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Chapter 1 – Introduction to Management and OrganizationsTrue/False QuestionsThe four contemporary functions of management are planning, organizing, leading, and controlling.True (easy)Effectiveness refers to the relationship between inputs and outputs.False (moderate)Efficiency is often referred to as "doing things right."True (moderate)When managers meet organizational goals, they are efficient and effective.False (difficult)According to Mintzberg’s management roles, the informational role involves receiving, collecting, and disseminating information.True (moderate)Technical skills become less important as a manager moves into higher levels of management.True (moderate)The systems perspective underscores and emphasizes the fact that organizations are different, face different circumstances, and thus may require different ways of managing.False (moderate)Multiple Choice_____________ are organizational members who integrate and coordinate the work of others.a. Managers (easy)b. Team leadersc. Subordinatesd. Operativese. AgentsTypically, in organizations it is the _____________ who are responsible for making organizational decisions and setting policies and strategies that affect all aspects of the organization.a. team leadersb. middle managersc. first-line managersd. top managers (easy)e. subordinates_____________ distinguishes a managerial position from a nonmanagerial one.a. Manipulating othersb. Concern for the lawc. Increasing efficiencyd. Coordinating and integrating others' work (moderate)e. Defining market shareWhich of the following is NOT an example of a decisional role according to Mintzberg?a.spokesperson (moderate)b.entrepreneurc.disturbance handlerd.resource allocatore.negotiatorWhich of the following skills are more important at lower levels of management since these managers are dealing directly with employees doing the organization’s work?a.human skillsb.technical skills (easy)c.conceptual skillsd.empirical skillsUnderstanding building codes would be considered a _____________ skill for a building contractor.a. humanb. technical (easy)c. conceptuald. empiricale. functionalWhich of the following phrases is best associated with managerial conceptual skills?a. decision-making (easy)b. communicating with customersc. motivating subordinatesd. product knowledgee. technical skillsAccording to the text, _____________ are not influenced by and do not interact with their environment.a.open systemsb.closed systems (easy)c.flextime systemsd.reverse systemse.forward systemsThe _____________ view of a manager's job implies that decisions and actions taken in one organizational area will impact other areas.a. systems (moderate)b. contingencyc. conceptuald. functionale. environmentalWhich of the following best describes the concept that management is needed in all types and sizes of organizations,at all organizational levels and in all organizational work areas, and in all organizations, no matter what country they’re located in?a.the partiality of managementb.the segmentation of managementc.the universality of management (moderate)d.the cultures of managementScenarios and QuestionsThe Busy Day (Scenario)Don Eskew, plant manager at Control Systems, Inc., sighed as he sipped his first cup of coffee at 5 a.m. and read his agenda for the day. He is giving two company tours in the morning; the first to a newspaper reporter who is writing a story on the new plant expansion and has several questions, and the second to a group of Control Systems, Inc., managers from the east coast. He then has a meeting with unit manager, Phil Johnson, to discuss Phil's recent drop in performance (a task he always hates). Next, he is spending a couple of hours reviewing the trade journals he receives from his high-tech association and writing up a brief synopsis for his presentation next week to the Division President. Finally, in late afternoon, he will be reviewing the new equipment malfunction and deciding whether to bring in extra people to get the equipment running as soon as possible. Whew! Just another day in the glamorous life of a manager. Together, all of these behaviors performed by Don during his busy day correspond to the management roles discovered in the late 1960s by which of the following management scientists?a. Herzbergb. Skinnerc. Mintzberg (easy)d. Fayole. MaslowWhen Don was meeting with Phil to discuss his performance concerns, he was operating in which management role?a. leader (difficult)b. figureheadc. monitord. disturbance handlere. spokesperson114. What role was Don performing when he gave the plant tour to the newspaper reporter?a. monitorb. figureheadc. disseminatord. spokesperson (difficult)e. resource allocator115. When Don was reviewing the new equipment malfunction, what management role was he playing when deciding whether to bring in extra people?a. monitorb. disseminatorc. resource allocator (moderate)d. disturbance handlere. figureheadEssay QuestionsIn a short essay, discuss the difference between efficiency and effectiveness and include a specific example to support each concept.Answera.Efficiency refers to getting the most output from the least amount of inputs. Because managers deal withscarce inputs—including resources such as people, money, and equipment—they are concerned with theefficient use of resources. For instance, at the Beiersdorf Inc. factory in Cincinnati, where employees makebody braces and supports, canes, walkers, crutches, and other medical assistance products, efficient manufacturing techniques were implemented by doing things such as cutting inventory levels, decreasingthe amount of time to manufacture products, and lowering product reject rates. From this perspective,that is, not wasting resources.efficiency is often referred to a s “doing things right”—that is, those work activities that will help theb.Effectiveness is often described as “doing the right things”—organization reach its goals. For instance, at the Biersdorf factory, goals included open communication between managers and employees, and cutting costs. Through various work programs, these goals werepursued and achieved. Whereas efficiency is concerned with the means of getting things done, effectiveness is concerned with the ends, or attainment of organizational goals.(moderate)In a short essay, list and explain the four basic functions of management.Answera.Planning –involves the process of defining goals, establishing strategies for achieving those goals, anddeveloping plans to integrate and coordinate activities.anizing – involves the process of determining what tasks are to be done, who is to do them, how thetasks are to be grouped, who reports to whom, and where decisions are to be made.c.Leading – when managers motivate subordinates, influence individuals or teams as they work, select themost effective communication channel, or deal in any way with employee behavior issues, they are leading.d.Controlling – to ensure that work is going as it should, managers must monitor and evaluate performance.The process of monitoring, comparing, and correcting is what is meant by the controlling function.(moderate)In a short essay, list and discuss the three essential skills according to Katz that managers need to perform the duties and activities associated with being a manager.Answera.Technical skills – include knowledge of an proficiency in a certain specialized field, such as engineering,computers, accounting, or manufacturing. These skills are more important at lower levels of management since these managers are dealing directly with employees doing the organizationb.Human skills –involve the ability to work well with other people both individually and in a group.Managers with good human skills are able to get the best out of their people. They know how to communicate, motivate, lead, and inspire enthusiasm and trust. These skills are equally important at alllevels of management.c.Conceptual skills – these are the skill that managers must have to think and to conceptualize about abstractand complex situations. Using these skills, managers must be able to see the organization as a whole, understand the relationships among various subunits, and visualize how the organization fits into its broaderenvironment. These skills are most important at the top management levels.(moderate)Chapter 2 – Management Yesterday and TodayTrue/FalseAccording to Adam Smith, division of labor was an important concept.True (easy)In the Industrial Revolution, machine power began substituting for human power.True (easy)“Principles of Scientific Management” was written by Frederick Taylor.True (moderate)Frank Gilbreth’s best-known contribution to scientific management concerned selecting the best worker.False (moderate)。
英语判断正误阅读题Since the actual article content is not provided and the word count requirement exceeds the scope of a typical text-based answer, I will provide a general framework for approaching an English reading comprehension task involving true/false questions. This framework assumes that you have a reading passage and a set of corresponding true/false questions.General Steps for Answering English Reading Comprehension True/False Questions:1. Read the Entire Passage Thoroughly: Understanding the main idea, structure, and key details of the passage is crucial for answering true/false questions accurately. Pay attention to any important facts, definitions, opinions, or conclusions.2. Read the Questions Carefully: Highlight or underline the key words or phrases in each question. These will helpyou identify the specific information you need to find in the passage.3. Locate the Relevant Information in the Passage: Use the keywords or phrases from the questions to guide youback to the relevant part of the passage. Read that section carefully to determine if the information supports the statement in the question.4. Analyze the Statement in the Question: Compare the statement in the question to the information in the passage. Determine if the statement is a direct fact stated in the passage, a logical conclusion based on the information provided, or a distortion or exaggeration of the passage's content.5. Make.。
Chapter 1 – Introduction to Management and OrganizationsTrue/False QuestionsThe four contemporary functions of management are planning, organizing, leading, and controlling.True (easy)Effectiveness refers to the relationship between inputs and outputs.False (moderate)Efficiency is often referred to as "doing things right."True (moderate)When managers meet organizational goals, they are efficient and effective.False (difficult)According to Mintzberg’s management roles, the informational role involves receiving, collecting, and disseminating information.True (moderate)Technical skills become less important as a manager moves into higher levels of management.True (moderate)The systems perspective underscores and emphasizes the fact that organizations are different, face different circumstances, and thus may require different ways of managing.False (moderate)Multiple Choice_____________ are organizational members who integrate and coordinate the work of others.a. Managers (easy)b. Team leadersc. Subordinatesd. Operativese. AgentsTypically, in organizations it is the _____________ who are responsible for making organizational decisions and setting policies and strategies that affect all aspects of the organization.a. team leadersb. middle managersc. first-line managersd. top managers (easy)e. subordinates_____________ distinguishes a managerial position from a nonmanagerial one.a. Manipulating othersb. Concern for the lawc. Increasing efficiencyd. Coordinating and integrating others' work (moderate)e. Defining market shareWhich of the following is NOT an example of a decisional role according to Mintzberg?a.spokesperson (moderate)b.entrepreneurc.disturbance handlerd.resource allocatore.negotiatorWhich of the following skills are more important at lower levels of management since these managers are dealing directly with employees doing the organization’s work?a.human skillsb.technical skills (easy)c.conceptual skillsd.empirical skillsUnderstanding building codes would be considered a _____________ skill for a building contractor.a. humanb. technical (easy)c. conceptuald. empiricale. functionalWhich of the following phrases is best associated with managerial conceptual skills?a. decision-making (easy)b. communicating with customersc. motivating subordinatesd. product knowledgee. technical skillsAccording to the text, _____________ are not influenced by and do not interact with their environment.a.open systemsb.closed systems (easy)c.flextime systemsd.reverse systemse.forward systemsThe _____________ view of a manager's job implies that decisions and actions taken in one organizational area will impact other areas.a. systems (moderate)b. contingencyc. conceptuald. functionale. environmentalWhich of the following best describes the concept that management is needed in all types and sizes of organizations, at all organizational levels and in all organizational work areas, and in all organizations, no matter what country they’re located i n?a.the partiality of managementb.the segmentation of managementc.the universality of management (moderate)d.the cultures of managementScenarios and QuestionsThe Busy Day (Scenario)Don Eskew, plant manager at Control Systems, Inc., sighed as he sipped his first cup of coffee at 5 a.m. and read his agenda for the day. He is giving two company tours in the morning; the first to a newspaper reporter who is writing a story on the new plant expansion and has several questions, and the second to a group of Control Systems, Inc., managers from the east coast. He then has a meeting with unit manager, Phil Johnson, to discuss Phil's recent drop in performance (a task he always hates). Next, he is spending a couple of hours reviewing the trade journals he receives from his high-tech association and writing up a brief synopsis for his presentation next week to the Division President. Finally, in late afternoon, he will be reviewing the new equipment malfunction and deciding whether to bring in extra people to get the equipment running as soon as possible. Whew! Just another day in the glamorous life of a manager. Together, all of these behaviors performed by Don during his busy day correspond to the management roles discovered in the late 1960s by which of the following management scientists?a. Herzbergb. Skinnerc. Mintzberg (easy)d. Fayole. MaslowWhen Don was meeting with Phil to discuss his performance concerns, he was operating in which management role?a. leader (difficult)b. figureheadc. monitord. disturbance handlere. spokesperson114. What role was Don performing when he gave the plant tour to the newspaper reporter?a. monitorb. figureheadc. disseminatord. spokesperson (difficult)e. resource allocator115. When Don was reviewing the new equipment malfunction, what management role was he playing when deciding whether to bring in extra people?a. monitorb. disseminatorc. resource allocator (moderate)d. disturbance handlere. figureheadEssay QuestionsIn a short essay, discuss the difference between efficiency and effectiveness and include a specific example to support each concept.Answera.Efficiency refers to getting the most output from the least amount of inputs. Because managers deal withscarce inputs—including resources such as people, money, and equipment—they are concerned with the efficient use of resources. For instance, at the Beiersdorf Inc. factory in Cincinnati, where employees make body braces and supports, canes, walkers, crutches, and other medical assistance products, efficient manufacturing techniques were implemented by doing things such as cutting inventory levels, decreasing the amount of time to manufacture products, and lowering product reject rates. From this perspective, efficiency is often referred to as “doing things right”—that is, not wasting resources.b.Effectiveness is often described as “doing the right things”—that is, those work activities that will help theorganization reach its goals. For instance, at the Biersdorf factory, goals included open communication between managers and employees, and cutting costs. Through various work programs, these goals were pursued and achieved. Whereas efficiency is concerned with the means of getting things done, effectiveness is concerned with the ends, or attainment of organizational goals.(moderate)In a short essay, list and explain the four basic functions of management.Answera.Planning –involves the process of defining goals, establishing strategies for achieving those goals, anddeveloping plans to integrate and coordinate activities.anizing – involves the process of determining what tasks are to be done, who is to do them, how thetasks are to be grouped, who reports to whom, and where decisions are to be made.c.Leading – when managers motivate subordinates, influence individuals or teams as they work, select themost effective communication channel, or deal in any way with employee behavior issues, they are leading.d.Controlling – to ensure that work is going as it should, managers must monitor and evaluate performance.The process of monitoring, comparing, and correcting is what is meant by the controlling function.(moderate)In a short essay, list and discuss the three essential skills according to Katz that managers need to perform the duties and activities associated with being a manager.Answera.Technical skills – include knowledge of an proficiency in a certain specialized field, such as engineering,computers, accounting, or manufacturing. These skills are more important at lower levels of management since these managers are dealing directly with employees doing the organization’s work.b.Human skills –involve the ability to work well with other people both individually and in a group.Managers with good human skills are able to get the best out of their people. They know how to communicate, motivate, lead, and inspire enthusiasm and trust. These skills are equally important at all levels of management.c.Conceptual skills – these are the skill that managers must have to think and to conceptualize about abstractand complex situations. Using these skills, managers must be able to see the organization as a whole, understand the relationships among various subunits, and visualize how the organization fits into its broader environment. These skills are most important at the top management levels.(moderate)Chapter 2 – Management Yesterday and TodayTrue/FalseAccording to Adam Smith, division of labor was an important concept.True (easy)In the Industrial Revolution, machine power began substituting for human power.True (easy)“Principles of Scientific Management” was written by Frederick Taylor.True (moderate)Frank Gilbreth’s best-known contribution to scientific management concerned selecting the best worker.False (moderate)Frederick Taylor is most associated with the principles of scientific management.True (easy)One could say that Fayol was interested in studying macro management issues, whereas Taylor was interested in studying micro management issues.True (moderate)Bureaucracy, as described by Weber, emphasizes rationality and interpersonal relationships.False (moderate)Decisions on determining a company’s optimum inventory levels have been significantly influenced by economic order quantity modeling.True (moderate)Barnard, Follet, Musterberg, and Owen are all theorists are associated with the early organizational behavior approach.True (moderate)Multiple ChoiceAdam Smith's, "The Wealth of Nations," put forth that the primary economic advantage by societies would be gained from which of the following concepts?a. management planning and controlb. on-the-job trainingc. union representationd. fair employment legislatione. division of labor (difficult)Which of the following is not one of the four management approaches that grew out of the first half of this century?a. scientific managementb. general administrativec. organizational behaviord. systems approach (easy)e. quantitativeAccording to the text, probably the best-known example of Taylor’s scientific management was the ______________ experiment.a.horse shoeb.pig iron (moderate)c.blue collard.fish tankWhich of the following is NOT one of Taylor’s four principles of management?a.Develop a science for each element of an indivi dual’s work, which will replace the old rule-of-thumbmethod.b.Scientifically select and then train, teach, and develop the worker.c.Heartily cooperate with the workers so as to ensure that all work is done in accordance with the principlesdeveloped.d.Provide managers will less work than other employees so the managers can plan accordingly.(difficult)General administrative theory focuses ona. the entire organization. (easy)b. managers and administrators.c. the measurement of organizational design relationships.d. primarily the accounting function.e. administrative issues affecting non-managerial employees.The fourteen principles of management are associated with whom?a. Weberb. Druckerc. Taylord. Gilbrethe. Fayol (moderate)Which of the following approaches to management has also been labeled operations research or management science?a.The qualitative approachb.The quantitative approach (easy)c.The experimental approachd.The theoretical approachWhich of the following would not be associated with the quantitative approach to management?a. information modelsb. critical-path schedulingc. systematic motivation of individuals (moderate)d. linear programminge. statisticsWithout question, the most important contribution to the developing field of organizational behavior came out of the _______________.a.Taylor Studies.b.Porter Studies.c.Parker Studies.d.Hawthorne Studies. (moderate)What scientist is most closely associated with the Hawthorne Studies?a. Adamsb. Mayo (easy)c. Lawlerd. Barnarde. FollettOne outcome of the Hawthorne studies could be described by which of the following statements?a.Social norms are the key determinants of individual work behavior. (moderate)b.Money is more important than the group on individual productivity.c.Behavior and employee sentiments are inversely related.d.Security is relatively unimportant.e.While groups are an important determinant of worker productivity, the individual him/herself is mostimportant.Scenarios and QuestionsHISTORICAL BACKGROUND OF MANAGEMENTA Look Back (Scenario)Cindy Schultz, tired from working with customers all day, decided to take a fifteen-minute nap to help clear her head before the 4:15 managers' meeting. Her company had recently begun a re-engineering process as well as other changes requiring copious management input. As she leaned back in her chair, she wondered if management science had always been this way and how it all began. As she napped, she dreamed that, along with "Mr. Peebodi" as her guide, she was traveling in the "Management Way Back Machine" that took her back through management history.106. One of the earliest sites Cindy visited was Adam Smith's home, author of The Wealth of Nations, which suggested that organizations and society would gain froma. time management.b. division of labor. (moderate)c. group work.d. quality management.e. time and motion studies.107. Cindy visited a bookstore where there was a book signing occurring. She looked down and saw that the title of the book was Principles of Scientific Management and concluded that the author must bea. Adam Smith.b. Frank Gilbreth.c. Henry Gantt.d. Frederick Taylor. (easy)e. Henri Fayol.108. Cindy admired the works of Taylor and Gilbreth, two advocates ofa. scientific management. (moderate)b. organizational behavior.c. human resource management.d. motivation.e. leadership.109. Cindy spent some time visiting with __________, a researcher she previously knew little about but who also contributed to management science by being among the first to use motion picture films to study hand-and-body motions and by devising a classification scheme known as a "therblig."a. Henry Ganttb. Max Weberc. Chester Barnardd. Frank Gilbreth (moderate)e. Mary Parker FolletEssay QuestionsSCIENTIFIC MANAGEMENTIn a short essay, discuss Frederick Taylor’s work in scientific management. Next, list Taylor’s four principles of management.AnswerFrederick Taylor did most of his work at the Midvale and Bethlehem Steel Companies in Pennsylvania. As a mechanical engineer with a Quaker and Puritan background, he was continually appalled by workers’inefficiencies. Employees used vastly different techniques to do the same job. They were inclined to “take it easy” on the job, and Taylor believed that worker output was only about one-third of what was possible.Virtually no work standards existed. Workers were placed in jobs with little or no concern for matching their abilities and aptitudes with the tasks they were required to do. Managers and workers were in continual conflict.Taylor set out to correct the situation by applying the scientific method to shop floor jobs. He spent more than two decades passionately pursuing the “one best way” for each job to be done.Taylor’s Four Principles of Managementa.Develop a science for each element of an individual’s work, which will replace the old rule-of-thumbmethod.b.Scientifically select and then train, teach, and develop the worker.c.Heartily cooperate with the workers so as to ensure that all work is done in accordance with the principlesof the science that has been developed.d.Divide work and responsibility almost equally between management and workers. Management takes overall work for which it is better fitted than the workers.(difficult)122. In a short essay, discuss the work in scientific management by Frank and Lillian Gilbreth.AnswerFrank Gilbreth is probably best known for his experiments in bricklaying. By carefully analyzing thebricklayer’s job, he re duced the number of motions in laying exterior brick from 18 to about 5, and on laying interior brick the motions were reduced from 18 to 2. Using the Gilbreth’s techniques, the bricklayer could be more productive and less fatigued at the end of the day. The Gilbreths were among the first researchers to use motion pictures to study hand-and-body motions and the amount of time spent doing each motion. Wasted motions missed by the naked eye could be identified and eliminated. The Gilbreths also devised a classification scheme to label 17 basic hand motions, which they called therbligs. This scheme allowed the Gilbreths a more precise way of analyzing a worker’s exact hand movements.(moderate)GENERAL ADMINISTRATIVE THEORISTS123. In a short essay, discuss the work of Henri Fayol as it relates to the general administrative approach to management. Next list and discuss seven of Fayol’s fourteen principles of management.AnswerFayol described the practice of management as something distinct from accounting, finance, production,distribution, and other typical business functions. He argued that management was an activity common to all human endeavors in business, government, and even in the home. He then proceeded to state 14 principles of management—fundamental rules of management that could be taught in schools and applied in allorganizational situations.Fayol’s Fourteen Principles of Managementa.Division of work. – specialization increases output by making employees more efficient.b.Authority – managers must be able to give orders. Authority gives them this right. Along with authority,however, goes responsibility.c.Discipline – employees must obey and respect the rules that govern the organization.d.Unity of command – every employee should receive orders from only one superior.e.Unity of direction – the organization should have a single plan of action to guide managers and workers.f.Subordination of individual interests to the general interest – the interests of any one employee or group ofemployees should not take precedence over the interests of the organization as a whole.g.Remuneration – workers must be paid a fair wage for their services.h.Centralization – this term refers to the degree to which subordinates are involved in decision making.i.Scalar chain – the line of authority from top management to the lowest ranks in the scalar chain.j.Order – people and materials should be in the right place at the right time.k.Equity – managers should be kind and fair to their subordinates.l.Stability of tenure of personnel – management should provide orderly personal planning and ensure that replacements are available to fill vacancies.m.Initiative – employees who are allowed to originate and carry out plans will exert high levels of effort.n.Esprit de corps – promoting team spirit will build harmony and unity within the organization.(difficult)124. In a short essay, discuss Max Weber’s contribution to the general administrative approach to management.AnswerMax Weber was a German sociologist who studied organizational activity. Writing in the early 1900s, hedeveloped a theory of authority structures and relations. Weber describes an ideal type of organization hecalled a bureaucracy—a form or organization characterized by division of labor, a clearly defined hierarchy, detailed rules and regulations, and impersonal relationships. Weber recognized that this “ideal bureaucracy”didn’t exist in reality. Instead he intended it as a basis for theorizing about work and how work could be done in large groups. His theory became the model structural design for many or today’s large organizations.(easy)TOWARD UNDERSTANDING ORGANIZATIONAL BEHAVIOR125. In a short essay, describe the Hawthorne Studies. Next, discuss the role of Elton Mayo in these studies and some of the findings of his research.AnswerWithout question, the most important contribution to the developing OB field came out of the HawthorneStudies, a series of studies conducted at the Western Electric Company Works in Cicero, Illinois. These studies were initially designed by Western Electric industrial engineers as a scientific management experiment. They wanted to examine the effect of various illumination levels on worker productivity. Based on their research, it was concluded that illumination intensity was not directly related to group productivity. In 1927, the Western Electric engineers asked Harvard professor Elton Mayo and his associates to join the study as consultants.Through additional research, Elton Mayo concluded that behavior affected individual behavior, that groupstandards establish individual worker output, and that money is less a factor in determining output than are group standards, group sentiments, and security. These conclusions led to a new emphasis on the humanbehavior factor in the functioning of organizations and the attainment of their goals.(difficult)CURRENT TRENDS AND ISSUES126. In a short essay, define entrepreneurship and discuss the three import themes that stick out in this definition of entrepreneurship.AnswerEntrepreneurship is the process whereby an individual or a group of individuals uses organized efforts andmeans to pursue opportunities to create value and grow by fulfilling wants and needs through innovation and uniqueness, no matter what resources are currently controlled. It involves the discovery of opportunities and the resources to exploit them. Three important themes stick out in this definition of entrepreneurship. First, is the pursuit of opportunities. Entrepreneurship is about pursuing environmental trends and changes that no one else has seen or paid attention to. The second important theme in entrepreneurship is innovation.Entrepreneurship involves changing, revolutionizing, transforming, and introducing new approaches—that is, new products or services of new ways of doing business. The final important theme in entrepreneurship is growth. Entrepreneurs pursue growth. They are not content to stay small or to stay the same in size.Entrepreneurs want their businesses to grow and work very hard to pursue growth as they continually look for trends and continue to innovate new products and new approaches.(moderate)127. In a short essay, define e-business and e-commerce. Next discuss the three categories of e-business involvement.AnswerE-business (electronic business) is a comprehensive term describing the way an organization does its work by using electronic Internet-based) linkages with its key constituencies (employees, managers, customers,suppliers, and partners) i n order to efficiently and effectively achieve its goals. It’s more than e-commerce, although e-business can include e-commerce. E-commerce (electronic commerce) is any form of business exchange or transaction in which the parties interact electronically. The first category of e-businessinvolvement an e-business enhanced organization, a traditional organization that sets up e-business capabilities, usually e-commerce, while maintaining its traditional structure. Many Fortune 500 type organizations areevolving into e-businesses using this approach. They use the Internet to enhance (not to replace) theirtraditional ways of doing business. Another category of e-business involvement is an e-business enabledorganization. In this type of e-business, an organization uses the Internet to perform its traditional business functions better, but not to sell anything. In other words, the Internet enables organizational members to do their work more efficiently and effectively. There are numerous organizations using electronic linkages to communicate with employees, customers, or suppliers and to support them with information. The last category of e-business involvement is when an organization becomes a total e-business. Their whole existence is made possible by and revolves around the Internet.(moderate)128. In a short essay, discuss the need for innovation and flexibility as it relates to the survival of today’s organizations.AnswerInnovation has been called the most precious capability that any org anization in today’s economy must have and nurture. Without a constant flow of new ideas, an organization is doomed to obsolescence of even worse, failure. In a survey about what makes an organization valuable, innovation showed up at the top of the list.There is absolutely no doubt that innovation is crucial. Another demand facing today’s organizations andmanagers is the need for flexibility. In a context where customers’ needs may change overnight, where new competitors come and go at breathtaking speed, and where employees and their skills are shifted as needed from project to project, one can see how flexibility might be valuable.(easy)129. In a short essay, discuss the concept of total quality management and the six characteristics that describe this important concept.AnswerA quality revolution swept through both the business and public sectors during the 1980s and 1990s. Thegeneric term used to describe this revolution was total quality management, or TQM for short. It was inspired by a small group of quality experts, the most famous being W. Edwards Deming and Joseph M. Juran. TQM isa philosophy of management driven by continual improvement and responding to customer needs andexpectations. The objective is to create an organization committed to continuous improvement in workprocesses. TQM is a departure from earlier management theories that were based on the belief that low costs were the only road to increased productivity.The Six Characteristics of Total Quality Managementa.Intense Focus on the customer –the customer includes not only outsiders who buy the organization’sproducts or services but also internal customers (such as shipping or accounts payable personnel) who interact with and serve others in the organization.b.Concern for continual improvement –TQM is a commitment to never being satisfied. “Very good” is notgood enough. Quality can always be improved.c.Process-focused –TQM focuses on work processes as the quality of goods and services is continuallyimproved.d.Improvement in the quality of everything the organization does – TQM uses a very broad definition ofquality. It relates not only to the final product but also to how the organization handles deliveries, how rapidly it responds to complaints, and how politely the phones are answered.e.Accurate measurement –TQM uses statistical techniques to measure every critical variable in theorganization’s operations. These are compared against standards or benchmarks to identify problems, trace them to their roots, and eliminate their causes.f.Empowerment of employees – TQM involves the people on the line in the improvement process. Teamsare widely used in TQM programs as empowerment vehicles for finding and solving problems.(difficult)130. In a short essay, describe the learning organization and discuss the concept of knowledge management.AnswerToday’s managers confront an environment where change takes place at an unprecedented rate. Constantinnovations in information and computer technologies combined with the globalization of markets have createda chaotic world. As a result, many of the past management guidelines and principles no longer apply.Successful organizations of the twenty-first century must be able to learn and respond quickly, and will be led by managers who can effectively challenge conventional wisdom, manage the organization’s knowledge base, and make needed changes. In other words, these organizations will need to be learning organizations. Alearning organization is one that has developed the capacity to continuously learn, adapt, and change. Part of a manager’s responsibility in fostering an environment conducing to learning is to create learning capabilities throughout the organization—from lowest level to highest level and in all areas. Knowledge managementinvolves cultivating a learning culture where organizational members systematically gather knowledge and share it with others in the organization so as to achieve better performance.(moderate)Chapter 3 – Organizational CultureIn the symbolic view of management, managers are seen as directly responsible for an organization's success or failure.False (easy)The current dominant assumption in management theory suggests managers are omnipotent.True (moderate)An organizational culture refers to a system of shared meaning.True (moderate)Organizational culture is a perception, not reality.True (moderate)Strong cultures have more influence on employees than weak ones.True (moderate)。
罗宾斯《管理学》第九版试题罗宾斯《管理学》第九版试题Chapter 10 – Organizational Structure and DesignTrue/False QuestionsA MANAGER’S DILEMMA1. According to the boxed feature, ―A Manager’s Dilemma,‖ Nokia was once involved in industries rangingfrom paper to chemicals and rubber.True (moderate)2. According to the boxed feature, ―A Manager’s Dilemma,‖ Nokia has been competing in thetelecommunications industry since 1965.False (moderate)DEFINING ORGANIZATIONAL STRUCTURE3. Organizational design is the organization's formal framework by which job tasks are divided, grouped, and coordinated.False (difficult)4. The concept of work specialization can be traced back a couple of centuries to Adam Smith's discussion ofdivision of labor.True (moderate)5. The degree to which tasks in an organization are divided into separate jobs is division of labor.True (moderate)6. Historically, many organizations have grouped work actions by function departmentalization.True (moderate)7. Grouping jobs on the basis of product or customer flow istermed customer departmentalization.False (moderate)8. Geographic departmentalization has greatly increased in importance as a result of today’s competitivebusiness environmentFalse (moderate)9. A group of individuals who are experts in various specialties and who work together is a cross-functional team.True (moderate)10. Authority is the individual's capacity to influence decisions.False (difficult)11. Authority is synonymous with responsibility.False (easy)12. Responsibility is the rights inherent in a managerial position.False (easy)13. A manager's span of control refers to the number of subordinates who can be effectively and efficientlysupervised.True (moderate)14. The classical view of unity of command suggests that subordinates should have only one superior to whom they report.True (easy)15. The trend in recent years has been toward smaller spans of control.False (easy)16. When decisions tend to be made at lower levels in anorganization, the organization is said to bedecentralized.True (moderate)17. Decentralization describes the degree to which decision making is concentrated at a single point in theorganization.False (moderate)18. In the last 35 years, there has been a trend of organizations moving toward increased decentralization.True (easy)19. Appropriate organizational structure depends on four variables: the organization's strategy, size, technology, and degree of environmental uncertainty.True (difficult)20. Standardization refers to the degree to which jobs within the organization are standardized and the extent towhich employee behavior is guided by rules and procedures.False (moderate)ORGANIZATIONAL DESIGN DECISIONS21. An organic organization tends to be characterized by high specialization, extensive departmentalization,narrow spans of control, high formalization, a limited information network, and little participation indecision-making by low-level employees.False (moderate)22. An organic organization would likely be very flexible.True (moderate)23. Innovators need the efficiency, stability, and tight controls of the mechanistic structure.False (easy)24. The relationship between organizational size and structure tends to be linear.False (difficult)25. Joan Woodward attempted to view organizational structure from a technological perspective.True (moderate)26. Woodward demonstrated that organizational structures adapted to their technology.True (moderate)27. Woodward's findings support that there is "one best way" to organize a manufacturing firm.False (moderate)28. The strength of the functional structure is that it focuses on results.False (moderate) it is the strength of divisional structure.\\\\\\\29. According to the text, a functional structure creates strategic business units.False (moderate)COMMON ORGANIZATIONAL DESIGNS30. Project structures tend to be rigid and inflexible organizational designs.False (easy)Multiple ChoiceA MANAGER’S DILEMMA31. Accordi ng to t he company profile in ―A Manager’s Dilemma,‖ the organizational structure of Nokia is best described as ______________.a. mechanisticb. organic (moderate)c. centralizedd. formalized32. The factor contributing the most to Nokia’s success in the mobile phone industry according to the company profile in ―A Manager’s Dilemma‖ is ______________.a. new product development (moderate)b. government subsidiesc. national trade barriersd. weak competition33. ______________ is the process of creating an organization's structure.a. Human resource managementb. Leadingc. Organizing (moderate)d. Planninge. DepartmentalizationDEFINING ORGANIZATIONAL STRUCTURE34. According to the text, a(n) ______________ is the formal framework by which job tasks are divided,grouped, and coordinated.a. mission statementb. environmental scanc. internal resource analysisd. organizational structure (moderate)35. Which of the following is not one of the six key elements in organizational design?a. work specializationb. departmentalizationc. chain of commandd. bureaucratic design (difficult)e. span of control36. Work specialization is also known as ______________.a. departmentalization.b. centralization.c. span of control.d. formalization.e. division of labor. (easy)37. The term ______________ is used to describe the degree to which tasks in an organization are divided intoseparate jobs.a. work ethicsb. managerial capitalismc. social responsibilityd. work specialization (moderate)38. When did the idea of enlarging, rather than narrowing, job scope begin?a. 1950sb. 1960s (moderate)c. 1970sd. 1980se. 1990s39. Which of the following is not an example of the classical viewof division of labor?a. assembly-line productionb. Burger Kingc. Taco Belld. TQM (moderate)e. Kentucky Fried Chicken40. ______________ is the basis on which jobs are grouped inorderto accomplish organizational goals.a. Departmentalization (moderate)b. Centralizationc. Formalizationd. Coordinatione. Efficiency41. A local manufacturing organization has groups of employees whoare responsible for sales, marketing,accounting, human resources, etc. These are examples of what concept?a. authorityb. chain of commandc. empowermentd. departmentalization (moderate)e. social grouping42. Grouping sporting equipment in one area, men's clothing in another area, and cosmetics in a third area, is anexample of what kind departmentalization?a. customerb. product (easy)c. geographicd. processe. outcome43. Sales responsibilities divided into the southwest, midwest, southern, northern, and western regions would bean example of ______________ departmentalization.a. productb. geographic (easy)c. processd. outcomee. customer44. Grouping activities on the basis of customer flow is______________.a. functional departmentalization.b. product departmentalization.c. geographical departmentalization.d. process departmentalization. (moderate)e. technological departmentalization.45. What type of departmentalization expects that each department will specialize in one specific phase of the process or product production?a. productb. geographicc. process (easy)d. outcomee. customer46. What kind of departmentalization would be in place in a government organization where different publicservice responsibilities are divided into activities for employers, children, and the disabled?a. productb. geographicc. processd. outcomee. customer (moderate)47. Which of the following is not a form of departmentalization suggested by your text?a. functional departmentalizationb. product departmentalizationc. geographical departmentalizationd. process departmentalizatione. technological departmentalization (difficult)48. Today's competitive business environment has greatly increasedthe importance of what type ofdepartmentalization?a. geographicb. customer (difficult)c. productd. processe. outcome49. According to the text, managers are using ______________, which are groups of individuals who areexperts in various specialties and who work together.a. specialized teamsb. cross-demanded teamsc. cross-functional teams (moderate)d. simple structured teams50. Which of the following is a contemporary addition to thehistorical view of departmentalization?a. increased rigidityb. cross-functional teams (moderate)c. enhanced centralizationd. elimination of product departmentalizatione. addition of sales departmentalization51. Bringing together the company's legal counsel, research engineer, and marketing specialist for a project isan example of a(n) ______________.a. empowered team.b. process departmentalization.c. product departmentalization.d. cross-functional team. (moderate)e. continuous improvement team.52. The ______________ is the continuous line of authority that extends from upper organizational levels to thelowest levels and clarifies who reports to whom.a. chain of demandb. chain of command (easy)c. demand hierarchyd. continuous design structure53. To whom a worker reports concerns which aspect of organizational structure?a. chain of command (moderate)b. departmentalizationc. pay structured. line of commande. authority framework54. ______________ entitles a manager to direct the work of a subordinate.a. Responsibilityb. Legitimate powerc. Rankd. Operating responsibilitye. Authority (moderate)55. ______________ is the obligation to perform assigned activities.a. Authorityb. Responsibility (easy)c. Chain of commandd. Unity of commande. Formalization56. The ______________ principle (one of Fayol’s 14 principles of management) helps preserve the concept ofa continuous line of authority.a. unity of demandb. unity of command (moderate)c. demand structured. continuous demand57. Span of control refers to which of the following concepts?a. how much power a manager has in the organizationb. the geographic dispersion of a manager's subunits ofresponsibilityc. how many subordinates a manager can effectively and efficiently supervise (moderate)d. the number of subordinates affected by a single managerial ordere. the amount of time it takes to pass information down through a manager's line of command58. Other things being equal, the wider or larger the span of control, the more ______________ theorganizational design.a. bureaucraticb. democraticc. effectived. efficient (difficult)e. classical59. Wider spans of control may be viewed as more efficient, but eventually, wider spans tend to have whateffect on organizations?a. reduced effectiveness (difficult)b. increased turnoverc. loss of managerial powerd. customer dissatisfactione. rigid chains of command60. An organization that spends money on maintaining a well-trained work force can expect which of thefollowing span-of-control outcomes?a. increased contempt for managementb. increased voluntary turnoverc. centralized authorityd. less direct supervision (moderate)e. increased need for managerial-level employees61. A high-tech manager who supervises the development of a new computer chip needs ______________compared to a manager who supervises the mailing of unemployment insurance checks at the localgovernment office.a. about the same span of controlb. a narrower span of control (difficult)c. a wider span of controld. a more informal span of controle. elimination of the span of control62. In general, span of control is ______________ for managers.a. increasing (easy)b. decreasingc. staying the samed. significantly decreasinge. no longer important63. ______________ describes the degree to which decision making is concentrated at a single point in theorganization.a. Decentralizationb. Centralization (moderate)c. Transnationalismd. Cross sectional analysis64. If lower-level employees provide input or are actually given the discretion to make decisions, theorganization is ______________.a. formalized.b. centralized.c. decentralized. (easy)d. mechanistic.e. organic.65. Recently, there has been a distinct trend toward ______________.a. smaller spans of control.b. decentralized decision-making. (moderate)c. decreased flexibility.d. emphasis on chain of command.e. mechanistic organizations.66. Which of the following factors WOULD NOT influence an organization to have a higher degree ofcentralization?a. Environment is stable.b. Company is geographically dispersed. (difficult)c. Company is large.d. Decisions are significant.e. Organization is facing a crisis.67. ______________ refers to the degree to which jobs within the organization are standardized and the extentto which employee behavior is guided by rules and procedures.a. Standardizationb. Centralizationc. Chain of commandd. Strategye. Formalization (moderate)68. All of the following factors indicate that a decentralized organization would be most effective EXCEPTwhen ______________.a. the environment is complex.b. decisions are relatively minor.c. the organization is facing a crisis. (difficult)d. the company is geographically dispersed.e. effective implementation of strategies depends on managers having involvement and flexibilityto make decisions.69. Which of the following factors describes an environment in whicha high degree of decentralization isdesired?a. Environment is complex, uncertain. (moderate)b. Lower-level managers do not want to have a say in decisions.c. Decisions are significant.d. Company is large.e. Organization is facing a crisis or the risk of company failure.70. The ______________ organizational structure is characterized by high specialization, extensivedepartmentalization, narrow spans of control and high formalization.a. mechanistic (easy)b. organicc. contingencyd. adhocracye. functional71. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a mechanistic organization?a. high specializationb. wide spans of control (moderate)c. high formalizationd. limited information networke. extensive departmentalization72. What type of organizational form follows classical principles such as unity of command?a. organicb. linearc. decentralizedd. mechanistic (moderate)e. adhocracyORGANIZATIONAL DESIGN DECISIONS73. Which of the following would likely be found in mechanistic organizations?a. wide span of controlb. empowered employeesc. decentralized responsibilityd. few rules and/or regulationse. standardized job specialties (difficult)74. All of the following are characteristics of an organic organization EXCEPT:a. narrow spans of control. (moderate)b. cross-hierarchical teams.c. free flow of information.d. low formalization.e. cross-functional teams.75. In the early years of Apple Computers, its desire for highly proficient and creative employees who operatedwith few work rules was an example of what type of organization?a. bureaucraticb. mechanisticc. volatiled. nouvellee. organic (difficult)。
管理会计双语练习题一、True/False QuestionsFor each of the following, circle the T or the F to indicate whether the statement is true or false.1 Managerial accounting refers to the preparation and use of accounting information designed to meet the needs of decision makers inside the business organization.Product costs are selling expenses that appear on the income statement.Management accounting reports provide a means of monitoring , evaluating and rewardingperformance.Product costs are offset against revenue in the period in which the related products are sold, rather than the period in which the costs are incurred. Manufacturing overhead is considered an indirect cost, since overhead costs generally cannot betraced conveniently and directly to specific units of product.Overhead application rates allow overhead to be assigned at the beginning of a period to help setprices.Pepsi Cola would most likely use a job order costing system.Activity-based costing tracks cost to the activities that consume resources.Activity based costing uses multiple activity bases to assign overhead costs to units of production.10 The two steps required in Activity Based Costing are 1) Identify separate activity cost pools and)allocate each cost pool to the product using an appropriate cost driver11 The new manufacturing environment is characterized by its shift toward labor intensive productionand declining manufacturing overhead costs.1A cost driver is an activity base that is highly correlated with manufacturing overhead costs.1In ABC, only one cost driver should be used in applying overhead.1As companies become more automated overhead costs decrease and direct labor costs increase.1An equivalent unit measures the percentage of acompleted units cost that is present in a partially finished unit.1Costs do not flow through a process cost system in the same sequence as actual products movethrough the assembly process.1Non-value added activities are those that do not add to a product's desirability.1Target costing centers on new product and service development as opposed to managing the valuechain for existing products.1In the target costing process, target price is computed by adding the desired profit margin to the targetproduct cost.20 Target cost equals target price plus profit margin.21 Variable costs which increase in total amount in direct proportion to an increase in output represent aconstant amount per unit of output.2Any business which operates at less than capacitywill have larger fixed costs than variable costs. With variable costs, the cost per unit varies with changes in volume.2The contribution margin is the difference between total revenue and fixed costs.2The volume of output which causes fixed costs to be equal in amount to variable costs is called thebreak-even point.2Any business which operates at less than capacity will have larger fixed costs than variable costs. Margin of safety is the dollar amount by which actual sales volume exceeds the break-even salesvolume.2Life cycle costing considers all potential resources used by the product over its entire life. 2Economies of scale can be achieved by using facilities more intensively.30 The break-even point is the level of activity at which operating income is equal to cost of goods sold.1 Contribution margin ratio is equal to contribution margin per unit divided by unit sales price.3Opportunity cost is the benefit that could havebeen obtained by pursuing an alternate course ofaction.3All incremental revenue or incremental costs are relevant.3Sunk costs are relevant to decisions about replacing plant assets.3In determining whether to scrap or to rebuild defective units of product, the cost already incurred inproducing the defective units is not relevant. 3In making a decision, management will look thoroughly at both relevant and irrelevant data.33.Responsibility margin is useful in evaluating the consequences of short-run marketing strategies, while contribution margin is more useful in evaluating long-term profitability.3The transfer price is the dollar amount used in recording sales to primary customers.3Under variable costing, fixed manufacturing costs are treated as period costs, rather than product costs.40 The transfer price is the dollar amount usedin recording sales to primary customers.41 Variable costing treats all fixed manufacturing costs as expenses of the current period. 4In full costing when production rises above the amount of sales, some of the fixed costs will remain in inventory.4Return on Investment tells us how much earnings can be expected for the average investeddollar.4Capital turnover can be improved by reducing invested capital while keeping sales constant.4The value chain consists of only those activities that increase the selling price of a product as it is distributed to a customer.4Residual income is calculated by subtracting the minimum acceptable return on the average investedcapital from the operating income.二、Multiple Choice QuestionsChoose the best answer for each of the following questions and insert the identifying letter in the space provided.1.Costs that are traceable to a particular unitand are inventoriable are calledA) Period costs B) Product costs C) Overhead costsD) Job costs2. .Determine the amount of manufacturing overhead given the following information:a. Depreciation on a factory building $2,400b. Telephone expense in factory office750c. Telephone expense in sales showroom850d. Factory foreman’s salary000e. Maintenance for factory`00f. Maintenance for sales showroom80A) $4,010 B) $9,800C) $8,950D) $10,54024.Goods that are still in the production process would be in which account?A) Materials inventory B) Work-in-process inventory C)Finished goods inventory D)Cost of goods sold29.The principal difference between managerial accounting and financial accounting is that managerial accountinginformation is:A) Prepared by managers.B) Intended primarily for use by decision makers inside the business organization.C) Prepared in accordance with a set of accounting principles developed by the Institute of Certified Managerial Accountants.D) Oriented toward measuring solvency rather than profitability.30.Management accounting systems are designed to assist organizations in the performance of all of the followingfunctions except:A) The assignment of decision-making authority over company assets.B) Planning and decision-making.C) Monitoring, evaluating and rewarding performance.D) The preparation of income tax returns.35.In comparison with a financial statement prepared in conformity with generally accepted accounting principles, amanagerial accounting report is less likely to: A) Focus upon the entire organization as the accounting entity. B) Focus upon future accounting periods.C) Make use of estimated amounts. D) Be tailored to the specific needs of an individual decision maker.4.If the salaries of the sales staff of a manufacturing company are improperly recorded as a product cost, what will bethe likely effect on net income of the period in which the error occurs?A) Net income will be overstated. B) Net income will be understated.C) Net income will be unaffected. D) Net income will be understated only if inventory levels rise.5.Manufacturing overhead is best described as:A) All manufacturing costs other than direct materials and direct labor.B) All period costs associated with manufacturing operations.C) Indirect materials and indirect labor.D) All operating expenses other than sellingexpenses and general and administrative expenses.43.Underapplied overhead at the end of a month:A) Results when actual overhead costs are less than amounts applied to work in process.B) Indicates a poorly designed cost accounting system.C) Is represented by a debit balance remaining in the Manufacturing Overhead account.D) Is represented by a credit balance remaining in the Manufacturing Overhead account.58.The account Work-in-Process InventoryA) Consists of completed goods that have not yet been soldB) Consists of goods being manufactured that are incompleteC) Consists of materials to be used in the production processD) Consists of the cost of new materials used, labor but not overhead.66.Red Star Company uses a job order cost system. Overhead is applied to jobs on the basis of direct laborhours.During the current period, Job No.8was charged $400 in direct materials, $450 in direct labor, and $180 in manufacturing overhead. If direct labor costs an average of $1per hour, the company's overhead application rate is:A) $per direct labor hour. B) $per direct labor hour.C) $1per direct labor hour. D) $20 per direct labor hour.24.The best cost system to use for a company producing a continuous stream of similar items would be aA) Job order system B) Process costing system C) Production costing systemD) No cost system is required when jobs are similar64.Ken Gorman’s Company uses a job order cost system and has established a predetermined overhead application ratefor the current year of 150% of direct labor cost, based on budgeted overhead of $900,000 and budgeted direct labor cost of $600,000. Job no. 1 was chargedwith direct materials of $30,000 and with overhead of $24,000.The total cost of job no. 1:A) Is $54,000. B) Is $70,000. C)Is $90,000. D) Cannot be determined without additional information.27.Equivalent units of production areA) A measure representing the percentage of a unit's cost that has been completed.B) May be computed separately for each input added during productionC) May be assigned to beginning work-in-process or ending work-in-processD) All of the above27.Equivalent units of production areA) A measure representing the percentage of a unit's cost that has been completed.B) May be computed separately for each input added during productionC) May be assigned to beginning work-in-process or ending work-in-processD) All of the above21.Process costing would be suitable forA) Automobile repairB) Production of television sets C) Boat building D) Kitchen remodeling Use the following to answer questions5-76:Riverview Company's budget for the coming year includes $6,000,000 for manufacturing overhead, 100,000 hours of direct labor, and00,000 hours of machine time.75. Refer to the above data. If Riverview applies overhead using a predetermined rate based on machine-hours,what amount of overhead will be assigned to a unit of output which requires 0.machine hours and 0.2labor hours to complete?A) $6.00. B) $15.00.C) $21.00.D) Some other amount.76. Refer to the above data. If Riverview applies overhead using a predetermined rate based on labor-hours, whatamount of overhead will be assigned to a unit of output which requires 0.machine hours and 0.2labor hours to complete?A) $6.00. B) $15.00. C) $21.00.D) Some otheramount.21.Process costing would be suitable forA) Automobile repairB) Production of television sets C)Boat buildingD)Kitchen remodeling21.Which one of the following is not one of the basic procedures related to ABC?A) Identify the activity.B) Create an associated activity cost pool.C) Transact identified cost centers. D) Calculate the cost per unit of activity.23.Examples of value-adding activities include all of the following except:A) Product design. B) Assembly activities.C) Machinery set-up activities. D) Establishing efficient distribution channels.26.Just-in-time manufacturing systems are also known as:A) Supply push systems. B)Supply pull systems.C)Demand push systems. D) Demand pull systems.28.Target costing is directed toward:A) Reducing the activity costs associated with existing products.B) Identifying the amount by which the costs of existing products must be reduce to achieve a target profitmargin.C) The creation and design of products that will provide adequate profits.D) The improvement of existing production processes by eliminating non-value adding activities.30.During which element of manufacturing cycle time is value added to products?A) Storage and waiting time. B) Processing time.C) Movement time. D) Inspection time.33.Four categories of costs associated with product quality are:A) External failure, internal failure, prevention, and carrying.B) External failure, internal failure, prevention, and appraisal.C) External failure, internal failure, training, and appraisal.D) Warranty, product liability, prevention, and training.41.During cycle time, value is added only duringA) Processing time. B) Storage and waiting time.C) Movement time. D) Inspection time.26.A semivariable cost:A) Increases and decreases directly and proportionately with changes in volume.B) Changes in response to a change in volume, but not proportionately.C) Increases if volume increases, but remains constant if volume decreases.D) Changes inversely in response to a change in volume.27.Which of the following is an example of a fixed cost for an airline?A) Depreciation on the corporate headquarters.B) Fuel costs.C) Income taxes expense. D) Passengers' meals.28.In order to calculate break-even sales units, fixed costs are divided by:A) Contribution margin per unit. B) Contribution margin percentage.C) Target operating income. D) Sales volume.29.A company's relevant range of production is:A) The production range from zero to 100% of plant capacity.B) The production range over which CVP assumptions are valid.C) The production range beyond the break-even point.D) The production range that covers fixed but not variable costs.30.The break-even point in a cost-volume-profit graph is always found:A) At0% of full capacity.B) At the sales volume resulting in the lowest average unit cost.C) At the volume at which total revenue equals total variable costs.D) At the volume at which total revenue equals total fixed costs plus total variable costs.32.The contribution ratio is computed as:A) Sales minus variable costs, divided by sales.B) Fixed costs plus variable costs, divided by sales.C) Sales minus fixed costs, divided by sales. D)Sales divided by variable costs.33.In comparison to selling a product with a low contribution margin ratio, selling a product with a high contributionmargin ratio always:A) Requires less dollar sales volume to cover a given level of fixed costs.B) Results in a greater margin of safety.C) Results in higher operating income. D) Results in a higher contribution margin per unit sold.36.How will a company's contribution margin be affected by an investment in equipment that increases fixed costs inorder to achieve a reduction in direct labor cost?A) Contribution margin will increase.B) Contribution margin will fall.C) Contribution margin will either increase or decrease depending on the relative magnitudes of the changesin fixed and variable costs. D) Contribution margin will remain the same.43.If a product sells for $10, variable costs are$and fixed costs are $400,000 what would total sales have to be inorder to break-even?A) $160,000B) $166,66C) $1,000,000 D) $266,66746.If unit sales prices are $10 and variable costs are $per unit how many units would have to be sold to break even iffixed costs equal $12,000?A) $1,200B) $2,000C) $3,000D) $2,80062.A company with an operating income of $65,000 and a contribution margin ratio of5% has a margin of safety of:长江大学国际学院2011-2012学年度第1学期《管理会计学》试卷考试方式:闭卷满分:100分时间:2小时姓名:学号:班级:专业:考生注意:1、所有考题请回答在考卷指定位置上;2、请考生务必把专业、班级、学号及姓名填写在试卷上。
阅读理解题型分类阅读理解题是英语考试中常见的题型之一,在各级学校的英语考试中都有出现。
阅读理解题旨在考察学生对所读文章的理解能力和信息获取能力。
在阅读理解题中,文章常常以一段或数段短文的形式出现,随后跟随一些相关的问题要求学生回答。
根据问题类型和答案形式的不同,阅读理解题型一般可以分为以下几个分类。
1. 多项选择题(Multiple Choice Questions)多项选择题是阅读理解题中最常见的一种类型。
学生需要根据所读文章的内容选择出最佳答案。
多项选择题通常有4个选项,其中只有1个是正确的答案,其他选项往往是干扰项。
2. 判断题(True/False Questions)判断题是阅读理解题中比较简单的一种类型。
学生需要根据所读文章的内容判断给定的陈述是否正确。
通常,判断题只有两个选项:True(正确)或False(错误)。
3. 填空题(Fill in the Blanks Questions)填空题是阅读理解题中要求学生根据所读文章的内容填写空缺处的单词或短语。
填空题考察学生对文章细节信息的掌握和词汇应用能力。
4. 概括题(Summary Questions)概括题要求学生根据所读文章的内容回答与文章主旨相关的问题。
学生需要通过理解文章的主要观点和要点,提炼出文章的核心信息,进行准确的概括。
5. 推理题(Inference Questions)推理题要求学生根据所读文章的信息进行推理判断,回答与文章意义隐含相关的问题。
学生需要通过推理、归纳和推断来回答问题,而不是直接从文章中找到答案。
6. 补全对话(Completion Questions)补全对话是一种特殊的阅读理解题型,在题目给出的对话中,有一些空缺处需要根据上下文和所提供的选项进行填写。
学生需要通过理解对话的语境和人物之间的交流,选择合适的选项进行填写。
7. 匹配题(Matching Questions)匹配题是一种较为复杂的阅读理解题型,题目通常由两部分组成,一部分是一组描述或问题,另一部分是一组相关的选项。
Quiz for Chapter 1TRUE/FALSE QUESTIONS1.In order to be considered a manager, an individual must coordinate the work of others.2. Supervisors and foremen may both be considered first-line managers.3. Effectiveness refers to the relationship between inputs and outputs.4. When managers meet organizational goals, they are efficient and effective.5. Determining who reports to whom is part of the controlling function of management. MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS1. Someone who works with and through other people by coordinating their workactivities in order to accomplish organizational goals is ___________.a. a very intelligent individualb. a supervisor of production workc. a managerd. an operations supervisor2. A manager resolving conflict among organizational members is performing whatfunction?a. controllingb. commandingc. directingd. leading3. _____________ distinguishes a managerial position from a nonmanagerial one.a. Manipulating othersb. Concern for the lawc. Increasing efficiencyd. Coordinating and integrating others’ work4. An automobile manufacturer that increased the total number of cars produced at thesame cost, but with many defects, would be _____________.a. efficient and effectiveb. concerned with inputsc. increasing effectivenessd. increasing efficiency5. In successful organizations, ______________.a. low efficiency and high effectiveness go hand in handb. high efficiency and low effectiveness go hand in handc. high efficiency and high effectiveness go hand in handd. high efficiency and high equity go hand in handSCENARIOS AND QUESTIONSAs a production supervisor, Joe decides on Friday afternoon how many units of output his employees will be able to produce and on which days certain products will be run in his department. He also decides which of his employees are going to be responsible for operating which machines within the department next week, as his employees are multi-skilled assemblers. On Monday, he informs his employees whom he has assigned to which machines by handing out assignment sheets and informs the employees that the schedule is going to be difficult due to the increased number of units. He goes on to tell them that he is sure they can fulfill the schedule because they are such good and skilled employees. Each day during the week he checks the amount of output that the employees have completed and the number of units that have been scraped.1. When Joe decides which of his employees are going to be responsible for operating which machines, he is performing which of the management functions?a. controllingb. leadingc. planningd. organizing2. When Joe decides how many units of output his employees will be able to produce and on which days certain products will be run, he is performing which of the management functions?a. controllingb. leadingc. planningd. organizing3. When Joe checks the amount of output that the employees have completed and the number of units that have been scraped, he is performing which of the management functions?a. controllingb. leadingc. planningd. organizing4. When Joe tells the employees that he is sure they can fulfill the schedule because they are such good and skilled employees, he is performing which of the management functions?a. controllingb. leadingc. planningd. organizing5.When Joe performs all of his management functions in a continuous manner, he is performing which of the following?a. scheduling processb. quality control processc. management processd. manufacturing processQuiz for Chapter 2MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS1.In Wealth of Nations, Adam Smith described the breakdown of jobs into narrow and repetitive tasks and called this ______________.a. assembly linesb. lowest common factor of workc. division of labord. greatest common factor of work2. General administrative theorists devoted their efforts to _________________.a. making the overall organization more effectiveb. developing mathematical models to improve managementc. improving the productivity and efficiency of workersd. emphasizing the study of human behavior in organizations3. Which of the following phrases is most associated with scientific management?a. management relationsb. one best wayc. supply and demandd. quality control4. The primary issue that aroused Taylor to create a more scientific approach tomanagement was ______________.a. worker efficiencyb. worker effectivenessc. worker absenteeism and turnoverd. workplace safety5. The quantitative approach involves applications of _______________.a. statisticsb. optimization modelsc. information modelsd. computer simulationse. all of the above6.The Hawthorne studies were initially devised to study ______________.a. productivity levels of groups versus individualsb. the effect of noise on employee productivityc. the effect of illumination levels on employee productivityd. the effect of cooperative versus competitive organizational environments onproductivityQuiz for Chapter 3TRUE/FALSE QUESTIONS1. The organizational culture is a system of shared meaning held by members thatdistinguishes the organization from other organizations.2. An increasing body of evidence suggests that strong cultures are associated with highorganizational performance.3. An organization’s founder has little influence on its culture.4. Rituals are repetitive sequences of activities that express and reinforce the key values ofan organization.5. The general environment refers to everything inside the organization.6. Because certainty is a threat to an organization’s effectiveness, managers try to minimize it.MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS1. An organization’s culture is ______________.a. represented in organizational meetings by the top manager of the organizationb. represented by a common perception held by the organization’s membersc. represented by a common perception held by interest groups that watch theorganizationd. changed when the organization is purchased by new owners2. Managers operate within the constraints imposed by __________________.a. the organization’s culture and environme ntb. the employees of the organizationc. government at the federal and state leveld. the organization’s board of directors3. Strong cultures _____________.a. are found in organizations with strong leadersb. have a minimal influence on the employee when she or he is making decisionsc. can be found in all organizations that existd. have a greater influence on employees than do weak cultures4. When employees at Microsoft use words such as: work judo, eating your owndog food, and flat food, they are using organizational __________.a. languagesb. ritualsc. symbolsd. ceremonies5. The original source of an organization’s culture usually ________________.a. is shared among the first workers hired into the organizationb. is formulated by the board of directors when the organization is formedc. identifies what the organization is successful doingd. reflects the vision or mission of the organization’s founder6. Which of the following is not mentioned in the textbook as a dimension of organizationalculture?a. attention to detailb. people orientationc. compensationd. aggressiveness7. All of the following are mentioned in the textbook as examples of material symbolsexcept ____________.a. dress attireb. size of officesc. employee stock optionsd. reserved parking spaces for certain employees8. The original source of an organization’s culture usually ________________.a. is shared among the first workers hired into the organizationb. is formulated by the board of directors when the organization is formedc. identifies what the organization is successful doingd. reflects the vision or mission of the organization’s founder9. The link between organizational values and managerial behavior is _____________.a. uncertainb. fairly straightforwardc. loose and difficult to seed. unimportant10. An organization’s specific environment ________________.a. is unique and changes with conditionsb. is the same regardless of the organization’s agec. is determined by the top level of managementd. is quantified to determine its existence11. When you think of an organization’s suppliers, you ________________.a. know that they are the main customers of the organizationb. typically think of governments that pass the laws the organization must followc. know that they are located close to the buying organizationd. typically think in terms of organizations that provide materials and equipment12. For a company such as Disney World in Florida, a bank would be an example of whatkind of factor in their specific environment?a. competitorb. supplierc. special-interest groupd. government agency13. As a manager, if you were working in an industry that was dependent onInternet connections and the many new customers vying for the same space, this would be an example of what kind of environment?a. generalb. staticc. stabled. dynamic14. An organization that has many competitors and suppliers would likely be said to have a highly ____________ environment.a. complexb. dynamicc. stabled. large15. Political conditions, which include attitudes that officials hold toward specific industries, fall within an organization’s _____________ environment.a. globalb. internalc. competitived. general。
高中英语阅读理解命题及解题策略High School English Reading Comprehension Test Questions and Strategies。
Introduction:The ability to comprehend and analyze written texts is crucial for high school students, especially in the subject of English. To assess students' reading comprehension skills, high school English exams often include reading comprehension questions. This document aims to provide an overview of the types of reading comprehension questions commonly found in high school English exams and strategies to effectively answer them.I. Types of Reading Comprehension Questions:1. Multiple Choice Questions:Multiple choice questions require students to choose the correct answer from a set of options. These questions assess students' understanding of the main idea, supporting details, vocabulary, and inference skills. To answer multiple choice questions effectively, students should carefully read the passage, eliminate obviously incorrect options, and consider the context and logic of the remaining choices.2. True/False Questions:True/false questions require students to determine whether a statement is true or false based on the information provided in the passage. These questions test students' ability to identify factual information and make accurate judgments. To answer true/false questions accurately, students should pay attention to specific details in the passage and avoid making assumptions or generalizations.3. Matching Questions:Matching questions involve pairing items from two different lists based on their relationship or correlation. These questions assess students' ability to identify connections, comparisons, or cause-effect relationships within the passage. To answer matchingquestions effectively, students should carefully analyze the relationships between the items and consider the context and logic of the passage.4. Short Answer Questions:Short answer questions require students to provide brief written responses to specific questions based on the information in the passage. These questions test students' ability to comprehend and analyze the passage in more depth. To answer short answer questions effectively, students should rephrase the question in their response and support their answers with evidence from the passage.II. Strategies for Answering Reading Comprehension Questions:1. Preview the Passage:Before reading the passage, quickly skim the text to get an overview of the topic, structure, and main ideas. This will help you anticipate the content and focus of the questions.2. Read Actively:While reading the passage, actively engage with the text by underlining or highlighting key information, making notes in the margins, or summarizing each paragraph. This will help you better understand and remember the content.3. Analyze the Questions:Carefully read each question and identify the keywords or key phrases. Pay attention to the question's structure, such as whether it asks for the main idea, supporting details, or inference. This will guide your focus while searching for the answers in the passage.4. Use Context Clues:When encountering unfamiliar vocabulary, use context clues to determine the meaning of the word or phrase. Look for surrounding words or phrases that provide hints about the word's definition or usage.5. Eliminate Incorrect Options:For multiple choice questions, eliminate obviously incorrect options to narrow down your choices. Cross out options that are contradictory, irrelevant, or not supported by the information in the passage. This will increase your chances of selecting the correct answer.6. Refer Back to the Passage:Before finalizing your answer, refer back to the relevant section of the passage to ensure that your choice is supported by the text. Avoid making assumptions or relying solely on your prior knowledge.Conclusion:High school English reading comprehension tests play a vital role in assessing students' ability to understand and analyze written texts. By familiarizing themselves with the different types of reading comprehension questions and employing effective strategies, students can improve their performance in these exams. Regular practice, active reading, and critical thinking skills are key to success in high school English reading comprehension.。
Chapter 01True / False Questions( )1. International marketing involves selling of a company’s goods and services to consumers or users in more than one nation for a profit.( )2. The geography and infrastructure of a country are uncontrollable factors that influence the business decisions of a company in an international market.( )3.The uncontrollable factors affecting international marketing are limited to political forces, economic climate, and competitive structure.( )4. The uncontrollable factors a company has to deal with decreases with the number of foreign markets in which it operates.( )5. The controllable elements can be altered in the long run and, usually, in the short run to adjust to changing market conditions, consumer tastes, or corporate objectives.( )6. The business activities of international marketers are not affected by competition in their domestic market.( )7. In a broad sense, the uncontrollable elements of the foreign business environment constitute the culture.( )8. John refuses to buy Japanese products because he sees this as a way of selling out to a nation known for its aggressive behavior. John is using a self-reference criterion to make his decision.( )9. To avoid errors in business decisions, it is necessary to conduct a cross-cultural analysis that emphasizes the need for ethnocentrism.( )10. A company in the “no direct foreign marketing” stage of international marketing involvement does not actively cultivate customers outside national boundaries.( )11. Which of the following is a dynamic trend that is affecting the current global business strategies?A. The trend toward buying American cars in EuropeB. The trend toward the acceptance of the free market system among developing countries.C. The trend toward using English as the global language.D. The trend toward establishing a world currency.E. The trend toward worldwide instant communication.( )12. Which of the following is an essential requirement for companies to succeed in international markets?A. Binding strictly to their traditional methods of operations to succeed in international markets.B. Focusing primarily on their production to meet the demands at home.C. Venturing into multiple markets at once.D. Committing themselves completely to foreign markets.E. Focusing on improving the domestic market to invest the returns in international markets.( )13. For an international marketer, the _____ can be altered in the long run and, usually, in the short run to adjust to changing market conditions, consumer tastes, or corporate objectives.A. competitive structureB. economic climateC. structure of distributionD. environmental factorsE. controllable elements( )14. Which of the following is an uncontrollable factor for a marketer in a domestic environment?A. Firm characteristicsB. Competitive structureC. Channels of distributionD. Price of the productE. Promotional measures( )15. Robert Jonas is in charge of a new marketing effort directed toward Peru. In order for his company to effectively market and distribute to all of Peru’s major cities, Mr. Jonas must devise a logistics plan for crossing the Andes Mountains on a daily basis. Which of the following foreign environment uncontrollable variables would be a chief concern as Mr. Jonas devises his plan?A. Competitive forcesB. Cultural forcesC. Geography and infrastructureD. Economic forcesE. Political/legal forces( )16. Amy Sims has been assigned the task of preparing a marketing plan for her company for the next year’s business activities. She knows that she should begin her plan by examining the variables that she has some control over. These controllable variables would include price, product, channels-of-distribution, and _____.A. demandB. political forcesC. competitionD. economic climateE. Promotion( )17. M&M, a company producing musical instruments, had dominated its home market for several years before venturing into international markets. The company was focusing more on international operations until a German company in the same business entered its home market. The German company started selling good quality products at prices much lower than M&M’s and affected its sales adversely. Which of the following elements in the marketing environment has affected the business of M&M in the above scenario?A. Level of technologyB. Structure of distributionC. Competition in the domestic marketD. Cultural forcesE. Promotion of the product( )18. Ralph Waite is a marketing manager at a video game console manufacturing firm. Ralph has been asked to review the marketing opportunities of his company in a foreign market. Ralph is aware that he can modify certain elements of the marketing environment to suit the foreign market needs. He is primarily focusing his attention on the factors that are not under his control and might affect their business prospects. Which of the following uncontrollable elements is most likely to affect the company’s business prospects in the foreign market?A. The pricing policies in the foreign market.B. The trade policies in the home country.C. The promotional activities required to market the product.D. The level of technology in the targeted market.E. The product distribution channels adopted by his company.( )19. The primary obstacles to success in international marketing are a person’s_____ and an associated ethnocentrism.A. regionalismB. holismC. self-reference criterionD. Effort at adaptationE. Effort at integration( )20. Which of the following is true of ethnocentrism?A. It is the cultural binding force among a diverse employee population in an organization.B. It is a problem that arises when managers from affluent countries work with managers and markets in less affluent countries.C. American managers have generally been uninfluenced by it, especially in the beginning of the 21st century.D. It is the cornerstone of effective adaptation in the field of international marketing.E. Self-reference criterion is universally considered the technique to reduce or eliminate ethnocentrism.( )21. Which of the following characterizes a globally aware manager?A. Using one’s home culture’s values alone to market one’s products in foreign countries.B. Accepting the cultural ways of another individual as their own.C. Allowing others to be different and equal.D. Discarding one’s home culture’s standards to adopt the global cultural standards.E. Controlling any influences that the global cultural standards may have on the marketing process.( )22. Which of the following will aid a manager in understanding the way people of different countries think and act?A. A better understanding of global economic trends.B. A deeper understanding of world market potential.C. An understanding of foreign investment opportunities.D. An understanding of microeconomics.E. A historical perspective.( )23. Which of the following organizations seems better equipped for internationalization?A. A firm that sells its products only to those foreign customers who directly contact the firm.B. A firm that has a production capacity that is much greater than home market demand.C. A firm that focuses its production activities on meeting the demands in the home market.D. A firm that has a culturally diverse employee profile but few competitive offerings at the global level.E. A firm that has little intention of maintaining a continuous market representation.( )24. Jefferson’s is a firm that specializes in dog food and grooming products. The company has a very well-established domestic market. The company does not actively sell its products outside national borders but provides goods to customers who contact them directly or place orders with them through the Internet. Jefferson’s is currently in the _____ stage of international marketing involvement.A. frequent foreign marketingB. active foreign marketingC. global marketingD. regular foreign marketingE. no direct foreign marketing( )25. James Bright’s company seeks markets all over the world and attempts to sell products that are a result of planned production for markets in various countries. Which of the following stages best characterizes the stage of international marketing involvement for Mr. Bright’s company?A. Infrequent foreign marketingB. Regular foreign marketingC. No direct foreign marketingD. International marketingE. Internal marketingEssay Questions1. Why is the international marketer’s task more difficult than that of the domestic marketer?2. List the domestic environment uncontrollables that influence an international marketer.CHAPTER 02True / False Questions( ) 1. After World War II, the U.S. provided assistance to other countries to develop their markets and improve global trade though it gained no returns on these initiatives. ( ) 2.The GATT became part of the World Trade Organization in 1995, with the ratification of the Uruguay Round agreements.( )3. To encourage development of domestic industries, governments work on reducing trade barriers.( )4. A government boycott is a partial restriction against the purchase and importation of certain goods and/or services from other countries.( )5. Antidumping laws were specifically designed to prevent foreign producers from investing in the U.S. local markets.( )6. The decisions taken by the World Trade Organization in solving trade disputes among members are binding ones.( )7. The World Bank was formed with the primary objective of overcoming inadequate monetary reserves and dealing with unstable currencies which were particularly vexing problems in global trade.Multiple Choice Questions( )8. After World War II, the United States led efforts like the Marshall Plan to assist in rebuilding Europe, financial and industrial development assistance to rebuild Japan, and funds channeled to foster economic growth in the underdeveloped world. These efforts were primarily aimed at:A. halting the growth of Nazi Germany.B. dampening the spread of communism.C. dissolving the colonial powers.D. building a stronger defense force.E. creating a worldwide trade bloc to counter the OPEC countries’clout.( )9.What was the outcome for the GATT after the ratification of the Uruguay Round agreements?A. With the ratification of the Uruguay Round agreements, the GATT became part of the World Trade Organization (WTO) in 1995, and its 117 original members moved into a new era of free trade.B. It became part of the World Trade OrganizationC. It led to the uneven distribution of economic power and potentialD. The European Union decided to stay away from the treatyE. The original purpose was sidelined in favor of political and military intervention between member states.( )10. The rapid growth of war-torn economies and previously underdeveloped countries, coupled with large-scale economic cooperation and assistance that followed World War II led to:A. the rise of new global marketing opportunitiesB. the uneven distribution of economic powerC. the dissolution of GATTD. the spread of CommunismE. the sharp reduction of the production capacity in the U.S( )11. Post World War II, it was noticed that there was worldwide economic growth and countries once classified as less developed were reclassified as _____.A. capitalist countriesB. free trade economiesC. tier-II countriesD. developed countriesE. newly industrialized countries( )12. In the late 1990s, most of the countries of the world saw a slow down in the unprecedented and precipitous growth of their economies. However, _____ remained unaffected by this trend.A. the United StatesB. GermanyC. ChinaD. JapanE. France( )13. Which of the following arguments regarding the need for protectionism is recognized by economists as valid?A. Need to keep money at home.B. Encouragement of capital accumulation.C. Protection of an infant industry.D. Conservation of natural resources.E. Maintenance of employment and reduction of unemployment.( )14. A tax imposed by a government on goods entering at its borders is most accurately termed as a(n) _____.A. boycottB. asterisk billC. tariffD. quotaE. writ( )15. In general, tariffs restrict:A. inflationary pressuresB. special interests’privilegesC. government control in economic mattersD. the number of reciprocal tariffsE. manufacturers’supply sources( )16. Which of the following is an example of a nontariff trade barrier?A. Compound dutiesB. Revenue tariffsC. Administrative feesD. Specific dutiesE. Duties( )17. The fundamental difference between quotas and import licenses is that:A. import licenses have greater flexibility than quotas.B. quotas impose specific limitations on trade and import licenses take care of standards.C. quotas are imposed on export goods and import licenses are imposed on import goods.D.for quotas the exporting country sets the limits but licenses are issued by the importing country.E. unlike licenses, quotas limit quantities on a case-by-case basis.( )18. The marketing manager for Grand Products wants to export the company’s range of beer products to a Gulf country. However, he discovers that there is a complete restriction on the import of any form of liquor into that country. This is an accurate example of _____.A. OMAsB. quotasC. tarrifsD. VERsE. Boycotts( )19. When the United States refuses to sell goods to Iran because of the perception that the country harbors radicals and terrorists, the refusal is most accurately referred to as a(n):A.antidumping penalty.B. embargo.C. tariff.D. orderly market agreement.E. voluntary export restraint.( )20. The exchange permit can stipulate:A. the quantity of goods that can be exchanged for a particular sum of foreign currency.B. the number of parties that can be involved in an exchange transaction.C. the amount to be exchanged to be deposited in a local bank for a set period.D. the parties involved to declare collaterals to avail of exchange permits.E. the number of times one party can avail of exchange permits.( )21. The United States and other countries require some products (automobiles in particular) to contain a percentage of “local content”to gain admission to their markets. This is an example of the stringent usage of _____ to restrict trade.A. exchange permitsB. embargoesC. blocked currenciesD. standardsE. antidumping penalties( )22. _____ is a new nontariff barrier that was designed to prevent foreign producers from using predatory pricing.A. QuotaB. EmbargoC. Import licenseD. Antidumping lawE. License( )23. Which of the following trading partners of the U.S. became its topmost “trade problem”at the beginning of the 21st century?A. United KingdomB. JapanC. GermanyD. CanadaE. China( )24. Which of the following emerged as a successor to the GATT following the Uruguay Round of GATT negotiations?A. International Monetary FundB. World BankC. European Services ForumD. World Trade OrganizationE. Association of Southeast Asian NationsCHAPTER 03True / False Questions( )1. To un derstand fully a society’s actions and its points of view, one must have an appreciation for the influence of historical events.( )2. Recording of historic events by historians belonging to different cultures gives us a subjective view of history.( )3. Altitude, humidity, and temperature extremes are climatic features that affect the uses and functions of products and equipment.( )4. Physical barriers that exist within Europe are nowadays seen as a natural protection from potentially hostile neighbors.( )5. In the context of social responsibility and environmental management, the process of controlling industrial wastes leads to the issue of disposal of hazardous waste. ( )6. In the context of social responsibility and environmental management, sustainable development is about protecting the environment at all costs.( )7. The availability of minerals and the ability to generate energy are the foundations of modern technology.( )8. According to some economists, economic prosperity is a factor that leads to decline in fertility rates.( )9. Most of the major industrialized countries have sufficient internal population growth to maintain themselves.( )10. Trade routes represent the attempts of countries to overcome economic and social imbalances created in part by the influence of geography.( )11. Which of the following is true of culture?A. It is a set of texts considered to be sacred.B. It is a society’s accepted basis for responding to external and internal events.C. It is a branch of philosophy dealing with beauty and taste.D. It is the philosophical study of being and knowing.E. It is a set of rules governing socially acceptable behavior.( )12. In the context of U.S. foreign policy in the 19th and the 20th centuries, _____, in its broadest interpretation, meant that Americans were a chosen people ordained by God to create a model society.A. Roosevelt CorollaryB. Monroe DoctrineC. Hays CorollaryD. Grant MandateE. Manifest Destiny( )13. Which of the following best describes the current perception of geographical features such as mountains in the context of economic growth in Europe?A. They provide natural protection from potentially hostile neighbors.B. They are impediments to efficient trade and communication.C. They are natural landmarks that symbolize national treasure.D. They are fortuitous blessings that provide a wealth of natural resources.E. They are symbols of national heritage and history.( )14. In the context of social responsibility and environmental management, which of the following is a byproduct of pollution controls?A. Corporate environmental responsibility.B. Higher tariffs against developing countries.C. The disposal of hazardous waste.D. Reduced availability of petroleum products.E. The emission of greenhouse gases.( )15. _____ development is a joint approach among those who seek economic growth with “wise resource management, equitable distribution of benefits and reduction of negative effects on people and the en vironment from the process of economic growth.”A. ParallelB. GlobalC. SustainableD. UnrestrictedE. Holistic( )16. Which of the following sources of energy provides the preponderance of energy in much of the underdeveloped world?A. Nuclear powerB. Human laborC. Wind energyD. Geothermal powerE. Fossil fuel( )17. Which of the following sources of energy dominates the world’s energy usage?A. Hydroelectric powerB. Petroleum productsC. Wind energyD. Geothermal powerE. Nuclear power( )18. Which of the following countries is considered to be the world’s most efficient user of energy?A. AfricaB. Latin AmericaC. JapanD. Western EuropeE. China( )19. Which of the following is true with respect to the dynamics of global population trends?A. The demand for goods worldwide may have no effect on migration patterns.B. Changes in the distribution of population among the world’s countries may fail to influence demand.C. The global financial crisis has caused migration from rural to urban areas within countriesD. Economic growth forecasts and assumptions about fertility rates are independent of each other.E. The existence of sheer numbers of people is significant in appraising potential consumer markets.( )20. Which o f the following is true of the industrialized world’s population?A. It is increasing at an unprecedented paceB. It is in decline and rapidly agingC. It mainly consists of young adultsD. It has remained constant for a long timeE. It is similar to the populations of developing countries( )21. An underpinning of all commerce is _____—knowledge of where goods and services exist and where they are needed.A. sustainable developmentB. expropriationC. immigrationD. effective communicationsE. political stability22. How has Japan’s history influenced its contemporary behavior and culture?23. Briefly describe the policies that were accepted the basis for U.S. foreign policy during the 19th and 20th centuries.24. Explain, with some examples, how climate and topography of a country affect its economic profile.。
英语各种题型的英文名English Test Question Types and Their Names.English language assessments come in a wide variety of formats, each designed to test a different aspect of language proficiency. From basic grammar and vocabulary checks to complex reading comprehension and writing tasks, each question type serves a specific purpose in evaluating the examinee's language skills. Here, we explore some of the most common English test question types and their corresponding names.1. Multiple-Choice Questions (MCQs)。
Multiple-choice questions are a staple of most standardized tests. They typically present a statement or scenario and offer several possible answers, among which the examinee must select the correct one. MCQs are effective at assessing knowledge of facts, concepts, and problem-solving abilities.2. True/False Questions.True/false questions require the examinee to determine whether a given statement is accurate or not. These questions are often used to test comprehension and understanding of key points or details.3. Matching Questions.Matching questions present a set of items and ask the examinee to pair them correctly. For example, they might be given a list of definitions and asked to match each definition with the correct term. These questions test the examinee's ability to recognize relationships and make connections between different pieces of information.4. Fill-in-the-Blank Questions.Fill-in-the-blank questions, also known as gap-fill exercises, require the examinee to provide missing words or phrases within a sentence or paragraph. These questionsassess vocabulary knowledge, grammar skills, and comprehension.5. Short Answer Questions.Short answer questions require the examinee to provide a brief response to a specific prompt or question. These questions can range from simple factual answers to more complex analytical responses, depending on the test's objectives.6. Essay Questions.Essay questions ask the examinee to write a detailed response to a given topic or prompt. These questions test writing skills, critical thinking, and the ability to organize and present ideas coherently. Essay questions often have a greater focus on higher-order thinking skills.7. Reading Comprehension Questions.Reading comprehension questions assess the examinee'sability to understand and interpret written material. These questions typically involve reading a passage and then answering questions about the content, purpose, orstructure of the text.8. Listening Comprehension Questions.Listening comprehension questions test the examinee's ability to understand spoken English. These questions often involve listening to a recording and then answering questions about what was said, the speaker's tone or attitude, or the main ideas presented.9. Speaking Tasks.Speaking tasks, such as interviews or presentations, evaluate the examinee's ability to communicate effectively in English. These tasks might involve describing an image, discussing a topic with a partner, or delivering a speech to a larger audience.10. Vocabulary and Grammar Tests.Vocabulary and grammar tests specifically assess the examinee's knowledge of English vocabulary words and grammar rules. These tests might include exercises such as word definitions, sentence correction, or identifying the correct form of a verb.In summary, the diversity of question types in English language assessments reflects the breadth and depth of language proficiency. Each question type targets specific skills and knowledge areas, allowing for a comprehensive evaluation of the examinee's English language abilities.。
习题及答案Chapter 01 Human Resource Management: Gaining a Competitive Advantage Answer KeyTrue / False Questions1. (p. 5) Companies have historically looked at HRM as a means to contribute to profitability, quality, and other business goals through enhancing and supporting business operations.FALSE2. (p. 5) The human resource department is most likely to collaborate with other company functions on outplacement, labor law compliance, testing, and unemployment compensation.FALSE3. (p. 6) The three product lines of HR include a) administrative services and transactions, B) financial services, and c) strategic partners.FALSE4. (p. 9) The amount of time that the HRM function devotes to administrative tasks is decreasing, and its roles as a strategic business partner, change agent, and employee advocate are increasing. TRUE5. (p. 9) Advances in technology have allowed HR services to be offered more on a self-service basis than in the past.TRUE6. (p. 9) HR functions related to areas such as employee development, performance management, and organizational development are outsourced most frequently.FALSE7. (p. 11) Evidence-based HR provides managers with data to make decisions, instead of just relying on intuition.TRUE8. (p. 14) Stakeholders of a company are shareholders, the community, customers, employees, and all of the other parties that have an interest in seeing that the company succeeds.TRUE9. (p. 19) Companies are now more and more interested in using intangible assets and human capital as a way to gain an advantage over competitors.TRUE10. (p. 22) A learning organization places the highest emphasis on completion of formal employment training.FALSE11. (p. 22) The psychological contract describes what an employee expects to contribute and what the company will provide to the employee in return for these contributions.TRUE12. (p. 25) The use of alternative work arrangements, which include independent contractors, on-call workers, temporary workers, and contract company workers, is shrinking.FALSE13. (p. 27) To be effective, balanced scorecards must be customized by companies to fit different market situations, products, and competitive environments.TRUE14. (p. 27) The balanced scorecard should not be used to link the company's human resource management activities to the company's business strategy.FALSE15. (p. 30) Corporate cultures within companies that successfully implement TQM typically emphasize individualism, hierarchy, accountability, and profits.FALSE16. (p. 31) ISO 9000 certification is an integral component of W. Edwards Deming's quality control process.FALSE17. (p. 34) The skills and motivation of a company's internal labor force determine the need for training and development practices and the effectiveness of the company's compensation and reward systems.TRUE18. (p. 37) Because the workforce is predicted to become more uniform in terms of age, ethnicity, and racial background, it is likely that one set of values will characterize all employees.FALSE19. (p. 39) Cultural diversity can provide a company competitive advantage regarding problem-solving. TRUE20. (p. 42) The Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002 sets strict rules for corporate behavior and sets heavy fines and prison terms for noncompliance.TRUE21. (p. 43) Every business must be prepared to deal with the global economy.TRUE22. (p. 48) One of the disadvantages of technology is that it does not allow older workers to postpone retirement.FALSE23. (p. 51) E-HRM is more applicable to practices associated with recruiting and training than those associated with analysis and design work, selection, and compensation and benefits.FALSE24. (p. 54) An HR dashboard is a series of indicators that managers and employees have access to on the company intranet or human resource information system.TRUE25. (p. 58) Compensating human resources involves measuring employees' performance.FALSEMultiple Choice Questions26. (p. 4) _____ refers to a company's ability to maintain and gain market share in its industry.A. OutsourcingB. CompetitivenessC. Self-serviceD. Empowerment27. (p. 4) _____ refers to the policies, practices, and systems that influence employees' behavior, attitudes, and performance.A. Total quality managementB. Financial managementC. Human resource managementD. Production and operations management28. (p. 5) Strategic HR management includes all but one of the following. Name the exception.A. Financial planningB. Training and developmentC. Performance managementD. Recruiting talent29. (p. 6) Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of HR departments?A. RecruitingB. BenefitsC. Community relationsD. Production and operations30. (p. 6) Which of the following is NOT a product line of human resources?A. Administrative services and transactionsB. Strategic partnerC. Human capital partnerD. Business partner services31. (p. 8) Which of the following best describes a cultural steward?A. Shapes the organization.B. Delivers results with integrity.C. Facilitates change.D. Recognizes business trends and their impact on the business.32. (p. 8) A strategic architect is one who:A. facilitates change.B. recognizes business trends and their impact on the business.C. implements workplace policies conducive to work environment.D. develops talent and designs reward systems.33. (p. 9) Giving employees online access to information about HR issues such as training, benefits, and compensation is known as:A. outsourcing.B. continuous learning.C. self-service.D. strategic planning.34. (p. 9) The practice of having another company (a vendor, third-party provider, consultant) provide services traditionally associated with the administrative role of HR is known as:A. e-commerce.B. empowering.C. outsourcing.D. benchmarking.35. (p. 10) Traditionally, the HRM department was primarily a(n):A. proactive agency.B. finance expert.C. employer advocate.D. administrative expert.36. (p. 11) Which of the following statements about evidence-based HR is FALSE?A. It helps show that the money invested in HR programs is justified and that HR is contributing to the company's goals and objectives.B. It emphasizes that HR is being transformed from a broad corporate competency to a specialized, stand-alone function in which human resources and line managers build partnerships to gain competitive advantage.C. It requires collecting data on such metrics as productivity, turnover, accidents, employee attitudes and medical costs and showing their relationship with HR practices.D. It refers to demonstrating that human resources practices have a positive influence on the company's bottom line or key stakeholders.37. (p. 12-13) Which one of the following statements about the HR profession is FALSE?A. A college degree is required of HR specialists, but not of generalists.B. Generalists usually perform the full range of HRM activities, including recruiting, training, compensation, and employee relations.C. Professional certification in HRM is less common than membership in professional associations.D. The primary professional organization for HRM is the Society for Human Resource Management.38. (p. 13) All of the following competitive challenges faced by companies will increase the importance of human resource management EXCEPT:A. the global challenge.B. the challenge of sustainability.C. the political challenge.D. the technology challenge.39. (p. 14) _____ refers to the ability of a company to survive and succeed in a dynamic competitive environment.A. OutsourcingB. EmpowermentC. SustainabilityD. Resource management40. (p. 14) Sustainability includes all of the following EXCEPT:A. expanding into foreign markets.B. the ability to deal with economic and social changes.C. engaging in responsible and ethical business practices.D. providing high-quality products and services.41. (p. 19) Which of the following statements about intangible assets is FALSE?A. They include human capital.B. They are less valuable than physical assets.C. They are equally or even more valuable than financial assets.D. They are difficult to duplicate or imitate.42. (p. 20) Tacit knowledge is an example of _____ capital.A. socialB. customerC. humanD. intellectual43. (p. 21) Which of the following is NOT true of knowledge workers?A. They often contribute specialized knowledge that their managers may not have, such as information about customers.B. They have many job opportunities.C. They are in high demand because companies need their skills.D. They contribute to the company through manual labor and intellectual labor.44. (p. 21) Empowering is defined as:A. the movement of women and minorities into managerial positions.B. giving employees responsibility and authority to make decisions regarding all aspects of product development or customer service.C. leading employees by the strength of one's charisma.D. the act of continually learning and improving one's skills and abilities.45. (p. 22) A(n) _____ contract describes what an employee expects to contribute and what the company will provide to the employee for these contributions.A. employerB. employeeC. psychologicalD. job46. (p. 25) All of the following are examples of alternative work arrangements EXCEPT:A. independent contractors.B. current labor force.C. on-call workers.D. temporary workers.47. (p. 27) The balanced scorecard:A. is similar to most measures of company performance.B. uses indicators important to the company's strategy.C. is a standardized instrument of company performance.D. should not be applied to HR practices.48. (p. 27) The balanced scorecard presents a view of company performance from the perspective of:A. its customers only.B. its employees only.C. its employees and customers only.D. its employees, customers, and shareholders.49. (p. 28) According to the financial perspective of the balanced scorecard, which of the following questions should be answered?A. How do customers see us?B. Can we continue to improve and create value?C. What must we excel at?D. How do we look to shareholders?50. (p. 28) Increasingly, companies are trying to meet shareholder and general public demands that they be more socially, ethically, and environmentally responsible. Thus, companies are recognizing the importance of:A. a balanced scorecard approach to business.B. diversity.C. total quality management.D. social responsibility.51. (p. 30) TQM focuses on:A. designing processes to meet the needs of external customers only.B. reducing variability in the product or service.C. preventing errors rather than correcting errors.D. tying pay to employees' total output less rejects52. (p. 31) "How senior executives create and sustain corporate citizenship, customer focus, clear values, and expectations, and promote quality and performance excellence" is the definition for which Malcolm Baldrige National Quality Award criterion?A. Strategic planningB. Workforce focusC. Customer and market focusD. LeadershipMalcolm Baldrige National Quality Award is an award established in 1987 to promote quality awareness, to recognize quality achievements of U.S. companies, and to publicize successful quality strategies.53. (p. 33) Which one of the following is NOT true of the Six Sigma process?A. The objective of the process is to create a total business focus on serving the customer.B. Training is an important component of the process.C. The process is one of seven categories evaluated within the Malcolm Baldrige Quality Award.D. The process involves measuring, analyzing, improving, and controlling processes once they have been brought within six quality standards.54. (p. 33) Which of following holds TRUE for lean thinking?A. It is a way to do more with less effort, time, equipment, and space.B. It is a way to compete for quality awards and certification.C. It includes offering no-frills goods and services to customers.D. It is working for zero inventories.55. (p. 34) The skills and motivation of a company's _____ labor force determine the need for training and development practices and the effectiveness of the company's compensation and reward systems.A. projectedB. secondaryC. externalD. internal56. (p. 34-37) Which of the following statements about the composition of the U.S. labor force in the next decade is TRUE?A. Labor force growth is greater than at any other time in U.S. history.B. The largest proportion of the labor force is expected to be in the 16-to-24-year age group.C. There will be fewer white males than minorities or women in the labor force.D. The number of "baby boom" workers will increase faster than any other age group.57. (p. 35) Which of the following statements about older workers is FALSE?A. Worker performance and learning are adversely affected by aging.B. The aging labor force means companies are likely to employ a growing share of older workers.C. An emerging trend is for qualified older workers to ask to work part-time or for only a few months at a time as a means to transition to retirement.D. Older employees are willing and able to learn new technology.58. (p. 37) Baby boomers:A. like the latest technology, are ambitious and goal-oriented, and seek meaningful work.B. want to be noticed, respected, and involved.C. tend to be uncomfortable challenging the status quo and authority.D. value unexpected rewards for work accomplishments, opportunities to learn new things, praise, recognition, and time with the manager.59. (p. 38) Regardless of their background, most employees' value:A. the ability to challenge the status quo.B. simplistic tasks requiring few skills.C. managerial positions.D. work that leads to self-fulfillment.60. (p. 38-39) To successfully manage a diverse workforce, managers need to develop all of the following skills EXCEPT:A. providing performance feedback that is based on values rather than objective outcomes.B. communicating effectively with employees from a wide variety of cultural backgrounds.C. coaching employees of different ages, educational backgrounds, ethnicity, physical ability, and race.D. recognizing and responding to generational issues.61. (p. 39) Managing cultural diversity involves:A. enforcing EEO rules.B. creating separate career tracks for employees with families.C. establishing a strong affirmative action policy.D. creating a workplace that makes it comfortable for employees of all backgrounds to be creative and innovative.62. (p. 39) How diversity issues are managed in companies has implications for all the following EXCEPT:A. knowing how to learn.B. creativity.C. retaining good employees.D. problem solving.63. (p. 39) Managing cultural diversity can provide a competitive advantage by:A. decreasing the number of available women and minorities in the company's labor pool.B. helping women and minorities understand they must conform to organizational norms and expectations.C. helping companies produce better decisions by including all employees' perspectives and analysis.D. identifying product markets on which the company should focus64. (p. 39) In managing cultural diversity, which of the following would improve the level of creativity thereby providing competitive advantage to an organization?A. Diversity of perspectives and less emphasis on conformity to norms of the past.B. Those with the best reputations for managing diversity will win the competition for the best personnel.C. An implication of the multicultural model for managing diversity is that the system will become less determinate, less standardized, and therefore more fluid.D. Heterogeneity in decisions and problem-solving groups potentially produces better decisions.65. (p. 39) Which of the following cultural diversity arguments states that companies with the best reputations for managing diversity will win the competition for the best personnel?A. System flexibility argumentB. Marketing argumentC. Employee attraction and retention argumentD. Problem-solving argument66. (p. 39) Diversity is important for tapping all of the following skills of employees EXCEPT:A. cultural skills.B. communication skills.C. creativity.D. homogeneous thinking.67. (p. 40) What areas of the legal environment have influenced HRM practices over the past 25 years?A. Equal employment opportunity, safety and health, pay and benefits, privacy, and job security.B. Executive compensation, pay and benefits, workers' compensation, safety and health, and job security.C. Product liability, workers' compensation, equal employment opportunity, safety and health, and labor relations.D. Equal employment opportunity, patent infringement, workers' compensation, safety and health, and job security.68. (p. 40-41) There will likely be continued discussion, debate, and possible legislation in all but one of the following areas in companies. Name the exception.A. Genetic testingB. Glass ceilingC. Employment-at-willD. Design of physical work environment69. (p. 41) Litigation involving job security will have a major influence on human resource management practices because:A. work rules, recruitment practices, and performance evaluation systems might falsely communicate lifetime employment agreements that the company does not intend to honor during layoffs.B. adjustments of test scores to meet affirmative action requirements are now illegal.C. employees now bear the burden of proof in discrimination cases.D. compensation awards for discrimination claims have increased.70. (p. 41) Which of the following is one of the four ethical principles of a successful company?A. Managers assume all responsibility for the actions of the company.B. It has a strong profit orientation.C. Customer, client, and vendor relationships emphasize mutual benefits.D. It does not produce products that can be used for violent purposes.71. (p. 42) Which legislation act sets new strict rules for business especially as regards accounting practices?A. Human Rights Act of 1994B. Reverse Discrimination Act of 1990C. Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002D. Corruption and Practices Act of 200072. (p. 43) Which of the following is NOT a standard that human resource managers must satisfy for practices to be ethical?A. Managers must treat employees as family.B. Human resource practices must result in the greatest good for the largest number of people.C. Employment practices must respect basic human rights of privacy, due process, and free speech.D. Managers must treat employees and customers equitably and fairly.73. (p. 45) Exporting jobs from developed to less developed countries is known as:A. insourcing.B. offshoring.C. importing.D. onshoring.74. (p. 47) Exporting jobs to rural parts of the United States is referred to as:A. insourcing.B. offshoring.C. importing.D. onshoring75. (p. 48) Which of the following statements about technology is FALSE?A. The Internet allows employees to locate and gather resources, including software, reports, photos, and videos.B. Technology does not allow older workers to postpone retirement.C. The Internet gives employees instant access to experts whom they can communicate with.D. Technology has made equipment easier to operate, helping companies cope with skill shortages.76. (p. 49) Which of the following is NOT typically true of work teams?A. They are used to increase employee responsibility and control.B. They use cross-training to give employees knowledge on a wide range of skills.C. They frequently select new team members and plan work schedules.D. They assume all of the activities reserved for managers such as controlling, planning, and coordinating activities.77. (p. 49) Which of the following is NOT recommended for supporting work teams?A. Reducing flexibility and interaction between employees to maintain high productivity.B. Giving employees formal performance feedback.C. Linking compensation and rewards with performance.D. Allowing employees to participate in planning changes in equipment, layout, and work methods.78. (p. 49) All of the following statements about cross training are true EXCEPT:A. it provides teams' maximum flexibility.B. it helps in measuring employees' performance.C. it trains employees in a wide range of skills.D. employees can fill any of the roles needed to be performed on the team.79. (p. 50) Company X has offices around the globe. Its teams are separated by time, geographic distance, culture and/or organizational boundaries, and almost rely exclusively on technology for interaction between team members. Its teams are:A. virtual teams.B. geographically-concentrated teams.C. lean teams.D. teleworker teams.80. (p. 50-51) Adaptive organizational structures emphasize:A. efficiency, decision making by managers, and the flow of information from top to bottom of the organization.B. a core set of values, and elimination of boundaries between managers, employees, and organizational functions.C. clear boundaries between managers, employees, customers, vendors, and the functional areas, and a constant state of learning.D. internal linking, external linking, diversification, and a core set of values.81. (p. 51) Which of the following is FALSE about high-involvement, adaptive organizational structures?A. Employees are in a constant state of learning and performance improvement.B. Employees are free to move wherever they are needed in a company.C. Line employees are trained to specialize in one job in order to maximize efficiency.D. Previously established boundaries between managers, employees, customers, and vendors are abandoned.82. (p. 51) Employees in geographically dispersed locations can work together in virtual teams using video, e-mail, and the Internet. This e-HRM implication refers to which aspect of HR?A. RecruitingB. Analysis and design of workC. SelectionD. Compensation and benefits83. (p. 52) From the manager's perspective, an HRIS can be used to perform primarily all but one of the following. Name the exception.A. Support strategic decision makingB. Avoid litigationC. Evaluate programs and policiesD. Motivate employees84. (p. 54) A(n) _____ is a series of indicators or metrics that managers and employees have access to on the company intranet or human resource information system.A. HR dashboardB. balanced scorecardC. web portalD. Intranet85. (p. 54) All of the following HR practices support high-performance work systems EXCEPT:A. employees participate in selection process.B. jobs are designed to use a variety of skills.C. employee rewards are related to company performance.D. individuals tend to work separately.86. (p. 56) Which one of the following is NOT associated with managing the human resource environment?A. Linking HRM practices to the company's business objectives.B. Identifying human resource requirements through human resource planning, recruitment, and selection.C. Ensuring that HRM practices comply with federal, state, and local laws.D. Designing work that motivates and satisfies the employee as well as maximizes customer service, quality, and productivity.87. (p. 56) Economic value is traditionally associated with all of the following EXCEPT:A. equipment.B. technology.C. facilities.D. HRM practices.88. (p. 57) A company's human resource acquisition requirements are influenced by all of the following EXCEPT:A. terminations.B. customer demands for products and services.C. motivation and satisfaction of employees.D. promotions.89. (p. 58) Managing the assessment and development of human resources involves all of the following EXCEPT:A. measuring employees' performance.B. creating an employment relationship and work environment that benefits both the company and the employee.C. recruiting employees and placing them in jobs that best use their skills.D. identifying employees' work interests, goals, and values, and other career issues.90. (p. 58) Besides interesting work, _____ are the most important incentives that companies can offer to its employees.A. training for future work rolesB. beneficial work environmentsC. support for nonwork activitiesD. pay and benefitsEssay Questions91. (p. 8) Name and discuss the competencies that HR professionals need.定义并讨论人力资源专业人员需要的能力1. Credible activist: delivers results with integrity, shares information, builds trusting relationships, and influences others, providing candid observation, taking appropriate risks.2. Cultural steward: facilitates change, develops and values the culture, and helps employees navigate the culture.3. Talent manager/organizational designer: develops talent, designs reward systems, and shapes the organization.4. Strategic architect: recognizes business trends and their impact on the business, evidence-based HR, and develops people strategies that contribute to the business strategy.5. Business ally: understands how the business makes money and the language of the business.6. Operational executor: implements workplace policies, advances HR technology, and administers day-to-day work of managing people.92. (p. 9-10) How has the role of HRM changed in recent years? Discuss three trends that are changing the HRM function. Why have these roles changed?近年来,HRM的角色发生了怎样的变化?讨论三个改变人力资源管理功能的趋势。
Chapter 7 – Foundations of PlanningTrue/False Questions4. Research indicates that managers who plan always outperform managers who do not plan.False (moderate)9. Plans that specify the details of achievement of the overall objectives are calledoperational plans.True (difficult)10. Directional plans have clearly defined objectives.False (moderate)12. Standing plans are created in response to programmed decisions that managers make andinclude policies, rules, and procedures.True (moderate)13. The greater the environmental certainty, the more plans need to be directional andemphasis placed on the short term.False (moderate)22. An organization's real goals are what they actually plan on accomplishing, rather thanwhat they hope to accomplish.False (moderate)24. Real goals are official statements of what an organization says its goals are.False (easy)Multiple Choice36. One purpose of planning is that it minimizes ______________ and ______________.a. cost; timeb. time; personnel needsc. waste; redundancy (difficult)d. time; wastee. mistakes; cost38. What does the evidence suggest about organizations that plan compared to organizationsthat do not plan?a. Planning organizations always outperform nonplanning organizations.b. Nonplanning organizations always outperform planning organizations.c. Planning organizations generally outperform nonplanning organizations (easy)d. Nonplanning organizations generally outperform planning organizations.e. They generally perform at about the same level.45. Which of the following is the foundation of planning?a. employeesb. goals (easy)c. outcomesd. computerse. the planning department46. According to the text, _____________ are documents that outline how goals are going tobe met and which typically describe resource allocations, schedules, and other necessary actions to accomplish the goals.a.strategiesb.goalsc.plans (moderate)d.policiese.procedures50. Which of the following is true concerning an organization's stated objectives?a. They issue identical objectives to all constituents.b. Organizations typically have internal and external sets of objectives.c.They may issue different objectives to stockholders, customers, employees, and thepublic.(moderate)d. It is illegal to issue conflicting stated objectives.e. Stated objectives are usually in line with short-term actions.54. What should a person do to understand what are the real objectives of the organization?a. observe organizational member actions (moderate)b. attend a stockholders annual meetingc. read their statement of purposed. read their annual reporte. watch television news reports59. When we categorize plans as being single-use versus standing, we categorize them by______________.a. breadth.b. specificity.c. frequency of use. (easy)d. depth.e. time frame.61. Based on the information presented in the text, ______________ are short term,specific, and standing.a. operational (moderate)b. long-termc. strategicd. specifice. directional67. An organizational plan that has a 6-year time frame would be considered what type ofplan?a. operationalb. short-termc. strategicd. intermediatee. long-term (moderate)68. Strategic plans tend to include a time period of usually ______________.a. 1 year.b. 1-3 years.c. 3 years or more. (moderate)d. 5 years or more.e. at least 10 years.71. Compared to directional plans, what type of plan has clearly defined objectives?a. strategicb. single-usec. short-termd. specific (moderate)e. standing76.Planning accuracy with a high degree of environmental change tends to produce which ofthe following results?a. Planning accuracy is likely.b. Planning accuracy becomes much more important.c. Planning accuracy becomes less important.d. Planning accuracy is less likely. (moderate)e. Planning accuracy occurs in the long-run.78. A ______________ plan is a one-time plan designed to meet the needs of a uniquesituation and created in response to nonprogrammed decisions that managers make.a. single-use (easy)b. short-termc. directionald. standinge. strategic79. A small town's preparation for a visit by the President of the United States would beconsidered what type of plan?a. strategicb. directionalc. standingd. long-terme. single-use (moderate)81. A city's policy concerning skateboarding on downtown sidewalks providing guidance forpolice action would be considered what type of plan?a. standing (difficult)b. contingencyc. directionald. single-usee. strategic84. Where in the organizational hierarchy are traditional goals determined?a. front-line employeesb. team leadersc. lower-level managersd. middle managerse. top managers (moderate)89. A management system in which specific performance goals are jointly determined byemployees and their managers is known as ______________.a.management by objectives. (moderate)b.means-ends chain.c.traditional goal setting.d.management by opinions.91. Which of the following is not one of the four common elements of Management ByObjectives (MBO)?a. goal specificityb. participative decision-makingc. an explicit time periodd. a systems loop (difficult)e. performance feedback93. Management By Objectives (MBO) can be described by which of the following statements?a. an autocratic systemb. a "bottom up" systemc. a "top down" systemd. both a "top down" and a "bottom up" system (difficult)e. a static system105. According to the boxed feature, “Managing in an E-Business World,” probably the biggest change for planning in e-business is that ______________.a.the environment is more stable.b.customers are calling the shots. (moderate)c.employees are making the demands.d.only a few competitors exist.Essay Questions122. In a short essay, list and discuss the four reasons for planning.Answera.Planning establishes coordinated effort. It gives direction to managers andnonmanagers alike. When employees know where the organization or work unit aregoing and what they must contribute to reach goals, they can coordinate theiractivities, cooperate with each other, and do what it takes to accomplish thosegoals. Without planning, departments and individuals might be working at cross-purposes, preventing the organization from moving efficiently toward its goals.b.Planning reduces uncertainty by forcing managers to look ahead, anticipate change,consider the impact of change, and develop appropriate responses. It alsoclarifies the consequences of actions managers might take in response to change.Even though planning can’t eliminate change, managers plan in order to anticipatechanges and develop the most effective response to them.c.Planning reduces overlapping and wasteful activities.When work activities arecoordinated around established plans, wasted time and resources and redundancy canbe minimized. Furthermore, when means and ends are made clear through planning,inefficiencies become obvious and can be corrected or eliminated.d.Planning establishes goals or standards that are used in controlling. If managersare unsure of what they are trying to accomplish, they will be unable to determinewhether or not the goal has actually been achieved. In planning, goals and plansare developed. Then, through controlling, actual performance is compared againstthe goals, significant deviations are identified, and necessary corrective actionis taken. Without planning, there would be no way to control.(moderate)127. In a short essay, list and discuss five characteristics of well-defined goals.Answer(1) A well-designed goal should be written in terms of outcomes rather than actions.The desired end result is the most important element of any goal and, therefore, thegoal should be written to reflect this. (2) Next, a goal should be measurable and quantifiable. It’s much easier to determine if a goal has been met if it’s measurable. In line with specifying a quantifiable measure of accomplishment, (3) a well-designed goal should also be clear as to a time frame. Although open-ended goals may seem preferable because of their supposed flexibility, in fact, goals without a time frame make an organization less flexible because a manager is never sure when the goal has been met or when he or she should call it quits because the goal will never be met regardless of how long he or she works at it. (4) Next a well-designed goal should be challenging but attainable. Goals that are too easy to accomplish are not motivating and neither are goals that are not attainable even with exceptional effort.(5) Next, well-designed goals should be written down. Although actually writing downgoals may seem too time consuming, the process of writing the goals forces people to think them through. In addition, the written goals become visible and tangible evidence of the importance of working toward something. (6) Finally, well-designed goals are communicated to all organizational members who need to know the goals.Making people aware of the goals ensures that they’re “on the same page” and working in ways to ensure the accomplishment of the organizational goals.(moderate)128. In a short essay, list and discuss the five steps in the goal-setting process.Answera.Step 1: Review the organization’s mission, the purpose of the organization.These broad statements of what the organization’s purpose is and what it hopes toaccomplish provide an overall guide to what organizational members think isimportant. It’s important to review these statements before writing goals becausethe goals should reflect what the mission statement says.b.Step 2: Evaluate available resources. A manager doesn’t want to set goals thatare impossible to achieve given the available resources. Even though goals shouldbe challenging, they should be realistic. If the resources a manager has to workwith doesn’t allow for the achievement of that goal no matter how had the managertries of how much effort is exerted, that goal shouldn’t be set.c.Step 3: Determine individually, or with input from others, the goals. These goalsreflect desired outcomes and should be congruent with the organizational missionand goals in other organizational areas. These goals should be measurable,specific, and include a time frame for accomplishment.d.Step 4: Write down the goals and communicate them to all who need to know.Writing goals down forces people to think them through and also makes those goalsvisible and tangible evidence of the importance of working toward something.e.Step 5: Review results and whether goals are being met. Make changes, as needed.Once the goals have been established, written down, and communicated, a manager isready to develop plans for pursuing the goals.(difficult)129. In a short essay, list and discuss the three contingency factors that affect planning.Answera.Level in the organization–for the most part, operational planning dominatesmanagers’ planning efforts at lower levels. At higher organizational levels, theplanning becomes more strategy oriented.b.Degree of environmental uncertainty–when environmental uncertainty is high,plans should be specific, but flexible. Managers must be prepared to reword andamend plans as they’re implemented. At times, managers may even have to abandon their plans.c.Length of future commitments –the more that current plans affect futurecommitments, the longer the time frame for which managers should plan. This commitment concept means that plans should extend far enough to meet those commitments made when the plans were developed. Planning for too long or for too short a time period is inefficient and ineffective.(moderate)。
六级听力分数分配明细abc部分在英语六级听力考试中,分数分配是根据不同题型和难度来确定的。
以下是针对听力分数分配的相关参考内容:1. 单选题(Multiple-choice Questions):通常在六级听力考试中占比较大的题型。
该题型要求考生从多个选项中选择正确的答案。
每个单选题通常值1-2分,根据题目的难度而定。
2. 多选题(Multiple-response Questions):与单选题类似,但答案可能是多个选项。
每个多选题通常值2-3分,根据题目的难度而定。
3. 判断正误题(True/False Questions):要求考生根据听力材料判断给定陈述的真实性。
每个判断正误题通常值1-2分,根据题目的难度而定。
4. 填空题(Fill-in-the-blanks Questions):需要考生根据听到的内容填写空缺的单词、短语或数字。
每个填空题通常值1-2分,根据题目的难度和填写正确与否而定。
5. 补全对话(Completing Conversations):要求考生根据对话的内容选择正确的选项来补充或完成对话。
每个补全对话题通常值1-2分,根据题目的难度而定。
6. 补全短文(Completing Passages):需要考生根据听到的内容选择正确的选项来补充或完成短文。
每个补全短文题通常值2-3分,根据题目的难度而定。
7. 长篇听力(Long Conversations and Talks):此类题目通常是较长的对话或演讲,要求考生理解和综合整个听力材料的内容,然后回答相关问题。
每个长篇听力题通常值2-4分,根据题目的难度而定。
8. 阅读理解(Interpreting and Responding to Passages):此类题目通常要求考生根据听到的内容回答问题,解释或观点陈述。
每个阅读理解题通常值1-3分,根据题目的难度而定。
总体来说,完整的六级听力考试一般由25至30个题目组成,总分约为30-40分。
Chapter 8 - Strategic ManagementTrue/False Questions3. The first step in the strategic management process is analyzing the external environment.False (difficult)6. Within an industry, an environment can present opportunities to one organization and pose threats to another.True (moderate)The final step in the strategic management process is implementing the objectives.False (difficult)TYPES OF ORGANIZATIONAL STRATEGIES11.Corporate-level strategics arc developed for organizations that run more than one type of business.True (moderate)The business group that is characterized by having low growth but high market share is known as a cash cow.True (moderate)According to the Boston Consulting Group matrix, question marks are businesses that generate large amounts of cash, but their prospects lor future growth are limited?False (moderate)According to Porter's competitive strategies framework, the cost leadership strategy would result in the best quality product at a justifiable cost.False (difficult)Multiple Choice38.The strategic management process is divided into which of the following sections?a.planning, implementation, and evaluation (easy)b.problem identification, planning, and implementationc.implementation, evaluation, and restructuringd.mission statement, environmental evaluation, and specific goalse.mission statement, environmental scoping, and evaluationIn the strategic management process, the defines the organizational purpose and answersthe question: "What is our reason for being in business?" a. objective b. evaluation c. strategyd.mission (easy)e.values statement41. Which of the following is not an example of an organization's mission?a.We believe our first responsibility is to doctors, nurses and patients, to mothers and all others who use ourproducts and services. (Johnson & Johnson).b.AMAX's principal products are molybdenum, coal, iron ore, copper, lead, zinc, petroleum and natural gas,potash, phosphates, nickel, tungsten, silver, gold, and magnesium.c.We at Xeren want to increase market share by 10% during the next fiscal year, (difficult)d.Wc are dedicated to the total success of Corning Glass Works as a worldwide competitor.e.Hoover Universal is a diversified, multi-industry corporation with strong manufacturing capabilities,entrepreneurial policies, and individual business unit autonomy.44.Which of the following is not part of the organization's external environment?a.what competition is doingb.pending legislation that might affect the organizationc.consumer trendsd.employees* education level (moderate)bor supplyWhat step in the strategic management process follows analyzing the external environment?a.identifying opportunities and threats (moderate)b.mission statementc.evaluationd.identifying strengths and weaknessese.formulating strategiesWhat step in the strategic management process follows analyzing the organization's resources?a.identifying opportunities and threatsb.formulating strategyc.mission statementd.implementing strategye.identifying strengths and weaknesses (easy)In the strategic management process, what step comes prior to evaluating results?a.identifying strengths and weaknessesb.formulating strategiesc.identifying opportunities and threatsd.implementing strategies (easy)f.analyzing the organization's resourcesWhat is the final step in the strategic management process?a.mission statementb.identifying opportunities and threatsc.implementing strategicsd.analyzing the organization's resourcese.evaluating results (easy)Which of the following is one level of strategic planning in large companies?a.management levelb.financial levelc.staff leveld.corporate level (easy)e.systems levelLower level managers in an organization are typically responsible for which of the following types of strategies?a.functional-level strategiesb.business-level strategiesc.corporate-level strategiesd.mergers and acquisitionsWhich of the following is associated with corporate-lcvcl strategies?a.They are needed if your organization is in more than one type of business, (moderate)b.They answer: "How should our business compete?"c.They represent a single business.d.They arc a method of support for the business-level strategics.e.They determine the operations of a single business unit.65.When PepsiCo seeks to integrate the strategies of Pepsi, 7-Up International, and Frito-Lay, it is developingwhat level of business strategy?a.functionalb.systemc.managementd.businesse.corporate (moderate)Examples of a corporate-level stability strategy include all of the following EXCEPT:a.continuing to serve the same clients by offering the same product or service.b.maintaining market share.c.sustaining the organization's return-on-investment results.d.implementing vertical or horizontal integration, (moderate)When should management pursue a stability strategy?anizational performance is slipping.b.The environment is changing.c.The organization's performance is satisfactory and the environment is stable, (moderate)d.The firm has valuable strengths.e.There are abundant environmental opportunities.76.In, the organization attempts to gain control of its inputs by becoming its own supplier.a.forward vertical integrationb.backward vertical integration (moderate)c.horizontal integrationd.related diversificatione.unrelated diversificationWhich of the following describes a company growing by combining with other organizations in the same industry?a.forward vertical integrationb.backward vertical integrationc.horizontal integration (moderate)d.related diversificatione.unrelated diversificationWhich of the four business groups in (he corporate portfolio matrix has high growth and high market share?a.cash cowb.stars (difficult)c.question marksd.dogse.elephantsMichael Porter's competitive strategies framework identifies three generic competitive strategies: cost leadership, differentiation, and.a.depth.b.breadth.c.revenue growth.d.focus, (moderate)e.acquisition.102.Porter's competitive strategies framework describes a strategy whereby an organizationwants to be unique in its industry along dimensions widely valued by buyers.a.differentiation (moderate)b.fbcusc.cost leadershipd.depthe.defenderAccording to the boxed feature, "Managing in an E-Business World? all of the following are mentioned as major implications of the increasingly dynamic and uncertain environments on e-business strategies EXCEPT:a.environmental analysis will become an important part of everyone's job.b.strategy will become increasingly long term in orientation, (moderate)c.barriers to entry are practically nonexistent.d. a sustainable competitive advantage will be harder to achieve.ScenariosA Large Taco (Scenario)It is now ten years later and, as the original owner of Taco Rocket, you have seen your business holdings grow substantially. You now need to decide how to best manage and utilize the large number of assets represented by the companies you own. You called the Boston Consulting Group (BCG), and they have offered you some advice based on their corporate portfolio matrix.117.Your oldest holding, Taco Rocket, has not grown much in recent years but, due to low debt, generates a hugeamount of cash. Taco Rocket would be considered, according to BCG, a.a.cash cow. (moderate)b.star.c.question mark.d.dog.e.does not fit with their matrix-Recently, you also purchased a company that manufactures a new satellite dish, allowing you to enter into the cable television market. The business is profitable and growing, but the technological unknowns make it risky. BGC considers it a.a.cash cow.b.star.c.question mark, (moderate)d.dog.e.does not fit with their matrix-Another purchase you made was to acquire a local coffee-cart chain with thirty locations around the city. You don't see it growing very much, bui then, ii doesn't cost much (o operate. BGC has labeled this venturea.cash cow.b.star.c.question mark.d.dog. (moderate)e.does not fit with their matrix118.You also got somewhat lucky with an investment made a few years ago. You were an original investor in a computer chip company that took off quickly and now dominates the market. While growing quickly, it docs not tend to generate positive cash flow and is in continuous need of reinvestment of equipment and product development. BGC considers this a. a. cash cow.b.star, (moderate)c.question mark.d.dog.e.does not fit with their matrix-Essay QuestionsTHE STRATEGIC MANAGEMENT PROCESSIn a short essay, list and discuss the eight steps in the strategic management process.123.In a short essay, list and discuss the three levels of strategy that an organization must develop.Answer Corporate-level strategy - this strategy seeks to determine what businesses a company should be in or wants to be in. Corporate-level strategy determines the direction that the organization is going and the roles that each business unit in the organization will plan in pursuing that direction.a.Business-level strategy - this strategy seeks to determine how an organization should compete in each ofits businesses. For a small organization in only one line of business or the large organization that has not diversified into different products or markets, the business-level strategy typically overlaps with (he organization's corporate strategy. For organizations with multiple businesses, however, each division will have its own strategy that defines the products or services it will offer and the customers it wants to reach.b.Functional-level strategy - this strategy seeks to determine how (o support (he business-level strategy. Fororganizations (hat have traditional functional departments such as manufacturing, marketing, human resources, research and development, and finance, these strategies need to support the businesslevel strategy(moderate)In a short essay, discuss the Boston Consulting Group (BCG) matrix and explain its usefulness in segmenting businesses. Include a discussion of the characteristics for each of the four categories based on the BCG matrix.Answer The Boston Consulting Group matrix introduced the idea that an organization's businesses could be evaluated and plotted using a 2 x 2 matrix to identify which ones offered high potential and which were a drain on organizational resources. The horizontal axis represents market share, which was evaluated as either low or high; and the vertical axis indicates anticipated market growth, which also was evaluated as either low or high. Based on its evaluation, the business was placed in one of four categories:a.Cash cows (low growth, high market share) - businesses in this category generate large amounts of cash,but they prospects for future growth are limited.b.Stars (high growth, high market share) - these businesses are in a fast-growing market, and hold a dominantshare of that market. Their contribution to cash flow depends on their need for resources.c.Question marks (high growth, low market share) - these businesses are in an attractive industry, but holda small market share percentage.d.Dogs (low growth, low market share) - businesses in this category do not produce, or consume, much cash.However, they hold no promise for improved performance.(easy)In a short essay, list and discuss the five competitive forces, according to Porter, which determine industry attractiveness and profitability.Answer Threat of new entrants - determined by the height of barriers to entry which includes factors such as economies of scale, brand loyalty, and capital requirements determine how easy or difficult it is for new competitors to enter an industry.a.Threat of substitutes - factors such as switching costs and buyer loyalty determine the degree to whichcustomers are likely to buy a substitute product.b.Bargaining power of buyers - factors such as number of customers in the market, customer information,and the availability of substitutes determine the amount of influence that buyers have in an industry.c.Bargaining power of suppliers - factors such as the degree of supplier concentration and availability ofsubstitute inputs determine the amount of power that supplier have over firms in the industry.d.Existing rivalry - factors such as industry growth rate, increasing or falling demand, and product differencesdetermine how intense the competitive rivalry will be among firms in the industry.(moderate)In a short essay, list and discuss the three competitive strategics, according to Porter. Include specific examples of companies that pursue each of the three competitive strategies.Answer Cost leadership strategy - when an organization sets out to be the lowest-cost producer in its industry, it's following a cost leadership strategy. A low-cost leader aggressively searches out efficiencies in production, marketing, and other areas of operation. Overhead is kept to a minimum, and the firm does everything it can to cut costs. For example, Wal-Mart,s headquarters in Bentonville, Arkansas, office furnishings are sparse and drab but functional. Although low-cost leaders don't place a lot of emphasis on "frills,“ the product or service being sold must be perceived as comparable in quality to (hat offered by rivals or al least be acceptable (o buyers. Examples of companies that have used the low-cost leader strategy include Wal-Mart, Hyundai, and Southwest Airlines.a.Differentiation strategy - the company that seeks to offer unique products that are widely valued bycustomers is following a differentiation strategy. Sources of differentiation might be exceptionally high quality, extraordinary service, innovative design, technological capability, or an unusually positive brand image. The key to this competitive strategy is that whatever product or service attribute is chosen for differentiating must set the firm apart from its competitors and be significant enough to justify a price premium that exceed the cost of differentiating. Practically any successful product or sen ice can be identified as an example of the differentiation strategy: Nordstrom's (customer service); Sony (reputation for quality and innovative design); Coach handbags (design and brand image); and Kimberly-Clark's Huggies Pull-Ups (product design).b.Focus strategy - the aim of the focus strategy is at a cost advantage or a differentiation advantage in anarrow segment. That is, managers select a market segment or group of segments in an industry and don't attempt to serve the broad market. The goal of a fbcus strategy is to exploit a narrow segment of a market.These segments can be based on product variety, type of end buyer, distribution channel, or geographical location of buyers. Research suggests (hat (he focus strategy may be (he most effective choice lor small businesses because they typically do not have the economies of scale or internal resources to successfully pursue one of the other two strategies.(moderate)。
Chapter 03History and Geography: The Foundations of CultureTrue / False Questions1.If a marketer is to interpret a culture's behavior and attitudes, it is essential to have some idea ofa country's history and geography.2.Prior to the coming of Admiral Perry in 1853, Japan could be characterized as being isolated from the rest of the world.3.The prohibition of the colonial traders to trade directly with merchants in China was an important complaint by the colonists.4.When the Chinese Emperor took steps to stop opium trade the British responded militarily resulting in numerous Chinese ports being opened to trade and settlement by foreigners.5.With respect to Latin America, citizens of the United States think that they have been good neighbors and that the Monroe Doctrine has been used to protect the various Latin American states from European interests.Multiple Choice Questions1.___________ can be defined as a society's accepted basis for responding to external and internal events.A. GeographyB. CultureC. Social classD. HistoryE. A national mission2.In 1700s the British colonies in North America complained about two important issues: 1) __________ and 2) __________.A. the poor British military defense of the colonies (against native American raids), the high British taxes on consumer goodsB. the prohibition of trade with merchants in Japan, the imposition of high British postage ratesC. the threat of higher British taxes, the imposition of British military draft on the coloniesD. the prohibition to trade directly with merchants in other nations, the restrictions on return travel to BritainE. the imposition of high British taxes, the prohibition to trade directly with merchants in China3.The single most horrific civil war in the history of the world was the __________.A. American RevolutionB. Taiping RebellionC. Boxer RebellionD. Hong Kong RevolutionE. Satsuma Rebellion4.History helps define a nation's perspective of all of the following EXCEPT:A. the nation's mission.B. how the nation perceives its neighbors.C. how the nation sees its place in the world.D. how the nation sees itself.E. how the nation manages its exports.5.History is:A. written by events; recorded by reporters.B. subjective; subject to writers' cultural biases.C. controlled by political zealots.D. ignored by the uninformed.E. edited by newspapers; unedited for televisionEssay Questions1.Give a brief definition of culture as it applies to international marketing and explain why understanding it is important to the global marketer.2.History helps define a nation's mission. What does this phrase mean in an international commerce context?。
2023年英语CAE阅读理解题Part 1: Multiple Choice Questions (20 points)Directions: Read the following passage and choose the best answer for each question.Questions 1-5 are based on the following passage:In recent years, there has been a growing interest in sustainable travel. Travelers are increasingly conscious of the environmental impact of their trips and are seeking more eco-friendly options. As a result, the travel industry has started to respond to this demand by offering greener alternatives.1. What is the main topic of this passage?a) Sustainable travelb) Environmental impactc) Growing interestd) Greener alternatives2. According to the passage, why are travelers seeking eco-friendly options?a) To save money on their tripsb) To have a positive impact on the environmentc) To follow the recent travel trendsd) To support the travel industry3. How has the travel industry responded to the demand for sustainable travel?a) By increasing the prices of eco-friendly optionsb) By promoting luxury travel experiencesc) By offering greener alternativesd) By ignoring the demand completely4. What is the significance of sustainable travel?a) It helps travelers save money on their tripsb) It contributes to the local economies of travel destinationsc) It reduces the environmental impact of traveld) It allows travelers to have unique cultural experiences5. Which of the following statements is NOT mentioned in the passage?a) Sustainable travel is a recent trend.b) Travelers are becoming more conscious of the environment.c) The travel industry has ignored the demand for greener options.d) There is a growing interest in sustainable travel.Part 2: True/False Questions (10 points)Directions: Read the following statements and decide whether they are true or false. Write "T" for true and "F" for false.Questions 6-10 are based on the following passage:In the future, technology will continue to play a significant role in our lives. With the advancements in artificial intelligence and automation, our daily routines will change drastically. Jobs that require repetitive tasks will be replaced by machines.6. Technology will have a limited impact on our lives in the future.7. Artificial intelligence will lead to the creation of new job opportunities.8. Machines will replace jobs that involve repetitive tasks.9. The advancements in technology will have no effect on our daily routines.10. In the future, our lives will remain unchanged by technological progress.Part 3: Matching Questions (10 points)Directions: Read the following descriptions and match them with the correct term. Write the corresponding letter (a-k) for each description.Questions 11-15 are based on the following terms:a) Globalizationb) Pandemicc) Deforestationd) Renewable energye) Climate changef) Genetic engineeringg) Cybersecurityh) Multiculturalismi) Artificial intelligencej) Overfishingk) Space exploration11. The process of integrating and interconnecting countries through technology and trade.12. A global outbreak of a disease, such as COVID-19.13. The destruction and removal of a large number of trees in an area.14. The use of technologies to enhance or modify the genetic makeup of organisms.15. The protection of computer systems and networks from digital attacks.Part 4: Short Answer Questions (10 points)Directions: Give a brief answer to the following questions based on your understanding of the passage.Questions 16-20 are based on the following passage:In recent years, more people have chosen to work remotely. This shift in work dynamics has been made possible by advancements in technology. However, remote work also presents challenges and requires effective communication and time management skills.16. What is the main reason for the increase in remote work?17. How has technology supported the shift to remote work?18. What skills are essential for successful remote work?19. What are some challenges of working remotely?20. How can individuals overcome the challenges of remote work?End of the Exam.。
True or false questionsChapter 151. a promissory note differs from a bill of exchange in that the maker of a note promises topersonally pay the payee rather than ordering a third party to do so.2. 5. Upon acceptance the drawer, now the acceptor, becomes the principal debtor and the partyprimarily liable for the payment of the bill.3. A cheque is a bill of exchange drawn on a bank payable on a determinable future date.4. A banker’s draft is a draft drawn on a bank.5.The time of payment in a sight draft may be expressed as “ at 30 days after sight”6.The draft in D/P at sight is a sight draft.7. 6. The quality of a banker’s acceptance draft is particularly identical to a marketable bankcertificate of deposit.8.The transaction was made on D/P after sight. When the goods arrived at the port of destination,the buyer borrowed the documents from the collecting bank against T/R. But the buyer refused to make payment on maturity. In this case, the collecting bank was liable to effect payment to the seller.9.When payment is made by D/A, the collecting bank should accept the draft and release thedocuments to the importer.10.The negotiating bank normally has no right of recourse against the drawer, namely thebeneficiary in the credit, in the event of dishonor by the issuing bank after its negotiation. 11.The beneficiary (the seller) should effect shipment immediately upon receipt of the letter ofcredit.12.When payment is made by a confirmed letter of credit, the seller is assured that payment willbe made by the confirming bank no matter the issuing bank is insolvent or not.13.Under the “buyer’s usance credit”, the beneficiary can get full sight payment.。
False Questions1. Common shareholders always share equally with all other shareholders in all dividends.2. A stock dividend is a distribution of corporate assets that returns part of the original investment to shareholders.3. If a corporation is authorized to issue 1,000 shares of $50 common stock, it is said to have $50,000 of stock outstanding.4. Callable bonds can be exchanged for a fixed number of shares of the issuing corporation's common stock.5. A basic present value concept is that cash received in the future is worth more value than the same amount of cash received today.6. Both interest on bonds and dividends on stock are tax deductible.7. A company’s debt-to-equity ratio was 1.0 at the end of Year 1. By the end of Year 2, it had increased to 1.7. Since the ratio increased from Year 1 to Year 2, the degree of risk in the firm’s financing structure decreased during Year 2.8. The carrying (book) value of a bond payable is the par value of the bonds plus the discount.9. Equity securities reflect a creditor relationship such as investments in notes, bonds, and certificates of deposit.10. When an equity security is sold, the sale proceeds are compared with the cost, and if the cost is greater than the proceeds, a gain on the sale of the security is recorded.11. When an investor company owns more than 25% of the voting stock of an investee company, it has a controlling influence.12. Profitability is the ability to generate future revenues and meet long-term obligations.13. Market prospects are the ability to provide financial rewards sufficient to attract and retain financing.14. Vertical analysis is the comparison of a company's financial condition and performance across time.15. Horizontal analysis is the comparison of a company's financial condition and performance to a base amount.Multiple Choice Questions1. Par value of a stock refers to the:B) Value assigned to a share of stock by the corporate charter.2. Stockholders' equity consists of :B) Contributed capital and retained earnings.3. Preferred stock on which the right to receive dividends is forfeited for any year that the dividends are not declared is referred to as:E) Noncumulative preferred stock.4. A company issued 7% preferred stock with a $100 par value. This means that:B) The amount of the potential dividend is $7 per year per preferred share.5. Retained earnings:A) Generally consists of a company's cumulative net income less any net losses and dividends declared since its inception.6. The statement of retained earnings may be combined with the:C) Statement of Stockholders’ Equity.7. Treasury stock is classified as:D) A contra equity account.8. A company has 40,000 shares of common stock outstanding. The stockholders' equity applicable to common shares is $470,000, and the par value per common share is $10. The book value per share is:D) $11.75.Calculation: $470,000/40,000 shares = $11.75 per share9. A premium on common stock:A) Is the amount paid in excess of par by purchasers of newly issued stock.10. A corporation's distribution of additional shares of its own stock to its stockholders without the receipt of any payment in return is called a:A) Stock dividend.1、Obligations not expected to be paid within the longer of one year or the company's operating cycle are reported as:C) Long-term liabilities.2. Bonds that have an option exercisable by the issuer to retire them at a stated dollar amount prior to maturity are known as:C) Callable bonds.3、A bond traded at 102½ means that:B) The bond traded at $1,025 per $1,000 bond.4、Promissory notes that require the issuer to make a series of payments consisting of both interest and principal are:C) Installment notes.5、An advantage of bond financing is:E) All of the above.6、Which of the following statements is true?A) Interest on bonds is tax deductible.7、A disadvantage of bonds is:E) All of the above.8、The debt-to-equity ratio:B) Is a means of assessing the risk of a company’s financing structure.9、When a bond sells at a premium:A) The contract rate is above the market rate.10、Amortizing a bond discount:A) Allocates a part of the total discount to each interest period.11、The effective interest amortization method:B) Allocates bond interest expense using a constant interest rate.12、The Premium on Bonds Payable account is a(n):B) Adjunct or accretion liability account.13、A company received cash proceeds of $206,948 on a bond issue with a par value of $200,000. The difference between par value and issue price for this bond is recorded as a:B) Credit to Premium on Bonds Payable.14、The contract rate of interest is also called the:E) Each of A, B, and C.15、The Premium on Bonds Payable account is a(n):B) Adjunct or accretion liability account.1. Long-term investments:B) Include funds earmarked for a special purpose such as bond sinking funds.2. Short-term investments:A) Are securities that management intends to convert to cash within the longer of one year or the current operating cycle, and are readily convertible to cash.3. Investments in debt and equity securities that the company actively manages and trades for profit are referred to as short-term investments in:C) Trading securities.4. At acquisition, debt securities are:C) Recorded at cost.5. Equity securities are:C) Recorded at cost to acquire them.6. A company owns $100,000 of 9% bonds that pay interest on October 1 and April 1. The amount of interest accrued on December 31 (the company's year-end) would be:C) $2,250.Calculation: $100,000 x 9% x 3/12 year = $2,2507.Long-term investments can include:E) All of the above.8. Available-for-sale debt securities are:C) Reported at market value on the balance sheet.9. Short-term investments in held-to-maturity debt securities are accounted for using the:D) Cost method without amortization.10. Return on total assets measures a company's ability to:C) Produce net income from net assets.1. Evaluation of company performance can include comparison and/or assessment of:E) All of the above.2. Current assets minus current liabilities is:D) Working capital.3. A financial statement analysis report:E) All of the above.4. The ability to meet short-term obligations and to efficiently generate revenues is called:A) Liquidity and efficiency.5. The ability to generate future revenues and meet long-term obligations is referred to as:B) Solvency.6. The ability to provide financial rewards sufficient to attract and retain financing is called:C) Profitability.7. The ability to generate positive market expectations is called:D) Market prospects.8. Three of the most common tools of financial analysis are:C) Horizontal analysis, vertical analysis, ratio analysis.9. The measurement of key relations among financial statement items is known as:D) Ratio analysis.10 Trend analysis is also called:C) Index number trend analysis.。