 + (.10/12) ] 360 – 1} / (.10/12)] = $678,146.38 27. The cash flows are annual and the compounding period is quarterly, so we need to calculate the EAR to make the interest rate comparable with the timing of the cash flows. Using the equation for the EAR, we get: EAR = [1 + (APR / m)] m – 1 EAR = [1 + (.11/4)] 4 – 1 = .1146 or 11.46% And now we use the EAR to find the PV of each cash flow as a lump sum and add them together: PV = $725 / 1.1146 + $980 / 1.1146 2 + $1,360 / 1.1146 4 = $2,320.36 42. The amount of principal paid on the loan is the PV of the monthly payments you make. So, the present value of the $1,150 monthly payments is: PV A = $1,150[(1 – {1 / [1 + (.0635/12)]} 360 ) / (.0635/12)] = $184,817.42 The monthly payments of $1,150 will amount to a principal payment of $184,817.42. The amount of principal you will still owe is: $240,000 – 184,817.42 = $55,182.58 This remaining principal amount will increase at the interest rate on the loan until the end of the loan period. So the balloon payment in 30 years, which is the FV of the remaining principal will be: Balloon payment = $55,182.58[1 + (.0635/12)] 360 = $368,936.54 58. To answer this question, we should find the PV of both options, and compare them. Since we are purchasing the car, the lowest PV is the best option. The PV of the leasing is simply the PV of the lease payments, plus the $99. The interest rate we would use for the leasing option is the same as the interest rate of the loan. The PV of leasing is: PV = $99 + $450{1 –[1 / (1 + .07/12) 12(3) ]} / (.07/12) = $14,672.91 The PV of purchasing the car is the current price of the car minus the PV of the resale price. The PV of the resale price is: PV = $23,000 / [1 + (.07/12)] 12(3) = $18,654.82 The PV of the decision to purchase is: $32,000 – 18,654.82 = $13,345.18 3 / 17 In this case, it is cheaper to buy the car than leasing it since the PV of the purchase cash flows is lower. To find the breakeven resale price, we need to find the resale price that makes the PV of the two options the same. In other words, the PV of the decision to buy should be: $32,000 – PV of resale price = $14,672.91 PV of resale price = $17,327.09 The resale price that would make the PV of the lease versus buy decision is the FV ofthis value, so: Breakeven resale price = $17,327.09[1 + (.07/12)] 12(3) = $21,363.01 CH7 3,18,21,22,31 3. The price of any bond is the PV of the interest payment, plus the PV of the par value. Notice this problem assumes an annual coupon. The price of the bond will be: P = $75({1 – [1/(1 + .0875)] 10 } / .0875) + $1,000[1 / (1 + .0875) 10 ] = $918.89 We would like to introduce shorthand notation here. Rather than write (or type, as the case may be) the entire equation for the PV of a lump sum, or the PV A equation, it is common to abbreviate the equations as: PVIF R,t = 1 / (1 + r) t which stands for Present V alue Interest Factor PVIFA R,t = ({1 – [1/(1 + r)] t } / r ) which stands for Present V alue Interest Factor of an Annuity These abbreviations are short hand notation for the equations in which the interest rate and the number of periods are substituted into the equation and solved. We will use this shorthand notation in remainder of the solutions key. 18. The bond price equation for this bond is: P 0 = $1,068 = $46(PVIFA R%,18 ) + $1,000(PVIF R%,18 ) Using a spreadsheet, financial calculator, or trial and error we find: R = 4.06% This is thesemiannual interest rate, so the YTM is: YTM = 2 4.06% = 8.12% The current yield is:Current yield = Annual coupon payment / Price = $92 / $1,068 = .0861 or 8.61% The effective annual yield is the same as the EAR, so using the EAR equation from the previous chapter: Effective annual yield = (1 + 0.0406) 2 – 1 = .0829 or 8.29% 20. Accrued interest is the coupon payment for the period times the fraction of the period that has passed since the last coupon payment. Since we have a semiannual coupon bond, the coupon payment per six months is one-half of the annual coupon payment. There are four months until the next coupon payment, so two months have passed since the last coupon payment. The accrued interest for the bond is: Accrued interest = $74/2 × 2/6 = $12.33 And we calculate the clean price as: 4 / 17 Clean price = Dirty price –Accrued interest = $968 –12.33 = $955.67 21. Accrued interest is the coupon payment for the period times the fraction of the period that has passed since the last coupon payment. Since we have a semiannual coupon bond, the coupon payment per six months is one-half of the annual coupon payment. There are two months until the next coupon payment, so four months have passed since the last coupon payment. The accrued interest for the bond is: Accrued interest = $68/2 × 4/6 = $22.67 And we calculate the dirty price as: Dirty price = Clean price + Accrued interest = $1,073 + 22.67 = $1,095.67 22. To find the number of years to maturity for the bond, we need to find the price of the bond. Since we already have the coupon rate, we can use the bond price equation, and solve for the number of years to maturity. We are given the current yield of the bond, so we can calculate the price as: Current yield = .0755 = $80/P 0 P 0 = $80/.0755 = $1,059.60 Now that we have the price of the bond, the bond price equation is: P = $1,059.60 = $80[(1 – (1/1.072) t ) / .072 ] + $1,000/1.072 t We can solve this equation for t as follows: $1,059.60(1.072) t = $1,111.11(1.072) t –1,111.11 + 1,000 111.11 = 51.51(1.072) t2.1570 = 1.072 t t = log 2.1570 / log 1.072 = 11.06 11 years The bond has 11 years to maturity.31. The price of any bond (or financial instrument) is the PV of the future cash flows. Even though Bond M makes different coupons payments, to find the price of the bond, we just find the PV of the cash flows. The PV of the cash flows for Bond M is: P M = $1,100(PVIFA 3.5%,16 )(PVIF 3.5%,12 ) + $1,400(PVIFA3.5%,12 )(PVIF 3.5%,28 ) + $20,000(PVIF 3.5%,40 ) P M = $19,018.78 Notice that for the coupon payments of $1,400, we found the PV A for the coupon payments, and then discounted the lump sum back to today. Bond N is a zero coupon bond with a $20,000 par value, therefore, the price of the bond is the PV of the par, or: P N = $20,000(PVIF3.5%,40 ) = $5,051.45 CH8 4,18,20,22,244. Using the constant growth model, we find the price of the stock today is: P 0 = D 1 / (R – g) = $3.04 / (.11 – .038) = $42.22 5 / 17 18. The price of a share of preferred stock is the dividend payment divided by the required return. We know the dividend payment in Year 20, so we can find the price of the stock in Y ear 19, one year before the first dividend payment. Doing so, we get: P 19 = $20.00 / .064 P 19 = $312.50 The price of the stock today is the PV of the stock price in the future, so the price today will be: P 0 = $312.50 / (1.064) 19 P 0 = $96.15 20. We can use the two-stage dividend growth model for this problem, which is: P 0 = [D 0 (1 + g 1 )/(R – g 1 )]{1 – [(1 + g 1 )/(1 + R)] T }+ [(1 + g 1 )/(1 + R)] T [D 0 (1 + g 2 )/(R –g 2 )] P0 = [$1.25(1.28)/(.13 –.28)][1 –(1.28/1.13) 8 ] + [(1.28)/(1.13)] 8 [$1.25(1.06)/(.13 – .06)] P 0 = $69.55 22. We are asked to find the dividend yield and capital gains yield for each of the stocks. All of the stocks have a 15 percent required return, which is the sum of the dividend yield and the capital gains yield. To find the components of the total return, we need to find the stock price for each stock. Using this stock price and the dividend, we can calculate the dividend yield. The capital gains yield for the stock will be the total return (required return) minus the dividend yield. W: P 0 = D 0 (1 + g) / (R – g) = $4.50(1.10)/(.19 – .10) = $55.00 Dividend yield = D 1 /P 0 = $4.50(1.10)/$55.00 = .09 or 9% Capital gains yield = .19 – .09 = .10 or 10% X: P 0 = D 0 (1 + g) / (R – g) = $4.50/(.19 – 0) = $23.68 Dividend yield = D 1 /P 0 = $4.50/$23.68 = .19 or 19% Capital gains yield = .19 – .19 = 0% Y: P 0 = D 0 (1 + g) / (R – g) = $4.50(1 – .05)/(.19 + .05) = $17.81 Dividend yield = D 1 /P 0 = $4.50(0.95)/$17.81 = .24 or 24% Capital gains yield = .19 – .24 = –.05 or –5% Z: P 2 = D 2 (1 + g) / (R – g) = D 0 (1 + g 1 ) 2 (1 +g 2 )/(R – g 2 ) = $4.50(1.20) 2 (1.12)/(.19 – .12) = $103.68 P 0 = $4.50 (1.20) / (1.19) + $4.50(1.20) 2 / (1.19) 2 + $103.68 / (1.19) 2 = $82.33 Dividend yield = D 1 /P 0 = $4.50(1.20)/$82.33 = .066 or 6.6% Capital gains yield = .19 – .066 = .124 or 12.4% In all cases, the required return is 19%, but the return is distributed differently between current income and capital gains. High growth stocks have an appreciable capital gains component but a relatively small current income yield; conversely, mature, negative-growth stocks provide a high current income but also price depreciation over time. 24. Here we have a stock with supernormal growth, but the dividend growth changes every year for the first four years. We can find the price of the stock in Y ear 3 since the dividend growth rate is constant after the third dividend. The price of the stock in Y ear 3 will be the dividend in Y ear 4, divided by the required return minus the constant dividend growth rate. So, the price in Y ear 3 will be: 6 / 17 P3 = $2.45(1.20)(1.15)(1.10)(1.05) / (.11 – .05) = $65.08 The price of the stock today will be the PV of the first three dividends, plus the PV of the stock price in Y ear 3, so: P 0 = $2.45(1.20)/(1.11) + $2.45(1.20)(1.15)/1.11 2 + $2.45(1.20)(1.15)(1.10)/1.11 3 + $65.08/1.11 3 P 0 = $55.70 CH9 3,4,6,9,15 3. Project A has cash flows of $19,000 in Y ear 1, so the cash flows are short by $21,000 of recapturing the initial investment, so the payback for Project A is: Payback = 1 + ($21,000 / $25,000) = 1.84 years Project B has cash flows of: Cash flows = $14,000 + 17,000 + 24,000 = $55,000 during this first three years. The cash flows are still short by $5,000 of recapturing the initial investment, so the payback for Project B is: B: Payback = 3 + ($5,000 / $270,000) = 3.019 years Using the payback criterion and a cutoff of 3 years, accept project A and reject project B. 4. When we use discounted payback, we need to find the value of all cash flows today. The value today of the project cash flows for the first four years is: V alue today of Y ear 1 cash flow = $4,200/1.14 = $3,684.21 V alue today of Y ear 2 cash flow = $5,300/1.14 2 = $4,078.18 V alue today of Y ear 3 cash flow = $6,100/1.14 3 = $4,117.33 V alue today of Y ear 4 cash flow = $7,400/1.14 4 = $4,381.39 To findthe discounted payback, we use these values to find the payback period. The discounted first year cash flow is $3,684.21, so the discounted payback for a $7,000 initial cost is: Discounted payback = 1 + ($7,000 – 3,684.21)/$4,078.18 = 1.81 years For an initial cost of $10,000, the discounted payback is: Discounted payback = 2 + ($10,000 –3,684.21 –4,078.18)/$4,117.33 = 2.54 years Notice the calculation of discounted payback. We know the payback period is between two and three years, so we subtract the discounted values of the Y ear 1 and Y ear 2 cash flows from the initial cost. This is the numerator, which is the discounted amount we still need to make to recover our initial investment. We divide this amount by the discounted amount we will earn in Y ear 3 to get the fractional portion of the discounted payback. If the initial cost is $13,000, the discounted payback is: Discounted payback = 3 + ($13,000 – 3,684.21 – 4,078.18 – 4,117.33) / $4,381.39 = 3.26 years 7 / 17 6. Our definition of AAR is the average net income divided by the average book value. The average net income for this project is: A verage net income = ($1,938,200 + 2,201,600 + 1,876,000 + 1,329,500) / 4 = $1,836,325 And the average book value is: A verage book value = ($15,000,000 + 0) / 2 = $7,500,000 So, the AAR for this project is: AAR = A verage net income / A verage book value = $1,836,325 / $7,500,000 = .2448 or 24.48% 9. The NPV of a project is the PV of the outflows minus the PV of the inflows. Since the cash inflows are an annuity, the equation for the NPV of this project at an 8 percent required return is: NPV = –$138,000 + $28,500(PVIFA 8%, 9 ) = $40,036.31 At an 8 percent required return, the NPV is positive, so we would accept the project. The equation for the NPV of the project at a 20 percent required return is: NPV = –$138,000 + $28,500(PVIFA 20%, 9 ) = –$23,117.45 At a 20 percent required return, the NPV is negative, so we would reject the project. We would be indifferent to the project if the required return was equal to the IRR of the project, since at that required return the NPV is zero. The IRR of the project is: 0 = –$138,000 + $28,500(PVIFA IRR, 9 ) IRR = 14.59% 15. The profitability index is defined as the PV of the cash inflows divided by the PV of the cash outflows. The equation for the profitability index at a required return of 10 percent is: PI = [$7,300/1.1 + $6,900/1.1 2 + $5,700/1.1 3 ] / $14,000 = 1.187 The equation for the profitability index at a required return of 15 percent is: PI = [$7,300/1.15 + $6,900/1.15 2 + $5,700/1.15 3 ] / $14,000 = 1.094 The equation for the profitability index at a required return of 22 percent is: PI = [$7,300/1.22 + $6,900/1.22 2 + $5,700/1.22 3 ] / $14,000 = 0.983 8 / 17 We would accept the project if the required return were 10 percent or 15 percent since the PI is greater than one. We would reject the project if the required return were 22 percent since the PI。
Chapter 061.The changes in a firm's future cash flows that are a direct consequence of accepting a project arecalled _____ cash flows.A. i ncrementalB. s tand-aloneC. o pportunityD. n et present valueE. e rosion2.The annual annuity stream of payments with the same present value as a project's costs is calledthe project's _____ cost.A. i ncrementalB. s unkC. o pportunityD. e rosionE. e quivalent annual3. A cost that has already been paid, or the liability to pay has already been incurred, is a(n):A. s alvage value expense.B. n et working capital expense.C. s unk cost.D. o pportunity cost.E. e rosion cost.4.The most valuable investment given up if an alternative investment is chosen is a(n):A. s alvage value expense.B. n et working capital expense.C. s unk cost.D. o pportunity cost.E. e rosion cost.5. A decrease in a firm’s current cash flows resulting from the implementation of a new project isreferred to as:A. s alvage value expenses.B. n et working capital expenses.C. s unk costs.D. o pportunity costs.E. e rosion costs.6.The depreciation method currently allowed under U.S. tax law governing the accelerated write-offof property under various lifetime classifications is called _____ depreciation.A. F IFOB. M ACRSC. s traight-lineD. s um-of-years digitsE. c urvilinear7.The cash flow tax savings generated as a result of a firm's tax-deductible depreciation expense iscalled the:A. a ftertax depreciation savings.B. d epreciable basis.C. d epreciation tax shield.D. o perating cash flow.E. a ftertax salvage value.8.The cash flow from a project is computed as the:A. n et operating cash flow generated by the project, less any sunk costs and erosion costs.B. s um of the incremental operating cash flow and aftertax salvage value of the project.C. n et income generated by the project, plus the annual depreciation expense.D. s um of the incremental operating cash flow, capital spending, and net working capital cashflows incurred by the project.E. s um of the sunk costs, opportunity costs, and erosion costs of the project.9.Interest rates or rates of return on investments that have been adjusted for the effects of inflationare called _____ rates.A. r ealB. n ominalC. e ffectiveD. s trippedE. c oupon10.The increase you realize in buying power as a result of owning an investment is referred to as the_____ rate of return.A. i nflatedB. r ealizedC. n ominalD. r ealE. r isk-free11.The pro forma income statement for a cost reduction project:A. w ill reflect a reduction in the sales of the firm.B. w ill generally reflect no incremental sales.C. h as to be prepared reflecting the total sales and expenses of the entire firm.D. c annot be prepared due to the lack of any project related sales.E. w ill always reflect a negative project operating cash flow.12.One purpose of identifying all of the incremental cash flows related to a proposed project is to:A. i solate the total sunk costs so they can be evaluated to determine if the project will add valueto the firm.B. e liminate any cost which has previously been incurred so that it can be omitted from theanalysis of the project.C. m ake each project appear as profitable as possible for the firm.D. i nclude both the proposed and the current operations of a firm in the analysis of the project.E. i dentify any and all changes in the cash flows of the firm for the past year so they can beincluded in the analysis.13.Sunk costs include any cost that:A. w ill change if a project is undertaken.B. w ill be incurred if a project is accepted.C. h as previously been incurred and cannot be changed.D. w ill be paid to a third party and cannot be refunded for any reason whatsoever.E. w ill occur if a project is accepted and once incurred, cannot be recouped.14.You spent $500 last week fixing the transmission in your car. Now, the brakes are acting up andyou are trying to decide whether to fix them or trade the car in for a newer model. In analyzing the brake situation, the $500 you spent fixing the transmission is a(n) _____ cost.A. o pportunityB. f ixedC. i ncrementalD. s unkE. r elevant15.Erosion can be explained as the:A. a dditional income generated from the sales of a newly added product.B. l oss of current sales due to a new project being implemented.C. l oss of revenue due to employee theft.D. l oss of revenue due to customer theft.E. l oss of cash due to the expenses required to fix a parking lot after a heavy rain storm.16.Which one of these is an example of erosion that should be included in project analysis?A. T he anticipated loss of current sales when a new product is launched.B. T he expected decline in sales as a new product ages.C. T he reduction in your sales that occurs when a competitor introduces a new product.D. T he sudden loss of sales due to a major employer in your community implementing massivelayoffs.E. T he reduction in sales price that will most likely be required to sell inventory that has aged.17.Which one of the following should be excluded from the analysis of a project?A. e rosion costsB. i ncremental fixed costsC. i ncremental variable costsD. s unk costsE. o pportunity costs18.All of the following are anticipated effects of a proposed project. Which of these should be considered when computing the cash flow for the final year of a project?A. o perating cash flow and salvage valuesB. s alvage values and net working capital recoveryC.operating cash flow, net working capital recovery, salvage valuesD. n et working capital recovery and operating cash flowE.operating cash flow only19.Changes in the net working capital:A. c an affect the cash flows of a project every year of the project's life.B. o nly affect the initial cash flows of a project.C. a re included in project analysis only if they represent cash outflows.D. a re generally excluded from project analysis due to their irrelevance to the total project.E. a ffect the initial and the final cash flows of a project but not the cash flows of the middle years.20.The net working capital of a firm will decrease if there is:A. a decrease in accounts payable.B. a n increase in inventory.C. a decrease in accounts receivable.D. a n increase in the firm's checking account balance.E. a decrease in fixed assets. working capital:A. c an be ignored in project analysis because any expenditure is normally recouped by the end ofthe project.B. r equirements generally, but not always, create a cash inflow at the beginning of a project.C. e xpenditures commonly occur at the end of a project.D. i s frequently affected by the additional sales generated by a new project.E. i s the only expenditure where at least a partial recovery can be made at the end of a project.22.A company which uses the MACRS system of depreciation:A. w ill have equal depreciation costs each year of an asset's life.B. w ill expense the largest percentage of the cost during an asset’s first year of life.C. c an depreciate the cost of land, if it so desires.D. w ill write off the entire cost of an asset over the asset's class life.E. c annot expense any of the cost of a new asset during the first year of the asset's life.23.Champion Toys just purchased some MACRS 5-year property at a cost of $230,000. TheMACRS rates are 20 percent, 32 percent, 19.2 percent, 11.52 percent, 11.52 percent, and 5.76 percent for Years 1 to 6, respectively. The book value of the asset as of the end of Year 2 can be calculated as:A. $230,000 × (1 −.20 −.32).B. $230,000 × ([1 - (.20 × .32)].B. $230,000 × (1 - .20) × (1 - .32).C. $230,000 / (1 - .20 - .32).D. $230,000 - ($230,000 × .20 × .32).24.Pete’s Garage just purchased some equipment at a cost of $650,000. What is the propermethodology for computing the depreciation expense for Year 3 if the equipment is classified as 5-year property for MACRS? The MACRS rates are 20 percent, 32 percent, 19.2 percent, 11.52 percent, 11.52 percent, and 5.76 percent for Years 1 to 6, respectively.A. $650,000 ×(1 − .20) ×(1 −.32) ×(1 −.192)B. $650,000 ×(1 − .20) ×(1 −.32)C. $650,000 ×(1 − .20) ×(1 − .32) × .192)D. $650,000 ×(1 −.192)E. $650,000 ×.19225.The book value of an asset is primarily used to compute the:A. a nnual depreciation tax shield.B. a mount of cash received from the sale of an asset.C. a mount of tax saved annually due to the depreciation expense.D. a mount of tax due on the sale of an asset.E. c hange in depreciation needed to reflect the market value of the asset.26.The salvage value of an asset creates an aftertax cash flow in an amount equal to the:A. s ales price of the asset.B. s ales price minus the book value.C. s ales price minus the tax due based on the sales price minus the book value.D. s ales price plus the tax due based on the sales price minus the book value.E. s ales price plus the tax due based on the book value minus the sales price.27.The pretax salvage value of an asset is equal to the:A. b ook value if straight-line depreciation is used.B. b ook value if MACRS depreciation is used.C. m arket value minus the book value.D. b ook value minus the market value.E. m arket value.28.A project's operating cash flow will increase when the:A. d epreciation expense increases.B. s ales projections are lowered.C. i nterest expense is lowered.D. n et working capital requirement increases.E. e arnings before interest and taxes decreases.29.The cash flows of a project should:A. b e computed on a pretax basis.B. i nclude all sunk costs and opportunity costs.C. i nclude all incremental and opportunity costs.D. b e applied to the year when the related expense or income is recognized by GAAP.E. i nclude all financing costs related to new debt acquired to finance the project.30.Assume a firm has no interest expense or extraordinary items. Given this, the operating cash flow can be computed as:A. E BIT - Taxes.B. E BIT × (1 - Tax rate) + Depreciation × Tax rate.C. (Sales - Costs) × (1 - Tax rate).D. E BIT - Depreciation + Taxes.E.Net income + Depreciation.31.The bottom-up approach to computing the operating cash flow applies only when:A. b oth the depreciation expense and the interest expense are equal to zero.B. t he interest expense is equal to zero.C. t he project is a cost-cutting project.D. n o fixed assets are required for the project.E. t axes are ignored and the interest expense is equal to zero.32.The top-down approach to computing the operating cash flow:A. i gnores all noncash items.B. a pplies only if a project produces sales.C. c an only be used if the entire cash flows of a firm are included.D. i s equal to Sales −Costs −Taxes + Depreciation.E. i ncludes the interest expense related to a project.33.For a profitable firm, an increase in which one of the following will increase the operating cashflow?A. e mployee salariesB. o ffice rentC. b uilding maintenanceD. d epreciationE. e quipment rental34.Tax shield refers to a reduction in taxes created by:A. a reduction in sales.B. a n increase in interest expense.C. n oncash expenses.D. a project's incremental expenses.E. o pportunity costs.35.A project which is designed to improve the manufacturing efficiency of a firm but will generate noadditional sales revenue is referred to as a(n) _____ project.A. s unk costB. o pportunityC. c ost-cuttingD. r evenue-cuttingE. r evenue-generating36.Toni's Tools is comparing machines to determine which one to purchase. The machines sell fordiffering prices, have differing operating costs, differing machine lives, and will be replaced when worn out. These machines should be compared using:A. n et present value only.B. b oth net present value and the internal rate of return.C. t heir equivalent annual costs.D. t he depreciation tax shield approach.E. t he replacement parts approach.37.The equivalent annual cost method is useful in determining:A. t he annual operating cost of a machine if the annual maintenance is performed versus whenthe maintenance is not performed as recommended.B. t he tax shield benefits of depreciation given the purchase of new assets for a project.C. o perating cash flows for cost-cutting projects of equal duration.D. w hich one of two machines to acquire given equal machine lives but unequal machine costs.E. w hich one of two machines to purchase when the machines are mutually exclusive, havedifferent machine lives, and will be replaced once they are worn out.38.Marshall's purchased a corner lot five years ago at a cost of $498,000 and then spent $63,500 ongrading and drainage so the lot could be used for storing outdoor inventory. The lot was recently appraised at $610,000. The company now wants to build a new retail store on the site. Thebuilding cost is estimated at $1.1 million. What amount should be used as the initial cash flow for this building project?A. $1,661,500B. $1,100,000C. $1,208,635D. $1,710,000E. $1,498,00039.Samson's purchased a lot four years ago at a cost of $398,000. At that time, the firm spent$289,000 to build a small retail outlet on the site. The most recent appraisal on the propertyplaced a value of $629,000 on the property and building. Samson’s now wants to tear down the original structure and build a new strip mall on the site at an estimated cost of $2.3 million. What amount should be used as the initial cash flow for new project?A. $2,987,000B. $2,242,000C. $2,058,000D. $2,300,000E. $2,929,00040.Jamestown Ltd. currently produces boat sails and is considering expanding its operations toinclude awnings. The expansion would require the use of land the firm purchased three years ago at a cost of $142,000 that is currently valued at $137,500. The expansion could use someequipment that is currently sitting idle if $6,700 of modifications were made to it. The equipment originally cost $139,500 six years ago, has a current book value of $24,700, and a current market value of $39,000. Other capital purchases costing $780,000 will also be required. What is the amount of the initial cash flow for this expansion project?A. $953,400B. $962,300C. $948,900D. $927,800E. $963,20041.The Boat Works currently produces boat sails and is considering expanding its operations toinclude awnings. The expansion would require the use of land the firm purchased three years ago at a cost of $197,000 that is currently valued at $209,500. The expansion could use someequipment that is currently sitting idle if $7,500 of modifications were made to it. The equipment originally cost $387,500 five years ago, has a current book value of $132,700, and a current market value of $139,000. Other capital purchases costing $520,000 will also be required. What is the value of the opportunity costs that should be included in the initial cash flow for theexpansion project?A. $425,000B. $485,000C. $329,700D. $348,500E. $537,20042.Walks Softly sells customized shoes. Currently, it sells 14,800 pairs of shoes annually at anaverage price of $59 a pair. It is considering adding a lower-priced line of shoes that will be priced at $39 a pair. Walks Softly estimates it can sell 6,000 pairs of the lower-priced shoes but will sell 3,500 less pairs of the higher-priced shoes by doing so. What annual sales revenue should be used when evaluating the addition of the lower-priced shoes?A. $27,500B. $24,000C. $31,300D. $789,100E. $900,70043.Foamsoft sells customized boat shoes. Currently, it sells 16,850 pairs of shoes annually at anaverage price of $79 a pair. It is considering adding a lower-priced line of shoes which sell for $49a pair. Foamsoft estimates it can sell 5,000 pairs of the lower-priced shoes but will sell 1,250 lesspairs of the higher-priced shoes by doing so. What is the estimated value of the erosion cost that should be charged to the lower-priced shoe project?A. $138,750B. $146,250C. $98,750D. $52,000E. $123,24044.Sue purchased a house for $89,000, spent $56,000 upgrading it, and currently had it appraised at$212,900. The house is being rented to a family for $1,200 a month, the maintenance expenses average $200 a month, and the property taxes are $4,800 a year. If she sells the house she will incur $20,000 in expenses. She is considering converting the house into professional officespace. What opportunity cost, if any, should she assign to this property if she has been renting it for the past two years? A. $178,500A. $120,000B. $185,000C. A NSD. $192,900D. $232,90045.Jamie's Motor Home Sales currently sells 1,100 Class A motor homes, 2,200 Class C motorhomes, and 2,800 pop-up trailers each year. Jamie is considering adding a mid-range camper and expects that if she does so she can sell 1,500 of them. However, if the new camper is added, Jamie expects that her Class A sales will decline to 850 units while the Class C camper sales decline to 2,000. The sales of pop-ups will not be affected. Class A motor homes sell for anaverage of $140,000 each. Class C homes are priced at $59,500 and the pop-ups sell for $5,000 each. The new mid-range camper will sell for $42,900. What is the erosion cost of adding the mid-range camper?A. $54,250,000B. $46,900,000C. $53,750,000D. $63,150,000E. $78,750,00046.Ernie's Electrical is evaluating a project which will increase sales by $50,000 and costs by$30,000. The project will cost $150,000 and will be depreciated straight-line to a zero book value over the 10-year life of the project. The applicable tax rate is 34 percent. What is the operating cash flow for this project?A. $19,200B. $15,000C. $21,300D. $17,900E. $18,30047.Kurt's Cabinets is looking at a project that will require $80,000 in fixed assets and another$20,000 in net working capital. The project is expected to produce sales of $110,000 withassociated costs of $70,000. The project has a 4-year life. The company uses straight-line depreciation to a zero book value over the life of the project. The tax rate is 35 percent. What is the operating cash flow for this project?A. $7,000B. $13,000C. $27,000D. $33,000E. $40,00048.Peter's Boats has sales of $760,000 and a profit margin of 5 percent. The annual depreciationexpense is $80,000. What is the amount of the operating cash flow if the company has no long-term debt?A. $34,000B. $86,400C. $118,000D. $120,400E. $123,90049.Samoa's Tools has sales of $760,000 and a profit margin of 8 percent. The annual depreciationexpense is $50,000. What is the amount of the operating cash flow if the company has no long-term debt?A. $50,000B. $60,800C. $110,800D. $810,000E. $930,00050.Le Place has sales of $439,000, depreciation of $32,000, and net working capital of $56,000. Thefirm has a tax rate of 34 percent and a profit margin of 6 percent. The firm has no interestexpense. What is the amount of the operating cash flow?A. $49,384B. $52,616C. $54,980D. $58,340E. $114,34051.The By-Way has sales of $435,000, costs of $254,000, depreciation of $35,000, interest expenseof $22,000, and taxes of $43,400. What is the amount of the operating cash flow?A. $115,600B. $157,900C. $137,600D. $322,100E. $114,34052.Ben's Border Café is considering a project that will produce sales of $16,000 and increase cashexpenses by $10,000. If the project is implemented, taxes will increase from $23,000 to $24,500 and depreciation will increase from $4,000 to $5,500. What is the amount of the operating cash flow using the top-down approach?A. $4,000B. $4,500C. $6,000D. $7,500E. $8,50053.Camille's Café is considering a project that will not produce any sales but will decrease cashexpenses by $12,000. If the project is implemented, taxes will increase from $23,000 to $24,500 and depreciation will increase from $4,000 to $5,500. What is the amount of the operating cash flow using the top-down approach?A. $15,000B. $10,500C. $5,500D. $17,500E. $13,50054.Ronnie's Coffee House is considering a project which will produce sales of $6,000 and increasecash expenses by $2,500. If the project is implemented, taxes will increase by $1,300. The additional depreciation expense will be $1,000. An initial cash outlay of $2,000 is required for net working capital. What is the amount of the operating cash flow using the top-down approach?A. $200B. $1,500C. $2,200D. $3,500E. $4,20055.A project will increase sales by $60,000 and cash expenses by $51,000. The project will cost$40,000 and will be depreciated using straight-line depreciation to a zero book value over the 4-year life of the project. The company has a marginal tax rate of 35 percent. What is the operating cash flow of the project using the tax shield approach?A. $5,850B. $8,650C. $9,350D. $9,700E. $10,35056.A project will increase sales by $140,000 and cash expenses by $95,000. The project will cost$100,000 and will be depreciated using the straight-line method to a zero book value over the 4-year life of the project. The company has a marginal tax rate of 34 percent. What is the value of the depreciation tax shield?A. $8,500B. $17,000C. $22,500D. $25,000E. $37,75057.Lee's Furniture just purchased $24,000 of fixed assets that are classified as 5-year MACRSproperty. The MACRS rates are 20 percent, 32 percent, 19.2 percent, 11.52 percent, 11.52 percent, and 5.76 percent for Years 1 to 6, respectively. What is the amount of the depreciation expense for the third year?A. $2,304B. $2,507C. $2,765D. $4,608E. $4,80058.Lew just purchased $67,600 of equipment that is classified as 5-year MACRS property. TheMACRS rates are 20 percent, 32 percent, 19.2 percent, 11.52 percent, 11.52 percent, and 5.76 percent for Years 1 to 6, respectively. What will the book value of this equipment be at the end of four years should he decide to resell the equipment at that point in time?A. $11,681.28B. $18,280.20C. $17,040.00D. $19,468.80E. $22,672.0059.Northern Enterprises just purchased $1,900 of fixed assets that are classified as 3-year MACRSproperty. The MACRS rates are 33.33 percent, 44.44 percent, 14.82 percent, and 7.41 percent for Years 1 to 4, respectively. What is the amount of the depreciation expense for Year 2?A. $562.93B. $633.27C. $719.67D. $844.36E. $1,477.6360.The Galley purchased some 3-year MACRS property two years ago at a cost of $19,800. TheMACRS rates are 33.33 percent, 44.44 percent, 14.82 percent, and 7.41 percent. The firm no longer uses this property so is selling it today at a price of $13,500. What is the amount of the pretax profit on the sale?A. $11,140.48B. $9,098.46C. $10,500.00D. $8,016.67E. $10,702.4061.Three years ago, you purchased some 5-year MACRS equipment at a cost of $135,000. TheMACRS rates are 20 percent, 32 percent, 19.2 percent, 11.52 percent, 11.52 percent, and 5.76 percent for Years 1 to 6, respectively. You sold the equipment today for $82,500. Which of these statements is correct if your tax rate is 34 percent?A. T he tax due on the sale is $14,830.80.B. T he book value today is $40,478.C. T he book value today is $37,320.D. T he taxable amount on the sale is $47,380.E. T he tax refund from the sale is $13,219.20.62.Custom Cars purchased some $39,000 of fixed assets two years ago that are classified as 5-yearMACRS property. The MACRS rates are 20 percent, 32 percent, 19.2 percent, 11.52 percent,11.52 percent, and 5.76 percent for Years 1 to 6, respectively. The tax rate is 34 percent. If theassets are sold today for $19,000, what will be the aftertax cash flow from the sale?A. $16,358.88B. $17,909.09C. $18,720.00D. $18,904.80E. $19,000.0063.Winslow Motors purchased $225,000 of MACRS 5-year property. The MACRS rates are 20percent, 32 percent, 19.2 percent, 11.52 percent, 11.52 percent, and 5.76 percent for Years 1 to 6, respectively. The tax rate is 34 percent. If the firm sells the asset after five years for $10,000, what will be the aftertax cash flow from the sale?A. $8,993.60B. $8,880.20C. $11,006.40D. $7,770.40E. $12,892.0064.A project is expected to create operating cash flows of $26,500 a year for four years. The initialcost of the fixed assets is $62,000. These assets will be worthless at the end of the project. An additional $3,000 of net working capital will be required throughout the life of the project. What is the project's net present value if the required rate of return is 12 percent?A. $19,208.11B. $14,028.18C. $15,306.09D. $17,396.31E. $21,954.1765.A project will produce operating cash flows of $45,000 a year for four years. During the life of theproject, inventory will be lowered by $30,000 and accounts receivable will increase by $15,000.Accounts payable will decrease by $10,000. The project requires the purchase of equipment at an initial cost of $120,000. The equipment will be depreciated straight-line to a zero book value over the life of the project. The equipment will be salvaged at the end of the project creating a $25,000 aftertax cash inflow. At the end of the project, net working capital will return to its normal level. What is the net present value of this project given a required return of 15 percent?A. $23,483.48B. $16,117.05C. $24,909.09D. $22,037.86E. $19,876.0266.A project will produce an operating cash flow of $7,300 a year for three years. The initialinvestment for fixed assets will be $11,600, which will be depreciated straight-line to zero over the asset’s 4-year life. The project will require an initial $500 in net working capital plus an additional $500 every year with all net working capital levels restored to their original levels when the project ends. The fixed assets can be sold for an estimated $2,500 at the end of the project, the tax rate is 34 percent, and the required rate of return is 12 percent. What is the net present value of the project?A. $7,532.27B. $9,896.87C. $7,072.72D. $6,353.41E. $8,398.2967.Matty's Place is considering the installation of a new computer system that will cut annualoperating costs by $12,000. The system will cost $42,000 to purchase and install. This system is expected to have a 5-year life and will be depreciated to zero using straight-line depreciation.What is the amount of the earnings before interest and taxes for each year of this project?A. −$20,400B. $5,400C. $3,600D. $12,000E. $8,400。
30.1 The new corporation issues $300,000 in new debt. The merger creates $100,000 ofgoodwill because the merger is a purchase.Balance SheetLager Brewing(in $ thousands)Current assets $480 Current liabilities $200Other assets 140 Long-term debt 400Net fixed assets 580 Equity 700Goodwill 100Total assets $1,300 Total liabilities $1,300 30.2 If the balance sheet for Philadelphia Pretzel shows assets at book value instead of marketvalue, the goodwill will be only $60,000 (=$300,000 - $240,000). Thus, the net fixed assetsare $620,000 (=$1,300,000 - $480,000 - $140,000 - $60,000).Balance SheetLager Brewing(in $ thousands)Current assets $480 Current liabilities $200Other assets 140 Long-term debt 400Net fixed assets 620 Equity 700Goodwill 60Total assets $1,300 Total liabilities $1,300 30.3Balance SheetLager Brewing(in $ thousands)Current assets $480 Current liabilities $280Other assets 140 Long-term debt 100Net fixed assets 580 Equity 820Total assets $1,200 Total liabilities $1,200 30.4 a. False. Although the reasoning seems correct, the Stillman-Eckbo data do not supportthe monopoly power theory.b. True. When managers act in their own interest, acquisitions are an important controldevice for shareholders. It appears that some acquisitions and takeovers are theconsequence of underlying conflicts between managers and shareholders.c. False. Even if markets are efficient, the presence of synergy will make the value ofthe combined firm different from the sum of the values of the separate firms.Incremental cash flows provide the positive NPV of the transaction.d. False. In an efficient market, traders will value takeovers based on “Fundamentalfactors” regardless of the time horizon. Recall that the evidence as a whole suggestsefficiency in the markets. Mergers should be no different.e. False. The tax effect of an acquisition depends on whether the merger is taxable ornon-taxable. In a taxable merger, there are two opposing factors to consider, thecapital gains effect and the write-up effect. The net effect is the sum of these twoeffects.f. True. Because of the coinsurance effect, wealth might be transferred from thestockholders to the bondholders. Acquisition analysis usually disregards this effectand considers only the total value.30.530.6 a. The weather conditions are independent. Thus, the joint probabilities are theproducts of the individual probabilities.Possible states Joint probabilityRain Rain 0.1 x 0.1=0.01Rain Warm 0.1 x 0.4=0.04Rain Hot 0.1 x 0.5=0.05Warm Rain 0.4 x 0.1=0.04Warm Warm 0.4 x 0.4=0.16Warm Hot 0.4 x 0.5=0.20Hot Rain 0.5 x 0.1=0.05Hot Warm 0.5 x 0.4=0.20Hot Hot 0.5 x 0.5=0.25Since the state Rain Warm has the same outcome (revenue) as Warm Rain, theirprobabilities can be added. The same is true of Rain Hot, Hot Rain and Warm Hot,Hot Warm. Thus the joint probabilities arePossibleJoint probabilitystatesRain Rain 0.01Rain Warm 0.08Rain Hot 0.10Warm Warm 0.16Warm Hot 0.40Hot Hot 0.25The joint values are the sums of the values of the two companies for the particularstate.Possible states Joint valueRain Rain $200,000Rain Warm 300,000Warm Warm 400,000Rain Hot 500,000Warm Hot 600,000Hot Hot 800,000b. Recall, if a firm cannot service its debt, the bondholders receive the value of the assets.Thus, the value of the debt is the value of the company if the face value of the debt isgreater than the value of the company. If the value of the company is greater than the value of the debt, the value of the debt is its face value. Here the value of the common stock is always the residual value of the firm over the value of the debt.Joint Prob. Joint Value Debt Value Stock Value0.01 $200,000 $200,000 $00.08 300,000 300,000 00.16 400,000 400,000 00.10 500,000 400,000 100,0000.40 600,000 400,000 200,0000.25 800,000 400,000 400,000c. To show that the value of the combined firm is the sum of the individual values, youmust show that the expected joint value is equal to the sum of the separate expected values.Expected joint value= 0.01($200,000) + 0.08($300,000) + 0.16($400,000) + 0.10($500,000) +0.40($600,000) + 0.25($800,000)= $580,000Since the firms are identical, the sum of the expected values is twice the expectedvalue of either.Expected individual value = 0.1($100,000) + 0.4($200,000) + 0.5($400,000) = $290,000 Expected combined value = 2($290,000) = $580,000d. The bondholders are better off if the value of the debt after the merger is greater thanthe value of the debt before the merger.Value of the debt before the merger:The value of debt for either company= 0.1($100,000) + 0.4($200,000) + 0.5($200,000) = $190,000Total value of debt before the merger = 2($190,000) = $380,000Value of debt after the merger= 0.01($200,000) + 0.08($300,000) + 0.16($400,000) + 0.10($400,000) +0.40($400,000) +0.25($400,000)= $390,000The bondholders are $10,000 better off after the merger.30.7 The decision hinges upon the risk of surviving. The final decision should hinge on thewealth transfer from bondholders to stockholders when risky projects are undertaken.High-risk projects will reduce the expected value of the bondholders’ claims on the firm.The telecommunications business is riskier than the utilities business. If the total value of the firm does not change, the increase in risk should favor the stockholder. Hence,management should approve this transaction. Note, if the total value of the firm dropsbecause of the transaction and the wealth effect is lower than the reduction in total value, management should reject the project.30.8 If the market is “smart,” the P/E ratio will not be constant.a. Value = $2,500 + $1,000 = $3,500b. EPS = Post-merger earnings / Total number of shares=($100 + $100)/200 =$1c. Price per share = Value/Total number of shares=$3,500/200 =$17.50d. If the market is “fooled,” the P/E ratio will be constant at $25.Value = P/E * Total number of shares= 25 * 200 = $5,000EPS = Post-merger earnings / Total number of shares=$5,000/200 = $25.0030.9 a. After the merger, Arcadia Financial will have 130,000 [=10,000 + (50,000)(6/10)]shares outstanding. The earnings of the combined firm will be $325,000. The earningsper share of the combined firm will be $2.50 (=$325,000/130,000). The acquisition will increase the EPS for the stockholders from $2.25 to $2.50.b. There will be no effect on the original Arcadia stockholders. No synergies exist in thismerger since Arcadia is buying Coldran at its market price. Examining the relativevalues of the two firms sees the latter point.Share price of Arcadia = (16 * $225,000) / 100,000=$36Share price of Coldran = (10.8 * $100,000) / 50,000=$21.60The relative value of these prices is $21.6/$36 = 0.6. Since Coldran’s shareholdersreceive 0.6 shares of Arcadia for every share of Coldran, no synergies exist.30.10 a. The synergy will be the discounted incremental cash flows. Since the cash flows areperpetual, this amount isb. The value of Flash-in-the-Pan to Fly-by-Night is the synergy plus the current marketvalue of Flash-in-the-Pan.V = $7,500,000 + $20,000,000= $27,500,000c. Cash alternative = $15,000,000Stock alternative = 0.25($27,500,000 + $35,000,000)= $15,625,000d. NPV of cash alternative = V - Cost=$27,500,000 - $15,000,000=$12,500,000NPV of stock alternative = V - Cost=$27,500,000 - $15,625,000=$11,875,000e. Use the cash alternative, its NPV is greater.30.11 a. The value of Portland Industries before the merger is $9,000,000 (=750,000x12). Thisvalue is also the discounted value of the expected future dividends.$9,000,000 =r = 0.1025 = 10.25%r is the risk-adjusted discount rate for Portland’s expected future dividends.the value of Portland Industries after the merger isThis is the value of Portland Industries to Freeport.b. NPV = Gain - Cost= $14,815,385 - ($40x250, 000)= $4,815,385c. If Freeport offers stock, the value of Portland Industries to Freeport is the same, but thecost differs.Cost = (Fraction of combined firm owned by Portland’s stockholders)x(Value of the combined firm)Value of the combined firm = (Value of Freeport before merger)+ (Value of Portland to Freeport)= $15x1,000,000 + $14,815,385= $29,815,385Cost = 0.375x$29,815,385= $11,180,769NPV= $14,815,385 - $11,180,769=$3,634,616d. The acquisition should be attempted with a cash offer since it provides a higher NPV.e. The value of Portland Industries after the merger isThis is the value of Portland Industries to Freeport.NPV = Gain-Cost=$11,223,529 - ($40x250,000)=$1,223,529If Freeport offers stock, the value of Portland Industries to Freeport is the same, but the cost differs.Cost = (Fraction of combined firm owned by Portland’s stockholders)x(Value of the combined firm)Value of the combined firm = (Value of Freeport before merger)+ (Value of Portland to Freeport)= $15x1,000,000 + $11,223,529= $26,223,529Cost = 0.375 * $26,223,529=$9,833,823NPV = $11,223,529 - $9,833,823=$1,389,706The acquisition should be attempted with a stock offer since it provides a higher NPV.30.12 a. Number of shares after acquisition=30 + 15 = 45 milStock price of Harrods after acquisition = 1,000/45=22.22 poundsb. Value of Selfridge stockholders after merger:α * 1,000 = 300α = 30%New shares issued = 12.86 mil12.86:20 = 0.643:1The proper exchange ratio should be 0.643 to make the stock offer’s value to Selfridgeequivalent to the cash offer.30.13 To evaluate this proposal, look at the present value of the incremental cash flows.Cash Flows to Company A(in $ million)Year 0 1 2 3 4 5Acquisition of B -550Dividends from B 150 32 5 20 30 45Tax-loss carryforwards 25 25Terminal value 600Total -400 32 30 45 30 645 The additional cash flows from the tax-loss carry forwards and the proposed level of debt should be discounted at the cost of debt because they are determined with very littleuncertainty.The after-tax cash flows are subject to normal business risk and must be discounted at anormal rate.Beta coefficient for the bond = 0.25 = [(8%-6%)/8%].Beta coefficient for the company = 1 = [(0.25)2 + (1.25)(0.75)]Discount rate for normal operations:r = 6% + 8% (1) = 14%Discount rate for dividends:The new beta coefficient for the company, 1, must be the weighted average of the debtbeta and the stock beta.1 = 0.5(0.25) + 0.5(βs)βs = 1.75r = 6% + 8%(1.75) = 20%Because the NPV of the acquisition is negative, Company A should not acquireCompany B.30.14 The commonly used defensive tactics by target-firm managers include:i. corporate charter amendments like super-majority amendment or staggering theelection of board members.ii. repurchase standstill agreements.iii. exclusionary self-tenders.iv. going private and leveraged buyouts.v. other devices like golden parachutes, scorched earth strategy, poison pill, ..., etc.Mini Case: U.S.Steel’s case.You have 3 choices: tender, or do not tender or sell in the market. If you do sell your shares in the market, at some point, somebody else would need to make a decision in “tender” or “not tender” as well.It is important to recognize that the firm has about 60 million shares outstanding (since 30 million shares will give US Steel 50.1% of Marathon shares). Let’s consider the possible sellingthe market price.If you choose not to tender, and 30 million shares were tendered US Steel succeeds to gain50.1% control, you will only receive $85 a share. If you do tender, the price you will receive will be no worse than $85 a share and can be as high as $125 a share. Depending on the number of shares tendered, you will receive one of the following prices.If only 50.1% tendered, you will get $125 per share.If the shares tendered exceed 50.1% but less than 100%, you will get more than $105 ashare.If all 60 million shares were tendered, you will get $105 per share. (which is )It is clear that, in the above 3 cases, when you are not sure about whether US Steel will succeed or not, you will be better off to tender your shares than not tender. This is because at best, you will only receive $85 per share if you choose not to tender.版权申明本文部分内容,包括文字、图片、以及设计等在网上搜集整理。
1.阐述一下机会成本的定义答:某项资产用于某个新项目,则会丧失了其他方式所能带来的潜在收入,这些丧失被认作机会成本2.在计算投资项目的NPV时,下边哪个可以被看成是增量现金流?(1)新的产品所带来的公司的其他产品的销售的下滑(2)只有新的项目被接受,才会开始投入建造的机器和厂房(3)过去的3年发生的和新项目相关的研发费用(4)新项目每年的折旧费用(5)公司发放的股利(6)新项目结束时,销售厂房和机器设备的收入(7)如果新项目被接受,那么需要支付的新雇佣员工的薪水和医疗保险费用答:这里的增量的现金流量可以为负数,而且查看一个项目的增量现金流量主要应该看这些现金流量是否专属于这个项目但也有例外如侵蚀效应、沉没成本和折旧(1)是副效应中的侵蚀效应当算入增量现金流只不过它是负数而已;(2)固定资产的投资当然应担算入增量现金流它也为负数;(3)过去三年的新项目相关的研发费用属于沉没不能算作当前评估项目的增量现金流;(4)折旧费用本来不会直接的带来项目的增量现金流,但是它抵减了税款,间接的提供了增量现金流故应当算作项目的增量现金流;(5)公司的发放的股利应为不属于这个项目的专属现金流量,故不能算作项目的增量现金流量;(6)应当算作项目的增量现金流量,因为它专属于这个项目(7)项目的员工的工资因为专属于这个项目故应当算作该项目的增量现金流量3.你的公司现在生产和销售钢制的高尔夫球杆。
公司董事会建议你考虑生产钛合金和石墨制的高尔夫球杆,下列哪一项不会产生增量现金流。
(1)自有土地可以被用来建设新厂房,但是新项目如果不被接受,该土地将以市场价700000美元出售;(2)如果钛合金和石墨制的高尔夫球杆被接受,则钢制的高尔夫球杆的销售额可能会下降300000美元;(3)去年用在石墨高尔夫球杆上的研发费用为200000答:对于(1)属于机会成本应当算入项目的增量现金流(2)属于副效应中的侵蚀效应应当算入项目的增量现金流;(3)属于沉没成本,不应当算入项目的增量现金流4.如果可以选择,你更愿意接受直线折旧法还是改进的加速成本折旧法?为什么答:应该更加偏向于加速成本折旧法,因为它在前期产生了更多的折旧额,抵减了更多的税款(从货币的时间价值上来说)5.我们在前面套路资本预算的时候,我们假设投资项目的营运资本都能够回收。
公司理财习题答案第十一章Chapter 11: An Alternative View of Risk and Return: The Arbitrage Pricing Theory 11.1Real GNP was higher than anticipated. Since returns are positively related to the level of GNP, returns should rise based on this factor.Inflation was exactly the amount anticipated. Since there was no surprise in this announcement, it will not affect Lewis-Striden returns.Interest Rates are lower than anticipated. Since returns are negatively related to interest rates, the lower than expected rate is good news. Returns should rise due to interest rates.The President’s death is bad news. Although the president was expected to retire, his retirement would not be effective for six months. During that period he would still contribute to the firm. His untimely death mean that thosecontributions would not be made. Since he was generally considered an asset to the firm, his death will cause returns to fall.The poor research results are also bad news. Since Lewis-Striden must continue to test the drug as early as expected. The delay will affect expected future earnings, and thus it will dampen returns now.The research breakthrough is positive news for Lewis Striden. Since it was unexpected, it will cause returns to rise.The competitor’s announcement is also unexpected, but it is not a welcome surprise. this announcement will lower the returns on Lewis-Striden.Systematic risk is risk that cannot be diversified away through formation of a portfolio. Generally, systematic risk factors are those factors that affect a large number of firms in the market. Note those factors do not have to equally affect the firms. The systematic factors in the list are real GNP, inflation and interest rates.Unsystematic risk is the type of risk that can be diversified away throughportfolio formation. Unsystematic risk factors are specific to the firm or industry.Surprises in these factors will affect the returns of the firm in which you are interested, but they will have no effect on the returns of firms in a different industry and perhaps little effect on other firms in the same industry. For Lewis-Striden, the unsystematic risk factors are the president’s ability to contribute to the firm, the research results and the competitor.11.2a.Systematic Risk = 0.042(4,480– 4,416) –1.4(4.3%– 3.1%)– 0.67(11.8% –9.5%)= –0.53%b.Unsystematic Risk = – 2.6%c.Total Return = 9.5% – 0.53% – 2.6% = 6.37%11.3()()()11.81%1.440.3710.0Return Total c.1.44%=23-270.36=Return ic Unsystemat b.0.372%=14.0%15.2%1.903.5%-4.8%2.04=Risk Systematic a.=++=--11.4 a.Stock A:()()R R R R R A A A m m Am A=+-+=+-+βεε105%12142%...Stock B:()()R R R R R B B m m Bm B=+-+=+-+βεε130%098142%...Stock C:()R R R R R C C C m m Cm C=+-+=+-+βεε157%137142%)..(.b.()[]()[]()[]()()()()()()[]()()CB A m cB A m c m B m A m CB A P 25.045.030.0%2.14R 1435.1%925.1225.045.030.0%2.14R 37.125.098.045.02.130.0%7.1525.0%1345.0%5.1030.0%2.14R 37.1%7.1525.0%2.14R 98.0%0.1345.0%2.14R 2.1%5.1030.0R 25.0R 45.0R 30.0R ε+ε+ε+-+=ε+ε+ε+-+++++=ε+-++ε+-++ε+-+=++=c.i.()R R R A B C =+-==+-==+-=105%1215%142%)1113%09815%142%)137%157%13715%142%168%..(..46%.(......ii.R P =+-=12925%1143515%142%)138398%..(..11.5a.Since five stocks have the same expected returns and the same betas, theportfolio also has the same expected return and beta.()R F F E E E E E p =+++++++110084169151212345...b.公司理财习题答案第十一章R F F E N E N E NAs N s are fini F F p N =++++++→∞→=++1100841690110084169121212......,...,1Nbut E te,Thus, R j p 11.6To determine which investment investor would prefer, you must compute the variance of portfolios created by many stocks from either market. Note, because you know that diversification is good, it is reasonable to assume that once an investor chose the market in which he or she will invest, he or she will buy many stocks in that market.Known:E EF ====001002 and and for all i.i σσεε..Assume: The weight of each stock is 1/N; that is, for all i.X N i =1/If a portfolio is composed of N stocks each forming 1/N proportion of the portfolio, thereturn on the portfolio is 1/N times the sum of the returns on the N stocks. Recall that the return on each stock is 0.1+βF+ε.()()()()()()[]()()()()()()()[]()[]()[]()()[]()()()()()j i 2j i 22j i i 2222222222P P P P iP ,0.04Corr 0.01,Cov s =isvariance the ,N as limit In the ,Cov 1/N 1s 1/N s )(1/N 1/N F 2F E 1/N F E 0.10.1/N F 0.1E R E R E R Var 0.101/N 00.1E 1/N F E 0.11/N F 0.1E R E 1/N F 0.1F 0.1(1/N)R 1/N R εε+β=εε+β∞⇒εε-+ε+β=ε∑+εβ+β=ε+β=-ε+β+=-==+β+=ε+β+=ε∑+β+=ε+β+=ε+β+==∑∑∑∑∑∑∑∑()()()()()()Thus,F R f E R E R Var R Corr Var R Corr ii ip P pi jPijR 1i =++=++===+=+010*********002250040002500412212111222.........,,εεεεεεa.()()()()Corr Corr Var R Var R i j i j ppεεεε112212000225000225,,..====Since Var , a risk averse investor will prefer to invest()()R p 1 Var R 2p 〉in the second market.b.Corr ()()εεεε112090i j j ,.,== and Corr 2i ()()Var R Var R pp120058500025==..Since Var averse investor will prefer to invest()()risk a ,R Var R 2p p 1〉in the second market.c.()()()()Corr Var R Var R i j j ppεεεε112120050022500225,,...==== and Corr 2i Since , a risk averse investor will be indifferent ()()Var R Var R pp12=between investing in the two market.d.Indifference implies that the variances of the portfolio in the two markets are equal.()()()()()()Var R Var R Corr Corr Corr Corr p pijiji jij1211222211002250040002500405=+=+=+..,..,,,.εεεεεεεε公司理财习题答案第十一章This is exactly the relationship used in part c.11.7()()()()()()()()()()()() 2.7225%1.211.5s 1.7424%1.211.2s 0.5929%1.210.7s R Var R Var 0/N Var ,N As i.b.22.30%0.22304.9725/100s 4.9725%2.251.211.5s 17.84%0.17843.1824/100s 3.1824%1.441.211.2s 12.62%1.5929/100s 1.5929%1.001.210.7s Var R Var R Var a.22C 22B 22A m 2i i j C 22C B 2B 2A 2A 2i m 2i j ======β=∴→ε∞→===⇒=+====⇒=+===⇒=+=∴ε+β=ii.APT Model:()R R R R i F m F i=+-β%25.14)5.1)(3.36.10(3.3R %06.12)2.1)(3.36.10(3.3R %41.8)7.0)(3.36.10(3.3R C B A =-+==-+==-+=APT Model shows that assets A & B are accurately priced but asset C isoverpriced. Thus, rational investors will not hold asset C.iii.If short selling is allowed, all rational investors will sell short asset C so that the price of asset C will decrease until no arbitrage opportunity exists. In other words, price of asset C should decrease until the return become 14.25%.11.8 a.Let X= the proportion of security of one in the portfolio and (1-X) = the proportion of security two in the portfolio.()()[]()()[]t 222t 121t 2t 212t 111t 1t2t 1pt F F R E x 1F F R E x R X 1XR R β+β+-++β+=-+=The condition that the return of the portfolio does not depend on implies:F 1()05.0)X 1(X 0X 1X 2111=-+=β-+βThus, P=(-1,2); i.e. sell short security one and buy security two.()()()()()()5.2225.11%20%202%201R E 2p p =+-=β=+-=b.Follow the same logic as in part a, we have()()3X 05.1X 1X 0X 1X 4131==-+=β-+βWhere X is the proportion of security three in the portfolio. Thus, sell short security four and buy security three.()()()()()()075.025.03%10%102%103R E 2p p =-=β=-+=this is a risk free portfolio!c.The portfolio in part b provides a risk free return of 10% which is higher than the5% return provided by the risk free security. To take advantage of this opportunity, borrow at the risk free rate of 5% and invest the funds in a portfolio built by selling short security four and buying security three with weights (3,-2).d.Assuming that the risk free security will not change. The price of security four ( that everyone is trying to sell short) will decrease and the price of security three ( that everyone is trying to buy ) will increase. Hence the return of security four will increase and the return of security three will decrease.The alternative is that the prices of securities three and four will remain the same, and the price of the risk-free security drops until its return is 10%.Finally, a combined movement of all security prices is also possible. The prices of security four and the risk-free security will decrease and the price of security four will increase until the opportunity disappears.E (R j 20%10%5%()ββ1210i =2.5。
CHAPTER 16DIVIDENDS AND DIVIDEND POLICYAnswers to Concepts Review and Critical Thinking Questions1.Dividend policy deals with the timing of dividend payments, not the amounts ultimately paid.Dividend policy is irrelevant when the timing of dividend payments doesn’t affect the present value of all future dividends.2. A stock repurchase reduces equity while leaving debt unchanged. The debt ratio rises. A firm could,if desired, use excess cash to reduce debt instead. This is a capital structure decision.3.The chief drawback to a strict dividend policy is the variability in dividend payments. This is aproblem because investors tend to want a somewhat predictable cash flow. Also, if there is information content to dividend announcements, then the firm may be inadvertently telling the market that it is expecting a downturn in earnings prospects when it cuts a dividend, when in reality its prospects are very good. In a compromise policy, the firm maintains a relatively constant dividend. It increases dividends only when it expects earnings to remain at a sufficiently high level to pay the larger dividends, and it lowers the dividend only if it absolutely has to.4.Friday, December 29 is the ex-dividend day. Remember not to count January 1 because it is aholiday, and the exchanges are closed. Anyone who buys the stock before December 29 is entitled to the dividend, assuming they do not sell it again before December 29.5.No, because the money could be better invested in stocks that pay dividends in cash which benefitthe fundholders directly.6.The change in price is due to the change in dividends, not due to the change in dividend policy.Dividend policy can still be irrelevant without a contradiction.7.The stock price dropped because of an expected drop in future dividends. Since the stock price is thepresent value of all future dividend payments, if the expected future dividend payments decrease, then the stock price will decline.8. The plan will probably have little effect on shareholder wealth. The shareholders can reinvest ontheir own, and the shareholders must pay the taxes on the dividends either way. However, the shareholders who take the option may benefit at the expense of the ones who don’t (because of the discount). Also as a result of the plan, the firm will be able to raise equity by paying a 10% flotation cost (the discount), which may be a smaller discount than the market flotation costs of a new issue for some companies.9.If these firms just went public, they probably did so because they were growing and needed theadditional capital. Growth firms typically pay very small cash dividends, if they pay a dividend at all.This is because they have numerous projects available, and they reinvest the earnings in the firm instead of paying cash dividends.B-2 SOLUTIONS10.It would not be irrational to find low-dividend, high-growth stocks. The trust should be indifferentbetween receiving dividends or capital gains since it does not pay taxes on either one (ignoring possible restrictions on invasion of principal, etc.). It would be irrational, however, to hold municipal bonds. Since the trust does not pay taxes on the interest income it receives, it does not need the tax break associated with the municipal bonds. Therefore, it should prefer to hold higher yield, taxable bonds.11.The stock price drop on the ex-dividend date should be lower. With taxes, stock prices should dropby the amount of the dividend, less the taxes investors must pay on the dividends. A lower tax rate lowers the investors’ tax liability.12.With a high tax on dividends and a low tax on capital gains, investors, in general, will prefer capitalgains. If the dividend tax rate declines, the attractiveness of dividends increases.13.Knowing that share price can be expressed as the present value of expected future dividends doesnot make dividend policy relevant. Under the growing perpetuity model, if overall corporate cash flows are unchanged, then a change in dividend policy only changes the timing of the dividends.The PV of those dividends is the same. This is true because, given that future earnings are held constant, dividend policy simply represents a transfer between current and future stockholders.In a more realistic context and assuming a finite holding period, the value of the shares should represent the future stock price as well as the dividends. Any cash flow not paid as a dividend will be reflected in the future stock price. As such the PV of the flows will not change with shifts in dividend policy; dividend policy is still irrelevant.14.T he bird-in-the-hand argument is based upon the erroneous assumption that increased dividendsmake a firm less risky. If capital spending and investment spending are unchanged, the firm’s overall cash flows are not affected by the dividend policy.15.This argument is theoretically correct. In the real world, with transaction costs of security trading,home-made dividends can be more expensive than dividends directly paid out by the firms. However, the existence of financial intermediaries, such as mutual funds, reduces the transaction costs for individuals greatly. Thus, as a whole, the desire for current income shouldn’t be a major factor favoring high-current-dividend policy.16. a.Cap’s past behavior suggests a preference for capital gains, while Widow Jones exhibits apreference for current income.b. Cap could show the Widow how to construct homemade dividends through the sale of stock.Of course, Cap will also have to convince her that she lives in an MM world. Remember thathomemade dividends can only be constructed under the MM assumptions.c.Widow Jones may still not invest in Neotech because of the transaction costs involved inconstructing homemade dividends. Also, the Widow may desire the uncertainty resolutionwhich comes with high dividend stocks.17.To minimize her tax burden, your aunt should divest herself of high dividend yield stocks and investin low dividend yield stock. Or, if possible, she should keep her high dividend stocks, borrow an equivalent amount of money and invest that money in a tax-deferred account.CHAPTER 16 B-3 18. The capital investment needs of small, growing companies are very high. Therefore, payment ofdividends could curtail their investment opportunities. Their other option is to issue stock to pay the dividend, thereby incurring issuance costs. In either case, the companies and thus their investors are better off with a zero dividend policy during the firms’ rapid growth phases. This fact makes these firms attractive only to low dividend clienteles.This example demonstrates that dividend policy is relevant when there are issuance costs. Indeed, it may be relevant whenever the assumptions behind the MM model are not met.19. Unless there is an unsatisfied high dividend clientele, a firm cannot improve its share price byswitching policies. If the market is in equilibrium, the number of people who desire high dividend payout stocks should exactly equal the number of such stocks available. The supplies and demands of each clientele will be exactly met in equilibrium. If the market is not in equilibrium, the supply of high dividend payout stocks may be less than the demand. Only in such a situation could a firm benefit from a policy shift.20. This finding implies that firms use initial dividends to “signal” their potential growth and positiveNPV prospects to the stock market. The initiation of regular cash dividends also serves to convince the market that their high current earnings are not temporary.Solutions to Questions and ProblemsNOTE: All end-of-chapter problems were solved using a spreadsheet. Many problems require multiple steps. Due to space and readability constraints, when these intermediate steps are included in this solutions manual, rounding may appear to have occurred. However, the final answer for each problem is found without rounding during any step in the problem.Basic1.The aftertax dividend is the pretax dividend times one minus the tax rate, so:Aftertax dividend = $6.00(1 – .20) = $4.80The stock price should drop by the aftertax dividend amount, or:Ex-dividend price = $80 – 4.80 = $75.202. a.The shares outstanding increases by 10 percent, so:New shares outstanding = 10,000(1.10) = 11,000New shares issued = 1,000Since the par value of the new shares is £1, the capital surplus per share is £24. The total capital surplus is therefore:B-4 SOLUTIONSCapital surplus on new shares = 1,000(£24) = £24,000Common stock (£1 par value) £ 11,000Capital surplus 204,000Retained earnings 561,500£776,500b.The shares outstanding increases by 25 percent, so:New shares outstanding = 10,000(1.25) = 12,500New shares issued = 2,500Since the par value of the new shares is £1, the capital surplus per share is £24. The total capital surplus is therefore:Capital surplus on new shares = 2,500(£24) = £60,000Common stock (£1 par value) £ 12,500Capital surplus 240,000Retained earnings 524,000£776,5003. a.To find the new shares outstanding, we multiply the current shares outstanding times the ratioof new shares to old shares, so:New shares outstanding = 10,000(3/1) = 30,000The equity accounts are unchanged except that the par value of the stock is changed by the ratio of new shares to old shares, so the new par value is:New par value = £1(1/3) = £.3333 per share.b.To find the new shares outstanding, we multiply the current shares outstanding times the ratioof new shares to old shares, so:New shares outstanding = 10,000(1/5) = 2,000.The equity accounts are unchanged except that the par value of the stock is changed by the ratio of new shares to old shares, so the new par value is:New par value = £1(5/1) = £5.00 per share.CHAPTER 16 B-5 4.To find the new stock price, we multiply the current stock price by the ratio of old shares to newshares, so:a.€65(2/5) = €26.00b.€65(1/1.18) = €55.08c.€65(1/1.40) = €46.43d.€65(7/4) = €113.75e.To find the new shares outstanding, we multiply the current shares outstanding times the ratioof new shares to old shares, so:a: 150,000(5/2) = 375,000b: 150,000(1.18) = 177,000c: 150,000(1.40) = 210,000d: 150,000(4/7) = 85,7145.The stock price is the total market value of equity divided by the shares outstanding, so:P0 = Au$175,000 equity/5,000 shares = Au$35.00 per shareIgnoring tax effects, the stock price will drop by the amount of the dividend, so:P X = Au$35.00 – 1.50 = Au$33.50The total dividends paid will be:Au$1.50 per share(5,000 shares) = Au$7,500The equity and cash accounts will both decline by Au$7,500.6.Repurchasing the shares will reduce shareholders’ equity by Au$4,025. The shares repurchased willbe the total purchase amount divided by the stock price, so:Shares bought = Au$4,025/Au$35.00 = 115And the new shares outstanding will be:New shares outstanding = 5,000 – 115 = 4,885B-6 SOLUTIONSAfter repurchase, the new stock price is:Share price = Au$170,975/4,885 shares = Au$35.00The repurchase is effectively the same as the cash dividend because you either hold a share worth Au$35.00, or a share worth Au$33.50 and Au$1.50 in cash. Therefore, you participate in the repurchase according to the dividend payout percentage; you are unaffected.7. The stock price is the total market value of equity divided by the shares outstanding, so:P0 = ₦360,000 equity/15,000 shares = ₦24 per shareThe shares outstanding will increase by 25 percent, so:New shares outstanding = 15,000(1.25) = 18,750The new stock price is the market value of equity divided by the new shares outstanding, so:P X = ₦360,000/18,750 shares = ₦19.208.With a stock dividend, the shares outstanding will increase by one plus the dividend amount, so:New shares outstanding = 350,000(1.12) = 392,000The capital surplus is the capital paid in excess of par value, which is €1, so:Capital surplus for new shares = 42,000(€19) = €798,000The new capital surplus will be the old capital surplus plus the additional capital surplus for the new shares, so:Capital surplus = €1,650,000 + 798,000 = €2,448,000The new equity portion of the balance sheet will look like this:Common stock (€1 par value) € 392,000Capital surplus 2,448,000Retained earnings 2,160,000€5,000,0009.The only equity account that will be affected is the par value of the stock. The par value will changeby the ratio of old shares to new shares, so:New par value = €1(1/5) = €0.20 per share.CHAPTER 16 B-7The total dividends paid this year will be the dividend amount times the number of shares outstanding. The company had 350,000 shares outstanding before the split. We must remember to adjust the shares outstanding for the stock split, so:Total dividends paid this year = €0.70(350,000 shares)(5/1 split) = €1,225,000The dividends increased by 10 percent, so the total dividends paid last year were:Last year’s dividends = €1,225,000/1.10 = €1,113,636.36And to find the dividends per share, we simply divide this amount by the shares outstanding last year. Doing so, we get:Dividends per share last year = €1,113,636.36/350,000 shares = €3.1810.The equity portion of capital outlays is the retained earnings. Subtracting dividends from net income,we get:Equity portion of capital outlays = $1,200 – 600 = $600Since the debt-equity ratio is .80, we can find the new borrowings for the company by multiplying the equity investment by the debt-equity ratio, so:New borrowings = .80($600) = $480And the total capital outlay will be the sum of the new equity and the new debt, which is:Total capital outlays = $600 + 480 =$1,080.11. a.The payout ratio is the dividend per share divided by the earnings per share, so:Payout ratio = ₩0.80/₩7Payout ratio = .1143 or 11.43%b.Under a residual dividend policy, the additions to retained earnings, which is the equity portionof the planned capital outlays, is the retained earnings per share times the number of shares outstanding, so:Equity portion of capital outlays = 7M shares (₩7 – .80) = ₩43.4MThis means the total investment outlay will be:Total investment outlay = ₩43.4M + 18MTotal investment outlay = ₩61.4MThe debt-equity ratio is the new borrowing divided by the new equity, so:D/E ratio = ₩18M/₩43.4M = .4147B-8 SOLUTIONSCHAPTER 16 B-9 12. a.Since the company has a debt-equity ratio of 3, they can raise ₡3 in debt for every ₡1 of equity.The maximum capital outlay with no outside equity financing is:Maximum capital outlay = ₡180,000 + 3(₡180,000) = ₡720,000.b.If planned capital spending is ₡800,000, then no dividend will be paid and new equity will beissued since this exceeds the amount calculated in a.c.No, they do not maintain a constant dividend payout because, with the strict residual policy,the dividend will depend on the investment opportunities and earnings. As these two things vary, the dividend payout will also vary.13. a.We can find the new borrowings for the company by multiplying the equity investment by thedebt-equity ratio, so we get:New debt = 2(₪56M) = ₪112MAdding the new retained earnings, we get:Maximum investment with no outside equity financing = ₪56M + 2(₪56M) = ₪168Mb. A debt-equity ratio of 2 implies capital structure is 2/3 debt and 1/3 equity. The equity portionof the planned new investment will be:Equity portion of investment funds = 1/3(₪72M) = ₪24MThis is the addition to retained earnings, so the total available for dividend payments is:Residual = ₪56M – 24M = ₪32MThis makes the dividend per share:Dividend per share = ₪32M/12M shares = ₪2.67c.The borrowing will be:Borrowing = ₪72M – 24M = ₪48MAlternatively, we could calculate the new borrowing as the weight of debt in the capital structure times the planned capital outlays, so:Borrowing = 2/3(₪72M) = ₪48MThe addition to retained earnings is ₪24M, which we calculated in part b.B-10 SOLUTIONSd.If the company plans no capital outlays, no new borrowing will take place. The dividend pershare will be:Dividend per share = ₪56M/12M shares = ₪4.6714. a.If the dividend is declared, the price of the stock will drop on the ex-dividend date by the valueof the dividend, ¥5. It will then trade for ¥95.b.If it is not declared, the price will remain at ¥100.c.Nakumura’s outflows for inves tments are ¥5,000,000. These outflows occur immediately. Oneyear from now, the firm will realize ¥1,000,000 in net income and it will pay ¥500,000 in dividends, but the need for financing is immediate. Nakumura must finance ¥2,000,000 through the sale of shares worth ¥100. It must sell ¥5,000,000 / ¥100 = 50,000 shares.d.The MM model is not realistic since it does not account for taxes, brokerage fees, uncertaintyover future cash flows, investors’ preferences, signaling effects, and agency costs.Intermediate15.The price of the stock today is the PV of the dividends, so:P0 = Rs.0.70/1.15 + Rs.40/1.152 = Rs.30.85To find the equal two year dividends with the same present value as the price of the stock, we set up the following equation and solve for the dividend (Note: The dividend is a two year annuity, so we could solve with the annuity factor as well):Rs.30.85 = D/1.15 + D/1.152D = Rs.18.98We now know the cash flow per share we want each of the next two years. We can find the price of stock in one year, which will be:P1 = Rs.40/1.15 = Rs.34.78Since you own 1,000 shares, in one year you want:Cash flow in Year one = 1,000(Rs.18.98) = Rs.18,979.07B ut you’ll only get:Dividends received in one year = 1,000(Rs.0.70) = Rs.700.00CHAPTER 16 B-11 Thus, in one year you will need to sell additional shares in order to increase your cash flow. The number of shares to sell in year one is:Shares to sell at time one = (Rs.18,979.07 – 700)/Rs.34.78 = 525.52 sharesAt Year 2, you cash flow will be the dividend payment times the number of shares you still own, so the Year 2 cash flow is:Year 2 cash flow = Rs.40(1,000 – 525.52) = Rs.18,979.0716.If you only want Rs.200 in Year 1, you will buy:(Rs.700 – 200)/Rs.34.78 = 14.38 sharesat Year 1. Your dividend payment in Year 2 will be:Year 2 dividend = (1,000 + 14.38)(Rs.40) = Rs.40,575Note that the present value of each cash flow stream is the same. Below we show this by finding the present values as:PV = Rs.200/1.15 + Rs.40,575/1.152 = Rs.30,854.44PV = 1,000(Rs.0.70)/1.15 + 1,000(Rs.40)/1.152 = Rs.30,854.4417. a.If the company makes a dividend payment, we can calculate the wealth of a shareholder as:Dividend per share = 元5,000/200 shares = 元25.00The stock price after the dividend payment will be:P X = 元40 – 25 = 元15 per shareThe shareholder will have a stock worth 元15 and a 元25 dividend for a total wealth of 元40.If the company makes a repurchase, the company will repurchase:Shares repurchased = 元5,000/元40 = 125 sharesIf the shareholder lets their shares be repurchased, they will have 元40 in cash. If the shareholder keeps their shares, they’re still worth 元40.b.If the company pays dividends, the current EPS is 元0.95, and the P/E ratio is:P/E = 元15/元0.95 = 15.79B-12 SOLUTIONSCHAPTER 16 B-13 If the company repurchases stock, the number of shares will decrease. The total net income is the EPS times the current number of shares outstanding. Dividing net income by the new number of shares outstanding, we find the EPS under the repurchase is:EPS = 元0.95(200)/(200 125) = 元2.53The stock price will remain at 元40 per share, so the P/E ratio is:P/E = 元40/元2.53 = 15.79c. A share repurchase would seem to be the preferred course of action. Only those shareholderswho wish to sell will do so, giving the shareholder a tax timing option that he or she doesn’t get with a dividend payment.18. a.Since the firm has a 100 percent payout policy, the entire net income, ฿32,000 will be paid as adividend. The current value of the firm is the discounted value one year from now, plus the current income, which is:Value = ฿32,000 + ฿1,545,600/1.12Value = ฿1,412,000b.The current stock price is the value of the firm, divided by the shares outstanding, which is:Stock price = ฿1,412,000/10,000Stock price = ฿141.20Since the company has a 100 percent payout policy, the current dividend per share will be the company’s net income, divided by the shares outstanding, or:Current dividend = ฿32,000/10,000Current dividend = ฿3.20The stock price will fall by the value of the dividend to:Ex-dividend stock price = ฿141.20 – 3.20Ex-dividend stock price = ฿138.00c. i.According to MM, it cannot be true that the low dividend is depressing the price. Sincedividend policy is irrelevant, the level of the dividend should not matter. Any funds notdistributed as dividends add to the value of the firm, hence the stock price. Thesedirectors merely want to change the timing of the dividends (more now, less in the future).As the calculations below indicate, the value of the firm is unchanged by their proposal.Therefore, share price will be unchanged.B-14 SOLUTIONSTo show this, consider what would happen if the dividend was increased to ฿4.25. Sinceonly the existing shareholders will get the dividend, the required baht amount to pay thedividends is:Total dividends = ฿4.25(10,000)Total dividends = ฿42,500To fund this dividend payment, the company must raise:Bahts raised = Required funds – Net incomeBahts raised = ฿42,500 – 32,000Bahts raised = ฿10,500This money can only be raised with the sale of new equity to maintain the all-equityfinancing. Since those new shareholders must also earn 12 percent, their share of the firmone year from now is:New shareholder value in one year = ฿10,500(1.12)New shareholder value in one year = ฿11,760This means that the old shareholders' interest falls to:Old shareholder value in one year = ฿1,545,600 – 11,760Old shareholder value in one year = ฿1,533,840Under this scenario, the current value of the firm is:Value = ฿42,500 + ฿1,533,840/1.12Value = ฿1,412,000Since the firm value is the same as in part a, the change in dividend policy had no effect.ii.The new shareholders are not entitled to receive the current dividend. They will receive only the value of the equity one year hence. The present value of those flows is:Present value = ฿1,533,840/1.12Present value = ฿1,369,500And the current share price will be:Current share price = ฿1,369,500/10,000Current share price = ฿136.95So, the number of new shares the company must sell will be:Shares sold = ฿10,500/฿136.95Shares sold = 76.67 sharesCHAPTER 16 B-15 19. a.The current price is the current cash flow of the company plus the present value of theexpected cash flows, divided by the number of shares outstanding. So, the current stock price is: Stock price = ($1,200,000 + 15,000,000) / 1,000,000Stock price = $16.20b.To achieve a zero dividend payout policy, he can invest the dividends back into the company’sstock. The dividends per share will be:Dividends per share = [($1,200,000)(.50)]/1,000,000Dividends per share = $0.60And the stockholder in question will receive:Dividends paid to shareholder = $0.60(1,000)Dividends paid to shareholder = $600The new stock price after the dividends are paid will be:Ex-dividend stock price = $16.20 – 0.60Ex-dividend stock price = $15.60So, the number of shares the investor will buy is:Number of shares to buy = $600 / $15.60Number of shares to buy = 38.4620. ing the formula from the text proposed by Lintner:Div1 = Div0 + s(t EPS1– Div0)Div1 = €1.25 + .3[(.4)(€4.50) –€1.25]Div1 = €1.415b.Now we use an adjustment rate of 0.60, so the dividend next year will be:Div1 = Div0 + s(t EPS1– Div0)Div1 = €1.25 + .7[(.4)(€4.50) –€1.25]Div1= €1.635c.The lower adjustment factor in part a is more conservative. The lower adjustment factor willalways result in a lower future dividend.B-16 SOLUTIONSChallenge21.Assuming no capital gains tax, the aftertax return for the Gordon Company is the capital gainsgrowth rate, plus the dividend yield times one minus the tax rate. Using the constant growth dividend model, we get:Aftertax return = g + D(1 – t) = .15Solving for g, we get:.15 = g + .06(1 – .35)g = .1110The equivalent pretax return for Gecko Company, which pays no dividend, is:Pretax return = g + D = .1110 + .06 = 17.10%22. Using the equation for the decline in the stock price ex-dividend for each of the tax ratepolicies, we get:(P0– P X)/D = (1 – T P)/(1 – T G)a.P0– P X = D(1 – 0)/(1 – 0)P0– P X = Db.P0– P X = D(1 – .15)/(1 – 0)P0– P X = .85Dc.P0– P X = D(1 – .15)/(1 – .25)P0– P X = 1.1333Dd.With this tax policy, we simply need to multiply the personal tax rate times one minus thedividend exemption percentage, so:P0– P X = D[1 – (.35)(.30)]/(1 – .35)P0– P X = 1.3769De.Since different investors have widely varying tax rates on ordinary income and capital gains,dividend payments have different after-tax implications for different investors. This differential taxation among investors is one aspect of what we have called the clientele effect.CHAPTER 16 B-17 23.Since the ¥2,000,000 cash is after corporate tax, the full amount will be invested. So, the value ofeach alternative is:Alternative 1:The firm invests in T-bills or in preferred stock, and then pays out as special dividend in 3 years If the firm invests in T-Bills:If the firm invests in T-bills, the aftertax yield of the T-bills will be:Aftertax corporate yield = .07(1 – .35)Aftertax corporate yield = .0455 or 4.55%So, the future value of the corporate investment in T-bills will be:FV of investment in T-bills = ¥2,000,000(1 + .0455)3FV of investment in T-bills = ¥2,285,609.89Since the future value will be paid to shareholders as a dividend, the aftertax cash flow will be:Aftertax cash flow to shareholders = ¥2,285,609.89(1 – .15)Aftertax cash flow to shareholders = ¥1,942,768.41If the firm invests in preferred stock:If the firm invests in preferred stock, the assumption would be that the dividends received will be reinvested in the same preferred stock. The preferred stock will pay a dividend of:Preferred dividend = .11(¥2,000,000)Preferred dividend = ¥220,000Since 70 percent of the dividends are excluded from tax:Taxable preferred dividends = (1 – .70)(¥220,000)Taxable preferred dividends = ¥66,000And the taxes the company must pay on the preferred dividends will be:Taxes on preferred dividends = .35(¥66,000)Taxes on preferred dividends = ¥23,100So, the aftertax dividend for the corporation will be:Aftertax corporate dividend = ¥220,000 – 23,100Aftertax corporate dividend = ¥196,900B-18 SOLUTIONSThis means the aftertax corporate dividend yield is:Aftertax corporate dividend yield = ¥196,900 / ¥2,000,000Aftertax corporate dividend yield = .09845 or 9.845%The future value of the company’s investment in preferred stock will be:FV of investment in preferred stock = ¥2,000,000(1 + .09845)3FV of investment in preferred stock = ¥2,650,762.85Since the future value will be paid to shareholders as a dividend, the aftertax cash flow will be: Aftertax cash flow to shareholders = ¥2,650,762.85(1 – .15)Aftertax cash flow to shareholders = ¥2,253,148.42Alternative 2:The firm pays out dividend now, and individuals invest on their own. The aftertax cash received by shareholders now will be:Aftertax cash received today = ¥2,000,000(1 – .15)Aftertax cash received today = ¥1,700,000The individuals invest in Treasury bills:If the shareholders invest the current aftertax dividends in Treasury bills, the aftertax individual yield will be:Aftertax individual yield on T-bills = .07(1 – .31)Aftertax individual yield on T-bills = .0483 or 4.83%So, the future value of the individual investment in Treasury bills will be:FV of investment in T-bills = ¥1,700,000(1 + .0483)3FV of investment in T-bills = ¥1,958,419.29The individuals invest in preferred stock:If the individual invests in preferred stock, the assumption would be that the dividends received will be reinvested in the same preferred stock. The preferred stock will pay a dividend of:Preferred dividend = .11(¥1,700,000)Preferred dividend = ¥187,000。