公司财务原理第十一版-英文-课后答案第一章

CHAPTER 5Net Present Value and Other Investment CriteriaAnswers to Problem Sets1. a. A = 3 years, B = 2 years, C = 3 years.b. Bc. A, B, and Cd. B and C (NPV B = $3,378;NPV C = $2,405)e. True. The payback rule ignores all cash flows after the cutoff date,meaning that future years’ cash inflows are not considered. In addition, thepayback rule ignores the timing of cash inflows. For example, for apayback rule set at two years, a project with a payback period of one yearis given equal weight as a project with a payback period of two years.f. It will accept no negative-NPV projects, but will turn down some withpositive NPVs. A project can have positive NPV if all future cash flows areconsidered but still do not meet the stated cutoff period.Est. time: 6 – 102. Given the cash flows C0, C1, . . . , C T, IRR is defined by:It is calculated by trial and error, by financial calculators, or by spreadsheetprograms.Est. time: 1 – 53. a. $15,750; $4,250; $0b. 100%Est. time: 1 – 54. No (you are effectively “borrowing” at a rate of interest highe r than theopportunity cost of capital).Est. time: 1 – 55 a. Two. There are multiple internal rates of return for a project when thereare changes in the sign of the cash flows.b. −50% and +50%. The NPV for the project using both of these IRRs is 0.c. Yes, NPV = +14.6.Est. time: 1 – 56. The incremental flows from investing in Alpha rather than Beta are −200,000;+110,000; and 121,000. The IRR on the incremental cash flow is 10% (i.e., −200 + 110/1.10 + 121/1.102 = 0). The IRR on Beta exceeds the cost of capital and so does the IRR on the incremental investment in Alpha. Choose Alpha.Est. time: 1 – 57. 1, 2, 4, and 6The profitability index for each project is shown below:Start with the project with the highest profitability index and go from there. Project2 has the highest profitability index and has an initial investment of $5,000. Thenext highest profitability index is for Project 1, which has an initial investment of $10,000. The next highest is Project 4, which will cost $60,000 up front. So far we have spent $75,000. Projects 5 and 6 both have profitability indexes of .2, but we only have $15,000 left to spend, so we will add Project 6 to our list. This gives us Projects 1, 2, 4, and 6.Est. time: 1 – 58. a. $90.91.10)(1$10001000NPV A -=+-=$ $4,044.7310)(1.$1000(1.10)$1000(1.10)$4000(1.10)$1000(1.10)$10002000NPV 5432B +=+++++-=$ $39.4710)(1.$1000.10)(1$1000(1.10)$1000(1.10)$10003000NPV 542C +=++++-=$ Projects B and C have positive NPVs.b. Payback A = one yearPayback B = two yearsPayback C = four yearsc. A and Bd.$909.09.10)(1$1000PV 1A == The present value of the cash inflows for Project A never recovers the initialoutlay for the project, which is always the case for a negative NPV project.The present values of the cash inflows for Project B are shown in the thirdrow of the table below, and the cumulative net present values are shownin the fourth row:C 0C 1 C 2 C 3 C 4 C 5 -2,000.00+1,000.00 +1,000.00 +4,000.00 +1,000.00 +1,000.00 -2,000.00909.09 826.45 3,005.26 683.01 620.92 -1,090.91 -264.46 2,740.80 3,423.81 4,044.73Since the cumulative NPV turns positive between year 2 and year 3, the discounted payback period is:years 2.093,005.26264.462=+The present values of the cash inflows for Project C are shown in the third row of the table below, and the cumulative net present values are shown in the fourth row:C 0 C 1 C 2 C 3 C 4 C 5-3,000.00 +1,000.00 +1,000.000.00 +1,000.00 +1,000.00 -3,000.00 909.09 826.450.00 683.01 620.92 -2,090.91 -1,264.46 -1,264.46 -581.45 39.47Since the cumulative NPV turns positive between year 4 and year 5, thediscounted payback period is:years 4.94620.92581.454=+e. Using the discounted payback period rule with a cutoff of three years, thefirm would accept only Project B.Est. time: 11– 159. a. When using the IRR rule, the firm must still compare the IRR with theopportunity cost of capital. Thus, even with the IRR method, one mustspecify the appropriate discount rate.b. Risky cash flows should be discounted at a higher rate than the rate usedto discount less risky cash flows. Using the payback rule is equivalent tousing the NPV rule with a zero discount rate for cash flows before thepayback period and an infinite discount rate for cash flows thereafter.Est. time: 1 – 510.The two IRRs for this project are (approximately): –17.44% and 45.27%. Between these two discount rates, the NPV is positive.Est. time: 06 - 1011. a.The figure on the next page was drawn from the following points:Discount Rate 0% 10% 20%NPV A +20.00 +4.13 -8.33NPV B +40.00 +5.18 -18.98b. From the graph, we can estimate the IRR of each project from the pointwhere its line crosses the horizontal axis:IRR A = 13.1% and IRR B = 11.9%This can be checked by calculating the NPV for each project at theirrespective IRRs, which give an approximate NPV of 0.c.The company should accept Project A if its NPV is positive and higherthan that of Project B; that is, the company should accept Project A if thediscount rate is greater than 10.7% (the intersection of NPV A and NPV B onthe graph below) and less than 13.1% (the internal rate of return).d. The cash flows for (B–A) are:C0 = $ 0C1 = –$60C2 = –$60C3 = +$140Therefore:Discount Rate0% 10% 20%NPV B−A+20.00 +1.05 -10.65IRR B − A = 10.7%The company should accept Project A if the discount rate is greater than10.7% and less than 13.1%. As shown in the graph, for these discountrates, the IRR for the incremental investment is less than the opportunitycost of capital.Est. time: 06 - 1012. a. Because Project A requires a larger capital outlay, it ispossible that Project A has both a lower IRR and a higher NPV thanProject B. (In fact, NPV A is greater than NPV B for all discount rates lessthan 10%.) Because the goal is to maximize shareholder wealth, NPV isthe correct criterion.b. To use the IRR criterion for mutually exclusive projects, calculate theIRR for the incremental cash flows:C 0 C 1 C 2 IRRA -B −200 +110 +121 10%Because the IRR for the incremental cash flows exceeds the cost ofcapital, the additional investment in A is worthwhile. c. 81.86$(1.09)3001.09250400NPV 2A =++-= $79.10(1.09)1791.09140200NPV 2B =++-= Est. time: 06 - 1013. Use incremental analysis:C 1 C 2 C 3Current Arrangement −250,000 −250,000 +650,000Extra Shift −550,000 +650,000 0Incremental Flows −300,000 +900,000 -650,000The IRRs for the incremental flows are (approximately): 21.13% and 78.87%If the cost of capital is between these rates, Titanic should work the extra shift.Est. time: 06 - 1014.a. First calculate the NPV for each project.The NPV for Project D is: $=-+=D 20,000NPV 10,0008,181.821.10The NPV for Project E is:=-+=E 35,000NPV 20,000$11,818.181.10Profitability index = NPV/initial investment.For Project D: Profitability index = 8,181.82/10,000 = .82.For Project E: Profitability index = 11,818.18/20,000 −.59.b. Each project has a profitability index greater than zero, and so both areacceptable projects. In order to choose between these projects, we must use incremental analysis. For the incremental cash flows:0.3610,0003,63610,000)( 1.1015,00010,000PI D E ==--+-=- The increment is thus an acceptable project, and so the larger project should be accepted, i.e., accept Project E. (Note that, in this case, the better project has the lower profitability index.)Est. time: 11 - 1515. Using the fact that profitability index = (net present value / investment), we find:ProjectProfitability Index 10.22 2−0.02 30.17 40.14 50.07 60.18 7 0.12 Thus, given the budget of $1 million, the best the company can do is to acceptProjects 1, 3, 4, and 6.If the company accepted all positive NPV projects, the market value (compared to the market value under the budget limitation) would increase by the NPV ofProject 5 plus the NPV of Project 7: $7,000 + $48,000 = $55,000.Thus, the budget limit costs the company $55,000 in terms of its market value.Est. time: 06 - 1016. The IRR is the discount rate wh ich, when applied to a project’s cash flows, yieldsNPV = 0. Thus, it does not represent an opportunity cost. However, if eachproject’s cash flows could be invested at that project’s IRR, then the NPV of each project would be zero because the IRR would then be the opportunity cost ofcapital for each project. The discount rate used in an NPV calculation is theopportunity cost of capital. Therefore, it is true that the NPV rule does assume that cash flows are reinvested at the opportunity cost of capital.Est. time: 06 - 1017.a.C 0 = –3,000 C 0 = –3,000C 1 = +3,500 C 1 = +3,500C 2 = +4,000 C 2 + PV(C 3) = +4,000 – 3,571.43 = 428.57C 3 = –4,000 MIRR = 27.84%b. 2321 1.12C 1.12xC xC -=+ (1.122)(xC 1) + (1.12)(xC 2) = –C 3(x)[(1.122)(C 1) + (1.12C 2)] = –C 3)()2123 1.12C )(C (1.12C -x += 0.4501.12)(4,00)(3,500(1.124,000x 2=+=)() 0IRR)(1x)C -(1IRR)(1x)C -(1C 2210=++++ 0IRR)(10)0.45)(4,00-(1IRR)(10)0.45)(3,50-(13,0002=++++- Now, find MIRR using either trial and error or the IRR function (on afinancial calculator or Excel). We find that MIRR = 23.53%.It is not clear that either of these modified IRRs is at all meaningful.Rather, these calculations seem to highlight the fact that MIRR really hasno economic meaning. Est. time: 11 - 15 18. Maximize:NPV = 6,700x W + 9,000x X + 0X Y – 1,500x Z subject to: 10,000x W + 0x X + 10,000x Y + 15,000x Z ≤ 20,00010,000x W + 20,000x X – 5,000x Y – 5,000x Z ≤ 20,0000x W - 5,000x X – 5,000x Y – 4,000x Z ≤ 20,0000 ≤ x W ≤ 10 ≤ x X ≤ 10 ≤ x Z ≤ 1Using Excel Spreadsheet Add-in Linear Programming Module:Optimized NPV = $13,450with x W = 1; x X = 0.75; x Y = 1 and x Z = 0If financing available at t = 0 is $21,000:Optimized NPV = $13,500with x W = 1; x X = (23/30); x Y = 1 and x Z = (2/30)Here, the shadow price for the constraint at t = 0 is $50, the increase in NPV for a $1,000 increase in financing available at t = 0.In this case, the program viewed x Z as a viable choice even though the NPV ofProject Z is negative. The reason for this result is that Project Z provides apositive cash flow in periods 1 and 2.If the financing available at t = 1 is $21,000:Optimized NPV = $13,900with x W = 1; x X = 0.8; x Y = 1 and x Z = 0Hence, the shadow price of an additional $1,000 in t =1 financing is $450.Est. time: 11 - 15。

精研学习>网>>>免费试用百分之20资料全国547所院校视频及题库全收集考研全套>视频资料>课后答案>历年真题>全收集本书是罗斯的《公司理财》（第11版）（机械工业出版社）的学习辅导书。

本书遵循该教材的章目编排，包括8篇，共分31章，每章由两部分组成：第一部分为复习笔记；第二部分为课（章）后习题详解。

本书具有以下几个方面的特点：（1）浓缩内容精华，整理名校笔记。

本书每章的复习笔记对本章的重难点进行了整理，并参考了国内名校名师讲授罗斯的《公司理财》的课堂笔记，因此，本书的内容几乎浓缩了经典教材的知识精华。

（2）精选考研真题，强化知识考点。

部分考研涉及到的重点章节，选择经典真题，并对相关重要知识点进行了延伸和归纳。

（3）解析课后习题，提供详尽答案。

国内外教材一般没有提供课（章）后习题答案或者答案很简单，本书参考国外教材的英文答案和相关资料对每章的习题进行了详细的分析。

（4）补充相关要点，强化专业知识。

一般来说，国外英文教材的中译本不太符合中国学生的思维习惯，有些语言的表述不清或条理性不强而给学习带来了不便，因此，对每章复习笔记的一些重要知识点和一些习题的解答，我们在不违背原书原意的基础上结合其他相关经典教材进行了必要的整理和分析。

本书提供电子书及打印版，方便对照复习。

第1篇概论第1章公司理财导论1.1复习笔记1.2课后习题详解第2章会计报表与现金流量2.1复习笔记2.2课后习题详解第3章财务报表分析与长期计划3.1复习笔记3.2课后习题详解第2篇估值与资本预算第4章折现现金流量估价4.1复习笔记4.2课后习题详解第5章净现值和投资评价的其他方法5.1复习笔记5.2课后习题详解第6章投资决策6.1复习笔记6.2课后习题详解第7章风险分析、实物期权和资本预算7.1复习笔记7.2课后习题详解第8章利率和债券估值8.1复习笔记8.2课后习题详解第9章股票估值9.1复习笔记9.2课后习题详解第3篇风险第10章收益和风险：从市场历史得到的经验10.1复习笔记10.2课后习题详解第11章收益和风险：资本资产定价模型11.1复习笔记11.2课后习题详解第12章看待风险与收益的另一种观点：套利定价理论12.1复习笔记12.2课后习题详解第13章风险、资本成本和估值13.1复习笔记13.2课后习题详解第4篇资本结构与股利政策第14章有效资本市场和行为挑战14.1复习笔记14.2课后习题详解第15章长期融资：简介15.1复习笔记15.2课后习题详解第16章资本结构：基本概念16.1复习笔记16.2课后习题详解第17章资本结构：债务运用的限制17.1复习笔记17.2课后习题详解第18章杠杆企业的估价与资本预算18.1复习笔记18.2课后习题详解第19章股利政策和其他支付政策19.1复习笔记19.2课后习题详解第5篇长期融资第20章资本筹集20.1复习笔记20.2课后习题详解第21章租赁21.1复习笔记21.2课后习题详解第6篇期权、期货与公司理财第22章期权与公司理财22.1复习笔记22.2课后习题详解第23章期权与公司理财：推广与应用23.1复习笔记23.2课后习题详解第24章认股权证和可转换债券24.1复习笔记24.2课后习题详解第25章衍生品和套期保值风险25.1复习笔记25.2课后习题详解第7篇短期财务第26章短期财务与计划26.1复习笔记26.2课后习题详解第27章现金管理27.1复习笔记27.2课后习题详解第28章信用和存货管理28.1复习笔记28.2课后习题详解第8篇理财专题第29章收购与兼并29.1复习笔记29.2课后习题详解第30章财务困境30.1复习笔记30.2课后习题详解第31章跨国公司财务31.1复习笔记31.2课后习题详解。

Goal OF FirmN0.2, 3, 4, 5, 10.2. Not-for-Profit Firm GoalsChapter 1Suppose you were the financial manager of a not-for-profit business (anot-for-profit hospital, perhaps). What kinds of goals do you think would be appropriate?答：所有者权益的市场价值的最大化。

3. Goal of the Firm Evaluate the following statement: Managers should not focus on the current stockvalue because doing so will lead to an overemphasis on short-term profits at the expense of long-termprofits.答：错误；因为现在的股票价值已经反应了短期和长期的的风险、时间以及未来现金流量。

4. Ethics and Firm Goals Can the goal of maximizing the value of the stock conflict with other goals, suchas avoiding unethical or illegal behavior? In particular, do you think subjects like customer and employeesafety, the environment, and the general good of society fit in this framework, or are they essentiallyignored? Think of some specific scenarios to illustrate your answer. 答：有两种极端。

CHAPTER 5Net Present Value and Other Investment CriteriaAnswers to Problem Sets1. a. A = 3 years, B = 2 years, C = 3 years.b. Bc. A, B, and Cd. B and C (NPV B = $3,378;NPV C = $2,405)e. True. The payback rule ignores all cash flows after the cutoff date,meaning that future years’ cash inflows are not considered. In addition, thepayback rule ignores the timing of cash inflows. For example, for apayback rule set at two years, a project with a payback period of one yearis given equal weight as a project with a payback period of two years.f. It will accept no negative-NPV projects, but will turn down some withpositive NPVs. A project can have positive NPV if all future cash flows areconsidered but still do not meet the stated cutoff period.Est. time: 6 – 102. Given the cash flows C0, C1, . . . , C T, IRR is defined by:It is calculated by trial and error, by financial calculators, or by spreadsheetprograms.Est. time: 1 – 53. a. $15,750; $4,250; $0b. 100%Est. time: 1 – 54. No (you are effectively “borrowing” at a rate of interest highe r than theopportunity cost of capital).Est. time: 1 – 55 a. Two. There are multiple internal rates of return for a project when thereare changes in the sign of the cash flows.b. −50% and +50%. The NPV for the project using both of these IRRs is 0.c. Yes, NPV = +14.6.Est. time: 1 – 56. The incremental flows from investing in Alpha rather than Beta are −200,000;+110,000; and 121,000. The IRR on the incremental cash flow is 10% (i.e., −200 + 110/1.10 + 121/1.102 = 0). The IRR on Beta exceeds the cost of capital and so does the IRR on the incremental investment in Alpha. Choose Alpha.Est. time: 1 – 57. 1, 2, 4, and 6The profitability index for each project is shown below:Start with the project with the highest profitability index and go from there. Project2 has the highest profitability index and has an initial investment of $5,000. Thenext highest profitability index is for Project 1, which has an initial investment of $10,000. The next highest is Project 4, which will cost $60,000 up front. So far we have spent $75,000. Projects 5 and 6 both have profitability indexes of .2, but we only have $15,000 left to spend, so we will add Project 6 to our list. This gives us Projects 1, 2, 4, and 6.Est. time: 1 – 58. a. $90.91.10)(1$10001000NPV A -=+-=$ $4,044.7310)(1.$1000(1.10)$1000(1.10)$4000(1.10)$1000(1.10)$10002000NPV 5432B +=+++++-=$ $39.4710)(1.$1000.10)(1$1000(1.10)$1000(1.10)$10003000NPV 542C +=++++-=$ Projects B and C have positive NPVs.b. Payback A = one yearPayback B = two yearsPayback C = four yearsc. A and Bd.$909.09.10)(1$1000PV 1A == The present value of the cash inflows for Project A never recovers the initialoutlay for the project, which is always the case for a negative NPV project.The present values of the cash inflows for Project B are shown in the thirdrow of the table below, and the cumulative net present values are shownin the fourth row:C 0C 1 C 2 C 3 C 4 C 5 -2,000.00+1,000.00 +1,000.00 +4,000.00 +1,000.00 +1,000.00 -2,000.00909.09 826.45 3,005.26 683.01 620.92 -1,090.91 -264.46 2,740.80 3,423.81 4,044.73Since the cumulative NPV turns positive between year 2 and year 3, the discounted payback period is:years 2.093,005.26264.462=+The present values of the cash inflows for Project C are shown in the third row of the table below, and the cumulative net present values are shown in the fourth row:C 0 C 1 C 2 C 3 C 4 C 5-3,000.00 +1,000.00 +1,000.000.00 +1,000.00 +1,000.00 -3,000.00 909.09 826.450.00 683.01 620.92 -2,090.91 -1,264.46 -1,264.46 -581.45 39.47Since the cumulative NPV turns positive between year 4 and year 5, thediscounted payback period is:years 4.94620.92581.454=+e. Using the discounted payback period rule with a cutoff of three years, thefirm would accept only Project B.Est. time: 11– 159. a. When using the IRR rule, the firm must still compare the IRR with theopportunity cost of capital. Thus, even with the IRR method, one mustspecify the appropriate discount rate.b. Risky cash flows should be discounted at a higher rate than the rate usedto discount less risky cash flows. Using the payback rule is equivalent tousing the NPV rule with a zero discount rate for cash flows before thepayback period and an infinite discount rate for cash flows thereafter.Est. time: 1 – 510.The two IRRs for this project are (approximately): –17.44% and 45.27%. Between these two discount rates, the NPV is positive.Est. time: 06 - 1011. a.The figure on the next page was drawn from the following points:Discount Rate 0% 10% 20%NPV A +20.00 +4.13 -8.33NPV B +40.00 +5.18 -18.98b. From the graph, we can estimate the IRR of each project from the pointwhere its line crosses the horizontal axis:IRR A = 13.1% and IRR B = 11.9%This can be checked by calculating the NPV for each project at theirrespective IRRs, which give an approximate NPV of 0.c.The company should accept Project A if its NPV is positive and higherthan that of Project B; that is, the company should accept Project A if thediscount rate is greater than 10.7% (the intersection of NPV A and NPV B onthe graph below) and less than 13.1% (the internal rate of return).d. The cash flows for (B–A) are:C0 = $ 0C1 = –$60C2 = –$60C3 = +$140Therefore:Discount Rate0% 10% 20%NPV B−A+20.00 +1.05 -10.65IRR B − A = 10.7%The company should accept Project A if the discount rate is greater than10.7% and less than 13.1%. As shown in the graph, for these discountrates, the IRR for the incremental investment is less than the opportunitycost of capital.Est. time: 06 - 1012. a. Because Project A requires a larger capital outlay, it ispossible that Project A has both a lower IRR and a higher NPV thanProject B. (In fact, NPV A is greater than NPV B for all discount rates lessthan 10%.) Because the goal is to maximize shareholder wealth, NPV isthe correct criterion.b. To use the IRR criterion for mutually exclusive projects, calculate theIRR for the incremental cash flows:C 0 C 1 C 2 IRRA -B −200 +110 +121 10%Because the IRR for the incremental cash flows exceeds the cost ofcapital, the additional investment in A is worthwhile. c. 81.86$(1.09)3001.09250400NPV 2A =++-= $79.10(1.09)1791.09140200NPV 2B =++-= Est. time: 06 - 1013. Use incremental analysis:C 1 C 2 C 3Current Arrangement −250,000 −250,000 +650,000Extra Shift −550,000 +650,000 0Incremental Flows −300,000 +900,000 -650,000The IRRs for the incremental flows are (approximately): 21.13% and 78.87%If the cost of capital is between these rates, Titanic should work the extra shift.Est. time: 06 - 1014.a. First calculate the NPV for each project.The NPV for Project D is: $=-+=D 20,000NPV 10,0008,181.821.10The NPV for Project E is:=-+=E 35,000NPV 20,000$11,818.181.10Profitability index = NPV/initial investment.For Project D: Profitability index = 8,181.82/10,000 = .82.For Project E: Profitability index = 11,818.18/20,000 −.59.b. Each project has a profitability index greater than zero, and so both areacceptable projects. In order to choose between these projects, we must use incremental analysis. For the incremental cash flows:0.3610,0003,63610,000)( 1.1015,00010,000PI D E ==--+-=- The increment is thus an acceptable project, and so the larger project should be accepted, i.e., accept Project E. (Note that, in this case, the better project has the lower profitability index.)Est. time: 11 - 1515. Using the fact that profitability index = (net present value / investment), we find:ProjectProfitability Index 10.22 2−0.02 30.17 40.14 50.07 60.18 7 0.12 Thus, given the budget of $1 million, the best the company can do is to acceptProjects 1, 3, 4, and 6.If the company accepted all positive NPV projects, the market value (compared to the market value under the budget limitation) would increase by the NPV ofProject 5 plus the NPV of Project 7: $7,000 + $48,000 = $55,000.Thus, the budget limit costs the company $55,000 in terms of its market value.Est. time: 06 - 1016. The IRR is the discount rate wh ich, when applied to a project’s cash flows, yieldsNPV = 0. Thus, it does not represent an opportunity cost. However, if eachproject’s cash flows could be invested at that project’s IRR, then the NPV of each project would be zero because the IRR would then be the opportunity cost ofcapital for each project. The discount rate used in an NPV calculation is theopportunity cost of capital. Therefore, it is true that the NPV rule does assume that cash flows are reinvested at the opportunity cost of capital.Est. time: 06 - 1017.a.C 0 = –3,000 C 0 = –3,000C 1 = +3,500 C 1 = +3,500C 2 = +4,000 C 2 + PV(C 3) = +4,000 – 3,571.43 = 428.57C 3 = –4,000 MIRR = 27.84%b. 2321 1.12C 1.12xC xC -=+ (1.122)(xC 1) + (1.12)(xC 2) = –C 3(x)[(1.122)(C 1) + (1.12C 2)] = –C 3)()2123 1.12C )(C (1.12C -x += 0.4501.12)(4,00)(3,500(1.124,000x 2=+=)() 0IRR)(1x)C -(1IRR)(1x)C -(1C 2210=++++ 0IRR)(10)0.45)(4,00-(1IRR)(10)0.45)(3,50-(13,0002=++++- Now, find MIRR using either trial and error or the IRR function (on afinancial calculator or Excel). We find that MIRR = 23.53%.It is not clear that either of these modified IRRs is at all meaningful.Rather, these calculations seem to highlight the fact that MIRR really hasno economic meaning. Est. time: 11 - 15 18. Maximize:NPV = 6,700x W + 9,000x X + 0X Y – 1,500x Z subject to: 10,000x W + 0x X + 10,000x Y + 15,000x Z ≤ 20,00010,000x W + 20,000x X – 5,000x Y – 5,000x Z ≤ 20,0000x W - 5,000x X – 5,000x Y – 4,000x Z ≤ 20,0000 ≤ x W ≤ 10 ≤ x X ≤ 10 ≤ x Z ≤ 1Using Excel Spreadsheet Add-in Linear Programming Module:Optimized NPV = $13,450with x W = 1; x X = 0.75; x Y = 1 and x Z = 0If financing available at t = 0 is $21,000:Optimized NPV = $13,500with x W = 1; x X = (23/30); x Y = 1 and x Z = (2/30)Here, the shadow price for the constraint at t = 0 is $50, the increase in NPV for a $1,000 increase in financing available at t = 0.In this case, the program viewed x Z as a viable choice even though the NPV ofProject Z is negative. The reason for this result is that Project Z provides apositive cash flow in periods 1 and 2.If the financing available at t = 1 is $21,000:Optimized NPV = $13,900with x W = 1; x X = 0.8; x Y = 1 and x Z = 0Hence, the shadow price of an additional $1,000 in t =1 financing is $450.Est. time: 11 - 15。

30.1 The new corporation issues $300,000 in new debt. The merger creates $100,000 ofgoodwill because the merger is a purchase.Balance SheetLager Brewing(in $ thousands)Current assets $480 Current liabilities $200Other assets 140 Long-term debt 400Net fixed assets 580 Equity 700Goodwill 100Total assets $1,300 Total liabilities $1,300 30.2 If the balance sheet for Philadelphia Pretzel shows assets at book value instead of marketvalue, the goodwill will be only $60,000 (=$300,000 - $240,000). Thus, the net fixed assetsare $620,000 (=$1,300,000 - $480,000 - $140,000 - $60,000).Balance SheetLager Brewing(in $ thousands)Current assets $480 Current liabilities $200Other assets 140 Long-term debt 400Net fixed assets 620 Equity 700Goodwill 60Total assets $1,300 Total liabilities $1,300 30.3Balance SheetLager Brewing(in $ thousands)Current assets $480 Current liabilities $280Other assets 140 Long-term debt 100Net fixed assets 580 Equity 820Total assets $1,200 Total liabilities $1,200 30.4 a. False. Although the reasoning seems correct, the Stillman-Eckbo data do not supportthe monopoly power theory.b. True. When managers act in their own interest, acquisitions are an important controldevice for shareholders. It appears that some acquisitions and takeovers are theconsequence of underlying conflicts between managers and shareholders.c. False. Even if markets are efficient, the presence of synergy will make the value ofthe combined firm different from the sum of the values of the separate firms.Incremental cash flows provide the positive NPV of the transaction.d. False. In an efficient market, traders will value takeovers based on “Fundamentalfactors” regardless of the time horizon. Recall that the evidence as a whole suggestsefficiency in the markets. Mergers should be no different.e. False. The tax effect of an acquisition depends on whether the merger is taxable ornon-taxable. In a taxable merger, there are two opposing factors to consider, thecapital gains effect and the write-up effect. The net effect is the sum of these twoeffects.f. True. Because of the coinsurance effect, wealth might be transferred from thestockholders to the bondholders. Acquisition analysis usually disregards this effectand considers only the total value.30.530.6 a. The weather conditions are independent. Thus, the joint probabilities are theproducts of the individual probabilities.Possible states Joint probabilityRain Rain 0.1 x 0.1=0.01Rain Warm 0.1 x 0.4=0.04Rain Hot 0.1 x 0.5=0.05Warm Rain 0.4 x 0.1=0.04Warm Warm 0.4 x 0.4=0.16Warm Hot 0.4 x 0.5=0.20Hot Rain 0.5 x 0.1=0.05Hot Warm 0.5 x 0.4=0.20Hot Hot 0.5 x 0.5=0.25Since the state Rain Warm has the same outcome (revenue) as Warm Rain, theirprobabilities can be added. The same is true of Rain Hot, Hot Rain and Warm Hot,Hot Warm. Thus the joint probabilities arePossibleJoint probabilitystatesRain Rain 0.01Rain Warm 0.08Rain Hot 0.10Warm Warm 0.16Warm Hot 0.40Hot Hot 0.25The joint values are the sums of the values of the two companies for the particularstate.Possible states Joint valueRain Rain $200,000Rain Warm 300,000Warm Warm 400,000Rain Hot 500,000Warm Hot 600,000Hot Hot 800,000b. Recall, if a firm cannot service its debt, the bondholders receive the value of the assets.Thus, the value of the debt is the value of the company if the face value of the debt isgreater than the value of the company. If the value of the company is greater than the value of the debt, the value of the debt is its face value. Here the value of the common stock is always the residual value of the firm over the value of the debt.Joint Prob. Joint Value Debt Value Stock Value0.01 $200,000 $200,000 $00.08 300,000 300,000 00.16 400,000 400,000 00.10 500,000 400,000 100,0000.40 600,000 400,000 200,0000.25 800,000 400,000 400,000c. To show that the value of the combined firm is the sum of the individual values, youmust show that the expected joint value is equal to the sum of the separate expected values.Expected joint value= 0.01($200,000) + 0.08($300,000) + 0.16($400,000) + 0.10($500,000) +0.40($600,000) + 0.25($800,000)= $580,000Since the firms are identical, the sum of the expected values is twice the expectedvalue of either.Expected individual value = 0.1($100,000) + 0.4($200,000) + 0.5($400,000) = $290,000 Expected combined value = 2($290,000) = $580,000d. The bondholders are better off if the value of the debt after the merger is greater thanthe value of the debt before the merger.Value of the debt before the merger:The value of debt for either company= 0.1($100,000) + 0.4($200,000) + 0.5($200,000) = $190,000Total value of debt before the merger = 2($190,000) = $380,000Value of debt after the merger= 0.01($200,000) + 0.08($300,000) + 0.16($400,000) + 0.10($400,000) +0.40($400,000) +0.25($400,000)= $390,000The bondholders are $10,000 better off after the merger.30.7 The decision hinges upon the risk of surviving. The final decision should hinge on thewealth transfer from bondholders to stockholders when risky projects are undertaken.High-risk projects will reduce the expected value of the bondholders’ claims on the firm.The telecommunications business is riskier than the utilities business. If the total value of the firm does not change, the increase in risk should favor the stockholder. Hence,management should approve this transaction. Note, if the total value of the firm dropsbecause of the transaction and the wealth effect is lower than the reduction in total value, management should reject the project.30.8 If the market is “smart,” the P/E ratio will not be constant.a. Value = $2,500 + $1,000 = $3,500b. EPS = Post-merger earnings / Total number of shares=($100 + $100)/200 =$1c. Price per share = Value/Total number of shares=$3,500/200 =$17.50d. If the market is “fooled,” the P/E ratio will be constant at $25.Value = P/E * Total number of shares= 25 * 200 = $5,000EPS = Post-merger earnings / Total number of shares=$5,000/200 = $25.0030.9 a. After the merger, Arcadia Financial will have 130,000 [=10,000 + (50,000)(6/10)]shares outstanding. The earnings of the combined firm will be $325,000. The earningsper share of the combined firm will be $2.50 (=$325,000/130,000). The acquisition will increase the EPS for the stockholders from $2.25 to $2.50.b. There will be no effect on the original Arcadia stockholders. No synergies exist in thismerger since Arcadia is buying Coldran at its market price. Examining the relativevalues of the two firms sees the latter point.Share price of Arcadia = (16 * $225,000) / 100,000=$36Share price of Coldran = (10.8 * $100,000) / 50,000=$21.60The relative value of these prices is $21.6/$36 = 0.6. Since Coldran’s shareholdersreceive 0.6 shares of Arcadia for every share of Coldran, no synergies exist.30.10 a. The synergy will be the discounted incremental cash flows. Since the cash flows areperpetual, this amount isb. The value of Flash-in-the-Pan to Fly-by-Night is the synergy plus the current marketvalue of Flash-in-the-Pan.V = $7,500,000 + $20,000,000= $27,500,000c. Cash alternative = $15,000,000Stock alternative = 0.25($27,500,000 + $35,000,000)= $15,625,000d. NPV of cash alternative = V - Cost=$27,500,000 - $15,000,000=$12,500,000NPV of stock alternative = V - Cost=$27,500,000 - $15,625,000=$11,875,000e. Use the cash alternative, its NPV is greater.30.11 a. The value of Portland Industries before the merger is $9,000,000 (=750,000x12). Thisvalue is also the discounted value of the expected future dividends.$9,000,000 =r = 0.1025 = 10.25%r is the risk-adjusted discount rate for Portland’s expected future dividends.the value of Portland Industries after the merger isThis is the value of Portland Industries to Freeport.b. NPV = Gain - Cost= $14,815,385 - ($40x250, 000)= $4,815,385c. If Freeport offers stock, the value of Portland Industries to Freeport is the same, but thecost differs.Cost = (Fraction of combined firm owned by Portland’s stockholders)x(Value of the combined firm)Value of the combined firm = (Value of Freeport before merger)+ (Value of Portland to Freeport)= $15x1,000,000 + $14,815,385= $29,815,385Cost = 0.375x$29,815,385= $11,180,769NPV= $14,815,385 - $11,180,769=$3,634,616d. The acquisition should be attempted with a cash offer since it provides a higher NPV.e. The value of Portland Industries after the merger isThis is the value of Portland Industries to Freeport.NPV = Gain-Cost=$11,223,529 - ($40x250,000)=$1,223,529If Freeport offers stock, the value of Portland Industries to Freeport is the same, but the cost differs.Cost = (Fraction of combined firm owned by Portland’s stockholders)x(Value of the combined firm)Value of the combined firm = (Value of Freeport before merger)+ (Value of Portland to Freeport)= $15x1,000,000 + $11,223,529= $26,223,529Cost = 0.375 * $26,223,529=$9,833,823NPV = $11,223,529 - $9,833,823=$1,389,706The acquisition should be attempted with a stock offer since it provides a higher NPV.30.12 a. Number of shares after acquisition=30 + 15 = 45 milStock price of Harrods after acquisition = 1,000/45=22.22 poundsb. Value of Selfridge stockholders after merger:α * 1,000 = 300α = 30%New shares issued = 12.86 mil12.86:20 = 0.643:1The proper exchange ratio should be 0.643 to make the stock offer’s value to Selfridgeequivalent to the cash offer.30.13 To evaluate this proposal, look at the present value of the incremental cash flows.Cash Flows to Company A(in $ million)Year 0 1 2 3 4 5Acquisition of B -550Dividends from B 150 32 5 20 30 45Tax-loss carryforwards 25 25Terminal value 600Total -400 32 30 45 30 645 The additional cash flows from the tax-loss carry forwards and the proposed level of debt should be discounted at the cost of debt because they are determined with very littleuncertainty.The after-tax cash flows are subject to normal business risk and must be discounted at anormal rate.Beta coefficient for the bond = 0.25 = [(8%-6%)/8%].Beta coefficient for the company = 1 = [(0.25)2 + (1.25)(0.75)]Discount rate for normal operations:r = 6% + 8% (1) = 14%Discount rate for dividends:The new beta coefficient for the company, 1, must be the weighted average of the debtbeta and the stock beta.1 = 0.5(0.25) + 0.5(βs)βs = 1.75r = 6% + 8%(1.75) = 20%Because the NPV of the acquisition is negative, Company A should not acquireCompany B.30.14 The commonly used defensive tactics by target-firm managers include:i. corporate charter amendments like super-majority amendment or staggering theelection of board members.ii. repurchase standstill agreements.iii. exclusionary self-tenders.iv. going private and leveraged buyouts.v. other devices like golden parachutes, scorched earth strategy, poison pill, ..., etc.Mini Case: U.S.Steel’s case.You have 3 choices: tender, or do not tender or sell in the market. If you do sell your shares in the market, at some point, somebody else would need to make a decision in “tender” or “not tender” as well.It is important to recognize that the firm has about 60 million shares outstanding (since 30 million shares will give US Steel 50.1% of Marathon shares). Let’s consider the possible sellingthe market price.If you choose not to tender, and 30 million shares were tendered US Steel succeeds to gain50.1% control, you will only receive $85 a share. If you do tender, the price you will receive will be no worse than $85 a share and can be as high as $125 a share. Depending on the number of shares tendered, you will receive one of the following prices.If only 50.1% tendered, you will get $125 per share.If the shares tendered exceed 50.1% but less than 100%, you will get more than $105 ashare.If all 60 million shares were tendered, you will get $105 per share. (which is )It is clear that, in the above 3 cases, when you are not sure about whether US Steel will succeed or not, you will be better off to tender your shares than not tender. This is because at best, you will only receive $85 per share if you choose not to tender.版权申明本文部分内容，包括文字、图片、以及设计等在网上搜集整理。

CHAPTER 2How to Calculate Present ValuesAnswers to Problem Sets1. If the discount factor is .507, then .507 x 1.126 = $1.Est time: 01-052. DF x 139 = 125. Therefore, DF =125/139 = .899.Est time: 01-053. PV = 374/(1.09)9 = 172.20.Est time: 01-054. PV = 432/1.15 + 137/(1.152) + 797/(1.153) = 376 + 104 + 524 = $1,003.Est time: 01-055. FV = 100 x 1.158 = $305.90.Est time: 01-056. NPV = −1,548 + 138/.09 = −14.67 (cost today plus the present value of theperpetuity).Est time: 01-057. PV = 4/(.14 − .04) = $40.Est time: 01-058. a. PV = 1/.10 = $10.b. Since the perpetuity will be worth $10 in year 7, and since that is roughlydouble the present value, the approximate PV equals $5.You must take the present value of years 1–7 and subtract from the totalpresent value of the perpetuity:PV = (1/.10)/(1.10)7 = 10/2= $5 (approximately).c. A perpetuity paying $1 starting now would be worth $10, whereas aperpetuity starting in year 8 would be worth roughly $5. The differencebetween these cash flows is therefore approximately $5. PV = $10 – $5=$5 (approximately).d. PV = C/(r−g) = 10,000/(.10-.05) = $200,000.Est time: 06-109. a. PV = 10,000/(1.055) = $7,835.26 (assuming the cost of the car does notappreciate over those five years).b. The six-year annuity factor [(1/0.08) – 1/(0.08 x (1+.08)6)] = 4.623. Youneed to set aside (12,000 × six-year annuity factor) = 12,000 × 4.623 =$55,475.c. At the end of six years you would have 1.086 × (60,476 - 55,475) = $7,935. Est time: 06-1010. a. FV = 1,000e.12 x 5 = 1,000e.6 = $1,822.12.b. PV = 5e−.12 x 8 = 5e-.96 = $1.914 million.c. PV = C (1/r– 1/re rt) = 2,000(1/.12 – 1/.12e.12 x15) = $13,912.Est time: 01-0511.a. FV = 10,000,000 x (1.06)4 = 12,624,770.b. FV = 10,000,000 x (1 + .06/12)(4 x 12) = 12,704,892.c. FV = 10,000,000 x e(4 x .06) = 12,712,492.Est time: 01-0512.a. PV = $100/1.0110 = $90.53.b. PV = $100/1.1310 = $29.46.c. PV = $100/1.2515 = $3.52.d. PV = $100/1.12 + $100/1.122 + $100/1.123 = $240.18.Est time: 01-05 13. a.⇒=+=0.905r 11DF 11r 1 = 0.1050 = 10.50%.b. 0.819.(1.105)1)r (11DF 2222==+=c. AF 2 = DF 1 + DF 2 = 0.905 + 0.819 = 1.724.d.PV of an annuity = C ⨯ [annuity factor at r % for t years]. Here:$24.65 = $10 ⨯ [AF 3]AF 3 = 2.465e. AF 3 = DF 1 + DF 2 + DF 3 = AF 2 + DF 32.465 = 1.724 + DF 3DF 3 = 0.741Est time: 06-1014. The present value of the 10-year stream of cash inflows is:6$886,739.6(1.14)0.1410.141 $170,000PV 10=⎥⎦⎤⎢⎣⎡⨯-⨯= Thus:NPV = –$800,000 + $886,739.66 = +$86,739.66At the end of five years, the factory’s value will be the present value of the fiveremaining $170,000 cash flows:6$583,623.7(1.14)0.1410.141 $170,000PV 5=⎥⎦⎤⎢⎣⎡⨯-⨯= Est time: 01-0515.$23,696.151.12$50,0001.12$68,0001.12$80,0001.12$92,0001.12$92,000 1.12$85,0001.12$80,0001.12$75,0001.12$57,0001.12$50,000$380,000(1.12)C NPV 109876543210t t t =++++++++++-==∑=0Est time: 01-0516.a.Let S t = salary in year t.∑=-=301t t1t (1.08)(1.05)40,000PV 3$760,662.5(1.08).05)-(.08(1.05).05)-(.081 43030=⎥⎦⎤⎢⎣⎡⨯-⨯=000,0b.PV(salary) x 0.05 = $38,033.13Future value = $38,033.13 x (1.08)30 = $382,714.30c.$38,980.30 (1.08)0.0810.081$C (1.08)0.0810.081 C $r)(1r 1r 1 C PV 2020t =⎥⎥⎦⎤⎢⎢⎣⎡⨯-=⎥⎦⎤⎢⎣⎡⨯-⨯=⎥⎦⎤⎢⎣⎡+⨯-⨯=382,714.30382,714.30Est time: 06-10 17.Period Present Value 0-400,000.001 +100,000/1.12 = +89,285.712 +200,000/1.122 = +159,438.783+300,000/1.123 = +213,534.07Total = NPV = $62,258.56Est time: 01-0518.We can break this down into several different cash flows, such that the sum ofthese separate cash flows is the total cash flow. Then, the sum of the present values of the separate cash flows is the present value of the entire project. (All dollar figures are in millions.) ▪ Cost of the ship is $8 million PV = -$8 million▪Revenue is $5 million per year, and operating expenses are $4 million. Thus, operating cash flow is $1 million per year for 15 years.million. million $$8.559(1.08)0.0810.081 115=⎥⎦⎤⎢⎣⎡⨯-⨯=PV ▪ Major refits cost $2 million each and will occur at times t = 5 and t = 10. PV = (-$2 million)/1.085 + (-$2 million)/1.0810 = -$2.288 million. ▪Sale for scrap brings in revenue of $1.5 million at t = 15. PV = $1.5 million/1.0815 = $0.473 million.Adding these present values gives the present value of the entire project:NPV = -$8 million + $8.559 million - $2.288 million + $0.473 million NPV = -$1.256 millionEst time: 06-1019. a. PV = $100,000.b. PV = $180,000/1.125 = $102,136.83.c. PV = $11,400/0.12 = $95,000.d. 4.$107,354.2(1.12)0.1210.121 $19,000PV 10=⎥⎦⎤⎢⎣⎡⨯-⨯=e. PV = $6,500/(0.12 - 0.05) = $92,857.14.Prize (d) is the most valuable because it has the highest present value.Est time: 01-0520.Mr. Basset is buying a security worth $20,000 now, which is its present value. The unknown is the annual payment. Using the present value of an annuity formula, we have:$2,653.90 (1.08)0.0810.081000,20$C (1.08)0.0810.081 C 000,20$r)(1r 1r 1 C PV 1212t =⎥⎥⎦⎤⎢⎢⎣⎡⨯-=⎥⎦⎤⎢⎣⎡⨯-⨯=⎥⎦⎤⎢⎣⎡+⨯-⨯=Est time: 01-0521. Assume the Zhangs will put aside the same amount each year. One approach tosolving this problem is to find the present value of the cost of the boat and then equate that to the present value of the money saved. From this equation, we can solve for the amount to be put aside each year.PV(boat) = $20,000/(1.10)5 = $12,418PV(savings) = annual savings ⎥⎦⎤⎢⎣⎡⨯-⨯5(1.10)0.1010.101 Because PV(savings) must equal PV(boat):Annual savings 418,12$ =⎥⎦⎤⎢⎣⎡⨯-⨯5(1.10)0.1010.101 Annual savings $3,276(1.10)0.1010.101$12,4185=⎥⎦⎤⎢⎣⎡⨯-= Another approach is to use the future value of an annuity formula:$20,0005.10)(1 savings Annual =⎥⎥⎦⎤⎢⎢⎣⎡-+⨯10.1 Annual savings = $ 3,276Est time: 06-1022.The fact that Kangaroo Autos is offe ring “free credit” tells us what the cash payments are; it does not change the fact that money has time value. A 10% annual rate of interest is equivalent to a monthly rate of 0.83%:r monthly = r annual /12 = 0.10/12 = 0.0083 = 0.83%The present value of the payments to Kangaroo Autos is:8$8,93(1.0083)0.008310.00831$300$1,00030=⎥⎦⎤⎢⎣⎡⨯-⨯+ A car from Turtle Motors costs $9,000 cash. Therefore, Kangaroo Autosoffers the better deal, i.e., the lower present value of cost.Est time: 01-05 23.The NPVs are: at 5%$117,687(1.05)$870,0001.05$30,000$700,000NPV 2=+--=⇒ at 10% $46,281(1.10)870,0001.10$30,000$700,000NPV 2=+--=⇒at 15% $16,068(1.15)870,0001.15$30,000$700,000NPV 2-=+--=⇒ The figure below shows that the project has zero NPV at about 13.5%.As a check, NPV at 13.5% is:$1.78(1.135)870,0001.135$30,000$700,000NPV 2-=+--=Est time: 06-10 24.a.This is the usual perpetuity, and hence:$1,428.570.07$100r C PV ===b. This is worth the PV of stream (a) plus the immediate payment of $100:PV = $100 + $1,428.57 = $1,528.57c.The continuously compounded equivalent to a 7% annually compoundedrate is approximately 6.77%, because:Ln(1.07) = 0.0677 ore 0.0677 = 1.0700 Thus:$1,477.100.0677$100r C PV ===Note that the pattern of payments in part (b) is more valuable than the pattern of payments in part (c). It is preferable to receive cash flows at the start of every year than to spread the receipt of cash evenly over the year; with the former pattern of payment, you receive the cash more quickly.Est time: 06-1025. a. PV = $1 billion/0.08 = $12.5 billion.b. PV = $1 billion/(0.08 – 0.04) = $25.0 billion.c. billion. $9.818(1.08)0.0810.081billion $1PV 20=⎥⎦⎤⎢⎣⎡⨯-⨯= d.The continuously compounded equivalent to an 8% annually compounded rate is approximately 7.7%, because:Ln(1.08) = 0.0770 ore 0.0770 = 1.0800 Thus:billion $10.203e 0.07710.0771billion $1PV )(0.077)(20=⎥⎦⎤⎢⎣⎡⨯-⨯= This result is greater than the answer in Part (c) because the endowmentis now earning interest during the entire year.Est time: 06-1026. With annual compounding: FV = $100 ⨯ (1.15)20 = $1,636.65.With continuous compounding: FV = $100 ⨯ e (0.15×20) = $2,008.55.Est time: 01-0527. One way to approach this problem is to solve for the present value of:(1) $100 per year for 10 years, and(2) $100 per year in perpetuity, with the first cash flow at year 11.If this is a fair deal, these present values must be equal, and thus we can solve for the interest rate (r ).The present value of $100 per year for 10 years is:⎥⎦⎤⎢⎣⎡+⨯-⨯=10r)(1(r)1r 1$100PV The present value, as of year 10, of $100 per year forever, with the first paymentin year 11, is: PV 10 = $100/r . At t = 0, the present value of PV 10 is:⎥⎦⎤⎢⎣⎡⨯⎥⎦⎤⎢⎣⎡+=r $100r)(11PV 10 Equating these two expressions for present value, we have:⎥⎦⎤⎢⎣⎡⨯⎥⎦⎤⎢⎣⎡+=⎥⎦⎤⎢⎣⎡+⨯-⨯r $100r)(11r)(1(r)1r 1$1001010 Using trial and error or algebraic solution, we find that r = 7.18%.Est time: 06-1028. Assume the amount invested is one dollar.Let A represent the investment at 12%, compounded annually.Let B represent the investment at 11.7%, compounded semiannually. Let C represent the investment at 11.5%, compounded continuously.After one year:FV A = $1 ⨯ (1 + 0.12)1= $1.1200FV B = $1 ⨯ (1 + 0.0585)2 = $1.1204 FV C = $1 ⨯ e (0.115 ⨯ 1)= $1.1219After five years:FV A = $1 ⨯ (1 + 0.12)5= $1.7623FV B = $1 ⨯ (1 + 0.0585)10 = $1.7657 FV C = $1 ⨯ e (0.115 ⨯ 5)= $1.7771 After twenty years:FV A = $1 ⨯ (1 + 0.12)20= $9.6463FV B = $1 ⨯ (1 + 0.0585)40 = $9.7193 FV C = $1 ⨯ e (0.115 ⨯ 20)= $9.9742 The preferred investment is C.Est time: 06-1029.Because the cash flows occur every six months, we first need to calculate the equivalent semiannual rate. Thus, 1.08 = (1 + r /2)2 => r = 7.846 semiannually compounded APR. Therefore the rate for six months is 7.846/2, or 3.923%:147,846039231039230103923010001000001009$).(..,$,$PV =⎥⎦⎤⎢⎣⎡⨯-⨯+=Est time: 06-1030. a. Each installment is: $9,420,713/19 = $495,827.$4,761,724(1.08)0.0810.081$495,827PV 19=⎥⎦⎤⎢⎣⎡⨯-⨯=b.If ERC is willing to pay $4.2 million, then:⎥⎦⎤⎢⎣⎡+⨯-⨯=19r)(1r 1r 1$495,827$4,200,000 Using Excel or a financial calculator, we find that r = 9.81%.Est time: 06-10 31. a.3$402,264.7(1.08)0.0810.081$70,000PV 8=⎥⎦⎤⎢⎣⎡⨯-⨯=b.Year Beginning-of-Year Balance ($) Year-End Interest on Balance ($) Total Year-End Payment ($) Amortization of Loan ($) End-of-Year Balance ($) 1 402,264.73 32,181.18 70,000.00 37,818.82 364,445.91 2 364,445.91 29,155.67 70,000.00 40,844.33 323,601.58 3 323,601.58 25,888.13 70,000.00 44,111.87 279,489.71 4 279,489.71 22,359.18 70,000.00 47,640.82 231,848.88 5 231,848.88 18,547.91 70,000.00 51,452.09 180,396.79 6 180,396.79 14,431.74 70,000.00 55,568.26 124,828.54 7 124,828.54 9,986.28 70,000.00 60,013.72 64,814.82864,814.825,185.1970,000.0064,814.810.01Est time: 06-1032. This is an annuity problem with the present value of the annuity equal to$2 million (as of your retirement date), and the interest rate equal to 8%with 15 time periods. Thus, your annual level of expenditure (C) is determined as follows:$233,659 (1.08)0.0810.081$2,000,000C (1.08)0.0810.081 C $2,000,000r)(1r 1r 1 C PV 1515t =⎥⎥⎦⎤⎢⎢⎣⎡⨯-=⎥⎦⎤⎢⎣⎡⨯-⨯=⎥⎦⎤⎢⎣⎡+⨯-⨯=With an inflation rate of 4% per year, we will still accumulate $2 million as of ourretirement date. However, because we want to spend a constant amount per year in real terms (R, constant for all t ), the nominal amount (C t ) must increase each year. For each year t : R = C t /(1 + inflation rate)t Therefore:PV [all C t ] = PV [all R ⨯ (1 + inflation rate)t ] = $2,000,000$2,000,0000.08)(1.04)0(1....08)0(10.04)(10.08)(1.04)0(1R 15152211=⎥⎦⎤⎢⎣⎡+++++++++⨯ R ⨯ [0.9630 + 0.9273 + . . . + 0.5677] = $2,000,000 R ⨯ 11.2390 = $2,000,000 R = $177,952Alternatively, consider that the real rate is.03846.1=-++0.04)(1.08)0(1 Then, redoingthe steps above using the real rate gives a real cash flow equal to:$177,952=⎥⎥⎦⎤⎢⎢⎣⎡⨯-= (1.03846)0.0384610.038461$2,000,000C 15Thus C 1 = ($177,952 ⨯ 1.04) = $185,070, C 2 = $192,473, etc.Est time: 11-15 33. a.9$430,925.8(1.055)0.05510.0551$50,000PV 12=⎥⎦⎤⎢⎣⎡⨯-⨯=b.The annually compounded rate is 5.5%, so the semiannual rate is:(1.055)(1/2) – 1 = 0.0271 = 2.71%Since the payments now arrive six months earlier than previously:PV = $430,925.89 × 1.0271 = $442,603.98Est time: 06-1034. In three years, the balance in the mutual fund will be:FV = $1,000,000 × (1.035)3 = $1,108,718The monthly shortfall will be: $15,000 – ($7,500 + $1,500) = $6,000. Annual withdrawals from the mutual fund will be: $6,000 × 12 = $72,000. Assume the first annual withdrawal occurs three years from today, when the balance in the mutual fund will be $1,108,718. Treating the withdrawals as an annuity due, we solve for t as follows:r)(1r)(1r 1r 1C PV t +⨯⎥⎦⎤⎢⎣⎡+⨯-⨯= 1.035(1.035)0.03510.0351$72,000$1,108,718t ⨯⎥⎦⎤⎢⎣⎡⨯-⨯= Using Excel or a financial calculator, we find that t = 21.38 years.Est time: 06-10 35. a. PV = 2/.12 = $16.667 million.b. PV = 939.14$=⎥⎦⎤⎢⎣⎡⨯-⨯20(1.12)0.1210.121$2million.c. PV = 2/(.12-.03) = $22.222 milliond. PV = 061.18$=⎥⎦⎤⎢⎣⎡⨯-⨯2020(1.12).03)-(0.12 1.03.03)-(0.121$2million.Est time: 06-1036. a. First we must determine the 20-year annuity factor at a 6% interest rate.20-year annuity factor = [1/.06 – 1/.06(1.06)20) = 11.4699.Once we have the annuity factor, we can determine the mortgagepayment.Mortgage payment = $200,000/11.4699 = $17,436.91.b.c. Nearly 69% of the initial loan payment goes toward interest($12,000/$17,436.79 = .6882). Of the last payment, only 6% goestoward interest (987.24/17,436.79 = .06).After 10 years, $71,661.21 has been paid off ($200,000 – remainingbalance of $128,338.79). This represents only 36% of the loan. Thereason that less than half of the loan has paid off during half of its lifeis due to compound interest.Est time: 11-1537. a. Using the Rule of 72, the time for money to double at 12% is 72/12,or six years. More precisely, if x is the number of years for money todouble, then:(1.12)x = 2Using logarithms, we find:x (ln 1.12) = ln 2 x = 6.12 yearsb.With continuous compounding for interest rate r and time period x :e rx = 2Taking the natural logarithm of each side:rx = ln(2) = 0.693Thus, if r is expressed as a percent, then x (the time for money to double) is: x = 69.3/(interest rate, in percent).Est time: 06-10 38.Spreadsheet exercise.Est time: 11-1539.. a. This calls for the growing perpetuity formula with a negative growth rate(g = –0.04):million $14.290.14million$20.04)(0.10million $2PV ==--=b.The pipeline’s value at year 20 (i.e., at t = 20), assuming its cash flows lastforever, is:gr g)(1C g r C PV 2012120-+=-= With C 1 = $2 million, g = –0.04, and r = 0.10:million $6.3140.14million$0.8840.140.04)(1million)($2PV 2020 ==-⨯=Next, we convert this amount to PV today, and subtract it from the answerto Part (a):million $13.35(1.10)million$6.314million $14.29PV 20=-=Est time: 06-10。

公司理财第十一版课后答案第一章第1篇概论第］章公司理财导论1.1复习笔记公司的首要目标——股东财富最大化决定了公司理财的目标。

公司理财研究的是稀缺资金如何在企业和市场内进行有效配置，它是在股份有限公司已成为现代企业制度最主要组织形式的时代背景下，就公司经营过程中的资金运动进行预测、组织、协调、分析和控制的一种决策与管理活动。

从决策角度来讲，公司理财的决策内容包括投资决策、筹资决策、股利决策和净流动资金决策；从管理角度来讲，公司理财的管理职能主要是指对资金筹集和资金投放的管理。

公司理财的基本内容包括：投资决策（资本预算）、融资决策（资本结构）、短期财务管理（营运资本）。

1.资产负债表资产负债表是总括反映企业某一特定日期财务状况的会计报表，它是根据资产、负债和所有者权益之间的相互关系，按照一定的分类标准和一定的顺序，把企业一定日期的资产、负债和所有者权益各项目予以适当排列，并对日常工作中形成的大量数据进行高度浓缩整理后编制而成的。

资产负债表可以反映资本预算、资本支出、资本结构以及经营中的现金流量管理等方面的内容。

2.资本结构资本结构是指企业各种资本的构成及其比例关系，它有广义和狭义之分。

广义资本结构，亦称财务结构，指企业全部资本的构成，既包括长期资本，也包括短期资本（主要指短期债务资本）。

狭义资本结构，主要指企业长期资本的构成，而不包括短期资本。

通常人们将资本结构表示为债务资本与权益资本的比例关系（D/E）或债务资本在总资本中的构成（D/A）。

准确地讲，企业的资本结构应定义为有偿负债与所有者权益的比例。

资本结构是由企业采用各种筹资方式筹集资本形成的。

筹资方式的选择及组合决定着企业资本结构及其变化。

资本结构是企业筹资决策的核心问题。

企业应综合考虑影响资本结构的因素，运用适当方法优化资本结构，从而实现最佳资本结构。

资本结构优化有利于降低资本成本，获取财务杠杆利益。

3.财务经理财务经理是公司管理团队中的重要成员，其主要职责是通过资本预算、融资和资产流动性管理为公司创造价值。

第一章1.在所有权形式的公司中,股东是公司的所有者。

股东选举公司的董事会,董事会任命该公司的管理层。

企业的所有权和控制权分离的组织形式是导致的代理关系存在的主要原因。

管理者可能追求自身或别人的利益最大化,而不是股东的利益最大化。

在这种环境下,他们可能因为目标不一致而存在代理问题。

2.非营利公司经常追求社会或政治任务等各种目标。

非营利公司财务管理的目标是获取并有效使用资金以最大限度地实现组织的社会使命。

3.这句话是不正确的。

管理者实施财务管理的目标就是最大化现有股票的每股价值，当前的股票价值反映了短期和长期的风险、时间以及未来现金流量。

4.有两种结论。

一种极端,在市场经济中所有的东西都被定价。

因此所有目标都有一个最优水平，包括避免不道德或非法的行为，股票价值最大化。

另一种极端,我们可以认为这是非经济现象,最好的处理方式是通过政治手段。

一个经典的思考问题给出了这种争论的答案:公司估计提高某种产品安全性的成本是30美元万。

然而,该公司认为提高产品的安全性只会节省20美元万。

请问公司应该怎么做呢?”5.财务管理的目标都是相同的,但实现目标的最好方式可能是不同的,因为不同的国家有不同的社会、政治环境和经济制度。

6.管理层的目标是最大化股东现有股票的每股价值。

如果管理层认为能提高公司利润，使股价超过35美元,那么他们应该展开对恶意收购的斗争。

如果管理层认为该投标人或其它未知的投标人将支付超过每股35美元的价格收购公司,那么他们也应该展开斗争。

然而,如果管理层不能增加企业的价值,并且没有其他更高的投标价格,那么管理层不是在为股东的最大化权益行事。

现在的管理层经常在公司面临这些恶意收购的情况时迷失自己的方向。

7.其他国家的代理问题并不严重,主要取决于其他国家的私人投资者占比重较小。

较少的私人投资者能减少不同的企业目标。

高比重的机构所有权导致高学历的股东和管理层讨论决策风险项目。

此外,机构投资者比私人投资者可以根据自己的资源和经验更好地对管理层实施有效的监督机制。

公司理财第十一版课后答案第一部分复习笔记公司的首要目标——股东财富最大化决定了公司理财的目标。

公司理财研究的是稀缺资金如何在企业和市场内进行有效配置，它是在股份有限公司已成为现代企业制度最主要组织形式的时代背景下，就公司经营过程中的资金运动进行预测、组织、协调、分析和控制的一种决策与管理活动。

从决策角度来讲，公司理财的决策内容包括投资决策、筹资决策、股利决策和净流动资金决策；从管理角度来讲，公司理财的管理职能主要是指对资金筹集和资金投放的管理。

公司理财的基本内容包括：投资决策（资本预算）、融资决策（资本结构）、短期财务管理（营运资本）。

1资产负债表资产负债表是总括反映企业某一特定日期财务状况的会计报表，它是根据资产、负债和所有者权益之间的相互关系，按照一定的分类标准和一定的顺序，把企业一定日期的资产、负债和所有者权益各项目予以适当排列，并对日常工作中形成的大量数据进行高度浓缩整理后编制而成的。

资产负债表可以反映资本预算、资本支出、资本结构以及经营中的现金流量管理等方面的内容。

2资本结构资本结构是指企业各种资本的构成及其比例关系，它有广义和狭义之分。

广义资本结构，亦称财务结构，指企业全部资本的构成，既包括长期资本，也包括短期资本（主要指短期债务资本）。

狭义资本结构，主要指企业长期资本的构成，而不包括短期资本。

通常人们将资本结构表示为债务资本与权益资本的比例关系（D/E）或债务资本在总资本中的构成（D/A）。

准确地讲，企业的资本结构应定义为有偿负债与所有者权益的比例。

资本结构是由企业采用各种筹资方式筹集资本形成的。

筹资方式的选择及组合决定着企业资本结构及其变化。

资本结构是企业筹资决策的核心问题。

企业应综合考虑影响资本结构的因素，运用适当方法优化资本结构，从而实现最佳资本结构。

资本结构优化有利于降低资本成本，获取财务杠杆利益。

3财务经理财务经理是公司管理团队中的重要成员，其主要职责是通过资本预算、融资和资产流动性管理为公司创造价值。

刘力版公司财务课后习题答案公司财务课后习题答案 第二章 第三章 第四章 第五章 /\ •厶、 、、＞ : 第六章 第七章 第九章 第十章 第十一章 第十二章 第十三章第十四章 第十五章 ,、 、、＞: 第十六章第十七章资金的时间价值习题答案 ................ 债务及其估值 .......................... 股票估值习题答案 ......................资本投资与决策指标 ....................资本预算分析习题答案 .................. 风险与收益与证券市场理论 .............. 资本成本 .............................. 权益资本筹资习题答案 .................. 债务与租赁融资 ..................... 资本结构分析习题答案 ...............分配政策 ........................... 期权与公司财务习题答案 ............. 营运资金管理 ....................... 企业的筹资组合与财务计划习题答案 企业并购、分立与重组 .................... 8 10 13 15 18 19 20 23 26 29 30 32 34第二章资金的时间价值习题答案计算题:1 . 解答:FV = PVx(1 +r)nFV = 5,000x(1 +1O%)10=12,970(元)2.3.(2)(4)解答:(1)解答:(1)FVFVFV= 8,000x(1+8%)7= 775x(1 +12%)12=13,712(元)=3019.4(元)= 21,000x(1+5%)5 =26,796(元)FV = PVx(l +r)ln(1039. 5)FVPV=(1 +r)500ln( 1 +5%15年ln(53.87)35ln( 1 +9%ln(298.6) 100ln(ln(1 + 20%78.76)53ln( 1 +2%20年FV = PVx(1+r)nFVPV=(1 +r)nJ948V 500-1 12%422.1V 300-1In 1 +r)FVVPVV 200= 500x(FVIFA 5%,10)x(1 +5%)= 66035(元)方法二：FV =A(FVIFAr, n +1)-1】= 6603.5(兀)(2) FV = 100 M FVIFA 10%5)= 100X6.105=610.5(元)(3)方法一：FV 二 A(FVIFAr .n )(1 +r)=35 x(FVIFA 7%7) x(1 + 7%) = 324.1(元)方法一.FV -A^FVIFAr,n+1)-1]2J 280^ _ 仁9% 4.解答: PV =FV X 1(1+r)n(1) PV800 X (1 + 10%) y = 308.43 元)5.解答: (1) PVPVPV方法300 X 1(1十5%厂 235.04 元)1000 X(占=789.4丫 元)10心(^^= 2325元)FV = A(FVIFAr .n)(1 +r) 20%9.解答:= 324.1（元）方法一.FV =25x （FVIFA2%,3）x （1+2%）= 78.03（元）方法一.FV =A （FVIFAr, n +1）-1]= 78.03（元）=2,500 X PVIFA7%,10= 2,500x7.024 = 17,560（元）=70 天 PVIFA3%,3 = 198.03（元） =280X PVIFA7%,7 = 280咒 5.389 = 1508.92（元） =500 X PVIFA10%,10 = 3072 5（元）= 644.44（元）A = PV / PVIFAr , n = （500,000 -150,000）/ PVIFA8%,20=35,648. 45（元）7.解答: 年:15,000x （1 +20%） =18,000（册）第2年:15,000X （1+20%）2 =21,600（册）第3年:15,000X （1+20%）3 =25,920（册）8.解答:6.解答:（1）PV =A 、PVIFAr ,n PV =AX PVIFAr ,nPVPV=3,979.47 (元)=38,781.72 (元)(年底存入，而非年初存入，因此第一年并未计息2万元现金的终值300 = 100 X PVIFAr ,5P VIFAr ,5 = 3查表得：r=19.87%IRR=9.58%第三章 债务及其估值1. 2. 3.4.(1)市场利率为 12%时，三种债券的价格等于票面价值,=1000A 债券:B 债券:C 债券: (2)市场利率为20%时，同理:A 债券:B 债券:C 债券:10.解答：(1)11.解答:10年期零息债券:75. 当债券的票面利率和票面价值相同时，债券的到期期限越长，债券的久期越大，债券面临的利率风险 越大，因而债券的价格变动越大。