《固定收益证券》期末总复习!!!
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固定收益债券期末复习资料第一章1、固定收益证券概念:代表拥有对未来发生的一系列具有确定数额收入流的要求权,是承诺未来还本付息的债务工具及相关衍生产品。
固定收益证券分类:A基础性债务工具:①资本市场工具:国债、公司债、市政债券;②货币市场工具:国库券、同业拆借、商业票据、银行承兑汇票、回购。
B衍生品:①利率衍生品:远期利率协议、国债期货、欧洲美元期货、利率互换、利率期权;信用衍生品:信用违约互换。
C结构型债务工具:①嵌入衍生产品:含权债券、收益连结型产品;②资产证券化产品:抵押贷款支持证券、资产支持证券。
权益工具:指能证明拥有某个企业在扣除所有负债后的资产中的剩余权益的合同。
2、理解固定收益证券的风险特征:利率风险(利率变动带来价格变化)、再投资风险(市场利率变化引起投资者再收益的不确定性)、信用风险(债券发行者信用问题导致的风险;固定收益证券衍生产品交易对手不履约带来的风险;信用风险与信用评级)、流动性风险(债券买卖价差衡量)、通胀风险、赎回风险、波动率风险等;3、债务工具基本要素:①发行条款:发行人的身份、担保种类、发行市场与计价货币;②计息条款:息票率(票面利率)、计息频率(到期一次性偿付、存续期内分期偿付(常见于银行贷款与资产证券化)、③到其条款:剩余期限(影响价格、收益率);④计息规则:每次计息均参考上一个计息日对应的SHIBOR;⑤利息计算相关的日期:公告日、计算日、起息日与首次支付利息日;⑥含权条款:赎回、回收、转换;4、资本市场债务工具:①政府债券(国债):由一国财政部发行的以国家政府信用作担保的债券。
政府机构债券:地方政府债券。
②公司债券(公司债务的偿债顺序(优先债、一般性债务、次级债务、分配股权);③金融债券(政策性金融债券、混合资本债券、次级债券)货币市场债务工具:同业拆借、短期国债、中央银行票据、短期融资券、汇票、回购5、主要利率衍生品:利率远期(远期利率协议:买卖双方同意从未来的某一刻开始的一定时期内按照协议利率借贷一笔数额确定的名义本金的协议)、利率期货、利率互换(交换现金流,浮动与固定)6、含权债券的含义:可转换债券:以转股价为执行价格,股票为标的的认股权证;种类:可赎回债券、可回售债券、可转化债券。
AnswersQuestion 1CDFGQuestion 23 has the greatest risk,4 has the least riskQuestion 3a. If the market wants a higher margin than 120basis points for similar issues to after issuance, the price will decline because the quoted margin for the issue (120 basis points) is a below market margin. Even when the coupon rate is reset will be less than the market-required rate for similar issues.b. At the time was purchased by an investor, the coupon rate based on the 6-mouth Treasury rate of 4% was 5.2% (4% plus 120 basis points) considerably below the cap of 8.5%. With the assumed 6-mouth Treasury rate at 7.0%, the coupon rate is 8.2% (7% plus 120 points). Obviously, this is much closer to the cap of 8.5%. While cap risk was present at the time of Purchase of this issue, the cap risk was low. With the rise in the 6-mouth Treasury rate to 7%, cap risk is considerably greater.Question 4a. In our illustration,price if yield decline by 25 basis points = 108.50price if yield rise by 25 basis points = 104.00initial price = 106.00change in yield in decimal = 0.0025 Using equation, we get the answer:49.8)0025.0)(00.106(200.10450.108=-=durationb. For a 100 basis point change and duration of 8.49, the price will change by approximately 8.49%. For a 50 basis point change it would change by approximately4.245%. Since the current market value is $10 million, the market value will change by approximately $10million times 4.245% or $424,500.Question 5a. While both assistant portfolio managers are correct in that they have identified two features of an issue that will impact interest rate risk, it is the interaction of thetwo that will affect an issue’s interest rate risk. From the information provided in the question, it cannot be determined which has the greater interest rate risk.b. Y ou, as the senior portfolio manager, might want to suggest that the two assistant portfolio managers compute the duration of the two issues.Question 6The price of a callable bond can be expressed as follows:price of callable bond=price of option-free bond - price of embedded call option An increase in interest rates will reduce the price of the option-free bond. However, to partially offset that price decline of the option-free bond, the price of the embedded call option will decrease. This is because as interest rates rise the value of the embedded call option to the issuer is worth less. Since a lower price for the embedded call option is subtracted from the lower price of the option-free bond, the price of the callable bond does not fall as much as that of an option-free bond.Question 7If the manager’s portfolio is marked to market, the manager must be concerned with the bid prices provided to mark the position to market. With only one dealer, there is concern that if this dealer decides to discontinue making in this issue, bids must be obtained from a different source. Finally, this manager intends to finance the purchase. The lender of the funds (the dealer financing the purchase) will mark the position to market based on the price it determines and this price will reflect the liquidity risk. Consequently, this manager should be concerned with the liquidity risk even if the manager intends to hold the security to the maturity date.Question 8Answer: CCallable bond price = non-callable price –call option price. If volatility drops,the option value will fall, causing the callable bond price to rise, not fall as C says.Question 9Answer: DA bond ’s time to maturity is positively related to the elasticity of the bond ’s price with respect to changes in its required return A bond ’s coupon rate is in, easily related to the elasticity of the bond ’s price with respect to changes in its required return. The upside potential of a reduction in required return is less for a callable bond than that of a similarly defined option-free bond.Question 10a. The after-tax yield is %3)4.01(*%5=-b. The taxable-equivalent yield is%08.5)39.01(%1.3=- Question 11Answer: AQuestion 12Using the semiannual spot rates, the present value of the expected cash flows is: Present value = 55.986035.1103003.130025.13032=++So, the arbitrage profit is:992.00-986.55=$5.45 per bondAnswer: BThe bond is sold at a premium. As time passes, the bond ’s price will move toward par. Thus, the price will fall.Question 14Bond A ’s current yield is in correct. The current yield should be equal to the coupon rate.Bond B is fine. That is, it has the expected relationship between coupon rates, current yield, and yield to maturity for a bond trading at a premium.Bond C ’s yield to maturity is incorrect. Since the bond is a premium, the yield to maturity should be less than the coupon rate.Bond D is fine. That is, it has the expected relationship between coupon rates, current yield, and yield to maturity for a bond trading at a discount.Bond E is incorrect. Both the current yield and the yield to maturity should be greater than the coupon rate since the bond is trading at a discount.Question 15a. The yield on a discount bond basis, d , is%77.3)105360(1989.01=- b. The price of this Treasury bill, p , per $1 dollar of maturity value is: 971889.0360275*0368.01=-Question 16Answer: AWhen the bond is priced above the call price, the embedded option to call the bond is “in-the-money ”. Hence, it is more likely that the firm will call the bonds away from investors and the use of the call price and the date to first call is more appropriate.Answer: B0517.01)125.1()10.1(1)1()1(23223321=-=-++=z z f or 5.17%Question 18Answer: A3.27%or 0327.0)005.0(54.6±=±*-=∆*-=∆y MD P PQuestion 19Answer: B%35.10135.0)015.0(60)(22==*=∆*Y CQuestion 20Answer: APortfolio duration is the weighted average of component securities, using market values:(2,400,000/7,200,000)*4.625+(3,600,000/7,200,000)*7.322+(1,200,000/7,200,000)*9.3 = 6.753.The required assumption to portfolio duration calculations is a parallel shift in the yield curve, in which must be the same for each component security . A stable reinvestment rate might mean a flat yield curve, in which case the portfolio duration measure would work. However, this is not a required assumption- the assumption is that the yield curve can change, so long as the change is parallel across maturities.。
固定收益证券课程期末总结一、导言固定收益证券是金融市场上一种重要的投资工具,广泛应用于各类金融机构和投资者。
而固定收益证券课程则为我们提供了系统性的学习固定收益证券的机会,本文将对固定收益证券课程进行总结,回顾所学内容并提出感悟。
二、课程回顾1. 固定收益证券的基本概念固定收益证券是指具备固定利息和固定到期日的金融工具,包括国债、企业债券、信用债券等。
课程一开始介绍了固定收益证券的基本概念和特点,为进一步学习打下基础。
2. 固定收益证券的定价和收益率计算在固定收益证券的定价和收益率计算方面,我们学习了债券估价模型和到期收益率曲线的构建方法。
这些理论和模型为我们进一步分析固定收益证券的风险和回报提供了工具和方法。
3. 固定收益证券的风险评估和投资策略固定收益证券的投资涉及到信用风险、利率风险、违约风险等多种风险,课程中我们学习了这些风险的评估和管理方法。
也学习了针对不同投资目标制定的投资策略,如获利策略、避险策略等。
4. 固定收益证券市场的交易和监管固定收益证券的交易和监管是保障市场秩序和投资者利益的重要环节。
课程中我们学习了各类固定收益证券交易的方式和规则,以及相关的监管政策和机构。
三、感悟与收获通过学习固定收益证券课程,我深深地感受到了固定收益证券在金融市场中的重要性,并从中获得了几点重要的收获。
1. 拓宽了金融知识面固定收益证券是金融市场中的一个重要组成部分,学习了固定收益证券的概念、特点、定价模型等,让我对金融市场的运作有了更深入的了解。
同时,我也意识到金融市场是一个复杂而庞大的体系,需要不断学习与研究。
2. 增强了风险管理能力固定收益证券投资涉及到多种风险,如信用风险、利率风险等。
学习固定收益证券的风险评估和管理方法,让我更加了解风险的本质和如何进行有效管理。
这对于我今后在金融市场的投资决策和风险控制有着很大帮助。
3. 培养了分析和决策能力在学习固定收益证券的过程中,我们需要分析各种因素对固定收益证券价格和收益率的影响,并做出相应的投资决策。
固定收益证券投资期末复习提纲考试注意:a.因为计算题量大,人手须必备一个高级计算器,考试时想向同学借,同学是没时间借给你的,最好带尺子列表格、画图;b.计算题题量有点大,所以前面客观题时间要放少点,注意时间安排;c.如没有特殊要求,计算题答案保留小数点后三位;d.计算题旁有一些标准统一要求的,如统一按半年还是年,务必要按题目要求来;e.单选、判断和多选的答案务必填到前面的表格框里,不然不给分。
一、题型:名词解释——4*3分=12分判断题——10*1分=10分单项选择题——10*1分=10分多项选择题——5*2分=10分计算题——5*8分=40分投资分析题——2*9分=18分二、怎么复习?一切范围以PPT为准,所以刚开始复习时要求认真结合书本,看两遍PPT后(这样才能写出前几题的客观题),再进行重点复习(计算部分);计算题重点如下:一定掌握债券内在价值计算(一切计算题的基础,尤其现值/终值之和计算公式及一些特殊的债券,如永久债券等);掌握债券收益率计算,各种收益率的计算,如总收益的三个来源分解、总收益率、被提前赎回的收益率、YTM、CY、HPR等;掌握债券价格波动性衡量中基点价格值、久期与凸性的计算(近似法与表格法都要掌握),尤其是久期与凸性两者相结合进行衡量的方法;掌握即期利率与远期利率之间的换算,掌握解鞋带法推导收益率曲线;掌握利率远期合约、利率期货合约的个别计算;掌握利率互换的原理计算;掌握每次平时练习中的计算同PPT上的例题。
所以目前要做的事就是先把PPT,结合课本好好完整看两遍。
例题要自己都再做一遍,别想着考试时再第一次脱离开来自己一个人做,第十八周,老师会再给出具体点的范围。
第一章概览1、如何理解固定收益证券?固定收益证券是指其发行人未来向其持有人支付的货币流量将符合某种合约规定的证券。
(1)代表了其持有人的一种权利;(2)发行人未来要支付一定的货币流量;(3)发行人未来支付的货币流量要符合某种合约约定;(4)发行人未来支付的货币流量并不一定是固定不变的。
2、固定收益证券有哪些种类?(1)债务证券类;(2)股权证券类的优先股;(3)资产证券化类。
3、债券的特征体现在哪些方面?(1)偿还性;(2)收益性;(3)安全性;(4)流动性。
4、说明债券与股票的联系与区别。
(1)联系:债券与股票都属于有价证券、债券与股票都是筹措资金的手段、债券和股票的收益率互相影响;(2)区别:债券与股票的权利体现不同的关系、债券与股票的发行目的不完全相同、债券与股票的期限有着不同的属性、债券与股票的债息或股息收益情况存在差异、债券与股票的风险水平不同。
5、说明债券的完整过程。
6、债券可以如何分类?第二章债券发行和偿还1、说明债券发行方式的种类。
(1)直接发行是指债券发行人不依靠中介机构,自己直接向债券认购人出售债券。
间接发行是指债券发行人依靠中介机构的帮助,由中介机构来代理完成债券发行事宜。
(2)公开募集是指债券向全社会公开发行,一般不具体指定债券发行对象或者对债券发行对象做过多的限制。
私下募集是指债券不向全社会公开发行,而是只允许特定类别的投资者承购债券。
(3)竞价发行是指由代表债券认购人方面的竞价人通过一定的竞价程序来决定债券发行价格的方式。
定价发行是指由债券发行人单方面确定债券发行价格、而后由债券认购人认购的方式。
2、债券主要的发行方式有哪些?(1)承购包销法,是指债券发行人与债券承销人签订承购包销合同,由债券承销人负责其所承受的债券发行的销售任务。
(2)招标发行法,是指债券发行人先不规定债券发行价格(或其他某一债券发行条件),由投标人直接竞价,然后发行人根据投标所产生的结果来发行债券。
固定收益证券期末试题一、选择题1. 根据发行主体的不同,固定收益证券可以分为以下哪种类型?A. 企业债券B. 政府债券C. 股票D. 人民币存款2. 收益率曲线是用来表示不同期限的债券收益率之间的关系的图形。
以下哪种情况可以导致收益率曲线倒挂?A. 经济衰退预期B. 通胀预期上升C. 政府债务水平下降D. 股票市场上涨3. 债券的名义本金是指:A. 购买债券时需要支付的本金B. 债券的面值C. 债券的发行价D. 债券的剩余偿还本金4. 下面哪种固定收益证券是由中央政府发行的?A. 地方政府债券B. 金融债券C. 中票D. 国债5. 利率风险可以通过以下哪种方法来管理?A. 多元化投资组合B. 套利交易C. 期货交易D. 外汇交易二、填空题1. _________是指固定收益证券的到期时间。
2. 成交量和交易金额之间的关系可以通过计算_________来表达。
3. 政府债券是由_________发行的一种固定收益证券。
4. 利率风险可以通过买入_________来进行对冲。
5. 债券的票面利率是指债券到期时按_________支付的利息。
三、简答题1. 简要说明固定收益证券的基本特点和投资风险。
固定收益证券是指具有固定还本付息期限的金融工具,其特点包括:- 收益权明确:债券持有人在固定的时间间隔内会获得固定的利息收益,同时在债券到期时可以收回本金。
- 本息保障:发行债券的主体会根据约定的利息和还本计划按时支付债券持有人的利息和本金。
- 流动性较高:固定收益证券在二级市场具有一定的流动性,投资者可以通过买卖债券来获得资金。
- 本金回收时间较长:债券的期限可能较长,投资者需要考虑资金的锁定期。
固定收益证券的投资风险主要包括:- 利率风险:债券价格与市场利率呈反向关系,市场利率上升会导致债券价格下降。
- 信用风险:发行债券的主体信用状况恶化或违约可能导致无法按期支付利息和本金。
- 流动性风险:二级市场上固定收益证券的买卖可能受限,投资者可能无法按时变现。
固定收益证券期末试题一、选择题1. 固定收益证券的主要特点是()。
A. 收益固定B. 风险较低C. 流动性较好D. 所有以上选项2. 下列关于债券的陈述,哪一项是正确的?A. 债券的市场价格与利率呈正相关B. 债券的市场价格与利率呈负相关C. 债券的信用评级越高,其收益率越高D. 债券的到期时间越长,其价格对利率的敏感度越低3. 债券的到期收益率(YTM)是指()。
A. 债券的当前市场价格B. 债券的持有期回报率C. 债券的内部收益率D. 如果持有债券直到到期所能获得的年化收益率4. 债券的信用风险可以通过以下哪种方式降低?A. 购买高信用评级的债券B. 增加债券投资的多样性C. 购买债券期权D. 所有以上选项5. 以下哪种类型的债券通常具有最高的信用风险?A. 国债B. 地方政府债券C. 公司债D. 可转换债券二、简答题1. 请简述固定收益证券的定义及其主要类型。
2. 描述债券的久期以及它如何帮助投资者管理利率风险。
3. 解释债券信用评级的基本原理,并举例说明不同信用评级对投资者的意义。
三、计算题1. 假设你购买了一张面值为1000元,年票面利率为5%,剩余期限为10年的债券,当前市场价格为950元。
请计算该债券的到期收益率(YTM)。
2. 假设你持有一张面值为1000元,票面利率为6%,剩余期限为5年的债券,你预计在2年后将其出售。
如果当前的即期利率为4%,请使用久期估算你持有的债券在2年后的大致市场价格。
四、论述题1. 论述固定收益证券在投资组合管理中的作用及其对投资组合风险和收益的影响。
2. 分析当前经济环境下,投资者应如何选择合适的固定收益证券策略来优化其投资组合。
3. 讨论利率变动对固定收益证券市场的影响,以及投资者可以采取哪些策略来应对这些变动。
请注意,以上内容仅为试题框架,具体答案需要根据实际情况和所学知识进行详细解答。
在撰写答案时,应确保分析准确、逻辑清晰,并结合实际案例或数据支持观点。
固定收益期末总结名词解释•固定收益证券:承诺未来还本付息的债务工具及相关衍生产品的总称,包括债券、优先股、商业票据等多种直接债务性工具。
代表拥有对未来发生的一系列具有确定数额收入流的要求权。
•可交换债券:指上市公司股份持有者通过抵押其持有的股票给托管机构进而发行的公司债券,债券持有人在未来某个时期内,能按照债券发行时约定的条件用持有的债券换取发债人抵押的上市公司股权。
是一种内嵌期权的金融衍生品•抵押支持证券MBS:是以房地产资产的组合作为抵押担保而发行的债券,是以特定资产组合或特定现金流为支持,发行可交易证券的一种融资形式。
是将缺乏流动性的资产转换为在金融市场上可以自由买卖的证券的行为,使其具有流动性。
特征在于:基础资产的收益和风险得到分离和重组;具有可预期的稳定现金流作为发行基石•资产支持债券ABS:非住房抵押贷款的资产担保证券,其结构特征与MBS类似,同时兼有转手支付类债券的特征。
包括汽车消费贷款、信用卡应收款、学生贷款等•欧洲债券:是指借款人在本国境外市场发行,不以发行市场所在国的货币为计价货币的国际债券。
发行人、发行地以及计价货币分别属于三个不同的国家•可转换债券:持有人有权在规定的时间内按照一定的转换价格换成发债公司的普通股票的债券。
转换权相当于看涨期权,有利于投资人,也称为投资者权利债券。
是一种混合证券,兼具股票和债券两种特性•质押式回购:指债券持有人(正回购方)将债券质押给资金融出方(逆回购方)的同时,与其约定在未来某日以约定价格从资金融出方买回该债券的交易行为,又称封闭式回购。
回购期内,回购双方均不得动用抵押的债券。
期限最长为1年•买断式回购:指债券持有人(正)将债券出售给资金融出方(逆)的同时,与其约定在未来某日以约定价格从买方买回相等数量同种债券的交易行为,又称开放式回购。
回购期内,逆回购方可获得债券的所有权和使用权,可获得债券所发生利息。
最长不超过91天•债券借贷:指债券融入方以一定数量的债券为质物,从债券融出方借入标的债券,同时约定在未来某日归还所借入标的债券,并由债券融出方返还相应质物的债券融通行为。
(I)国际债券:是一国政府,金融机构,工商企业或国际组织为筹措和融通资金,在国外金融市场上发行的,以外国货币为计价货币的债券。
⑵可转换债券:是一种附有选择权的企业债券。
其持有者有权在一定时间内将债券转换成确定数量的发彳丁者的普通股票。
可转换债券可以使投资者分享公司股票价格上升的好处。
可转换债券被视为一种混合证券,兼具股票和债券两种特性,打破了股票和债券的传统界限。
⑶年金:指在相同的间隔时间内陆续收到或付出相同金额的款项,例如分期付款买房,分期偿还贷款,发放养老金等,都属于年金收付的形式。
按照收付的时间,年金可划分为两类:a普通年金:在各期期末收入或付出的年金。
b预付年金:在各期期初收入或付出的年金。
⑷实际利率:是对名义利率按货币购买力的变动修正后的利率。
由于借贷双方更关心货币的实际购买力而不是货币的名义额,因此实际利率更能准确地衡量借贷的成本和收益。
⑸到期收益率:是能使债券未来现金流的现值正好等于债券当前的市场价格(初始投资)的贴现率,用YTM表不。
它是按复利计算的收益率,考虑了货币的时间价值,能较好地反映债券的实际收益。
⑥当期收益率:是年利息与债券当时市场价格的市值,它仅仅衡量利息收入的大小。
(7)利率期限结构:风险,流动性和税收待遇相同,期限不同的国债的利率(到期收益率)与期限之间关系的图形描述的就是收益率曲线。
由于收益率曲线将各种国债的到期收益率与期限联系起来,因此又被称为利率期限结构。
(8)Fisher方程:匚=只+口7 该方程式是有美国伟大的经济学家费雪提出的。
其表明,名义利率必须包含一个通货膨涨溢价,以弥补预期的通货膨胀给贷款人造成的实际购买力损失。
当实际利率保持稳定时,名义利率就会随着预期通货膨胀率的提高而提高。
⑨远期利率:指从未来某个日期开始的远期债务合约所要求的利率。
(10)即期利率:就是零息债券(纯贴现债券)的到期收益率。
(II)息票效应:票面利率不同,债券现金流模式就不一样。
固定收益证券集团文件发布号:(9816-UATWW-MWUB-WUNN-INNUL-DQQTY-《固定收益证券》期末复习题一、单项选择题(每小题2分,本题共28分。
每小题只有一个选项符合题意,请选择正确答案。
)1.目前我国最安全和最具流动性的投资品种是( B.国债)2.债券的期限越长,其利率风险(A.越大)。
3.5年期,10%的票面利率,半年支付。
债券的价格是1000元,每次付息是(B.50)。
4.下列哪种情况,零波动利差为零?(A.如果收益率曲线为平)5.在投资人想出售有价证券获取现金时,证券不能立即出售的风险被称为(C.变现力风)。
6.如果采用指数化策略,以下哪一项不是限制投资经理复制债券基准指数的能力的因素?(B.无法及时追踪基准指数数据)7.如果采用指数化策略,以下哪一项不是限制投资经理复制债券基准指数的能力的因素?(B.无法及时追踪基准指数数据)8.投资于国库券时可以不必考虑的风险是(A.违约风险)9.某人希望在5年末取得本利和20000元,则在年利率为2%,单利计息的方式下,此人现在应当存入银行()元。
10.固定收益市场上,有时也将(A.零息债券)称为深度折扣债券。
11.贴现率升高时,债券价值(A.降低)12.以下有三种债券投资组合,它们分别对一笔7年到期的负债免疫。
所有债券都是政府发行的无内置期权债券。
有人认为:“因为三种组合都对负债进行了免疫,所以它们有同样程度的再投资风险”。
他的看法正确吗?(D.不对,C组合比B组合的再投资风险大)13.5年期,10%的票面利率,半年支付。
债券的价格是1000元,每次付息是(B.50元)。
14.若收益率大于息票率,债券以(A.低于)面值交易;15.贴现率升高时,债券价值( A.降低)16.在投资人想出售有价证券获取现金时,证券不能立即出售的风险被称为(C.变现力风险)。
17.以下哪一种技术不属于内部信用增级?(C.担保)18.某8年期债券,第1~3年息票利率为6.5%,第4~5年为7%,第6~7年为7.5%,第8年升为8%,该债券就属于(A.多级步高债券)。
西南财经大学本科期末考试试卷课程名称:固定收益证券担任教师:韧考试学期:2014 -2015 学年第一学期专业:2012级金融学学号:年级::考试时间:2015 年月日(星期)午:-- :题号一二三四五六七八总分阅卷人成绩出题教师必填:1、考试类型:闭卷[ ] 开卷[ ](页纸开卷)2、本套试题共五道大题,共页,完卷时间120 分钟。
3、考试用品中除纸、笔、尺子外,可另带的用具有:计算器[ ] 字典[ ] 等(请在下划线上填上具体数字或内容,所选[ ]内打钩)考生注意事项:1、出示学生证或身份证于桌面左上角,以备监考教师查验。
2、拿到试卷后清点并检查试卷页数,如有重页、页数不足、空白页及刷模糊等举手向监考教师示意调换试卷。
3、做题前请先将专业、年级、学号、姓名填写完整。
4、考生不得携带任何通讯工具进入考场。
5、严格遵守考场纪律。
一、单选(2分/个,共20分)1、一个含回售权的债券其收益率下降1%,如果用久期估算其新价格,会导致结果()A. 太大B. 太小C. 可能太大也可能太小D. 准确2、3、在货币市场上的3个月、6个月、9个月、1年期国债的收益率分别为2.28%、2.55%、3.01%、3.22%,如果某基金经理预测未来3个月后市场利率保持不变,那么未来3个月投资到哪种债券他会获得最高收益()A. 3个月B. 6个月C. 9个月D. 1年期4、loyr零息债券当前收益率9.4%,价格为39.91,如果到期收益率上升至9.9%,价格下降为38.05,如果到期收益率下降至8.9%,价格上升为41.86,则其有效久期为()A. 9.38B. 9.48C. 9.55D. 9.585、下列关于期限结构理论的准确陈述是()A. 在流动性偏好理论下,收益率曲线是向上倾斜的B. 先向上后向下的收益率曲线符合市场分割理论但不符合纯预期理论C. 人寿保险公司强烈偏好30年期债券,这一事实支持市场分割理论D. 只有优先聚集的理论才能解释收益率曲线的四种形状6、中期国债6个月后到期,其价格与刚发行的6个月期限的短期国债相比,应该()A. 较低B. 较高C.相同D.无法比较7、on-the-run债券与off-the-run债券存在不同,on-the-run债券()A. 比off-the-run债券期限更短B. 是同期限债券中最新发行的C. 为公开交易,off-the-run债券则不然D. 为柜台市场交易产品8、假定投资者处于31%的边际税率等级,正在对收益率为7.5%的公司债券和收益率为5.25%的市政债券进行投资选择,两种债券除了税收待遇,其他特征均相同,那么投资者应该选择()A. 公司债券,因为其收益率较高B. 市政债券,因为其税收相当收益率较高C. 公司债券,因为其税后收益率较高D. 市政债券,因为其信用评级更高9、投资者有1亿元的资金用于今后六年的或有免疫,需要至少8.5%的收益,当前市场利率为10%,那么他的安全边际接近()A. 5,566,976B. 8,242,584C. 7,889,334D. 6,345,28210、假定息票率5%,6年期的债券价格为105.2877,到期收益率为4%,4年后可以以面值回售。
Summary for Bond markets,Analysis and Strategies09303024 沈越09303019 李健Chapter 11 Agency Mortgage Pass-Through SecuritiesThe residential mortgage market can be divided into two subsectors based on the credit quality of the borrower: prime mortgage market and sub-prime mortgage market.The prime sector includesi.loans that satisfy the underwriting standard of Ginnie Mae, Fannie Mae, and Freddie Mac (i.e., conforming loans)ii.loans that fail to conform for a reason other than credit quality or because the loan is not a first lien on the property (i.e., nonconforming loans).The sub-prime mortgage sector is the market for loans provided to borrowers with an impaired credit rating or where the loan is a second lien; these loans are nonconforming loans.All of the prime and sub-prime loans can be securitized in different sectors of the RMBS market.Loans that satisfy the underwriting standard of the agencies are typically used to create RMBS that are referred to as agency mortgage-backed securities (MBS).All other loans are included in what is referred to generically as non-agency MBS. The agency MBS market includes three types of securities:i.agency mortgage pass-through securitiesii.agency collateralized mortgage obligations (CMOs)iii.agency stripped MBSAgency CMOs and stripped CMOs are created from mortgage pass-through securities.Hence, agency CMOs and agency stripped MBS are routinely referred to as derivative MBS products.A mortgage pass-through security, or simply pass-through security, is a type of MBS created by pooling mortgage loans and issuing certificates entitling the investor to receive a pro rata share in the cash flows of the specific pool of mortgage loans that serves as the collateral for the security.Because there is only one class of bondholders, these securities are sometimes referredto as single-class MBS.When a pass-through security is first issued, the principal is known.Over time, because of regularly scheduled principal payments and prepayments, the amount of the pool’s outstanding loan balance declines.The pool factor is the percentage of the original principal that is still outstanding.At issuance, the pool factor is 1 and declines over time.Pool factor information is published monthly.Payments of a pass-through security are made each month.▪Neither the amount nor the timing of the cash flow from the loan pool is identical to that of the cash flow passed through to investors.▪Servicing and other fees.▪Because of prepayments, the cash flow of a pass-through is also not known with certainty.Not all of the mortgages that are included in the loan pool that are securitized need to have the same note rate and the same maturity.Consequently, when describing a pass-through security, the weighted-average coupon rate and a weighted-average maturity are determined.A weighted-average coupon rate (WAC) is found by weighting the note rate of each mortgage loan in the pool by the amount of the mortgage outstanding.A weighted-average maturity (WAM) is found by weighting the remaining number of months to maturity for each mortgage loan in the pool by the amount of the mortgage outstanding.After origination of the MBS, the WAM of a pool changes. The remaining number of months to maturity for a loan pool is refered as weighted average remaining maturity (WARM).The weighted average of the number of months since the origination of the security for the loans in the pool. weighted average loan age (WALA).Agency pass-through securities are issued byernmental National Mortgage Association (Ginnie Mae)ii.Federal National Mortgage Association (Fannie Mae)iii.Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation (Freddie Mac)The pass-through securities that they issue are referred to as:i.Ginnie Mae Mortgage-Backed Securities (MBS)ii.Fannie Mae Guaranteed Mortgage Pass-Through Certifications (MBS)iii.Freddie Mac Mortgage Participation Certificates (PC)Do not be confused by the generic term “MBS” and the pass-through certificates that Ginnie Mae and Fannie Mae have elected to refer to as MBS.To value a pass-through security, it is necessary to project its cash flow.The difficulty is that the cash flow is unknown because of prepayments.The only way to project a cash flow is to make some assumption about the prepayment rate over the life of the underlying mortgage pool.▪The prepayment rate assumed is called the prepayment speed or, simply, speed.▪The yield calculated based on the projected cash flow is called a cash flow yield. Estimating the cash flow from a pass-through requires making an assumption about future prepayments.Several conventions have been used as a benchmark for prepayment rates:i.Federal Housing Administration (FHA) experienceii.the conditional prepayment rateiii.the Public Securities Association (PSA) prepayment benchmarkThe first convention is no longer used.Conditional Prepayment Rate▪A benchmark for projecting prepayments and the cash flow of a pass-through requires assuming that some fraction of the remaining principal in the pool is prepaid each month for the remaining term of the mortgage.▪The prepayment rate assumed for a pool, called the conditional prepayment rate (CPR), is based on the characteristics of the pool and the current and expected future economic environment.•It is referred to as a conditional rate because it is conditional on the remaining mortgage balance.▪The CPR is an annual prepayment rate.▪To estimate monthly prepayments, the CPR must be converted into a monthly prepayment rate, commonly referred to as the single-monthly mortality rate (SMM).▪A formula can be used to determine the SMM for a given CPR:SMM = 1 – (1 –CPR)^(1/12)An SMM of w% means that approximately w% of the remaining mortgage balance at the beginning of the month, less the scheduled principal payment, will prepay that month.▪That is, prepayment for month t =SMM ×(beginning mortgage balance for montht –scheduled principal payment for montht)The Public Securities Association (PSA) prepayment benchmark is expressed as a monthly series of annual prepayment rates.▪The PSA benchmark assumes that prepayment rates are low for newly originated mortgages and then will speed up with seasoning▪The PSA benchmark assumes the following CPRs for 30-year mortgages:i.a CPR of 0.2% for the first month, increased by 0.2% per year per month for the next30 months when it reaches 6% per yearii.a 6% CPR for the remaining years▪The benchmark, referred to as ―100% PSA‖or simply ―100 PSA,‖is depicted graphically in the exhibit.Mathematically, 100 PSA can be expressed as follows:If t ≤ 30: CPR = 6% (t/30)If t > 30: CPR = 6%where t is the number of months since the mortgage originated.▪Slower or faster speeds are then referred to as some percentage of PSA.▪For example, 150 PSA means 1.5 times the CPR of the PSA benchmark prepayment rate.▪A prepayment rate of 0 PSA means that no prepayments are assumed.▪The CPR is converted to an SMM usingSMM = 1 – (1 –CPR)^(1/12)Beware of Convention▪The PSA prepayment benchmark is simply a market convention.▪It is the product of a study by the PSA based on FHA prepayment experience.▪Data that the PSA committee examined seemed to suggest that mortgages became seasoned (i.e., prepayment rates tended to level off) after 30 months and the CPR tended to be 6%.▪Astute money managers recognize that the CPR is a shorthand enabling market participants to quote yield and/or price, but as a convention in deciding value it has many limitations.Housing turnover means existing home sales.▪Cash-out refinancing means refinancing by a borrower in order to monetize the price appreciation of the property.▪Rate/term refinancing means the borrower has obtained a new mortgage on the existing property to save either on interest cost or shortening the life of the mortgage with no increase in the monthly payment.For agency MBS, there are two other minor reasons for prepayments: curtailments and defaults.▪A curtailment is a prepayment of part of the outstanding loan balance.▪A default of the borrower results in the foreclosure of the property and payment of the principal outstanding to the security holders.Housing Turnover Component▪Studies have found factors that have produced a relatively stable, long-term level of housing turnover rates that vary within a reasonable range.▪The factors in the Bear Stearns model to forecast prepayments due to housing turnover are seasoning effect, housing price appreciation effect and seasonality effect.•According to the Bear Stearns model, aging occurs faster than the PSA benchmark, with prepayment rates reaching 6% CPR in about 15 months (rather than 30 months) and prepayments peaking after 40 months at around 8% CPR and then leveling off at just below 7.5% CPR.The LTV of a loan changes over time.•This is due to the amortization of the loan and the change in the value of the home. •In the Bear Stearns agency prepayment model, a composite home appreciation index (HPI) is constructed▪There is a well-documented seasonal pattern in prepayments.•This pattern, referred to as the seasonality effect, is related to activity in the primary housing market, with home buying increasing in the spring and gradually reaching a peak in late summer.•Mirroring this activity are the prepayments that result from the turnover of housing as home buyers sell their existing homes and purchase new ones.Cash-out refinancing is driven by price appreciation since origination of the loans in the pool.▪A proxy measure for price appreciation must be used.▪For the Bear Stearns agency prepayment model, the pool’s HPI is used.▪A ratio greater than 1 means that there is an incentive to refinance while a ratio below 1 means that the borrower will incur a higher interest rate to refinance.The refinancing decision is not based solely on the mortgage rate relative to the prevailing market rate but a host of other borrower circumstances.•This is reflected in the S-curve for prepayments.•The reason for the observed S-curve for prepayments is that as the rate ratio increases, the CPR (i.e., prepayment rate) increases.•The S-curve is not sufficient for modeling the refinancing rate/term refinancing. •This is because the S-curve fails to adequately account for two dynamics of borrower attributes that impact refinancing decisions:i.the burnout effectii.the threshold media effectBond-Equivalent Yieldsemiannual cash flow yi eld = (1 + yM)^6 – 1bond-equivalent yield = 2[(1 + yM)^6 – 1]Limitations of Cash Flow Yield Measure▪The yield corresponding to a price must be qualified by an assumption concerning prepayments.▪A yield number without qualification as to the prepayment assumption is meaningless. ▪Even with specification of the prepayment assumption, the yield number is meaningless in terms of the relative value of a pass-through.Average LifeWhen PSA speed becomes bigger,the average life becomes smaller as the following table shows.An investor who owns pass-through securities does not know what the cash flow will be because that depends on prepayments.( Prepayments risk)If mortgage rates decline there will be two adverse consequences.i. in the case of a pass-through security, the rise in price will not be as large as that of an option-free bond because a fall in interest rates increases the borrower’s incentive to prepay the loan and refinance the debt at a lower rate.ii.the cash flow must be reinvested at a lower rate.•These two adverse consequences are referred to as contraction risk.If mortgage rates rise, the price of the pass-through, like the price of any bond, will decline.But it will decline more because the higher rates will tend to slow down the rate of prepayment.This is just the time when investors want prepayments to speed up so that they can reinvest the prepayments at the higher market interest rate.This adverse consequence of rising mortgage rates is called extension risk.Pass-throughs are quoted in the same manner as U.S. Treasury coupon securities.A quote of 94-05 means 94 and 5/32nds of par value, or 94.15625% of par value. Many trades occur while a pool is still unspecified, and therefore no pool information is known at the time of the trade.This kind of trade is known as a ―TBA‖ (to be announced) trade.The seller has the right in this case to deliver pass-throughs backed by pools that satisfy the PSA requirements for good delivery.CHAPTER 12Agency Collateralized Mortgage Obligations And Stripped Mortgage-Backed SecuritiesCollateralized mortgage obligations (CMOs) are bond classes created by redirecting the cash flows of mortgage-related products so as to mitigate prepayment risk. The mere creation of a CMO cannot eliminate prepayment risk; it can only transfer the various forms of this risk among different classes of bondholders. The bond classes created are commonly referred to as tranches. The principal payments from the underlying collateral are used to retire the tranches on a priority basis according to terms specified in the prospectus.The principal pay-down window for a tranche is the time period between the beginning and the ending of the principal payments to that tranche. Tranches can have average lives that are both shorter and longer than the collateral, thereby attracting investors who have a preference for an average life different from that of the collateral. Accrual BondsIn many sequential-pay CMO structures, at least one tranche does not receive currentinterest. Instead, the interest for that tranche would accrue and be added to the principal balance. Such a bond class is commonly referred to as an accrual tranche or a Z bond (because the bond is similar to a zero-coupon bond). The interest that would have been paid to the accrual bond class is then used to speed up the pay down of the principal balance of earlier bond classes. Thus, the average lives for the nonaccrual tranches has shortened as a result of the inclusion of accrual tranche.The accrual bond has appeal to investors who are concerned with reinvestment risk. Because there are no coupon payments to reinvest, reinvestment risk is eliminated until all the other tranches are paid off.Floating-Rate TranchesFloating-rate tranches can be created from fixed-rate tranches by creating a floater and an inverse floater. We can select any of the tranches from which to create a floating-rate and an inverse-floating-rate tranche. We can even create these two securities for more than one of the four tranches or for only a portion of one tranche.Any reference rate can be used to create a floater and the corresponding inverse floater. There is an infinite number of ways to cut up the monetary value between the floater and inverse floater, and final partitioning will be driven by the demands of investors. Unlike a floating-rate note in the corporate bond market, whose principal is unchanged over the life of the instrument, the floater’s principal balance declines over time as principal payments are made. The principal payments to the floater are determined by the principal payments from the tranche from which the floater is created.Assume that the reference rate is the one-month LIBOR of 3.75%, then the coupon rate on the inverse floater takes the following form:K –L × (one-month LIBOR)where K is the cap or maximum coupon rate for the inverse floater and L is the multiple that determine the coupon rate for the inverse floater (L is referred to as the coupon leverage). If K is set at 28.50% and L at 3, then the coupon rate for the month is: 28.50% – 3(3.75%) = 17.25%. The higher the coupon leverage, the more the inverse floater’s coupon rate changes for a given change in one-month LIBOR.Inverse floaters with a wide variety of coupon leverages are available in the market. Participants refer to low-leverage inverse floaters as those with a coupon leverage between 0.5 and 2.1; medium-leverage as those with a coupon leverage higher than 2.1 but not exceeding 4.5; and high-leverage as those with a coupon leverage higher than 4.5.As in the case of the floater, the principal pay-down of an inverse floater will be a proportionate amount of the principal pay-down of the bond class from which it is created.Because the reference rate (e.g., one-month LIBOR) is always positive, the coupon rate paid to the floating rate bond class cannot be negative. If there are no restrictions placed on the coupon rate for the inverse floater, however, it is possible for the coupon rate for that bond class to be negative. To prevent this, a floor, or minimum, can be placed onthe coupon rate. In many structures, the floor is set at zero. Once a floor is set for the inverse floater, a cap or ceiling is imposed on the floater.The cap for the floater and the inverse floater, the floor for the inverse floater, the coupon leverage, and the margin spread are not determined independently. Given four of these variables, the fifth will be determined.Planned Amortization Class TranchesThe CMO innovations attracted institutional investors who had previously either avoided investing in mortgage-backed securities or allocated only a nominal portion of their portfolio to this sector of the fixed-income market.Potential demand for a CMO product with less uncertainty about the cash flow increased in the mid-1980s. In March 1987, the M.D.C. Mortgage Funding Corporation CMO Series 0 included a class of bonds referred to as stabilized mortgage reduction term (SMRT) bonds; another class in its CMO Series P was referred to as planned amortization class (PAC) bonds. The Oxford Acceptance Corporation III Series C CMOs included a class of bonds referred to as a planned redemption obligation (PRO) bonds. The greater predictability of the cash flow for these classes of bonds, now referred to exclusively as PAC bonds, occurs because there is a principal repayment schedule that must be satisfied. The greater certainty of the cash flow for the PAC bonds comes at the expense of the non-PAC classes, called support or companion bonds. It is these bonds that absorb the prepayment risk. Because PAC bonds have protection against both extension risk and contraction risk, they are said to provide two-sided prepayment protection.Creating a Series of PAC BondsAlthough there is no assurance that the collateral will prepay between selected Public Securities Association (PSA) speeds, a PAC bond can be structured to assume that it will. The two speeds used to create a PAC bond are called the initial PAC collars (or initial PAC bands).Most CMO PAC structures have more than one class of PAC bonds. From a PAC bond, we can create other bonds with average lives that are stable and also where all average lives are either much shorter or longer. Even if prepayments are faster than the initial upper collar, there may be sufficient support bonds to assure the average life is unchanged. The degree of protection against extension risk increases for shorter PAC bonds. The effective collar can be wider than the initial collar for shorter PAC tranches. PAC WindowA PAC window can be wide or narrow. The narrower a PAC window, the more it resembles a corporate bond with a bullet payment. PAC buyers appear to prefer tight windows, although institutional investors facing a liability schedule are generally better off with a window that more closely matches the liabilities. Investor demand dictates the PAC windows that issuers will create. Investor demand in turn is governed by the nature of investor liabilities.Effective Collars and Actual PrepaymentsThe creation of a mortgage-backed security cannot make prepayment risk disappear. This is true for both a pass-through and a CMO. Thus the reduction in prepayment risk (both extension risk and contraction risk) that a PAC offers must come from somewhere.The prepayment protection come from the support bonds. It is the support bonds that forego principal payments if the collateral prepayments are slow; support bonds do not receive any principal until the PAC bonds receive the scheduled principal repayment. This reduces the risk that the PAC bonds will extend. Similarly, it is the support bonds that absorb any principal payments in excess of the scheduled principal payment that are made. This reduces the contraction risk of the PAC bonds. Thus the key to the prepayment protection offered by a P AC bond is the amount of support bonds outstanding. If the support bonds are paid off quickly because of faster-than-expected prepayments, there is no longer any protection for the P AC bonds.The support bonds can be thought of as bodyguards for the PAC bondholders. When the bullets fly (i.e., prepayments occur) it is the bodyguards that get killed off first. The bodyguards are there to absorb the bullets. When all the bodyguards are killed off (i.e., the support bonds paid off with faster-than-expected prepayments), the PAC bonds must fend for themselves: they are exposed to all the bullets.Busted means that the prepayment protection is reduced. It is the term used in the CMO market when a PAC schedule is broken. The initial collars are not particularly useful in assessing the prepayment protection for a seasoned PAC bond. This is most important to understand, as it is common for CMO buyers to compare prepayment protection of PACs in different CMO structures, and conclude that the greater protection is offered by the one with the wider collar. This approach is inadequate because it is actual prepayment experience that determines the degree of prepayment protection as well as the expected future prepayment behavior of the collateral.The way to determine this protection is to calculate the effective collar for a seasoned PAC bond. An effective collar for a seasoned PAC is the lower PSA and the upper PSA that can occur in the future and still allow maintenance of the schedule of principal repayments.The effective collar changes every month. An extended period over which actual prepayments are below the upper range of the initial PAC collar will result in an increase in the upper range of the effective collar. This is because there will be more bodyguards around than anticipated. An extended period of prepayments slower than the lower range of the initial PAC collar will raise the lower range of the effective collar. This is because it will take faster prepayments to make up the shortfall of the scheduled principal payments not made plus the scheduled future principal payments.The PAC schedule may not be satisfied even if the actual prepayments never fall outside the initial collar. This may seem surprising because our previous analysis indicated that the average life would not change if prepayments are at either extreme of the initial collar. However, our previous analysis has been based on a single PSA speed for the life of the structure.Providing Greater Prepayment Protection for PACsThere are two ways to provide greater protection for PAC bonds: lockouts and reverse PAC structures. One obvious way to provide greater protection for PAC bonds is to issue fewer PAC bonds relative to support bonds. Such a CMO structure with no principal payments to a PAC bond class in the earlier years is referred to as a lockout structure. A CMO structure requiring any excess principal payments to be made to the longer PAC bonds after all support bonds are paid off is called a reverse PAC structure.Other PAC TranchesThe collateral can be used to create interest-only and principal-only tranches. These same types of bond classes can be created from a PAC bond. The difference between the bond classes described and those created from a PAC bond is simply the prepayment protection offered by the PAC structure.Targeted Amortization Class BondsA targeted amortization class (TAC) bond resembles a PAC bond in that it also has a schedule of principal repayment. The difference between a PAC bond and a TAC bond is that the former has a wide PSA range over which the schedule of principal repayment is protected against contraction risk and extension risk. A TAC bond, in contrast, has a single PSA rate from which the schedule of principal repayment is protected. As a result, the prepayment protection afforded the TAC bond is less than that for a PAC bond. The creation of a bond with a schedule of principal repayments based on a single prepayment rate results in protection against contraction risk but not extension risk. Thus, whereas PAC bonds are said to have two-sided prepayment protection, TAC bonds have one-sided prepayment protection.Very Accurately Determined Maturity BondsAccrual or Z bonds have been used in CMO structures as support for bonds called very accurately determined maturity (V ADM) or guaranteed final maturity bonds. In this case the interest accruing (i.e., not being paid out) on a Z bond is used to pay the interest and principal on a V ADM bond.Interest-Only and Principal-Only TranchesStripped mortgage-backed securities are created by paying all the principal to one bond class and all the interest to another bond class. These two classes are referred to as the principal-only (PO) bond class and the interest only (IO) bond class.Notional IOsIn the earlier CMO deals, all of the excess interest between the coupon rate on the tranches and the coupon interest on the collateral were paid to an equity class referred to as the CMO residual. This is no longer the practice today. Instead, a tranche is created that receives the excess coupon interest. This tranche is called a notional interest only (IO) class and also referred to as a structured IO.The notional amount is the amount on which the interest payments will be determined,not the amount that will be paid to the holder of this bond. Mathematically, this notional amount is found as follows:notional amount for 7.5% IO = 0.075 interest) (excess par value)(trancheswhere excess interest = collateral coupon rate – tranche coupon rate.Support BondsThe support bonds—or bodyguards—are the bonds that provide prepayment protection for the PAC tranches. Consequently, they are exposed to the greatest level of prepayment risk. The support bond typically is divided into different bond classes. The support bond can even be partitioned so as to create support bond classes with a schedule of principal repayments. That is, support bond classes that are PAC bonds can be created.AGENCY STRIPPED MORTGAGE-BACKED SECURITIESAgency stripped mortgage-backed securities (SMBSs), introduced by Fannie Mae in 1986, are another example of derivative mortgage products. A SMBS is created by altering the distribution of principal and interest from a pro rata distribution to an unequal distribution. There are three types of SMBS: (1) synthetic-coupon pass-throughs, (2) interest-only/principal-only securities, and (3) CMO strips. Synthetic-Coupon Pass-ThroughsThe first generation of stripped mortgage-backed securities is called synthetic-coupon pass-throughs. This is because the unequal distribution of coupon and principal results in a synthetic coupon rate that is different from that of the underlying collateral. Interest-Only/Principal-Only StripsIn early 1987, stripped MBS began to be issued where all the interest is allocated to one class (the IO class) and all the principal to the other class (the PO class). The IO class receives no principal payments. IOs and POs are referred to as mortgage strips.The PO security is purchased at a substantial discount from par value. The yield an investor will realize depends on the speed at which prepayments are made. The faster the prepayments, the higher the yield the investor will realize.When an IO is purchased there is no par value. In contrast to the PO investor, the IO investor wants prepayments to be slow. The reason is that the IO investor receives only interest on the amount of the principal outstanding. As prepayments are made, the outstanding principal declines, and less dollar interest is received. In fact, if prepayments are too fast, the IO investor may not recover the amount paid for the IO. CMOs that are backed by POs are referred to as PO-collateralized CMOs.CMO StripsOne of the classes in a CMO structure can be a principal-only or an interest-only class. These are called CMO strips or structured IOs.Chapter 13。
第四部分固定收益证券第14章债券的价格与收益14.1复习笔记1.债券的特征(1)中长期国债中期国债的期限最长为10年,而长期国债的期限为10~30年。
两种国债除了期限的差别以外,主要区别在于,以前发行的部分长期国债可在一个拟定的日期内赎回,通常在其有效期的最后5年内可赎回。
赎回条款使财政部有权在赎回期内以面值购回债券。
在金融行情表上提供的债券价格并非投资者为购买债券实际支付的价格。
这是因为牌价里没有包括计息期间产生的利息。
计算利息支付日期之间的应计利息公式为:隔天数两次利息支付时间的间距上次利息支付的天数年度利息应计利息=2(2)公司债券①公司债券的赎回条款大部分公司债券都有可赎回条款。
赎回条款容许发行者在到期日之前以特定赎回价格赎回债券。
可赎回债券通常带有赎回保护期,即初始时期内不可赎回。
②可转换债券可转换债券为其持有者提供了一种期权,债权人有权将债券转换成一定份额的公司普通股。
转换比例为每张债券可转换的股票数量。
转换价值为债券转换后的当前股票价值。
转换溢价是指债券价值超出其转换价值的部分。
③可回卖债券可回卖债券,又称为可延长债券,是指赋予债券持有人以期权的债券。
若债券的票面利率高于现时市场利率,债权人将选择继续持有债券;若债券的票面利率过低,则最好不要继续持有,债权人将会收回本金,以当期收益率进行再投资。
④浮动利率债券浮动利率债券是指利息率与当前市场利率相联系的债券。
主要风险是公司财务实力的变化,息差在债券存续的很多年内都是固定的。
尽管浮动利率债券的票面利率随市场利率的变化而调整,但不能随公司财务状况变化而调整。
(3)优先股优先股虽然是股票,但通常与债券一样被分在固定收益工具中。
主要因为优先股承诺支付定量的股息。
而与债券不同的是,在不能支付承诺的股息时,它不会导致公司的破产。
仅仅是应付的优先股股利继续累积,在付清优先股持有人的股息之前,普通股的持有人是不能得到股息的。
破产时优先股对公司财产的索赔权在债券之后,但优先于普通股。
《固定收益证券》考试范围名词解释:步高债券步高债券(Step-up Bonds):票面利率递增的债券,票面利率经过一段时间后增加,比如前2年5% ,后3年6%买断式回购债券持有人(正回购方)将债券卖给债券购买方(逆回购方)的同时,交易双方约定在未来某一日期,正回购方再以约定价格从逆回购方买回相等数量同种债券的交易行为[1997Y]质押式回购交易双方进行的以债券为权利质押的一种短期资金融通业务,指正回购方(资金融入方)在将债券出质给逆回购方(资金融出方)融入资金的同时,双方约定在将来某一指定日期由正回购方按约定的回购利率计算的资金额向逆回购方返还资金,逆回购方向正回购方返还原出质债券的融资行为[2004Y]银行次级债《商业银行次级债券发行管理办法》(中国人民银行、中国银行业监督管理委员会公告〔2004〕第4 号)规定。
本办法所称商业银行次级债券(以下简称“次级债券”)是指商业银行发行的、本金和利息的清偿顺序列于商业银行其他负债之后先于商业银行股权资本的、债券商业银行公开发行次级债券应具备以下条件:实行贷款五级分类,贷款五级分类偏差小;核心资本充足率不低于5%[私募降低到4%];贷款损失准备计提充足等混合资本债券<<中国人民银行公告〔2006〕第11号>> 规定混合资本债券是指商业银行发行的具有以下特征的债券:当发行人清算时,混合资本债券本金和利息的清偿顺序列于一般债务和次级债务之后、先于股权资本期限在15年以上,发行之日起10年内不得赎回。
发行之日起10年后发行人具有一次赎回权,若发行人未行使赎回权可以适当提高混合资本债券的利率或有资本工具(或有可转换债)或有资本工具是一种以固定收益证券形式存在的新型混合资本工具,在银行危机时期和合约规定的转股条件触发(trigger)时,它将自动转为股权资本(equitycapital),而在转股之前以债券形式存在与可转换债券( convertibles debts)的区别:在转股条件触发时,或有资本债权人必须被动转股(或有资本在转股之前以债券形式存在,其权利人为或有资本债权人,转股之后的权利人是或有资本股东或转股股东);而可转换债券是否转股由债权人自由裁量(discretionary)人民币掉期业务《中国人民银行关于在银行间外汇市场开办人民币外汇货币掉期业务有关问题的通知》(银发[2007]287号)本通知所称人民币外汇货币掉期:在约定期限内交换约定数量人民币与外币本金,同时定期交换两种货币利息的交易协议本金交换的形式包括:在协议生效日双方按约定汇率交换人民币与外币的本金,在协议到期日双方再以相同的汇率、相同金额进行一次本金的反向交换利息交换指双方定期向对方支付以换入货币计算的利息金额,可以固定利率计算利息,也可以浮动利率计算利息到期收益率到期收益率(Yield to Maturity,YTM):假设投资者一直持有到期,且债券的再投资收益率等于债券自身的收益率,并设存在一收益率使债券未来的现金流的贴现值与债券当前的市场价格相等年有效收益率年有效收益率(Effective Annual Yield):是指考虑到各种普通复利情况下,债券一年内的收益率如果半年的收益率为2%,则年有效收益率为(1+2%)2-1=4.04%久期债券价值变动的百分比对到期收益率变动的一阶敏感性债券凸性它描述了价格/收益率曲线的弯曲程度,也是债券价格对收益率的二阶导数平衡点投资者面临的价格风险和再投资收益风险相等;不管利率发生怎样的变化,投资者获得的收益基本稳定债券免疫使资产的价格风险与负债的价格风险相同,或使得组合自身的权益价值不受市场利率的影响免疫目标:来自投资组合的收益满足负债的支付,而在投资后不必再增加额外资本利率期货在交易所交易的标准化合约,它约定合约持有人在未来某一时刻按照一定的价格买进或卖出一定数量的利率产品的权利与义务转换因子面值每1美元的可交割债券[或可接受债券]的未来现金流按6%[2006年3月前为8%]的年到期收益率(每半年计复利一次)贴现到(期货)交割月第一天的价值再扣掉该债券1美元面值的应计利息后的余额简答题:1.全价与净价净价= 全价-应计利息(应由卖方分享的利息)2.内嵌期权的设计方法内嵌期权债券是债券中含有不可分离的,给予发行者或持有者拥有改变证券现金流的权利的债券。
固定收益证券概述证券的主要条款浮动利率债券票面利率=b×基准利率+贴水逆浮动利率债券票面利率=固定值-m×基准利率例题:某债券期限5年,利息按半年支付,第1个半年的利率为8%,随后的票面利率有以下公式决定:票面利率=15%-半年LIBOR浮动利率与逆浮动利率债券风险大小逆浮动利率债券风险要远远大于浮动利率债券。
在市场利率下降时,逆浮动利率债券的价格上升得过多;而市场利率上涨时,逆浮动利率债券的价格下降得也更多。
原因在于市场利率的变化对拟浮动债券来说,再投资和时间价值受到的影响是一致的,而浮动利率债券是一致的。
含权条款赋予谁的权力1、赎回条款:是赋予发行者的权利,相当于发行者持有债券价格的看涨期权。
2、回售条款:是赋予投资者的权利,相当于投资者持有债券价格的看跌期权。
3、可转换条款:是赋予投资者的权力,相当于持有公司股票的看涨期权。
固定收益证券的风险(26)一、违约风险二、利率风险三、流动性风险四、税收风险五、购买力风险六、到期收益率曲线风险七、利率波动率风险固定利率债券对利率的价格特征①固定利率债券价格与贴现率成反向关系②贴现率下降导致的债券价格上升的幅度大于贴现率上升相同基点导致的债券价格下降的幅度③其他条件相同,贴现率变动同样幅度,息票率越高的债券价格波动越小。
④其他条件相同,贴现率变动同样幅度,剩余期限越长的债券价格波动越大⑤平价债券:票面利率=到期收益率折价债券:票面利率<到期收益率溢价债券:票面利率>到期收益率债券定价与收益率分析1、到期收益率普通复利例题:某债券期限3年,票面利率为6%,一年付息一次,面值100元,目前债券价格为94.8458元。
求该债券的到期收益率。
%8 )1(106)1(6168458.9432=⇒+++++=r r r r例题:某债券期限2年,票面利率为6%,一年付息两次,面值100元,目前债券价格为96.3701元。
求该债券的到期收益率。
固定收益证券期末总结一、引言固定收益证券是一类具有确定到期日、票面利率和本金支付的金融工具。
它们通常被认为是相对较低风险的投资工具,因为它们提供了稳定的利息收入和本金回收。
本文将对固定收益证券进行总结和分析。
二、固定收益证券的种类1. 政府债券:政府债券是各国政府发行的债务工具,主要用于筹资和满足财政支出需求。
政府债券通常由中央或地方政府发行,并以国防、基础设施建设等公共目的为借款用途。
政府债券通常被认为是最安全的固定收益证券。
2. 机构债券:机构债券是由各类机构发行的债务工具,主要用于融资和扩大业务。
机构债券的发行主体包括银行、保险公司、公司等。
机构债券的风险水平相对政府债券较高,但相应地,其收益率也更高。
3. 公司债券:公司债券是由公司发行的债务工具,与机构债券类似。
公司债券的发行主体一般是具有良好信用水平的大型公司,它们发行债券的目的是筹集资金以支持业务发展。
公司债券的风险和收益率通常介于政府债券和机构债券之间。
4. 抵押债券:抵押债券是以抵押资产为担保的债务工具,其发行主体可以是政府或私人机构。
抵押债券通常与房地产相关,发行者通过将资产抵押给债券持有人来筹集资金。
抵押债券的风险和收益率受到抵押资产质量的影响。
5. 金融债券:金融债券是由金融机构发行的债务工具,例如银行债券、保险债券等。
金融债券的发行主体具有一定的金融实力和信用评级,能够为债券投资者提供相对较高的保障。
三、固定收益证券的特点1. 确定的利息支付:固定收益证券通常以确定的利率支付利息,投资者可以根据利率水平预期和现金流预测来计算预期收益。
2. 有限的价格变动:与其他金融工具相比,固定收益证券的价格变动相对较小。
这是因为固定收益证券的价格主要取决于市场上的利率变动,而利率的变动通常较为平缓。
3. 适合长期投资者:固定收益证券通常面向长期投资者,因为它们提供稳定的收益和本金回收。
对于短期投资者来说,固定收益证券的收益率可能不够具有吸引力。