国际会计第九版第十一章答案

财务会计第11-13章课后习题参考答案Chapter 9 Accounting for ReceivablesPROBLEM 9-7ABYP 9-4(b)Accounts receivable represent 35.1% [$304.7 – $20.0)/$810.2] of the company’scurrent assets. This is a material amount of the current assets.(c)The ratios would probably vary throughout the year as receivables increaseduring the busy season and decrease in the “off” season. To improve the accuracy of the ratio, average receivables should be calculated using monthly or quarterly data, rather than just the beginning and ending balance.(d)It is difficult to evaluate Scott s’ credit risk with only a single year’s data and noindustry norms. An average collection period of 51 days may be reasonable for the type of customers that make up Scotts’ receivables.Scotts explained that a majority of its receivables were from its North American Consumer segment. Within this segment, there were several subgroups. If each subgroup (i.e. home centers, mass merchandisers, hardware stores, etc) is comprised of many smaller customers, this would indicate less credit risk than that associated with several large customers. The significant concentration of receivables within this largest segment was 79% from its top 3 customers. This represents a high concentration and therefore potentially greater risk.(e)Note 17 addressed the issues that surround credit risk. It provided the reader withat least a moderate degree of “comfort” that Scotts’accounts receivable and allowance policies were acceptable. The note also appears to comply with the full disclosure principle required under GAAP. In 2003 Scotts initiated disclosure on the company’s credit expense to its largest and second largest customers, 24.8% and 13.9% respectively. This may represent added risk, depending on the continuing relationship and the customer’s credit ratings.Chapter 10 Plant Assets, Natural Resources, and Intangible AssetsE10-4(a) Straight-line method:($96,000- $12,000)/5= $16,800 per year.2006 depreciation = $16,800 X 3/12 = $4,200.(b) Units-of-activity method:($96,000- $12,000)/10,000 = $8.40 per hour.2006 depreciation = 1,700 hours X $8.40 = $14,280.(c) Declining-balance method:2006 depreciation = $96,000 X 40% X 3/12 = $9,600.Book value January 1, 2007 = $96,000 – $9,600 = $86,400.2007 depreciation = $86,400 X 40% = $34,560.E10-5P10-5ABYP10-2A(f)The asset turnover ratio measures how efficiently a company uses its assets togenerate sales. It shows the dollars of sales generated by each dollar invested in asse ts. PepsiCo’s asset turnover ratio(1.11) was higher than Coca-Cola’s (.81).Therefore, it can be concluded that PepsiCo was more efficient during 2003 in utilizing assets to generate sales.Chapter 11 LiabilitiesE11-1(a) Jun. 1 Cash..................................................................... 70,000Notes Payable............................................ 70,000 (b) Jun. 30 Interest Expense. (700)Interest Payable (700)[($70,000 X 12%) X 1/12](c) Dec. 1 Notes Payable .................................................. 70,000Interest Payable ($70,000 X 12% X 6/12).... 4,200Cash.............................................................. 74,200 (d) $4,200E11-3(a)Nov. 30 Cash................................................................. 180,000Unearned Subscriptions .................. 180,000(9,000 X $20)(b) Dec. 31 Unearned Subscriptions ........................... 15,000Subscription Revenue ...................... 15,000($180,000 X 1/12)(c) Mar. 31 Unearned Subscriptions ............................... 45,000Subscription Revenue........................... 45,000($180,000 X 3/12)E11-5(a) Jan. 1 Cash................................................................. 200,000Bonds Payable .................................... 200,000 (b) July 1 Bond Interest Expense .............................. 10,000Cash ($200,000 X 10% X 1/2)........... 10,000 (c) Dec. 31 Bond Interest Expense .............................. 10,000Bond Interest Payable....................... 10,000 P11-1A(a) Jan. 1 Cash ..................................................................... 15,000Notes Payable .......................................... 15,0005 Cash ..................................................................... 10,400Sales ($10,400 ÷ 104%).......................... 10,000Sales Taxes Payable (400)($10,400 – $10,000)12 Unearned Service Revenue.......................... 9,000Service Revenue...................................... 9,00014 Sales Taxes Payable ....................................... 5,800Cash............................................................. 5,80020 Accounts Receivable...................................... 37,856Sales............................................................ 36,400Sales Taxes Payable .............................. 1,456(700 X $52 X 4%)25 Cash .....................................................................12,480Sales ($12,480 ÷ 104%).......................... 12,000Sales Taxes Payable (480)($12,480 – $12,000)(b) Jan. 31 Interest Expense (100)Interest Payable (100)($15,000 X 8% X 1/12)(c) Current liabilitiesNotes payable................................................................................ $15,000 Accounts payable ........................................................................ 42,500 Unearned service revenue ($15,000 – $9,000).................... 6,000Sales taxes payable ($400 + $1,456 + $480)........................ 2,336Interest payable (100)Total current liabilities....................................................... $65,936 BYP11-4。

国际会计课后习题答案国际会计课后习题答案在学习国际会计的过程中，课后习题是巩固知识和理解的重要环节。

通过解答习题，我们可以更好地掌握会计原理和方法，提高自己的会计思维和分析能力。

本文将为大家提供一些国际会计课后习题的答案，并对其中的一些重要概念进行解析和讨论。

1. 在国际会计准则体系中，资产的定义是什么？请举例说明。

答案：根据国际会计准则体系，资产是指企业拥有的具有经济利益并且能够被可靠计量的资源。

这些资源可以是物质的，如土地、建筑物、设备等；也可以是非物质的，如专利权、商标权等。

例如，一家公司拥有一座办公楼和一批生产设备，这些都可以被视为该公司的资产。

2. 什么是会计准则的重要特征？为什么会计准则的一致性很重要？答案：会计准则的重要特征包括可理解性、相关性、可靠性和比较性。

其中，一致性是指在同一会计期间内，企业在处理同类交易和事件时应采用相同的会计政策和方法。

一致性的重要性在于它可以确保企业的财务报表具有可比性，使用户能够更好地进行横向和纵向的比较分析，从而做出正确的决策。

3. 什么是财务报表的基本要素？请简要介绍每个要素的含义。

答案：财务报表的基本要素包括资产、负债、所有者权益、收入和费用。

资产是指企业拥有的具有经济利益的资源；负债是指企业对外部经济利益的现时义务；所有者权益是指企业所有者对企业净资产的权益；收入是指企业在经营活动中获得的经济利益的流入；费用是指企业在经营活动中为获取收入所支出的经济利益的流出。

4. 请解释会计准则中的“谨慎原则”和“实质重于形式”原则。

答案：谨慎原则是指在不确定性和风险存在的情况下，会计人员应该对企业的财务状况和经营成果进行保守估计，避免对企业的财务报表进行过度乐观的呈现。

实质重于形式原则是指在处理会计事务时，应该以事物的实质为依据，而不是仅仅根据其法律形式来决定其会计处理方式。

这两个原则都是为了保证财务报表的真实性和可靠性。

5. 请解释会计准则中的“货币计量原则”和“历史成本原则”。

Ex. 11–1Current liabilities:Federal income taxes payable ........................................................... $ 42,0001 Advances on magazine subscriptions .............................................. 155,2502 Total current liabilities ........................................................................ $197,250 1$120,000 × 35%26,900 × $30 × 9/12 = $155,250The nine months of unfilled subscriptions are a current liability becauseWeb World received payment prior to providing the magazines.Ex. 11–2a. 1. Merchandise Inventory ............................................. 196,000Interest Expense ....................................................... 4,0001Notes Payable ...................................................... 200,0002. Notes Payable ........................................................... 200,000Cash ...................................................................... 200,000 b. 1. Notes Receivable ...................................................... 200,000Sales ..................................................................... 196,000Interest Revenue.................................................. 4,0002. Cash ........................................................................... 200,000Notes Receivable ................................................. 200,000 1$200,000 × 8% × 90/360Ex. 11–3a. $90,000 × 6% × 90/360 = $1,350 for each alternative.b. (1) $90,000 simple-interest note: $90,000 proceeds(2) $90,000 discounted note: $90,000 –$1,350 interest = $88,650proceedsc. Alternative (1) is more favorable to the borrower. This can be verifiedby comparing the effective interest rates for each loan as follows:Situation (1): 6% effective interest rate($1,350 × 360/90) ÷ $90,000 = 6%Situation (2): 6.09% effective interest rate($1,350 × 360/90) ÷ $88,650 = 6.09%The effective interest rate is higher for the second loan because thecreditor lent only $88,650 in return for $1,350 interest over 90 days. Inthe simple-interest loan, the creditor must lend $90,000 for 90 days toearn the same $1,350 interest.Ex. 11–4a. Accounts Payable .......................................................... 9,000Notes Payable ........................................................... 9,000 b. Notes Payable ................................................................. 9,000Interest Expense............................................................. 75* Cash ........................................................................... 9,075 *$9,000 × 5% × 60/360 = $75Ex. 11–5a. June 30 Building ......................................................... 730,000Land ............................................................... 250,000Note Payable ............................................ 800,000Cash.......................................................... 180,000 b. Dec. 31 Note Payable ................................................. 40,000Interest Expense ($800,000 × 8% × 1/2) ...... 32,000Cash.......................................................... 72,000 c. June 30 Note Payable ................................................. 40,000Interest Expense ($760,000 × 8% × 1/2) ...... 30,400Cash.......................................................... 70,400 Ex. 11–6a. $4,650,000, or the amount disclosed as the current portion oflong-term debt.b. By the end of 2002, the bank credit line was reduced to $299,000;thus, the bank credit line was nearly paid off in 2002. The differencebetween the $34,783,000 that would be due in the coming period andthe $4,650,000 disclosed as the current portion must have beenfunded (i.e., replaced) by long-term notes payable. Indeed, of the $50million increase in the term loans($95 million – $45 million), around $35 million must have been usedto eliminate the bank credit line.c. The current liabilities declined by $4,351,000 ($4,650,000 – $299,000).Ex. 11–7a. Product Warranty Expense (2% × $750,000) ................ 15,000Product Warranty Payable ....................................... 15,000 b. Product Warranty Payable (960)Wages Payable (570)Supplies (390)Ex. 11–8a. The warranty liability represents estimated outstanding automobilewarranty claims. Of these claims, $14,166 million is estimated to bedue during 2003, while the remainder ($9,125 million) is expected tobe paid after 2003. The distinction between short-term and long-termliabilities is important to creditors in order to accurately evaluate thenear-term cash demands on the business, relative to the quickassets and other longer-term demands.b. Product Warranty Expense ........................... 14,355,000,000Product Warranty Payable ....................... 14,355,000,000 $20,410 + X – $12,000 = $23,291X= $23,291 – $20,410 + $12,000X= $14,881 millionc. The liability might have grown for a number of possible reasons.Often the estimated warranty liability will increase if the underlyingproduct sales are also increasing, as was the case for Ford duringthis time. Alternatively, Ford’s a ctual claims experience might bedeclining. If the percent of sales estimate remained unchanged, thiswould cause the liability to potentially increase. This partiallyexplains the increase, since only $12,000 million in claims wereassumed to be paid, while the current estimated claims payable was$13,605 million at December 31, 2001. Lastly, Ford could beincreasing its estimated warranty claims expense as a percent ofcurrent period sales.Ex. 11–9a. Damage Awards and Fines ............................................ 670,000EPA Fines Payable.................................................... 390,000 Litigation Claims Payable ........................................ 280,000 Note to Instructors:The “damage awards and fines” would bedisclosed on the income statement un der “other expenses.”b. The company experienced a hazardous materials spill at one of itsplants during the previous period. This spill has resulted in a number of lawsuits to which the company is a party. The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) has fined the company $390,000, which the company is contesting in court. Although the company does not admit fault, legal counsel believes that the fine payment is probable. In addition, an employee has sued the company. A $280,000 out-of-court settlement has been reached with the employee. The EPA fine and out-of-court settlement have been accrued. There is one other outstanding lawsuit related to this incident. Counsel does not believe that the lawsuit has merit. Other lawsuits and unknown liabilities may arise from this incident.Ex. 11–10a. Dec. 31 Pension Expense .......................................... 315,000Unfunded Pension Liability ....................315,000b. Jan. 15 Unfunded Pension Liability .......................... 315,000Cash 315,000Ex. 11–11a. Quick Ratio =sLiabilitie Current AssetsQuickDecember 31, 2005:$800,000$350,000$530,000+ = 1.10December 31, 2006:$900,000$400,000$356,000+ = 0.84b. The quick ratio has been decreased between the two balance sheet dates. The major reason is a significant increase in inventory. Cash also declined, possibly to purchase the inventory. As a result, quick assets actually declined, while the current liabilities increased. While the quick ratio for December 31, 2006, is below 1.0, it is not yet at an alarming level. However, the trend suggests that the firm’s current asset (working capital) management should be watched closely.。

Chapter 11Financial Risk ManagementDiscussion Questions1.Enterprise risk management assesses individual risks in the context of a firm’s business strategy. Risksare viewed from a portfolio perspective with risks of various business functions, e.g., FX risk, interest rate risk, political risk and the like, being coordinated by a senior financial manager responsible for keeping top management apprised of critical risks that could interfere with the accomplishment of a firm’sstrategic objectives and devising risk optimization strategies. The variables that management accountants must track include factors both external and internal to the firm and varies from company to company.2.Market risk refers to the risk of loss due to unexpected changes in the prices of currencies, interest rates,commodities, and equities. It is not confined to price changes. Market risk also includes liquidity risk, market discontinuities, credit risk, regulatory risk, tax risk, and accounting risk. An example of a foreign exchange risk is a situation where an exporter invoices a credit sale to a foreign importer in foreign currency and foreign currency devalues prior to payment.3.An FX risk management program includes the following processes:a.Forecasting the expected movement in the relation between the yuan and your domesticcurrency.b.Measuring on a periodic basis your firm’s exposure to fluctuations in the value of the yuan.c.Designing protection strategies that will minimize losses should the yuan revalue.d.Establishing internal controls to measure your performance in hedging the risk of loss fromchanges in the value of the yuan.4.Translation exposure measures the impact of exchange rate changes on the domestic currency equivalentsof a firm s foreign currency assets and liabilities. It is primarily concerned with currency restatement.Transaction exposure measures the cash flow impact of fluctuating currency values on the settlement of commercial transactions denominated in foreign currencies. Transaction exposure is concerned with acurrency conversion (exchange) process. Economic exposure attempts to measure the impact of changing exchange rates on the future revenues, costs, and sales volume of a multinational entity. It is concerned with the temporal effects of exchange rate changes.Although FAS No. 52 attempts to mitigate concern with translation gains and losses (accounting exposure), it does not totally eliminate it. Companies choosing the U.S. dollar as their functional currency will still use the temporal translation method and report translation gains and losses in period income. Companies designating the local currency as the functional currency will find their asset exposures increased as inventories and fixed assets are translated using current exchange rates. While such translation gains and losses bypass income, the adverse effects of currency fluctuations on a company’s consolidated equity will still exist. This is especially likely where loan covenant and other contractual provisions specify minimum debt-to-equity ratios. This suggests that the issue of accounting versus economic exposure is far from settled.5.The chapter lists 10 specific methods to reduce a firm’s exposure to foreign exchange risk in adevaluation-prone country. These techniques, and possible cost-benefit trade-offs, are summarized in the following table.Methods Trade-Offsa. Minimize cash balances in a. Reduced exposure versusdevaluation-prone country higher business andfinancial risk due to possible "cash-outs."b. Remitting excess cash back b. Same as item a.to the parent company.c. Accelerate the collection c. Reduced exposure versusof local currency receivables possible reduction in salesd. Defer payment of local d. Reduced exposure versuscurrency payables impaired local credit ratinge. Speed up payment of e. Reduced exposure versusforeign currency payables foregone earnings on arelatively cheap creditsourcef. Invest local currency cash f. Reduced exposure versusbalances in inventories and higher transaction costsother assets less prone to and possible mis-devaluation loss allocation of corporateresourcesg. Invest in strong currency g. Reduced exposure versusforeign assets higher transaction costsand possible governmentinterference (e.g.exchange controls)h. Raise selling prices h. Reduced exposure versuspotential erosion ofmarket sharei. Invoice exports in hard i. Reduced exposure versuscurrencies possible reduction insales abroadj. Currency swaps j. Reduced translationexposure versus increasedtransaction exposure ifparent assesses theexposed affiliate aninterest charge in hardcurrency6. A multicurrency transactions exposure report differs from a multicurrency translation exposure report in anumber of ways. First, the transactions exposure report has a cash flow orientation instead of a static balance sheet orientation. It includes off balance sheet items that are executory in nature. Finally, a multicurrency transaction exposure report has a local currency orientation, whereas a multicurrency translation exposure report has a parent currency orientation.7.Derivative instruments are formal agreements that transfer financial risk from one party to another. Thevalue of a derivative is derived from its reference to a basic underlying instrument or variable such as a foreign currency receivable or a quantum of foreign exchange. Thus the value of a forward exchange contract is related to the change in the foreign exchange rate times the notional amount being hedged. An important accounting issue is whether derivatives should receive the same accounting treatment as the basic instruments to which they relate. Specifically, should a derivative instrument hedging a foreign currency asset appear in the financial statements as a foreign currency liability? If so, should its valuation base be identical to basic instruments? Do cash flows associated with derivative instruments have thesame economic meaning as those associated with basic instruments? How should gains and losses associated with derivative instruments be reflected in the income statement? Can and should risks attaching to these financial instruments be recognized and measured?8.Student responses should proceed along the following lines. Pele Corporation, a Brazilian firm, hasborrowed a certain sum of British pounds at 9 percent and is worried that the pound will appreciate relative to the real prior to maturity. To hedge this currency risk, it arranges with a bank to swap the pounds borrowed for an equivalent amount of reals for 3 years bearing the same rate of interest. During the 3-year period, it will make periodic interest payments to the bank in reals, and in return, receive periodic interest payments in pounds. At the end of the 3-year period, it will re-exchange the real principal for pounds at the original exchange rate.9. A futures contract is a commitment to purchase or deliver a specified quantity of a financial instrument orforeign currency at a future date at a price set when the contract is made. It differs from a forward contract in several respects. A futures contract is standardized in terms of size and delivery date whereas a forward contract is tailored to a customer’s needs. Futures contracts are freely traded on organized exchanges. In contrast, there is no secondary market for forward contracts as they are private agreements between two parties. Futures contracts are carried at market values with gains or losses taken immediately to income, whereas profits on a forward contract are realized only at the delivery date. Finally, a party to a futures contract must meet periodic margin requirements. In a forward contract, margins are set once, on the date of the initial transaction.10.Fair value hedges are hedges of a firm’s foreign currency assets and liabilities and firm fore ign currencycommitments. Cash flow hedges are hedges of forecasted transactions such as a future sale or purchase.Net investment hedges are hedges of an exposed balance sheet asset or liability position. For qualifying fair value hedges, all changes in the fair value of the derivative and the underlying item that is being hedged are recognized in earnings. For qualifying cash flow hedges, the change in the fair value of the derivative is recognized in Other Comprehensive Income and recognized in earnings when the hedged cash flows affect earnings. For qualifying hedges of a net investment, changes in the fair value of the derivative are recorded in comprehensive income11.In theory, the term highly effective means that gains or losses on hedging instruments should be shouldexactly offset gains or losses on the item being hedged. In practice, it means that gains or losses on the derivative substantially offset the changes in the value or cash flow of the hedged item. Measurement of this attribute is important. If a hedging instrument does not meet the highly effective test, the hedge is terminated and deferred gains or losses on the derivative are recognized immediately in current earnings.This, in turn, introduces volatility into a firm’s reporte d earnings.12.The notion of an opportunity cost refers to the return associated with your next best opportunity. In thearea of FX risk management, it entails comparing a given risk management strategy with an appropriate standard of comparison. This provides an objective means of assessing the effectiveness of a given risk reduction program. For example, when FX risk management programs are centralized at corporate headquarters, appropriate benchmarks against which to compare the success of corporate risk protection would be programs that local managers could have implemented on their own.Exercises1.Students usually gloss over diagrams without thinking them through. This exercise forces them to thinkthrough each step of the diagram and allows them to better internalize the risk management cycle.Responses might follow the following pattern: Step 1 involves operationalizing a firms strategies intoquantifiable objectives and then identifying developments both external and internal risks that could affect the achievement of these objectives. These risks are measured by the firm’s accountants and quantified in terms of their potential impact on the firm. For example, the firm may have as its strategic objective an increase of 5% of market share in a given country per year given assumptions about the rate of economic growth in that country. The chance that this growth rate may fall short of 5% and the impact of this shortfall for projected sales in that country would be quantified. Response formulation would involve identifying protection strategies to minimize the hit to sales of projected GNP shortfalls such as promotion campaigns to maintain sales or use of alternative sourcing venues to lower sales prices. This strategy would be implemented if projected GNP started to slow beyond a certain cutoff point. The impact of this protection strategy would then be quantified in terms of actual sales relative to forecast sales taking into account the costs of protection. The information contained in risk management performance reports would then be communicated to top management who would be in a position to reaffirm or alter strategic objectives and/or risk identification processes.2.Foreign exchange risk a devaluation of the foreign currency in which an account receivable wasdenominated would cause the domestic currency cash flows to decrease. This would cause current assets to decrease. Alternatively, a revaluation of the foreign currency would cause the account receivable and current assets to increase. Interest rate risk an increase in market rates of interest would cause the price ofa short-term fixed-rate debt instrument being held as a marketable security to decrease. This, in turn,would cause current assets to decrease. A decrease in interest rates would have the opposite effect.Commodity price risk an increase in the price of copper would cause the cost of copper purchases and the resultant unexpired cost of inventories in the current asset section of the balance sheet to increase. A fall in copper prices would have the opposite effect. Equity price risk a fall in stock prices would depress the carrying value of marketable securities (current assets), and conversely.3.The purpose of this exercise is to force students to look at manager ial accounting issues from the user’sperspective. Students may suggest additional information sources with respect to inflation differentials, balance of trade and balance of payments statistics, international monetary reserves, forward exchange quotations, the behavior of related currencies, and interest rate differentials. We recommend that this exercise be assigned to small groups to encourage teamwork. At the time this exercise was prepared, professional forecasters were predicting a rate of 10.5 ecrus to theU.S. dollar.Some groups may contend that exchange markets are efficient and that exchange rate changes are simply random events. Again, they must be prepared to convince management of their case, or at a minimum, identify the consequences of not attempting exchange rate forecasts.4. Current rate Current/Noncurrent Monetary/nonmonetaryExposed assets(PHP):Cash 500,000 500,000 500,000Accounts receivable 1,000,000 1,000,000 1,000,000 Inventories(LCM) 900,000 900,000Fixed assets 1,100,000 -- --Total 3,500,000 2,400,000 1,500,000 Exposed liabilities:Short-term payables 400,000 400,000 400,000Long-term debt 800,000 --- 800,000Total 1,200,000 400,000 1,200,000Positive/(negative) exposure 2,300,000 2,000,000 300,000 Positive exposure X $0.03 $69,000 $60,000 $9,000Positive exposure X $0.02 46,000 40,000 6,000 FX gain/(loss) $(23,000) $(20,000) $(3,000)5.ILS $ £$ EquivalentExposed Assets:Cash & due from banks 100,000 50,000 (40,000) 20,000Loans 200,000 ---- ---- 100,000Fixed assets ---- 30,000 ---- 30,000Exposed Liabilities:Deposits 40,000 ---- 15,000 50,000Owners equity ---- 100,000 ---- 100,000Net exposed assets 260,000 (20,000) (55,000) NIL(liabilities)ILS $ £$ EquivalentExposed Assets:Cash & due from banks 100,000 50,000 (40,000) 20,000Loans 200,000 ---- ---- 100,000Fixed assets ---- 30,000 ---- 30,000Exposed Liabilities:Deposits 40,000 ---- 15,000 50,000Owners equity ---- 100,000 ---- 100,000Net exposed assets 260,000 (20,000) (55,000) NIL(liabilities)6.Trial Balance BeforeILS $ £$ EquivalentCash & due from banks 100,000 50,000 (40,000) 20,000Loans 200,000 ---- ---- 100,000Fixed assets ---- 30,000 ---- 30,000Deposits 40,000 ---- 15,000 50,000 Owners equity ---- 100,000 ---- 100,000Trial Balance After(£/$/ILS = 1/2/8)ILS $ £$ EquivalentCash & due from banks 100,000 50,000 (40,000) (5,000)Loans 200,000 ---- ---- 50,000Fixed assets ---- 30,000 ---- 30,000Deposits 40,000 ---- 15,000 40,000 Owners equity ---- 100,000 ---- 100,000Translation loss $(65,000)7. One recommendation might be to reduce positive exposures by engaging in balance sheet hedging, that is, by remitting excess cash back to the corporate parent, reducing the affiliate bank’s outstanding loans, or increasing its deposits in Israeli shekels.. The trade-offs here are potentially negative effects on operations, such as not satisfying loan demand against hedging translation gains and losses. Another option is to increase the pricing of bank services in Israel to provide a profit margin that can offset any FX losses. Again, the effects of such actions on competitive positioning could far exceed the benefits of hedging. A third option is to buy a forward or currency swap to hedge the exposure. Trade-offs include the out-of-pocket cost of the exchange contract versus the reported losses avoided.1.If the U.S. dollar is the functional currency, the translation gain upon consolidation is aggregated with thetransaction loss on the foreign currency borrowing and disclosed as one line item in the consolidated income statement. This figure is determined as follows:Translation gain = Positive exposure X change in exchange rate= NZD3,000,000 x $.10= $300,000Transaction loss =NZD loan balance X change in exchange rate= NZD1,000,000 x $.10= $ (100,000)Aggregate exchange adjustment = $300,000 + $ (100,000)= $200,000If the New Zealand dollar is the functional currency, the translation gain upon consolidation bypasses income and appears as a separate component in consolidated equity. It is offset by the translation loss on the New Zealand dollar borrowing.9.4/1 CD (¥32,500,000 ÷ ¥120) $250,000Cash $250,000(Purchase of CD)Chips (¥32,500,000 ÷ ¥120) $270,833Cash (¥3,250,000 ÷ ¥120) $ 27,083A/P (¥29,250,000 ÷ ¥120) 243,750(To record credit purchase)7/1 CD (¥30,000,000 ÷ [¥120 - ¥110]) $ 22,727FX gain $ 22,727(To record gain on CD investment)Purchases (¥29,250,000 ÷ [¥120 - ¥110]) 22,159Accts. Payable 22,159(To record increase in purchases and related liability accounts owing to yen appreciation) 7/1 Cash (¥30,000,000 ÷ ¥110) $278,182Interest income (¥30,000,000 X .08 X ¼) ÷ ¥110] $ 5,455CD 272,727(To record maturation of CD)Interest expense [(¥29,250,000 x.08 x 3/12) ÷ ¥110) 5,318Accts. payable (¥29,250,000 ÷ ¥110) 265,909Cash 271,227(To record settlement of purchase transaction)10. Journal entries:6/1 CHF Contract receivable $133,333Deferred premium 3,334$ Contract payable $136,667(To record contract with the foreign currency dealer to exchange $136,667 for CHF 166,667)6/30 CHF Contract receivable 1,667Transaction gain 1,667(To record transaction gain from increased dollar equivalent of forward contract receivable; $.81 - $.80 x SWF 166,667)6/30 Premium expense 1,111Deferred premium 1,111(To amortize deferred premium for 1 month)9/1 SWCHF Contract receivable 3,333Transaction gain 3,333(To record additional transaction gain by adjusting forward contract to the new current rate; $.83 - $.81 x CHF 166,667)9/1 Premium expense 2,223Deferred premium 2,223(Amortization of deferred premium balance)9/1 $ Contract payable 136,667Cash 136,667 Foreign currency 138,333CHF Contract receivable 138,333(To record delivery of $136,667 to foreign currency dealer in exchange for CHF166,667 with a dollar equivalent of $138,334 (=CHF166,667 x $.83). The Swiss francs will, in turn be used to pay for the chocolate supplies).11. Calculations:If the premium on the forward contract is considered an operating expense, and the conditions for hedge treatment are met, i.e., management designates the forward contract as a hedge, documents its risk management objective and strategy, identifies the hedging instrument, the item being hedged and the risk exposure, and that the forward is effective both prospectively and retrospectively in hedging the risk, the gain on the forward can be offset against the loss on the payable as follows:Amount paid to settle the account payable on the purchase $138,333Less Transaction gain on forward contract (5,000)Cost of purchase $133,333The $133,000 is what was originally anticipated, CHF166.667 X $0.80 = $133,333.12. Journal entries:The call option is intended to hedge an uncertain cash flow. Accordingly, gains or losses on the hedging instrument would bedisclosed in comprehensive income and reclassified into earnings in the period the sale actually takes place.June 1 Premium expense $28,125Cash $28,125($.018 X CHF 62,500 X 25)August 31 Cash $40,625Comprehensive income $40,625[($.416 - $.39) X CHF 62,500 X 25]Case 11-1Exposure Identification1. Infosys appears to have several exposures as enumerated below.Foreign Exchange RiskPage Value-Drivers88 Revenues/Selling and administrative expenses89 Cash flows from interest/dividend income96 Revenue recognition/LT leases97 Operating income/foreign currency transactions/FA98 Marketing/Overseas staff expenses99 Derivative values100 Lease obligations101 Investment returns102 Segment revenues/expenses103 Dividends to ADS holders142 Penalties on export obligations149 Valuing intangibles150 Export revenuesCommodity Price RiskPage Value-Drivers98 Power and fuel expenses145 Brand valuation147/48 Current cost disclosures149 Value of intangiblesEquity Price RiskPage Value Drivers87 Share capital98 Diluted eps100 Stock option compensation expense103 Convertible preferreds145 Cost of capital151 Economic value-addedInterest Rate RiskPage Value Drivers88 Interest expense89 Cash flows from security investments/interest income97 Gratuity/Superannuation/Provident obligations143 Employee compensation145 Cost of capital149 Value of intangibles.151 Economic value-addedInformation on the company’s risk management policies are contained on pages 108-109 of their annual report which were not reproduced in Chapter 1. We include the relevant information here. Infosys derives its revenues from 51 countries of which 78 percent were denominated in US dollars. To minimize both transaction and translation risk the company:1.Tries to match expenses in local currency with receipts in the same currency.es forward exchange contracts to cover apportion of outstanding receivables.3.Denominates contracts in non-US and non-EU regions in internationally tradable currencies to minimizeexposures to local currencies that may have non-tradability risks.Case 11-2Value At Risk: What Are Our Options?Students should be asked to play the role of the consultant, and will find it to be a contentious issue. Suggested remedies that have merit are:1. The FASB should permit deferral accounting for rolling options which would take the derivative gain or loss on each option to equity until the anticipated event occurs, as opposed to taking it immediately to income. This, however, might encourage companies to game the system, so students should also suggest ways to keep this from happening.2. Another tack would be to adhere to generally accepted accounting principles and record the gain or loss on the derivative in current income as it is marked to market, but to disclose which transactions were undertaken for hedge purposes. Management could also game the system here as speculative activities could be disclosed as hedge activities.3. Another option that students might suggest is to revert back to the earlier U.S. practice of keeping the option off balance sheet and providing supplementary disclosure of mark-to-market accounting. This might be confusing to lay readers, but it would enable analysts to better understand the components of reported earnings.It is clear from the annual report clipping that management will ignore accounting pronouncements when it is in their interest to do so. Analysts must be alert to situations where management departs from GAAP to better reflect the economics of what transpired as opposed to doing so to manage earnings.精品文档，知识共享！！！。

国际会计第9版课后答案pdf1、某公司为一般纳税人，2019年6月购入商品并取得增值税专用发票，价款100万元，增值税率13％;支付运费取得增值税专用发票，运费不含税价款为30万元，增值税率9％，则该批商品的入账成本为（）。

[单选题] *A.130万元(正确答案)B.7万元C.3万元D.113万元2、下列项目中，不属于非流动负债的是（）[单选题] *A.长期借款B.应付债券C.专项应付款D.预收的货款(正确答案)3、．（年嘉兴三模考）（）就是会计在经济管理中固有的、内在的客观功能。

[单选题] * A会计的含义B会计的特点C会计的任务D会计的职能(正确答案)4、．（年浙江省第二次联考）会计人员的职业道德规范不包括（）[单选题] *A操守为重、不做假账(正确答案)B爱岗敬业、诚实守信C、廉洁自律、客观公正D坚持准则、提高技能5、企业出售固定资产应交的增值税，应借记的会计科目是（）。

[单选题] *A.税金及附加B.固定资产清理(正确答案)C.营业外支出D.其他业务成本6、．（年嘉兴二模考）企业对固定资产计提折旧以（）假设为基本前提。

[单选题] *A会计主体B持续经营(正确答案)C会计分期D货币计量7、某企业自创一项专利，并经过有关部门审核注册获得其专利权。

该项专利权的研究开发费为15万元，其中开发阶段符合资本化条件的支出8万元;发生的注册登记费2万元，律师费1万元。

该项专利权的入账价值为（）。

[单选题] *A.15万元B.21万元C.11万元(正确答案)D.18万元8、．（年浙江省高职考）下列项目中，不属于企业会计核算对象的经济活动是（）[单选题] *A购买设备B请购原材料(正确答案)C接受捐赠D利润分配9、企业生产车间使用的固定资产发生的下列支出中，直接计入当期损益的是( )。

[单选题] *A.购入时发生的安装费用B.发生的装修费用C.购入时发生的运杂费D.发生的修理费(正确答案)10、已达到预定可使用状态但未办理竣工决算的固定资产，应根据（）作暂估价值转入固定资产，待竣工决算后再作调整。

财务会计第九版答案【篇一：公司理财原书第九版中文版课后答案】面几个小题和第八版一样的（附上第八版答案）我自己翻译的，我上传到我的新浪微博上了，你自己去看，我的新浪微博 id ：一直在奋斗的大洪这是部分翻译【篇二：罗斯公司理财第九版课后习题答案中文版】1.在所有权形式的公司中 ,股东是公司的所有者。

股东选举公司的董事会 ,董事会任命该公司的管理层。

企业的所有权和控制权分离的组织形式是导致的代理关系存在的主要原因。

管理者可能追求自身或别人的利益最大化 ,而不是股东的利益最大化。

在这种环境下 ,他们可能因为目标不一致而存在代理问题。

2.非营利公司经常追求社会或政治任务等各种目标。

非营利公司财务管理的目标是获取并有效使用资金以最大限度地实现组织的社会使命。

3.这句话是不正确的。

管理者实施财务管理的目标就是最大化现有股票的每股价值，当前的股票价值反映了短期和长期的风险、时间以及未来现金流量。

4.有两种结论。

一种极端 ,在市场经济中所有的东西都被定价。

因此所有目标都有一个最优水平，包括避免不道德或非法的行为，股票价值最大化。

另一种极端 ,我们可以认为这是非经济现象 ,最好的处理方式是通过政治手段。

一个经典的思考问题给出了这种争论的答案:公司估计提高某种产品安全性的成本是 30 美元万。

然而 ,该公司认为提高产品的安全性只会节省 20 美元万。

请问公司应该怎么做呢 ?”5.财务管理的目标都是相同的 ,但实现目标的最好方式可能是不同的 , 因为不同的国家有不同的社会、政治环境和经济制度。

6.管理层的目标是最大化股东现有股票的每股价值。

如果管理层认为能提高公司利润，使股价超过 35 美元 ,那么他们应该展开对恶意收购的斗争。

如果管理层认为该投标人或其它未知的投标人将支付超过每股35 美元的价格收购公司,那么他们也应该展开斗争。

然而,如果管理层不能增加企业的价值 ,并且没有其他更高的投标价格 ,那么管理层不是在为股东的最大化权益行事。

第11章国际货币体系1．金本位制度为什么会崩溃？是否有理由恢复某种形式的金本位制度？理由是什么？答：（1）由于各国竞相用汇率作为贸易政策的工具，将货币的黄金价格提高，使货币贬值，试图通过这种方式来降低出口商品的价格、提高进口商品的价格，从而促进生产，增加就业。

如此恶性循环，没有一个国家能从中受益。

最后的结果只能是击碎了大家对这个体系尚存的一点信心。

由于各国随意对其货币实行贬值，人们再也不能确定一种货币能够购买多少黄金。

人们不再持有任何别国的货币，而是立即将其兑换成黄金，以免货币发行国在干预期间对其货币实施法定贬值。

而这就对各个国家的黄金储备形成了压力，迫使各国放弃了对黄金的兑换。

到1939年第二次世界大战爆发时，金本位制度终于消亡。

（2）有理由恢复经改良的金本位制度。

2010年，当时的世界银行行长佐利克向全球主要经济体大胆呼吁，考虑重新采用经改良的金本位制来引导汇市走势。

佐利克可能想推动一种制度，让世界银行自己的货币——特别提款权（SDR）——反映美元、欧元、英镑、日圆和人民币价值，并以某种方式体现黄金。

（3）想要恢复金本位制度的理由有：①历史经验表明，实施金本位制可以长期保持较低的通胀率，维持国内价格水平稳定；②实施金本位制有效限制了政府滥发纸币以收取“铸币税”的权利；③由于国内实施金本位制带来各国货币币值的相对稳定，使金本位制的国际货币体系成为可能；④金本位制能够有效遏制政府的长期赤字财政，政府无法制造通胀来逃避或减轻偿债责任。

2．现行的基金组织对发展中国家的贷款政策可能为国际商务创造什么机遇？这些政策又会形成哪些挑战？答：（1）当一国迅速的紧缩性货币政策或财政政策伤害到该国的就业时，国际货币基金组织随时准备向其成员国出借外币，帮助这些国家克服短期国际收支逆差。

此时，发展中国家希望运用这些资金，发展生产，扩大出口来改善逆差，这对企业进行国际商务将是一个很好的机遇。

某些行业的企业可能会受到政策的扶持，从而在全球市场上占据优势地位，获取利润。

1．下列国家中，与美国会计最接近的国家是（ A ）。

A 英国B 荷兰C 德国D 加拿大2．法国—西班牙—意大利会计模式属于（）。

A 以公司利益为导向B 以保护债权人利益为导向C 以服从税制需要为导向D 以保护投资人利益为导向3．下列（）说法符合盖瑞的看法。

A 职业主义的强弱会影响该国会计准则的制定权B 保密观念的强弱主要对资产的计量产生影响C 重视统一性的国家更强调会计处理防范的多样性D 保密观念的强弱对收入费用的确认产生影响4．（）属于阿伦对会计模式的划分类别。

A 北欧会计模式B 瑞典会计模式C 荷兰会计模式D 宏观发展模式5．按照缪勒1967年提出的会计发展模式，荷兰属于A 按宏观经济要求发展会计B 以微观经济学为基础发展会计C 做为独立学科发展会计D 以统一的模式发展会计6．将不同国家的财务报告模式进行分层分类的是（）A 诺比斯 B 缪勒 C 霍斯蒂德 D 盖瑞7．下列国家中属于“公允反映”会计模式的国家是（ A 美国 B 英国 C 法国 D 德国8．二次世界大战之前，日本与德国会计实务非常接近；二次世界大战之后，日本的会计准则和公司报告越来越接近美国，这是（）因素对会计环境产生影响的典型体现。

A 经济B 文化C 教育 D政治9．有的国家税法税则就是会计规则，会计报告中列示的利润与纳税申报表中申报的利润必须一致，属于这种税收体制的国家如（）A 英国和美国B 澳大利亚和加拿大C 德国和法国D 中国和日本10．会计和财务报告准则的形成过程完全依赖于市场力量的模式称为（）A 合作模式B 协会模式C 自由模式D 法律模式11．对会计模式的形成和发展起作用的社会环境因素有（） A 法律环境 B 政治环境 C 经济环境 D 教育水平 E地理条件12．霍斯蒂德归纳的四种国家文化维度包括（） A 个人主义 B 权力距离 C 不确定性规避D 阳刚之气E 职业主义1．对美国会计准则制定具有监督权、否决权的机构是（）。

第十一章：收益和风险：资本资产定价模型1. 系统性风险通常是不可分散的，而非系统性风险是可分散的。

但是，系统风险 是可以控制的，这需要很大的降低投资者的期望收益。

2. ( 1)系统性风险( 2)非系统性风险( 3)都有，但大多数是系统性风险( 4)非系统性风险( 5)非系统性风险( 6)系统性风险3. 否，应在两者之间4. 错误，单个资产的方差是对总风险的衡量。

5. 是的，组合标准差会比组合中各种资产的标准差小，但是投资组合的贝塔系数 不会小于最小的贝塔值。

6. 可能为 0，因为当贝塔值为 0 时，贝塔值为 0 的风险资产收益 =无风险资产的收益，也可 能存在负的贝塔值，此时风险资产收益小于无风险资产收益。

7. 因为协方差可以衡量一种证券与组合中其他证券方差之间的关系。

8. 如果我们假设，在过去 3 年市场并没有停留不变，那么南方公司的股价价格缺乏变化表 明该股票要么有一个标准差或贝塔值非常接近零。

德州仪器的股票价格变动大并不意味着该 公司的贝塔值高，只能说德州仪器总风险很高。

9. 石油股票价格的大幅度波动并不表明这些股票是一个很差的投资。

如果购买的石油股票 是作为一个充分多元化的产品组合的一部分， 它仅仅对整个投资组合做出了贡献。

这种贡献 是系统风险或B 来衡量的。

所以，是不恰当的。

10. The statement is false. If a security has a negative beta, investors would want to hold the asset to reduce the variability of their portfolios. Those assets will have expected returns that are lower than the risk-free rate. To see this, examine the Capital Asset Pricing Model:E(R s ) = R f + S [E(R M ) —Rf ] If S < 0, the n the E(FR) < R f11. Total value = 95($53) + 120($29) = $8,515The portfolio weight for each stock is:WeightA = 95($53)/$8,515 = .5913 WeightB = 120($29)/$8,515 = .408712. Total value = $1,900 + 2,300 = $4,200so, the expected return of this portfolio is:E(R p ) = ($1,900/$4,200)(0.10) + ($2,300/$4,200)(0.15) = .1274 or 12.74%13. E(R p ) = .40(.11) + .35(.17) + .25(.14) = .1385 or 13.85%14. Here we are given the expected return of the portfolio and the expected return of each asset in the portfolio and are asked to find the weight of each asset. We can use the equation for the expected return of a portfolio to solve this problem. since the total weight of a portfolio must equal 1 (100%), the weight of stock Y must be one minus the weight of stock X. Mathematically speaking, this means: E(R p ) = .129 = .16w X + .10(1 —w X) We can now solve this equation for the weight of stock X as: .129 = .16w X + .10 —.10w X w X= 0.4833 so, the dollar amount invested in stock X is the weight of stock X times the total portfolio value, or: Investment in X = 0.4833($10,000) = $4,833.33And the dollar amount invested in stock Y is:Investment in Y = (1 —0.4833)($10,000) = $5,166.6715. E(R) = .2(—.09) + .5(.11) + .3(.23) = .1060 or 10.60%16. E(RA) = .15(.06) + .65(.07) + .20(.11) = .0765 or 7.65%E(RB) = .15(-.2) + .65(.13) + .20(.33) = .1205 or 12.05%°F =.15(06 —.0765)2十・65(・07—.0765)2十20(11- .0765)2- ,00029=(.00029)M=,0171 or 1.71%aA-45(-2 - .1205)2 + .65(.13 - 4205)2 + .20(33 - 1205 02424二(.02124)1<2= J557 or 15.57%17.E(R A) = .10( -045) + .25 (.044) + .45(.12) + .20(.207) = .1019 or 10.19%方差=.10(-.045 -.1019) c2 + .25(.044 -.1019) 2 + .45(.12 -.1019) 2 + .20(.207 -.1019) c 2 = .00535标准差=(.00535)1/2 = .0732 or 7.32%18.E(R P) = .15(.08) + .65(.15) + .20(.24) = .1575 or 15.75%If we own this portfolio, we would expect to get a retur n of 15.75 perce nt.19. a.Boom: E(R p) = (.07 + .15 + .33)/3 = .1833 or 18.33%Bust: E(R P) = (.13 + .03 .06)/3 = .0333 or 3.33%E(Rp) = .80(.1833) + .20(.0333) = .1533 or 15.33%b.Boom: E(R P)=.20(.07) +.20(.15) + .60(.33) =.2420 or 24.20%Bust: E(R P) =.20(.1 3) +.20(.03) + .60( .06) = .0040 or -0.40%E(R P) = .80(.2420) + .20(.004) = .1928 or 19.28%P的方差=.80(.2420 -.1928) c2 .0040 -928) c2 = .0096820. a. Boom: E(R p) = .30(.3) + .40(.45) + .30(.33) = .3690 or 36.90%Good: E(R p) = .30(.12) + .40(.10) + .30(.15) = .1210 or 12.10%Poor: E(RP) = .30(.01) + .40( -.15) + .30( -.05)=二0720 or 720%Bust: E(RP) = .30(二06) + .40(二30) + .30( =09)=二1650 or -16.50%E(RP) = .20(.3690) + .35(.1210) + .30( -.0720) + .15( -.1650) = .0698 or 6.98%b. cc2 = .20(.3690 -.0698) c2 + .35(.1210 -.0698) c2 + .30(=0720 -.0698) c2+ .15(-.1650 - .0698) c 2 = .03312p的标准差=(.03312) c 1/2 = .1820 or 18.20%21.卩=.25(.75) + .20(1.90) + .15(1.38) + .40(1.16) = 1.2422.卩P = 1.0 = 1/3(0) + 1/3(1.85) + 1/3(3 x) 卩x = 1.1523.E(R i) = R f + [E(R M) -R f| 心iE(R i) = .05 + (.12 -.05)(1.25) = .1375 or 13.75%24.We are give n the values for the CAPM except for the substitute these values into the CAPM, and solve for thewe need to realize is that we are given the market risk premium. The market risk premium is the expected return of the market mi nus the risk-free rate. We must be careful not to use this value as the expected return of the market. Using the CAPM, we find:E(R i) = .142 = .04 + .07 3 i贝V 3 i = 1.4625.E(R i) = .105 = .055 + [E(R M) - .055](.73) 贝V E(R M) = .1235 or 12.35%26.E(R i) = .162 = R f + (.11 - R f)(1.75).162 = R f + .1925 T.75R f 则R f = .0407 or 4.07%27. a. E(R P) = (.103 + .05)/2 = .0765 or 7.65%b.We need to find the portfolio weights that result in a portfolio with athe 贝塔of the risk-free asset is zero. We also know the weight of the risk-free asset is one minus the weight of the stock since the portfolio weights must sum to one, or 100 perce nt. So:P P二0.50 二w s(.92)十(1 一w s)(0)0.50 = *92w s+ 0 - 0w sw s= 050/.92ws = 5435A IK L the weiglit of the risk-free asset is:WRf = 1 - .5435 = .4565c.We need to find the portfolio weights that result in a portfolio with an expected return of 9 perce nt. We also know the weight of the risk-free asset is one minus the weight of the stock since the portfolio weights must sum to one, or 100 perce nt. So:E(R p) = .09= .103 w s+ .05(1-w s).09 = J03ws + .05 - ,05w$Ws = .7547So. The p of the pon folio will be:p p二.7547(.92) + (1 - .7547)(0)二0.694d.Solv ing for the a, we find:L84 = w s(.92) + (1 - Ws)(0)w s= L84.\92 = 2w Rf= 1 - 2 = —1The portfolio is invested 200u o in tbe stock and -100% in the risk-&ec ossein This icpreseuts boiiowuig at tlie liisk-fiee mie to buy more of Cie stock,18. ?P = W W(1.3) + (1 -W W)(0) = 1.3W WSo, to find the 卩of the portfolio for any weight of the stock, we simply multiply the weight of the stock times its 卩.Eve n though we are solv ing for therisk-free asset for different portfolio weights, we are really solving for the SML. Any comb in ati on of this stock and the risk-free asset will fall on the SML. For that matter, a portfolio of any stock and the risk-free asset, or any portfolio of stocks, will fall on the SML. We know the slope of the SML line is the market risk premium, so using the CAPM and the in formati on concerning this stock, the market risk premium is:E(R W) = .138 = .05 + MRP(1.30)MRP = .088/1.3 = .0677 or 6.77%So, now we know the CAPM equation for any stock is:E(R P) = .05 + .0677*贝塔P29.E(R Y) = .055 + .068(1.35) = .1468 or 14.68%E(R Z) = .055 + .068(0.85) = .1128 or 11.28%Reward-to-risk ratio Y = (.14 -.055) / 1.35 = .0630Reward-to-risk ratio Z = (.115 -.055) / .85 = .070630.(.14 -R f)/1.35 = (.115 -R f)/0.85We can cross multiply to get: 0.85(.14 -R f) = 1.35(.115 -R1)Solving for the risk-free rate, we find:0.119 -0.85R f = 0.15525 T.35R f R f = .0725 or 7.25%31.31.[E(R A) -R f]/ A = [E(R B) -R"? BRP A/ 3 A = RP B/卩 B 3 B/ 3 A = RP B/RP A32.Boom: E(R P) = .4(.20) + .4(.35) + .2(.60) = .3400 or 34.00%Normal: E(R p) = .4(.15) + .4(.12) + .2(.05) = .1180 or 11.80%Bust: E(R p) = .4(.01) + .4( -.25) + .2( -.50) = -1960 or -19.60%E(R P) = .35(.34) + .40(.118) + .25( -.196) = .1172 or 11.72%二p-2= .35(.34 -.1172)2 + .40(.118 -.1172)2 + .25( -.196 -.1172)2 = .04190匚p = (.04190)1/2 = .2047 or 20.47%b. RP i = E(R p) -R f = .1172 -.038 = .0792 or 7.92%c- Approximate expected real return = .1172 -.035 = .0822 or 8.22%1 + E(R i) = (1 + h)[1 + e(r i)]1.1172 = (1.0350)[1 + e(r i)]e(r i) = (1.1172/1.035) -1 = .0794 or 7.94%Approximate expected real risk premium = .0792 -.035 = .0442 or 4.42%Exact expected real risk premium = (1.0792/1.035) -1 = .0427 or 4.27%33.W A = $180,000 / $1,000,000 = .18 W B = $290,000/$1,000,000 = .293 p = 1.0 = w A(.75) + W B(1.30) + W c(1.45) + W Rf(0) W C = .33655172In vest in Stock C = .33655172($1,000,000) = $336,551.721 = W A + W B + w c + W Rf 1 = .18 + .29 + .33655172 + w Rf W Rf = .19344828In vest in risk-free asset = .19344828($1,000,000) = $193,448.2834.E(R p) = .1070 = W X(.172) + W Y(.0875) + (1 -W x -W Y)(.055)卩p = .8 = W x(1.8) + W Y(0.50) + (1 —W x —W Y)(O)W = -0.11111 W Y = 2.00000 W Rf = -0.88889Investment in stock X = -0.11111($100,000) = -$11,111.1135.E(R A) = .33(.082) + .33(.095) + .33(.063) = .0800 or 8.00%E(R B) = .33( -065) + .33(.124) + .33(.185) = .0813 or 8.13%股票 A :方差=.33(.082 -.0800) 2 + .33(.095 -.0800) 2 + .33(.063 -.0800) 2 = .00017标准差=(.00017) - 1/2 = .0131 or 1.31%股票 B :方差=.33( -.065 -.0813) - 2 + .33(.124 -.0813) - 2 + .33(.185 -.0813) - 2 = .01133 标准差=(.01133)1/2 = .1064 or 1064%Cov(A,B) = .33(.092 -.0800)(-.065 -.0813) + .33(.095 -.0800)(.124 -.0813) + .33(.063-.0800)(.185 -.0813) = -.000472:-A,B = Cov(A,B) / (标准差A标准差B)= -.000472 / (.0131)(.1064) = -337336.E(R A) = .30( -020) + .50(.138) + .20(.218) = .1066 or 10.66%E(R B) = .30(.034) + .50(.062) + .20(.092) = .0596 or 5.96%Z的方差=.30(-.020 -.1066) - 2 + .50(.138 -.1066) —+ .20(.218 -.1066) -2 = .00778 2A 的标准差=(.00778) - 1/2 = .0882 or 8.82%B的方差=.30(.034 -.0596) - 2 + .50(.062 -.0596) - 2 + .20(.092 -.0596 - 2 = .00041B 的标准差=(.00041) - 1/2 = .0202 or 2.02%Cov(A,B) = .30( -020 -.1066)(.034 -.0596) + .50(.138 -.1066)(.062 -.0596)+ .20(.218 -.1066)(.092 - .0596) = .001732：?A,B = Cov(A,B) / A的标准差*B的标准差=.001732 / (.0882)(.0202) = .970137. a. E(R P) = W F E(R F) + W G E(R G)E(R P) = .30(.10) + .70(.17) = .1490 or 14.90%b. The varia nee of a portfolio of two assets can be expressed as:b；+ w 討］+ 2 W F W G C F a G p F,Gaj = .30-^26')+ .702C582) + 2(.30)(.70)(.26)(.58)(.25) = .18675标准差=(.18675) —1/2 = .4322 or 43.22%38. a. The expected return of the portfolio is the sum of the weight of each asset times the expected retur n of each asset, so:E(R P) = W A E(R A) + W B E(R B) = .45(.13) + .55(.19) = .1630 or 16.30%= w \ + W言 b 吉十2A cr B p A B<T|= .452C33^ ■+■十2(.45)055X38)062)(.50)心=.20383= ( 2O3S3)1/2 = .4515 or45.15%rrPI 2 2? i *b、Qp = ZWAWBOA^BpiBa? = ,452(.382)十_552(.622) + 2(.45)055X 38)(-62)(- 50) al = .08721cr = (.0&72L)i 亠2953 oi 29.53%c. As Stock A and Stock B become less correlated, or more n egatively correlated, the sta ndard deviati on of the portfolio decreases.40.(i) Wy vim t lie cqikiition to etileuliitf Hn<l 1P A =C PA.M X^A)# bM0 85 = 甩jvtXa.27) / 0.20PA.M —O-<>3<ii) TJsin^: flic etpuition to calculate fiiK.1:壯曰=CpH bg1 .50 = (.5OX<^B)/ 0 .20KTD = 0.60(iii> I_7sinii I I LC cqiuiLion to calcuktic bcTa. wc lincl:Wu =〔尸<7 hi"<■>■「)/ bwpc = C.55X-7O)「0,20pc - 1 2?(iv)The market has a correlati on of 1 with itself.(v)The beta of the market is 1.(vi)The risk-free asset has zero sta ndard deviati on.(vii)T he risk-free asset has zero correlati on with the market portfolio.(viii) The beta of the risk-free asset is 0.b. Firm A: E(R A) = R f + 卩A[E(R M) -R f]E(R A) = 0.05 + 0.85(0.12 -0.05) = .1095 or 10.95%Firm B: E(R B) = R f + 卩B[E(R M) -R f]E(R B) = 0.05 + 1.5(0.12 -0.05) = .1550 or 15.50%Firm C: E(R C) = R f + 卩C[E(R M) -R f]E(R c)= 0.05 + 1.23(0.12 -0.05) = .1358 or 13.58%According to the CAPM, the expected return on Firm C ‘ s stock should be 13.58 percent. However, the expected return on Firm C ‘s stock given in the table is 17 perc e nt. Therefor Firm C ‘ s stock is underpriced, and you should buy it.43. First, we need to find the standard deviation of the market and the portfolio, which are:c 1/2 = .2071 or 20.71%M的标准差=(.0429)Z的标准差=(.1783) c 1/2 = .4223 or 42.23%Now we can use the equation for beta to find the beta of the portfolio, which is:卩Z=(相关系数乙M)*(标准差Z /标准差M = (.39)(.4223) / .2071 = .80Now, we can use the CAPM to find the expected return of the portfolio, which is:E(R Z) = R f + 卩Z[E(R M)-R f = .048 + .80(.114 -.048) = .1005 or 10.05%。

第十一章课后习题参考答案1．国际公司对外直接投资通常有哪些方式？它们的区别是什么？国际公司对外直接投资的方式主要有绿地投资、跨国并购、BOT、国际租赁、国际工程承包、许可证经营与特许经营、合同管理、国际创业投资等。

绿地投资指国际公司在东道国境内依法独资或合资创建新企业，是非常传统的一种对外直接投资方式，是国际公司早期对外直接投资的主要方式；而跨国并购指国际公司通过一定的程序和渠道依法取得东道国企业的部分或全部所有权，从而获得对东道国企业有效控股权的行为。

2.对外直接投资的基本性质有哪些？与其他形式的国际资本流动存在怎样的区别？国际公司的对外直接投资首先是被看作国际资本流动的一种方式，一个国家对外直接投资和吸收外国直接投资的规模，都影响该国的国际收支状况，包括美国在内的一些发达国家，都曾经对资本流出采取过限制甚至禁止的措施。

而改革开放以来，中国外汇储备的增长明显地得益于中国吸收外国直接投资政策的成功。

与其它形式的国际资本流动不同的是，在对外直接投资中，投资者在一定程度上控制被投资企业，总是伴随着技术和管理的移动。

如果投资者不具有对被投资企业一定程度上的控制，则对外直接投资和国际证券投资就不存在区别。

正是因为对外直接投资具有对被投资企业控制的特点，在很多情况下就具有政治色彩。

这一方面是因为各国之间的法律的冲突，另一方面由于外国直接投资吸收国与国际公司之间有时存在着利益冲突。

3．发达国家国际公司对外直接投资理论有哪些？发达国家国际公司对外直接投资理论主要包括垄断优势理论、产品生命周期理论、内部化理论、比较优势理论以及国际生产折衷理论。

（1）垄断优势理论认为国内外市场的不完全性使国际公司具有垄断优势，能排斥东道国企业的竞争，获取高额垄断利润，这是国际公司对外直接投资的动机所在；（2）产品生命周期理论认为，产品处于不同的生命周期阶段，厂商的垄断优势不同，对外直接投资的动机与战略也不相同；（3）内部化理论认为，国际公司是市场内部化的产物，由于中间产品市场的不完全性以及外部市场交易成本的上升，企业利润下降，企业就可能用内部市场代替外部市场，而这内部化过程超越国界时就产生了国际公司；（4）比较优势理论认为，只要具有比较优势或寻求比较优势的国际公司都可以进行国际投资活动；（5）国际生产折衷理论又称为国际生产综合理论，一个国际公司要从事对外直接投资必须同时具有三个优势，即所有权优势、内部化优势和区位优势。

Chapter 11Financial Risk ManagementDiscussion Questions1.Enterprise risk management assesses individual risks in the context of a firm’s business strategy. Risksare viewed from a portfolio perspective with risks of various business functions, e.g., FX risk, interest rate risk, political risk and the like, being coordinated by a senior financial manager responsible for keeping top management apprised of critical risks that could interfere with the accomplishment of a firm’sstrategic objectives and devising risk optimization strategies. The variables that management accountants must track include factors both external and internal to the firm and varies from company to company.2.Market risk refers to the risk of loss due to unexpected changes in the prices of currencies, interest rates,commodities, and equities. It is not confined to price changes. Market risk also includes liquidity risk, market discontinuities, credit risk, regulatory risk, tax risk, and accounting risk. An example of a foreign exchange risk is a situation where an exporter invoices a credit sale to a foreign importer in foreign currency and foreign currency devalues prior to payment.3.An FX risk management program includes the following processes:a.Forecasting the expected movement in the relation between the yuan and your domesticcurrency.b.Measuring on a periodic basis your firm’s exposure to fluctuations in the value of the yuan.c.Designing protection strategies that will minimize losses should the yuan revalue.d.Establishing internal controls to measure your performance in hedging the risk of loss fromchanges in the value of the yuan.4.Translation exposure measures the impact of exchange rate changes on the domestic currency equivalentsof a firm s foreign currency assets and liabilities. It is primarily concerned with currency restatement.Transaction exposure measures the cash flow impact of fluctuating currency values on the settlement of commercial transactions denominated in foreign currencies. Transaction exposure is concerned with acurrency conversion (exchange) process. Economic exposure attempts to measure the impact of changing exchange rates on the future revenues, costs, and sales volume of a multinational entity. It is concerned with the temporal effects of exchange rate changes.Although FAS No. 52 attempts to mitigate concern with translation gains and losses (accounting exposure), it does not totally eliminate it. Companies choosing the U.S. dollar as their functional currency will still use the temporal translation method and report translation gains and losses in period income. Companies designating the local currency as the functional currency will find their asset exposures increased as inventories and fixed assets are translated using current exchange rates. While such translation gains and losses bypass income, the adverse effects of currency fluctuations on a company’s consolidated equity will still exist. This is especially likely where loan covenant and other contractual provisions specify minimum debt-to-equity ratios. This suggests that the issue of accounting versus economic exposure is far from settled.5.The chapter lists 10 specific methods to reduce a firm’s exposure to foreign exchange risk in adevaluation-prone country. These techniques, and possible cost-benefit trade-offs, are summarized in the following table.Methods Trade-Offsa. Minimize cash balances in a. Reduced exposure versusdevaluation-prone country higher business andfinancial risk due to possible "cash-outs."b. Remitting excess cash back b. Same as item a.to the parent company.c. Accelerate the collection c. Reduced exposure versusof local currency receivables possible reduction in salesd. Defer payment of local d. Reduced exposure versuscurrency payables impaired local credit ratinge. Speed up payment of e. Reduced exposure versusforeign currency payables foregone earnings on arelatively cheap creditsourcef. Invest local currency cash f. Reduced exposure versusbalances in inventories and higher transaction costsother assets less prone to and possible mis-devaluation loss allocation of corporateresourcesg. Invest in strong currency g. Reduced exposure versusforeign assets higher transaction costsand possible governmentinterference (e.g.exchange controls)h. Raise selling prices h. Reduced exposure versuspotential erosion ofmarket sharei. Invoice exports in hard i. Reduced exposure versuscurrencies possible reduction insales abroadj. Currency swaps j. Reduced translationexposure versus increasedtransaction exposure ifparent assesses theexposed affiliate aninterest charge in hardcurrency6. A multicurrency transactions exposure report differs from a multicurrency translation exposure report in anumber of ways. First, the transactions exposure report has a cash flow orientation instead of a static balance sheet orientation. It includes off balance sheet items that are executory in nature. Finally, a multicurrency transaction exposure report has a local currency orientation, whereas a multicurrency translation exposure report has a parent currency orientation.7.Derivative instruments are formal agreements that transfer financial risk from one party to another. Thevalue of a derivative is derived from its reference to a basic underlying instrument or variable such as a foreign currency receivable or a quantum of foreign exchange. Thus the value of a forward exchange contract is related to the change in the foreign exchange rate times the notional amount being hedged. An important accounting issue is whether derivatives should receive the same accounting treatment as the basic instruments to which they relate. Specifically, should a derivative instrument hedging a foreign currency asset appear in the financial statements as a foreign currency liability? If so, should its valuation base be identical to basic instruments? Do cash flows associated with derivative instruments have thesame economic meaning as those associated with basic instruments? How should gains and losses associated with derivative instruments be reflected in the income statement? Can and should risks attaching to these financial instruments be recognized and measured?8.Student responses should proceed along the following lines. Pele Corporation, a Brazilian firm, hasborrowed a certain sum of British pounds at 9 percent and is worried that the pound will appreciate relative to the real prior to maturity. To hedge this currency risk, it arranges with a bank to swap the pounds borrowed for an equivalent amount of reals for 3 years bearing the same rate of interest. During the 3-year period, it will make periodic interest payments to the bank in reals, and in return, receive periodic interest payments in pounds. At the end of the 3-year period, it will re-exchange the real principal for pounds at the original exchange rate.9. A futures contract is a commitment to purchase or deliver a specified quantity of a financial instrument orforeign currency at a future date at a price set when the contract is made. It differs from a forward contract in several respects. A futures contract is standardized in terms of size and delivery date whereas a forward contract is tailored to a customer’s needs. Futures contracts are freely traded on organized exchanges. In contrast, there is no secondary market for forward contracts as they are private agreements between two parties. Futures contracts are carried at market values with gains or losses taken immediately to income, whereas profits on a forward contract are realized only at the delivery date. Finally, a party to a futures contract must meet periodic margin requirements. In a forward contract, margins are set once, on the date of the initial transaction.10.Fair value hedges are hedges of a firm’s foreign currency assets and liabilities and firm foreign currencycommitments. Cash flow hedges are hedges of forecasted transactions such as a future sale or purchase.Net investment hedges are hedges of an exposed balance sheet asset or liability position. For qualifying fair value hedges, all changes in the fair value of the derivative and the underlying item that is being hedged are recognized in earnings. For qualifying cash flow hedges, the change in the fair value of the derivative is recognized in Other Comprehensive Income and recognized in earnings when the hedged cash flows affect earnings. For qualifying hedges of a net investment, changes in the fair value of the derivative are recorded in comprehensive income11.In theory, the term highly effective means that gains or losses on hedging instruments should be shouldexactly offset gains or losses on the item being hedged. In practice, it means that gains or losses on the derivative substantially offset the changes in the value or cash flow of the hedged item. Measurement of this attribute is important. If a hedging instrument does not meet the highly effective test, the hedge is terminated and deferred gains or losses on the derivative are recognized immediately in current earnings.This, in turn, introduces volatility into a firm’s reported earnings.12.The notion of an opportunity cost refers to the return associated with your next best opportunity. In thearea of FX risk management, it entails comparing a given risk management strategy with an appropriate standard of comparison. This provides an objective means of assessing the effectiveness of a given risk reduction program. For example, when FX risk management programs are centralized at corporate headquarters, appropriate benchmarks against which to compare the success of corporate risk protection would be programs that local managers could have implemented on their own.Exercises1.Students usually gloss over diagrams without thinking them through. This exercise forces them to thinkthrough each step of the diagram and allows them to better internalize the risk management cycle.Responses might follow the following pattern: Step 1 involves operationalizing a firms strategies intoquantifiable objectives and then identifying developments both external and internal risks that could affect the achievement of these objectives. These risks are measured by the firm’s accountants and quantified in terms of their potential impact on the firm. For example, the firm may have as its strategic objective an increase of 5% of market share in a given country per year given assumptions about the rate of economic growth in that country. The chance that this growth rate may fall short of 5% and the impact of this shortfall for projected sales in that country would be quantified. Response formulation would involve identifying protection strategies to minimize the hit to sales of projected GNP shortfalls such as promotion campaigns to maintain sales or use of alternative sourcing venues to lower sales prices. This strategy would be implemented if projected GNP started to slow beyond a certain cutoff point. The impact of this protection strategy would then be quantified in terms of actual sales relative to forecast sales taking into account the costs of protection. The information contained in risk management performance reports would then be communicated to top management who would be in a position to reaffirm or alter strategic objectives and/or risk identification processes.2.Foreign exchange risk a devaluation of the foreign currency in which an account receivable wasdenominated would cause the domestic currency cash flows to decrease. This would cause current assets to decrease. Alternatively, a revaluation of the foreign currency would cause the account receivable and current assets to increase. Interest rate risk an increase in market rates of interest would cause the price ofa short-term fixed-rate debt instrument being held as a marketable security to decrease. This, in turn,would cause current assets to decrease. A decrease in interest rates would have the opposite effect.Commodity price risk an increase in the price of copper would cause the cost of copper purchases and the resultant unexpired cost of inventories in the current asset section of the balance sheet to increase. A fall in copper prices would have the opposite effect. Equity price risk a fall in stock prices would depress the carrying value of marketable securities (current assets), and conversely.3.The purpose of this exercise is to force students to look at managerial accounting issues from the user’sperspective. Students may suggest additional information sources with respect to inflation differentials, balance of trade and balance of payments statistics, international monetary reserves, forward exchange quotations, the behavior of related currencies, and interest rate differentials. We recommend that this exercise be assigned to small groups to encourage teamwork. At the time this exercise was prepared, professional forecasters were predicting a rate of 10.5 ecrus to theU.S. dollar.Some groups may contend that exchange markets are efficient and that exchange rate changes are simply random events. Again, they must be prepared to convince management of their case, or at a minimum, identify the consequences of not attempting exchange rate forecasts.4.Current rate Current/Noncurrent Monetary/nonmonetaryExposed assets(PHP):Cash500,000500,000500,000Accounts receivable 1,000,000 1,000,000 1,000,000Inventories(LCM) 900,000 900,000Fixed assets 1,100,000 -- --Total 3,500,000 2,400,000 1,500,000 Exposed liabilities:Short-term payables 400,000 400,000 400,000Long-term debt 800,000 --- 800,000Total 1,200,000 400,000 1,200,000Positive/(negative) exposure 2,300,000 2,000,000 300,000 Positive exposure X $0.03 $69,000 $60,000 $9,000Positive exposure X $0.02 46,000 40,000 6,000 FX gain/(loss) $(23,000)$(20,000) $(3,000)5.ILS $ £ $ EquivalentExposed Assets:Cash & due from banks 100,000 50,000 (40,000) 20,000Loans 200,000 ---- ---- 100,000Fixed assets ---- 30,000 ---- 30,000Exposed Liabilities:Deposits 40,000 ---- 15,000 50,000Owners equity ----100,000 ----100,000Net exposed assets 260,000 (20,000) (55,000) NIL(liabilities)ILS $ £ $ EquivalentExposed Assets:Cash & due from banks 100,000 50,000 (40,000) 20,000Loans 200,000 ---- ---- 100,000Fixed assets ---- 30,000 ---- 30,000Exposed Liabilities:Deposits 40,000 ---- 15,000 50,000Owners equity ----100,000 ----100,000Net exposed assets 260,000 (20,000) (55,000) NIL(liabilities)6.Trial Balance BeforeILS $ £ $ EquivalentCash & due from banks 100,000 50,000 (40,000) 20,000Loans 200,000 ---- ---- 100,000Fixed assets ---- 30,000 ---- 30,000Deposits 40,000 ---- 15,000 50,000 Owners equity ----100,000 ----100,000Trial Balance After(£/$/ILS = 1/2/8)ILS $ £ $ EquivalentCash & due from banks 100,000 50,000 (40,000) (5,000)Loans 200,000 ---- ---- 50,000Fixed assets ---- 30,000 ---- 30,000Deposits 40,000 ---- 15,000 40,000 Owners equity ----100,000 ---- 100,000Translation loss $(65,000)7. One recommendation might be to reduce positive exposures by engaging in balance sheet hedging, that is, by remitting excess cash back to the corporate parent, reducing the affiliate bank’s outstanding loans, or increasing its deposits in Israeli shekels.. The trade-offs here are potentially negative effects on operations, such as not satisfying loan demand against hedging translation gains and losses. Another option is to increase the pricing of bank services in Israel to provide a profit margin that can offset any FX losses. Again, the effects of such actions on competitive positioning could far exceed the benefits of hedging. A third option is to buy a forward or currency swap to hedge the exposure. Trade-offs include the out-of-pocket cost of the exchange contract versus the reported losses avoided.1.If the U.S. dollar is the functional currency, the translation gain upon consolidation is aggregated with thetransaction loss on the foreign currency borrowing and disclosed as one line item in the consolidated income statement. This figure is determined as follows:Translation gain = Positive exposure X change in exchange rate= NZD3,000,000 x $.10= $300,000Transaction loss =NZD loan balance X change in exchange rate= NZD1,000,000 x $.10= $ (100,000)Aggregate exchange adjustment = $300,000 + $ (100,000)= $200,000If the New Zealand dollar is the functional currency, the translation gain upon consolidation bypasses income and appears as a separate component in consolidated equity. It is offset by the translation loss on the New Zealand dollar borrowing.9.4/1CD (¥32,500,000 ÷ ¥120)$250,000Cash$250,000(Purchase of CD)Chips (¥32,500,000 ÷ ¥120)$270,833Cash (¥3,250,000 ÷ ¥120)$ 27,083A/P (¥29,250,000 ÷ ¥120) 243,750(To record credit purchase)7/1 CD (¥30,000,000 ÷ [¥120 - ¥110])$ 22,727FX gain$ 22,727(To record gain on CD investment)Purchases (¥29,250,000 ÷ [¥120 - ¥110]) 22,159Accts. Payable 22,159(To record increase in purchases and related liability accounts owing to yen appreciation) 7/1 Cash (¥30,000,000 ÷ ¥110)$278,182Interest income (¥30,000,000 X .08 X ¼) ÷ ¥110]$ 5,455CD272,727(To record maturation of CD)Interest expense [(¥29,250,000 x.08 x 3/12) ÷ ¥110) 5,318Accts. payable (¥29,250,000 ÷ ¥110) 265,909Cash 271,227(To record settlement of purchase transaction)10. Journal entries:6/1 CHF Contract receivable $133,333Deferred premium 3,334$ Contract payable $136,667(To record contract with the foreign currency dealer to exchange $136,667 for CHF 166,667)6/30 CHF Contract receivable 1,667Transaction gain 1,667(To record transaction gain from increased dollar equivalent of forward contract receivable; $.81 - $.80 x SWF 166,667)6/30 Premium expense 1,111Deferred premium 1,111(To amortize deferred premium for 1 month)9/1 SWCHF Contract receivable 3,333Transaction gain 3,333(To record additional transaction gain by adjusting forward contract to the new current rate; $.83 - $.81 x CHF 166,667)9/1 Premium expense 2,223Deferred premium 2,223(Amortization of deferred premium balance)9/1 $ Contract payable 136,667Cash 136,667 Foreign currency 138,333CHF Contract receivable 138,333(To record delivery of $136,667 to foreign currency dealer in exchange for CHF166,667 with a dollar equivalent of $138,334 (=CHF166,667 x $.83). The Swiss francs will, in turn be used to pay for the chocolate supplies).11. Calculations:If the premium on the forward contract is considered an operating expense, and the conditions for hedge treatment are met, i.e., management designates the forward contract as a hedge, documents its risk management objective and strategy, identifies the hedging instrument, the item being hedged and the risk exposure, and that the forward is effective both prospectively and retrospectively in hedging the risk, the gain on the forward can be offset against the loss on the payable as follows:Amount paid to settle the account payable on the purchase $138,333Less Transaction gain on forward contract (5,000)Cost of purchase $133,333The $133,000 is what was originally anticipated, CHF166.667 X $0.80 = $133,333.12. Journal entries:The call option is intended to hedge an uncertain cash flow. Accordingly, gains or losses on the hedging instrument would bedisclosed in comprehensive income and reclassified into earnings in the period the sale actually takes place.June 1 Premium expense $28,125Cash $28,125($.018 X CHF 62,500 X 25)August 31 Cash $40,625Comprehensive income $40,625[($.416 - $.39) X CHF 62,500 X 25]Case 11-1Exposure Identification1. Infosys appears to have several exposures as enumerated below.Foreign Exchange RiskPage Value-Drivers88Revenues/Selling and administrative expenses89Cash flows from interest/dividend income96Revenue recognition/LT leases97Operating income/foreign currency transactions/FA98Marketing/Overseas staff expenses99Derivative values100Lease obligations101Investment returns102Segment revenues/expenses103Dividends to ADS holders142Penalties on export obligations149Valuing intangibles150Export revenuesCommodity Price RiskPage Value-Drivers98Power and fuel expenses145Brand valuation147/48Current cost disclosures149Value of intangiblesEquity Price RiskPage Value Drivers87Share capital98Diluted eps100Stock option compensation expense103Convertible preferreds145Cost of capital151Economic value-addedInterest Rate RiskPage Value Drivers88Interest expense89Cash flows from security investments/interest income97Gratuity/Superannuation/Provident obligations143Employee compensation145Cost of capital149Value of intangibles.151Economic value-addedInformation on the company’s risk management policies are contained on pages 108-109 of their annual report which were not reproduced in Chapter 1. We include the relevant information here. Infosys derives its revenues from 51 countries of which 78 percent were denominated in US dollars. To minimize both transaction and translation risk the company:1.Tries to match expenses in local currency with receipts in the same currency.es forward exchange contracts to cover apportion of outstanding receivables.3.Denominates contracts in non-US and non-EU regions in internationally tradable currencies to minimizeexposures to local currencies that may have non-tradability risks.Case 11-2Value At Risk: What Are Our Options?Students should be asked to play the role of the consultant, and will find it to be a contentious issue. Suggested remedies that have merit are:1. The FASB should permit deferral accounting for rolling options which would take the derivative gain or loss on each option to equity until the anticipated event occurs, as opposed to taking it immediately to income. This, however, might encourage companies to game the system, so students should also suggest ways to keep this from happening.2. Another tack would be to adhere to generally accepted accounting principles and record the gain or loss on the derivative in current income as it is marked to market, but to disclose which transactions were undertaken for hedge purposes. Management could also game the system here as speculative activities could be disclosed as hedge activities.3. Another option that students might suggest is to revert back to the earlier U.S. practice of keeping the option off balance sheet and providing supplementary disclosure of mark-to-market accounting. This might be confusing to lay readers, but it would enable analysts to better understand the components of reported earnings.It is clear from the annual report clipping that management will ignore accounting pronouncements when it is in their interest to do so. Analysts must be alert to situations where management departs from GAAP to better reflect the economics of what transpired as opposed to doing so to manage earnings.11。

第一章导论2.会计可以被看做是包括三个部分：计量、披露和审计。

这种分类的优点和缺点是什么？你能提出其他有效的分类吗？Advantage: Some might argue that measurement, disclosure, and external auditing are three distinct （although related） processes, involving different members of the company. For example, coi-porate attorneys often are involved in disclosure issues, but seldom intervene in measurement ssues. The Board of Directors works with the external auditors but not necessarily with the comptroller s office. Thus, discussion of accounting requirements and voluntary accounting choices in different jurisdictions is simplified by focusing on the three components of accounting. Disadvantage: measurement, disclosure and auditing are interdependent, and should not be viewed in isolation of one another. A company choosing to disclose as little as possible, for example, may use accounting measurement approaches that reduce the information content of financial statements, and select an external auditor who will be relatively lenient in enforcing accounting requirements. One alternative classification might include accounting （measurement and disclosure）, and auditing. A second classification might include financial reporting （annual and interim reporting, regulatory filings）and ad hoc disclosure （press releases, analyst meetings, etc）. Any classification is arbitrary, and potentially useful depending on its purpose.优势：一些人可能认为测量，披露和外部审计是三个不同的（虽然相关）流程，涉及公司的不同成员。

CH5 11，13，18，19，2011.To find the PV of a lump sum, we use:PV = FV / (1 + r)tPV = $1,000,000 / (1.10)80 = $488.1913.To answer this question, we can use either the FV or the PV formula. Both will give the sameanswer since they are the inverse of each other. We will use the FV formula, that is:FV = PV(1 + r)tSolving for r, we get:r = (FV / PV)1 / t– 1r = ($1,260,000 / $150)1/112– 1 = .0840 or 8.40%To find the FV of the first prize, we use:FV = PV(1 + r)tFV = $1,260,000(1.0840)33 = $18,056,409.9418.To find the FV of a lump sum, we use:FV = PV(1 + r)tFV = $4,000(1.11)45 = $438,120.97FV = $4,000(1.11)35 = $154,299.40Better start early!19. We need to find the FV of a lump sum. However, the money will only be invested for six years,so the number of periods is six.FV = PV(1 + r)tFV = $20,000(1.084)6 = $32,449.3320.To answer this question, we can use either the FV or the PV formula. Both will give the sameanswer since they are the inverse of each other. We will use the FV formula, that is:FV = PV(1 + r)tSolving for t, we get:t = ln(FV / PV) / ln(1 + r)t = ln($75,000 / $10,000) / ln(1.11) = 19.31So, the money must be invested for 19.31 years. However, you will not receive the money for another two years. Fro m now, you’ll wait:2 years + 19.31 years = 21.31 yearsCH6 16，24，27，42，5816.For this problem, we simply need to find the FV of a lump sum using the equation:FV = PV(1 + r)tIt is important to note that compounding occurs semiannually. To account for this, we will divide the interest rate by two (the number of compounding periods in a year), and multiply the number of periods by two. Doing so, we get:FV = $2,100[1 + (.084/2)]34 = $8,505.9324.This problem requires us to find the FVA. The equation to find the FVA is:FVA = C{[(1 + r)t– 1] / r}FVA = $300[{[1 + (.10/12) ]360 – 1} / (.10/12)] = $678,146.3827.The cash flows are annual and the compounding period is quarterly, so we need to calculate theEAR to make the interest rate comparable with the timing of the cash flows. Using the equation for the EAR, we get:EAR = [1 + (APR / m)]m– 1EAR = [1 + (.11/4)]4– 1 = .1146 or 11.46%And now we use the EAR to find the PV of each cash flow as a lump sum and add them together: PV = $725 / 1.1146 + $980 / 1.11462 + $1,360 / 1.11464 = $2,320.3642.The amount of principal paid on the loan is the PV of the monthly payments you make. So, thepresent value of the $1,150 monthly payments is:PVA = $1,150[(1 – {1 / [1 + (.0635/12)]}360) / (.0635/12)] = $184,817.42The monthly payments of $1,150 will amount to a principal payment of $184,817.42. The amount of principal you will still owe is:$240,000 – 184,817.42 = $55,182.58This remaining principal amount will increase at the interest rate on the loan until the end of the loan period. So the balloon payment in 30 years, which is the FV of the remaining principal will be:Balloon payment = $55,182.58[1 + (.0635/12)]360 = $368,936.5458.To answer this question, we should find the PV of both options, and compare them. Since we arepurchasing the car, the lowest PV is the best option. The PV of the leasing is simply the PV of the lease payments, plus the $99. The interest rate we would use for the leasing option is thesame as the interest rate of the loan. The PV of leasing is:PV = $99 + $450{1 – [1 / (1 + .07/12)12(3)]} / (.07/12) = $14,672.91The PV of purchasing the car is the current price of the car minus the PV of the resale price. The PV of the resale price is:PV = $23,000 / [1 + (.07/12)]12(3) = $18,654.82The PV of the decision to purchase is:$32,000 – 18,654.82 = $13,345.18In this case, it is cheaper to buy the car than leasing it since the PV of the purchase cash flows is lower. To find the breakeven resale price, we need to find the resale price that makes the PV of the two options the same. In other words, the PV of the decision to buy should be:$32,000 – PV of resale price = $14,672.91PV of resale price = $17,327.09The resale price that would make the PV of the lease versus buy decision is the FV of this value, so:Breakeven resale price = $17,327.09[1 + (.07/12)]12(3) = $21,363.01CH7 3，18，21，22，313.The price of any bond is the PV of the interest payment, plus the PV of the par value. Notice thisproblem assumes an annual coupon. The price of the bond will be:P = $75({1 – [1/(1 + .0875)]10 } / .0875) + $1,000[1 / (1 + .0875)10] = $918.89We would like to introduce shorthand notation here. Rather than write (or type, as the case may be) the entire equation for the PV of a lump sum, or the PVA equation, it is common to abbreviate the equations as:PVIF R,t = 1 / (1 + r)twhich stands for Present Value Interest FactorPVIFA R,t= ({1 – [1/(1 + r)]t } / r )which stands for Present Value Interest Factor of an AnnuityThese abbreviations are short hand notation for the equations in which the interest rate and the number of periods are substituted into the equation and solved. We will use this shorthand notation in remainder of the solutions key.18.The bond price equation for this bond is:P0 = $1,068 = $46(PVIFA R%,18) + $1,000(PVIF R%,18)Using a spreadsheet, financial calculator, or trial and error we find:R = 4.06%This is the semiannual interest rate, so the YTM is:YTM = 2 4.06% = 8.12%The current yield is:Current yield = Annual coupon payment / Price = $92 / $1,068 = .0861 or 8.61%The effective annual yield is the same as the EAR, so using the EAR equation from the previous chapter:Effective annual yield = (1 + 0.0406)2– 1 = .0829 or 8.29%20. Accrued interest is the coupon payment for the period times the fraction of the period that haspassed since the last coupon payment. Since we have a semiannual coupon bond, the coupon payment per six months is one-half of the annual coupon payment. There are four months until the next coupon payment, so two months have passed since the last coupon payment. The accrued interest for the bond is:Accrued interest = $74/2 × 2/6 = $12.33And we calculate the clean price as:Clean price = Dirty price – Accrued interest = $968 – 12.33 = $955.6721. Accrued interest is the coupon payment for the period times the fraction of the period that haspassed since the last coupon payment. Since we have a semiannual coupon bond, the coupon payment per six months is one-half of the annual coupon payment. There are two months until the next coupon payment, so four months have passed since the last coupon payment. The accrued interest for the bond is:Accrued interest = $68/2 × 4/6 = $22.67And we calculate the dirty price as:Dirty price = Clean price + Accrued interest = $1,073 + 22.67 = $1,095.6722.To find the number of years to maturity for the bond, we need to find the price of the bond. Sincewe already have the coupon rate, we can use the bond price equation, and solve for the number of years to maturity. We are given the current yield of the bond, so we can calculate the price as: Current yield = .0755 = $80/P0P0 = $80/.0755 = $1,059.60Now that we have the price of the bond, the bond price equation is:P = $1,059.60 = $80[(1 – (1/1.072)t ) / .072 ] + $1,000/1.072tWe can solve this equation for t as follows:$1,059.60(1.072)t = $1,111.11(1.072)t– 1,111.11 + 1,000111.11 = 51.51(1.072)t2.1570 = 1.072tt = log 2.1570 / log 1.072 = 11.06 11 yearsThe bond has 11 years to maturity.31.The price of any bond (or financial instrument) is the PV of the future cash flows. Even thoughBond M makes different coupons payments, to find the price of the bond, we just find the PV of the cash flows. The PV of the cash flows for Bond M is:P M= $1,100(PVIFA3.5%,16)(PVIF3.5%,12) + $1,400(PVIFA3.5%,12)(PVIF3.5%,28) + $20,000(PVIF3.5%,40)P M= $19,018.78Notice that for the coupon payments of $1,400, we found the PVA for the coupon payments, and then discounted the lump sum back to today.Bond N is a zero coupon bond with a $20,000 par value, therefore, the price of the bond is the PV of the par, or:P N= $20,000(PVIF3.5%,40) = $5,051.45CH8 4，18，20，22，24ing the constant growth model, we find the price of the stock today is:P0 = D1 / (R– g) = $3.04 / (.11 – .038) = $42.2218.The price of a share of preferred stock is the dividend payment divided by the required return.We know the dividend payment in Year 20, so we can find the price of the stock in Year 19, one year before the first dividend payment. Doing so, we get:P19 = $20.00 / .064P19 = $312.50The price of the stock today is the PV of the stock price in the future, so the price today will be: P0 = $312.50 / (1.064)19P0 = $96.1520.We can use the two-stage dividend growth model for this problem, which is:P0 = [D0(1 + g1)/(R –g1)]{1 – [(1 + g1)/(1 + R)]T}+ [(1 + g1)/(1 + R)]T[D0(1 + g2)/(R –g2)]P0= [$1.25(1.28)/(.13 – .28)][1 – (1.28/1.13)8] + [(1.28)/(1.13)]8[$1.25(1.06)/(.13 – .06)]P0= $69.5522.We are asked to find the dividend yield and capital gains yield for each of the stocks. All of thestocks have a 15 percent required return, which is the sum of the dividend yield and the capital gains yield. To find the components of the total return, we need to find the stock price for each stock. Using this stock price and the dividend, we can calculate the dividend yield. The capital gains yield for the stock will be the total return (required return) minus the dividend yield.W: P0 = D0(1 + g) / (R–g) = $4.50(1.10)/(.19 – .10) = $55.00Dividend yield = D1/P0 = $4.50(1.10)/$55.00 = .09 or 9%Capital gains yield = .19 – .09 = .10 or 10%X: P0 = D0(1 + g) / (R–g) = $4.50/(.19 – 0) = $23.68Dividend yield = D1/P0 = $4.50/$23.68 = .19 or 19%Capital gains yield = .19 – .19 = 0%Y: P0 = D0(1 + g) / (R–g) = $4.50(1 – .05)/(.19 + .05) = $17.81Dividend yield = D1/P0 = $4.50(0.95)/$17.81 = .24 or 24%Capital gains yield = .19 – .24 = –.05 or –5%Z: P2 = D2(1 + g) / (R–g) = D0(1 + g1)2(1 + g2)/(R–g2) = $4.50(1.20)2(1.12)/(.19 – .12) = $103.68P0 = $4.50 (1.20) / (1.19) + $4.50 (1.20)2/ (1.19)2 + $103.68 / (1.19)2 = $82.33Dividend yield = D1/P0 = $4.50(1.20)/$82.33 = .066 or 6.6%Capital gains yield = .19 – .066 = .124 or 12.4%In all cases, the required return is 19%, but the return is distributed differently between current income and capital gains. High growth stocks have an appreciable capital gains component but a relatively small current income yield; conversely, mature, negative-growth stocks provide a high current income but also price depreciation over time.24.Here we have a stock with supernormal growth, but the dividend growth changes every year forthe first four years. We can find the price of the stock in Year 3 since the dividend growth rate is constant after the third dividend. The price of the stock in Year 3 will be the dividend in Year 4, divided by the required return minus the constant dividend growth rate. So, the price in Year 3 will be:P3 = $2.45(1.20)(1.15)(1.10)(1.05) / (.11 – .05) = $65.08The price of the stock today will be the PV of the first three dividends, plus the PV of the stock price in Year 3, so:P0 = $2.45(1.20)/(1.11) + $2.45(1.20)(1.15)/1.112 + $2.45(1.20)(1.15)(1.10)/1.113 + $65.08/1.113 P0 = $55.70CH9 3，4，6，9，153.Project A has cash flows of $19,000 in Year 1, so the cash flows are short by $21,000 ofrecapturing the initial investment, so the payback for Project A is:Payback = 1 + ($21,000 / $25,000) = 1.84 yearsProject B has cash flows of:Cash flows = $14,000 + 17,000 + 24,000 = $55,000during this first three years. The cash flows are still short by $5,000 of recapturing the initial investment, so the payback for Project B is:B: Payback = 3 + ($5,000 / $270,000) = 3.019 yearsUsing the payback criterion and a cutoff of 3 years, accept project A and reject project B.4.When we use discounted payback, we need to find the value of all cash flows today. The valuetoday of the project cash flows for the first four years is:Value today of Year 1 cash flow = $4,200/1.14 = $3,684.21Value today of Year 2 cash flow = $5,300/1.142 = $4,078.18Value today of Year 3 cash flow = $6,100/1.143 = $4,117.33Value today of Year 4 cash flow = $7,400/1.144 = $4,381.39To find the discounted payback, we use these values to find the payback period. The discounted first year cash flow is $3,684.21, so the discounted payback for a $7,000 initial cost is:Discounted payback = 1 + ($7,000 – 3,684.21)/$4,078.18 = 1.81 yearsFor an initial cost of $10,000, the discounted payback is:Discounted payback = 2 + ($10,000 – 3,684.21 – 4,078.18)/$4,117.33 = 2.54 yearsNotice the calculation of discounted payback. We know the payback period is between two and three years, so we subtract the discounted values of the Year 1 and Year 2 cash flows from the initial cost. This is the numerator, which is the discounted amount we still need to make to recover our initial investment. We divide this amount by the discounted amount we will earn in Year 3 to get the fractional portion of the discounted payback.If the initial cost is $13,000, the discounted payback is:Discounted payback = 3 + ($13,000 – 3,684.21 – 4,078.18 – 4,117.33) / $4,381.39 = 3.26 years6.Our definition of AAR is the average net income divided by the average book value. The averagenet income for this project is:Average net income = ($1,938,200 + 2,201,600 + 1,876,000 + 1,329,500) / 4 = $1,836,325And the average book value is:Average book value = ($15,000,000 + 0) / 2 = $7,500,000So, the AAR for this project is:AAR = Average net income / Average book value = $1,836,325 / $7,500,000 = .2448 or 24.48%9.The NPV of a project is the PV of the outflows minus the PV of the inflows. Since the cashinflows are an annuity, the equation for the NPV of this project at an 8 percent required return is: NPV = –$138,000 + $28,500(PVIFA8%, 9) = $40,036.31At an 8 percent required return, the NPV is positive, so we would accept the project.The equation for the NPV of the project at a 20 percent required return is:NPV = –$138,000 + $28,500(PVIFA20%, 9) = –$23,117.45At a 20 percent required return, the NPV is negative, so we would reject the project.We would be indifferent to the project if the required return was equal to the IRR of the project, since at that required return the NPV is zero. The IRR of the project is:0 = –$138,000 + $28,500(PVIFA IRR, 9)IRR = 14.59%15.The profitability index is defined as the PV of the cash inflows divided by the PV of the cashoutflows. The equation for the profitability index at a required return of 10 percent is:PI = [$7,300/1.1 + $6,900/1.12 + $5,700/1.13] / $14,000 = 1.187The equation for the profitability index at a required return of 15 percent is:PI = [$7,300/1.15 + $6,900/1.152 + $5,700/1.153] / $14,000 = 1.094The equation for the profitability index at a required return of 22 percent is:PI = [$7,300/1.22 + $6,900/1.222 + $5,700/1.223] / $14,000 = 0.983We would accept the project if the required return were 10 percent or 15 percent since the PI is greater than one. We would reject the project if the required return were 22 percent since the PI is less than one.CH10 9，13，14，17，18ing the tax shield approach to calculating OCF (Remember the approach is irrelevant; the finalanswer will be the same no matter which of the four methods you use.), we get:OCF = (Sales – Costs)(1 – t C) + t C DepreciationOCF = ($2,650,000 – 840,000)(1 – 0.35) + 0.35($3,900,000/3)OCF = $1,631,50013.First we will calculate the annual depreciation of the new equipment. It will be:Annual depreciation = $560,000/5Annual depreciation = $112,000Now, we calculate the aftertax salvage value. The aftertax salvage value is the market price minus (or plus) the taxes on the sale of the equipment, so:Aftertax salvage value = MV + (BV – MV)t cVery often the book value of the equipment is zero as it is in this case. If the book value is zero, the equation for the aftertax salvage value becomes:Aftertax salvage value = MV + (0 – MV)t cAftertax salvage value = MV(1 – t c)We will use this equation to find the aftertax salvage value since we know the book value is zero.So, the aftertax salvage value is:Aftertax salvage value = $85,000(1 – 0.34)Aftertax salvage value = $56,100Using the tax shield approach, we find the OCF for the project is:OCF = $165,000(1 – 0.34) + 0.34($112,000)OCF = $146,980Now we can find the project NPV. Notice we include the NWC in the initial cash outlay. The recovery of the NWC occurs in Year 5, along with the aftertax salvage value.NPV = –$560,000 – 29,000 + $146,980(PVIFA10%,5) + [($56,100 + 29,000) / 1.105]NPV = $21,010.2414.First we will calculate the annual depreciation of the new equipment. It will be:Annual depreciation charge = $720,000/5Annual depreciation charge = $144,000The aftertax salvage value of the equipment is:Aftertax salvage value = $75,000(1 – 0.35)Aftertax salvage value = $48,750Using the tax shield approach, the OCF is:OCF = $260,000(1 – 0.35) + 0.35($144,000)OCF = $219,400Now we can find the project IRR. There is an unusual feature that is a part of this project.Accepting this project means that we will reduce NWC. This reduction in NWC is a cash inflow at Year 0. This reduction in NWC implies that when the project ends, we will have to increase NWC. So, at the end of the project, we will have a cash outflow to restore the NWC to its level before the project. We also must include the aftertax salvage value at the end of the project. The IRR of the project is:NPV = 0 = –$720,000 + 110,000 + $219,400(PVIFA IRR%,5) + [($48,750 – 110,000) / (1+IRR)5]IRR = 21.65%17.We will need the aftertax salvage value of the equipment to compute the EAC. Even though theequipment for each product has a different initial cost, both have the same salvage value. The aftertax salvage value for both is:Both cases: aftertax salvage value = $40,000(1 – 0.35) = $26,000To calculate the EAC, we first need the OCF and NPV of each option. The OCF and NPV for Techron I is:OCF = –$67,000(1 – 0.35) + 0.35($290,000/3) = –9,716.67NPV = –$290,000 – $9,716.67(PVIFA10%,3) + ($26,000/1.103) = –$294,629.73EAC = –$294,629.73 / (PVIFA10%,3) = –$118,474.97And the OCF and NPV for Techron II is:OCF = –$35,000(1 – 0.35) + 0.35($510,000/5) = $12,950NPV = –$510,000 + $12,950(PVIFA10%,5) + ($26,000/1.105) = –$444,765.36EAC = –$444,765.36 / (PVIFA10%,5) = –$117,327.98The two milling machines have unequal lives, so they can only be compared by expressing both on an equivalent annual basis, which is what the EAC method does. Thus, you prefer the Techron II because it has the lower (less negative) annual cost.18.To find the bid price, we need to calculate all other cash flows for the project, and then solve forthe bid price. The aftertax salvage value of the equipment is:Aftertax salvage value = $70,000(1 – 0.35) = $45,500Now we can solve for the necessary OCF that will give the project a zero NPV. The equation for the NPV of the project is:NPV = 0 = –$940,000 – 75,000 + OCF(PVIFA12%,5) + [($75,000 + 45,500) / 1.125]Solving for the OCF, we find the OCF that makes the project NPV equal to zero is:OCF = $946,625.06 / PVIFA12%,5 = $262,603.01The easiest way to calculate the bid price is the tax shield approach, so:OCF = $262,603.01 = [(P – v)Q – FC ](1 – t c) + t c D$262,603.01 = [(P – $9.25)(185,000) – $305,000 ](1 – 0.35) + 0.35($940,000/5)P = $12.54CH14 6、9、20、23、246. The pretax cost of debt is the YTM of the company’s bonds, so:P0 = $1,070 = $35(PVIFA R%,30) + $1,000(PVIF R%,30)R = 3.137%YTM = 2 × 3.137% = 6.27%And the aftertax cost of debt is:R D = .0627(1 – .35) = .0408 or 4.08%9. ing the equation to calculate the WACC, we find:WACC = .60(.14) + .05(.06) + .35(.08)(1 – .35) = .1052 or 10.52%b.Since interest is tax deductible and dividends are not, we must look at the after-tax cost ofdebt, which is:.08(1 – .35) = .0520 or 5.20%Hence, on an after-tax basis, debt is cheaper than the preferred stock.ing the debt-equity ratio to calculate the WACC, we find:WACC = (.90/1.90)(.048) + (1/1.90)(.13) = .0912 or 9.12%Since the project is riskier than the company, we need to adjust the project discount rate for the additional risk. Using the subjective risk factor given, we find:Project discount rate = 9.12% + 2.00% = 11.12%We would accept the project if the NPV is positive. The NPV is the PV of the cash outflows plus the PV of the cash inflows. Since we have the costs, we just need to find the PV of inflows. The cash inflows are a growing perpetuity. If you remember, the equation for the PV of a growing perpetuity is the same as the dividend growth equation, so:PV of future CF = $2,700,000/(.1112 – .04) = $37,943,787The project should only be undertaken if its cost is less than $37,943,787 since costs less than this amount will result in a positive NPV.23. ing the dividend discount model, the cost of equity is:R E = [(0.80)(1.05)/$61] + .05R E = .0638 or 6.38%ing the CAPM, the cost of equity is:R E = .055 + 1.50(.1200 – .0550)R E = .1525 or 15.25%c.When using the dividend growth model or the CAPM, you must remember that both areestimates for the cost of equity. Additionally, and perhaps more importantly, each methodof estimating the cost of equity depends upon different assumptions.Challenge24.We can use the debt-equity ratio to calculate the weights of equity and debt. The debt of thecompany has a weight for long-term debt and a weight for accounts payable. We can use the weight given for accounts payable to calculate the weight of accounts payable and the weight of long-term debt. The weight of each will be:Accounts payable weight = .20/1.20 = .17Long-term debt weight = 1/1.20 = .83Since the accounts payable has the same cost as the overall WACC, we can write the equation for the WACC as:WACC = (1/1.7)(.14) + (0.7/1.7)[(.20/1.2)WACC + (1/1.2)(.08)(1 – .35)]Solving for WACC, we find:WACC = .0824 + .4118[(.20/1.2)WACC + .0433]WACC = .0824 + (.0686)WACC + .0178(.9314)WACC = .1002WACC = .1076 or 10.76%We will use basically the same equation to calculate the weighted average flotation cost, except we will use the flotation cost for each form of financing. Doing so, we get:Flotation costs = (1/1.7)(.08) + (0.7/1.7)[(.20/1.2)(0) + (1/1.2)(.04)] = .0608 or 6.08%The total amount we need to raise to fund the new equipment will be:Amount raised cost = $45,000,000/(1 – .0608)Amount raised = $47,912,317Since the cash flows go to perpetuity, we can calculate the present value using the equation for the PV of a perpetuity. The NPV is:NPV = –$47,912,317 + ($6,200,000/.1076)NPV = $9,719,777CH16 1，4，12，14，171. a. A table outlining the income statement for the three possible states of the economy isshown below. The EPS is the net income divided by the 5,000 shares outstanding. The lastrow shows the percentage change in EPS the company will experience in a recession or anexpansion economy.Recession Normal ExpansionEBIT $14,000 $28,000 $36,400Interest 0 0 0NI $14,000 $28,000 $36,400EPS $ 2.80 $ 5.60 $ 7.28%∆EPS –50 –––+30b.If the company undergoes the proposed recapitalization, it will repurchase:Share price = Equity / Shares outstandingShare price = $250,000/5,000Share price = $50Shares repurchased = Debt issued / Share priceShares repurchased =$90,000/$50Shares repurchased = 1,800The interest payment each year under all three scenarios will be:Interest payment = $90,000(.07) = $6,300The last row shows the percentage change in EPS the company will experience in arecession or an expansion economy under the proposed recapitalization.Recession Normal ExpansionEBIT $14,000 $28,000 $36,400Interest 6,300 6,300 6,300NI $7,700 $21,700 $30,100EPS $2.41 $ 6.78 $9.41%∆EPS –64.52 –––+38.714. a.Under Plan I, the unlevered company, net income is the same as EBIT with no corporate tax.The EPS under this capitalization will be:EPS = $350,000/160,000 sharesEPS = $2.19Under Plan II, the levered company, EBIT will be reduced by the interest payment. The interest payment is the amount of debt times the interest rate, so:NI = $500,000 – .08($2,800,000)NI = $126,000And the EPS will be:EPS = $126,000/80,000 sharesEPS = $1.58Plan I has the higher EPS when EBIT is $350,000.b.Under Plan I, the net income is $500,000 and the EPS is:EPS = $500,000/160,000 sharesEPS = $3.13Under Plan II, the net income is:NI = $500,000 – .08($2,800,000)NI = $276,000And the EPS is:EPS = $276,000/80,000 sharesEPS = $3.45Plan II has the higher EPS when EBIT is $500,000.c.To find the breakeven EBIT for two different capital structures, we simply set the equationsfor EPS equal to each other and solve for EBIT. The breakeven EBIT is:EBIT/160,000 = [EBIT – .08($2,800,000)]/80,000EBIT = $448,00012. a.With the information provided, we can use the equation for calculating WACC to find thecost of equity. The equation for WACC is:WACC = (E/V)R E + (D/V)R D(1 – t C)The company has a debt-equity ratio of 1.5, which implies the weight of debt is 1.5/2.5, and the weight of equity is 1/2.5, soWACC = .10 = (1/2.5)R E + (1.5/2.5)(.07)(1 – .35)R E = .1818 or 18.18%b.To find the unlevered cost of equity we need to use M&M Proposition II with taxes, so:R E = R U + (R U– R D)(D/E)(1 – t C).1818 = R U + (R U– .07)(1.5)(1 – .35)R U = .1266 or 12.66%c.To find the cost of equity under different capital structures, we can again use M&MProposition II with taxes. With a debt-equity ratio of 2, the cost of equity is:R E = R U + (R U– R D)(D/E)(1 – t C)R E = .1266 + (.1266 – .07)(2)(1 – .35)R E = .2001 or 20.01%With a debt-equity ratio of 1.0, the cost of equity is:R E = .1266 + (.1266 – .07)(1)(1 – .35)R E = .1634 or 16.34%And with a debt-equity ratio of 0, the cost of equity is:R E = .1266 + (.1266 – .07)(0)(1 – .35)R E = R U = .1266 or 12.66%14. a.The value of the unlevered firm is:V U = EBIT(1 – t C)/R UV U = $92,000(1 – .35)/.15V U = $398,666.67b.The value of the levered firm is:V U = V U + t C DV U = $398,666.67 + .35($60,000)V U = $419,666.6717.With no debt, we are finding the value of an unlevered firm, so:V U = EBIT(1 – t C)/R UV U = $14,000(1 – .35)/.16V U = $56,875With debt, we simply need to use the equation for the value of a levered firm. With 50 percent debt, one-half of the firm value is debt, so the value of the levered firm is:V L = V U + t C(D/V)V UV L = $56,875 + .35(.50)($56,875)V L = $66,828.13And with 100 percent debt, the value of the firm is:V L = V U + t C(D/V)V UV L = $56,875 + .35(1.0)($56,875)V L = $76,781.25c.The net cash flows is the present value of the average daily collections times the daily interest rate, minus the transaction cost per day, so:Net cash flow per day = $1,276,275(.0002) – $0.50(385)Net cash flow per day = $62.76The net cash flow per check is the net cash flow per day divided by the number of checksreceived per day, or:Net cash flow per check = $62.76/385Net cash flow per check = $0.16Alternatively, we could find the net cash flow per check as the number of days the system reduces collection time times the average check amount times the daily interest rate, minusthe transaction cost per check. Doing so, we confirm our previous answer as:Net cash flow per check = 3($1,105)(.0002) – $0.50Net cash flow per check = $0.16 per checkThis makes the total costs:Total costs = $18,900,000 + 56,320,000 = $75,220,000The flotation costs as a percentage of the amount raised is the total cost divided by the amount raised, so:Flotation cost percentage = $75,220,000/$180,780,000 = .4161 or 41.61%8.The number of rights needed per new share is:Number of rights needed = 120,000 old shares/25,000 new shares = 4.8 rights per new share.Using P RO as the rights-on price, and P S as the subscription price, we can express the price per share of the stock ex-rights as:P X = [NP RO + P S]/(N + 1)a.P X = [4.8($94) + $94]/(4.80 + 1) = $94.00; No change.b. P X = [4.8($94) + $90]/(4.80 + 1) = $93.31; Price drops by $0.69 per share.。

3. （1）在固定股利政策下， 2012年应分配的现金股利为320万元，与2011年一致。

（2）在固定股利比例政策下， 2012年应分配的现金股利为：500*（320÷800）＝200(万元) （3）在低正常股利加额外股利政策下， 2012年应分配的现金股利为320万元。

4. (1)发放股票股利后的普通股数＝200＋200÷10＝220(万股)发放股票股利后的普通股本＝3*220＝660(万元)发放股票股利后的资本公积＝160＋(30－3)*20＝700(万元)发放股票股利后的现金股利＝0.2*220＝44(万元)发放股票股利后的未分配利润＝840－200÷10*30－44＝196(万元)(2)按1股换2股进行股票分割：股票分割后的普通股数＝200*2＝400(万股)股票分割后的普通股本＝3÷2*400＝600(万元)股票分割后的资本公积＝160(万元)股票分割后的未分配利润＝840(万元)若按股票分割后的股数派发现金股利每股0.12元：股票分割后的普通股本＝600(万元)股票分割后的资本公积＝160(万元)现金股利＝0.12*400＝48(万元)股票分割后的未分配利润＝840－48＝792(万元)5.（1）追加投资5000万元时：投资所需的权益资本数额=5000*60%＝3000（万元）2012年将发放的股利＝4000－3000＝1000（万元）追加投资10000万元时：投资所需的权益资本数额=10000*60%＝6000（万元）可知投资所需的权益资本数额6000万元，超过了2012年净利润额，所以2004年不能发放股利。

（2）采用正常股利加额外股利政策时：2012年应发放的股利＝1*120＋（4000－3600）*0.5＝320（万元）6.由题意可知（深红色字体为需要计算金额）（1）存货周转率=销售额÷期末存货额=14存货周转率=销售成本÷期末存货额=10销售收入-销售成本=40000元因此期末存货额=40000÷4=10000元应收账款=85000-5000-10000-50000=20000元（2）流动比率=流动资产÷流动负债=（5000+20000+10000）÷（应付账款+7500）=2 应付账款=10000元产权比率=负债总额÷所有者权益总额=0.7负债总额+所有者权益总额=85000元所以所有者权益总额=（60000+未分配利润）=85000÷(1+0.7)=50000元未分配利润=50000-60000=-10000元长期负债=85000-10000-7500-50000=17500元三、综合题1.（1）2012年净利润=（400-260-54-6-18+8）*（1-30%）=49销售净利率=49÷400=12.25%总资产周转率=400÷（307+242）÷2=1.46平均资产负债率=[（74+134）÷2]÷[（242+307）÷2]=37.89%权益乘数=1÷（1-37.89%）=1.612012年净资产收益率=12.25%*1.46*1.61=28.79%（2）2011年净资产收益率=11%*1.5*1.4=23.1%主营业务净利率变动对净资产收益率的影响=（12.25%-11%）*1.5*1.4=2.63% 总资产周转率变动对净资产收益率的影响=12.25%*（1.46-1.5）*1.4=-0.69% 权益乘数变动对净资产收益率的影响=12.25%*1.5*（1.61-1.4）=3.86%2.（1）2011年与2012年相比资产、负债的变化如表所示2012年比2011年资产总额增加1000万元，主要是流动资产增加了1000；2012年比2011年负债总额增加1200万元，主要是流动负债减少了520万元，长期负债增加了1720万元。

国际会计第九版第十章答案10-1交易日会计:(1)交易日:20x1年8月14日借：债券期货投资100，000贷：应付债券期货合同款100,000借：存出保证金10,000贷：银行存款10,000（2）8月30日借：存出保证金400贷：银行存款400借：债券期货投资4000贷：债券期货投资损益4000（3）结算日借：债券期货投资损益2000贷：债券期货投资2000借：应付债券期货合同款100,000财务费用（交易费）600银行存款11800贷：债券期货投资102,000存出保证金10,400结算日会计（1）交易日：8月14日借：存出保证金10,000贷：银行存款10,000（2）8月30日借：存出保证金400贷：银行存款400借：债券期货投资4000贷：债券期货投资损益4000（3）结算日借：债券期货投资损益2000贷：债券期货投资 2000借：财务费用 600银行存款 11800贷：债券期货投资 2000存出保证金 1040010—2会计分录：1（1）交易日借：股票期货期权投资应收款 40,000贷：股票期权投资 40,000借：股票期权投资期权费 2,000 贷：银行存款 2,000 （注意：这时的股票期权投资属于负债类的。

）（2）6月30日借：股票期权投资 4000贷：股票期权投资损益 4000（3）结算日借：股票期权投资 2000贷：股票期权投资期权费 2000借：股票期权投资 3400财务费用（交易费） 300银行存款 5700贷：股票期权投资应收款 40,0002 共获利：6000-2000-300=3700 美元3执行价值低于期权费时，将亏损4执行价值为负值时，选择不执行期权合同10—3（1）发行债券时借：银行存款 100,000贷：应付债券 100,000（2）计提1—6月份的债券利息和互换交易费借：财务费用—债券利息费用 2750贷：应付债券利息 2750 借：应计费用 250贷：互换交易费 250计提7—12月份的债券利息和互换交易费借：财务费用-债券利息费用 2400贷：应付债券利息 2400 借：互换交易费 100贷：应计费用 100（3）20x1年末支付利息和互换交易费借：应付债券利息 5150贷:银行存款 5000应计费用 15010—4（1）20x1年1月1日借;债券投资 20,000贷：银行存款 20.000（2）20x1年末借：债券投资 2,000贷：债券投资损益 2,000（3）20x2年1月1日借：出售债券远期合同应收款 22,000贷;出售远期合同 22,000（4）20x2年末被套期项目公允价值下降借：债券投资损益 1,000贷：债券投资 1，000套期工具跌价：借：出售债券远期合同 1,000贷;套期损益 1,00010—5（1）20x1年10月17日，未发生成本，采用结算日会计，故不作记录 20x1年12月31日：借：购入存货远期合同 600贷：递延套期损益 500远期合同损益 100（2）假设情况一发生借：递延套期损益 500贷：套期损益 500同时，等待机会，转手这项远期合同（3）假设情况二发生借：递延套期损益 80贷：购入存货远期合同 80借：递延套期损益 420银行存款 49700贷：购入存货远期合同 520销货收入 49600。