罗斯公司理财第九版第八章课后答案对应版(英汉)金融专硕复习

第一章1.在所有权形式的公司中,股东是公司的所有者。

股东选举公司的董事会,董事会任命该公司的管理层。

企业的所有权和控制权分离的组织形式是导致的代理关系存在的主要原因。

管理者可能追求自身或别人的利益最大化,而不是股东的利益最大化。

在这种环境下,他们可能因为目标不一致而存在代理问题2.非营利公司经常追求社会或政治任务等各种目标。

非营利公司财务管理的目标是获取并有效使用资金以最大限度地实现组织的社会使命。

3.这句话是不正确的。

管理者实施财务管理的目标就是最大化现有股票的每股价值，当前的股票价值反映了短期和长期的风险、时间以及未来现金流量。

4.有两种结论。

一种极端,在市场经济中所有的东西都被定价。

因此所有目标都有一个最优水平，包括避免不道德或非法的行为，股票价值最大化。

另一种极端,我们可以认为这是非经济现象,最好的处理方式是通过政治手段。

一个经典的思考问题给出了这种争论的答案:公司估计提高某种产品安全性的成本是30美元万。

然而,该公司认为提高产品的安全性只会节省20美元万。

请问公司应该怎么做呢?”5.财务管理的目标都是相同的,但实现目标的最好方式可能是不同的,因为不同的国家有不同的社会、政治环境和经济制度。

6.管理层的目标是最大化股东现有股票的每股价值。

如果管理层认为能提高公司利润，使股价超过35美元,那么他们应该展开对恶意收购的斗争。

如果管理层认为该投标人或其它未知的投标人将支付超过每股35美元的价格收购公司,那么他们也应该展开斗争。

然而,如果管理层不能增加企业的价值,并且没有其他更高的投标价格,那么管理层不是在为股东的最大化权益行事。

现在的管理层经常在公司面临这些恶意收购的情况时迷失自己的方向。

7.其他国家的代理问题并不严重,主要取决于其他国家的私人投资者占比重较小。

较少的私人投资者能减少不同的企业目标。

高比重的机构所有权导致高学历的股东和管理层讨论决策风险项目。

此外,机构投资者比私人投资者可以根据自己的资源和经验更好地对管理层实施有效的监督机制。

罗斯《公司理财》第9版笔记和课后习题（含考研真题）详解[视频详解]第4章折现现金流量估价[视频讲解]4.1复习笔记当前的1美元与未来的1美元的价值是不同的，因为当前1美元用于投资，在未来可以得到更多，而且未来的1美元具有不确定性。

这种区别正是“货币的时间价值”。

货币的时间价值概念是金融投资和融资的基石之一，资本预算、项目决策、融资管理和兼并等领域均有涉及。

因此有必要理解和掌握相关的现值、终值、年金和永续年金的概念和计算公式。

1．现值与净现值现值是未来资金在当前的价值，是把未来的现金流按照一定的贴现率贴现到当前的价值。

以单期为例，一期后的现金流的现值：其中，C1是一期后的现金流，r是适当贴现率。

在多期的情况下，求解PV的公式可写为：其中，C T是在T期的现金流，r是适当贴现率。

净现值的计算公式为：NPV=-成本+PV。

也就是说，净现值NPV是这项投资未来现金流的现值减去成本的现值所得的结果。

一种定量的财务决策方法是净现值分析法。

产生N期现金流的投资项目的净现值为：NPV=其中，-C0是初始现金流，由于它代表了一笔投资，即现金流出，因而是负值。

2．终值一笔投资在多期以后终值的一般计算公式可以写为：FV=C0×（1+r）T其中，C0是期初投资的金额，r是利息率，T是资金投资持续的期数。

一项投资每年按复利计息m次的年末终值为：其中：C0是投资者的初始投资；r是名义年利率。

当m趋近于无限大时，则是连续复利计息，这时T年后的终值可以表示为：C0×e rT。

连续复利在高级金融中有广泛的应用。

3．名义利率和实际利率名义年利率是不考虑年内复利计息的，不同的银行或金融机构有不同的称谓，比较通用的是年百分比利率（APR）；实际利率（EAR）是指在年内考虑复利计息的，然后折算成一年的利率。

名义利率和实际利率之间的差别在于名义利率只有给出计息间隔期下才有意义。

4．年金年金是指一系列稳定有规律的，持续一段固定时期的现金收付活动，即在一定期间内，每隔相同时期（一年、半年或一季等）收入或支出相等金额的款项。

公司理财第九版罗斯课后案例答案 Case Solutions CorporateFinance1. 案例一：公司资金需求分析问题：一家公司需要资金支持其新项目。

通过分析现金流量，推断该公司是否需要向外部借款或筹集其他资金。

解答：为了确定公司是否需要外部资金，我们需要分析公司的现金流量状况。

首先，我们需要计算公司的净现金流量（净收入加上非现金项目）。

然后，我们需要将净现金流量与项目的投资现金流量进行对比。

假设公司预计在项目开始时投资100万美元，并在项目运营期为5年。

预计该项目每年将产生50万美元的净现金流量。

现在，我们需要进行以下计算：净现金流量 = 年度现金流量 - 年度投资现金流量年度投资现金流量 = 100万美元年度现金流量 = 50万美元净现金流量 = 50万美元 - 100万美元 = -50万美元根据计算结果，公司的净现金流量为负数（即净现金流出），意味着公司每年都会亏损50万美元。

因此，公司需要从外部筹集资金以支持项目的运营。

2. 案例二：公司股权融资问题：一家公司正在考虑通过股权融资来筹集资金。

根据公司的财务数据和资本结构分析，我们需要确定公司最佳的股权融资方案。

解答：为了确定最佳的股权融资方案，我们需要参考公司的财务数据和资本结构分析。

首先，我们需要计算公司的资本结构比例，即股本占总资本的比例。

然后，我们将不同的股权融资方案与资本结构比例进行对比，选择最佳的方案。

假设公司当前的资本结构比例为60%的股本和40%的债务，在当前的资本结构下，公司的加权平均资本成本（WACC）为10%。

现在，我们需要进行以下计算：•方案一：以新股发行筹集1000万美元，并将其用于项目投资。

在这种方案下，公司的资本结构比例将发生变化。

假设公司的股本增加至80%，债务比例减少至20%。

根据资本结构比例的变化，WACC也将发生变化。

新的WACC可以通过以下公式计算得出：新的WACC = (股本比例 * 股本成本) + (债务比例 * 债务成本)假设公司的股本成本为12%，债务成本为8%：新的WACC = (0.8 * 12%) + (0.2 * 8%) = 9.6%•方案二：以新股发行筹集5000万美元，并将其用于项目投资。

附录B各章习题及部分习题答案APPENDIXB第一部分公司理财概览第1章公司理财导论3概念复习和重要的思考题4微型案例麦吉糕点公司5第2章财务报表、税和现金流量6本章复习与自测题7本章复习与自测题解答7概念复习和重要的思考题8思考和练习题9微型案例Sunset Boards公司的现金流量和财务报表13第二部分财务报表与长期财务计划第3章利用财务报表17本章复习与自测题18本章复习与自测题解答19概念复习和重要的思考题20思考和练习题21微型案例针对S&S飞机公司的财务比率分析24第4章长期财务计划与增长27本章复习与自测题28本章复习与自测题解答28概念复习和重要的思考题29思考和练习题30微型案例S&S飞机公司的比率与财务计划35第三部分未来现金流量估价第5章估价导论：货币的时间价值39本章复习与自测题40本章复习与自测题解答40概念复习和重要的思考题40思考和练习题41第6章贴现现金流量估价43本章复习与自测题44本章复习与自测题解答44概念复习和重要的思考题46思考和练习题46微型案例读MBA的决策52第7章利率和债券估价54本章复习与自测题55本章复习与自测题解答55概念复习和重要的思考题55思考和练习题56微型案例基于债券发行的S&S飞机公司的扩张计划59第8章股票估价60本章复习与自测题61本章复习与自测题解答61概念复习和重要的思考题61思考和练习题62微型案例Ragan公司的股票估价64目录Contents第四部分资本预算第9章净现值与其他投资准绳69本章复习与自测题70本章复习与自测题解答70概念复习和重要的思考题71思考和练习题73第10章资本性投资决策77本章复习与自测题78本章复习与自测题解答78概念复习和重要的思考题80思考和练习题80微型案例贝壳共和电子公司（一）85第11章项目分析与评估86本章复习与自测题87本章复习与自测题解答87概念复习和重要的思考题87思考和练习题88微型案例贝壳共和电子公司（二）91第五部分风险与报酬第12章资本市场历史的一些启示95本章复习与自测题96本章复习与自测题解答96概念复习和重要的思考题96思考和练习题97微型案例S&S飞机公司的职位99第13章报酬、风险与证券市场线101本章复习与自测题102本章复习与自测题解答102概念复习和重要的思考题103思考和练习题104微型案例高露洁棕榄公司的β值108第六部分资本成本与长期财务政策第14章资本成本111本章复习与自测题112本章复习与自测题解答112概念复习和重要的思考题112思考和练习题113第15章筹集资本117本章复习与自测题118本章复习与自测题解答118概念复习和重要的思考题118思考和练习题120微型案例S&S飞机公司的上市121第16章财务杠杆和资本结构政策123本章复习与自测题124本章复习与自测题解答124概念复习和重要的思考题124思考和练习题125微型案例斯蒂芬森房地产公司的资本重组127第17章股利和股利政策129概念复习和重要的思考题　130思考和练习题　130微型案例电子计时公司　133第七部分短期财务计划与管理第18章短期财务与计划137本章复习与自测题　138本章复习与自测题解答　138概念复习和重要的思考题　139思考和练习题　140微型案例Piepkorn制造公司的营运成本管理　145III第19章现金和流动性管理147本章复习与自测题　148本章复习与自测题解答　148概念复习和重要的思考题　148思考和练习题　149微型案例Webb公司的现金管理　150第20章信用和存货管理151本章复习与自测题　152本章复习与自测题解答　152概念复习和重要的思考题　152思考和练习题　153微型案例豪利特实业公司的信用政策　155第八部分公司理财专题第21章国际公司理财159本章复习与自测题　160本章复习与自测题解答　160概念复习和重要的思考题　160思考和练习题　161微型案例S&S飞机公司的国际化经营　163部分习题答案　165IV。

申明：转载自第一章1.在所有权形式的公司中,股东是公司的所有者。

股东选举公司的董事会,董事会任命该公司的管理层。

企业的所有权和控制权分离的组织形式是导致的代理关系存在的主要原因。

管理者可能追求自身或别人的利益最大化,而不是股东的利益最大化。

在这种环境下,他们可能因为目标不一致而存在代理问题。

2.非营利公司经常追求社会或政治任务等各种目标。

非营利公司财务管理的目标是获取并有效使用资金以最大限度地实现组织的社会使命。

3.这句话是不正确的。

管理者实施财务管理的目标就是最大化现有股票的每股价值，当前的股票价值反映了短期和长期的风险、时间以及未来现金流量。

4.有两种结论。

一种极端,在市场经济中所有的东西都被定价。

因此所有目标都有一个最优水平，包括避免不道德或非法的行为，股票价值最大化。

另一种极端,我们可以认为这是非经济现象,最好的处理方式是通过政治手段。

一个经典的思考问题给出了这种争论的答案:公司估计提高某种产品安全性的成本是30美元万。

然而,该公司认为提高产品的安全性只会节省20美元万。

请问公司应该怎么做呢”5.财务管理的目标都是相同的,但实现目标的最好方式可能是不同的,因为不同的国家有不同的社会、政治环境和经济制度。

6.管理层的目标是最大化股东现有股票的每股价值。

如果管理层认为能提高公司利润，使股价超过35美元,那么他们应该展开对恶意收购的斗争。

如果管理层认为该投标人或其它未知的投标人将支付超过每股35美元的价格收购公司,那么他们也应该展开斗争。

然而,如果管理层不能增加企业的价值,并且没有其他更高的投标价格,那么管理层不是在为股东的最大化权益行事。

现在的管理层经常在公司面临这些恶意收购的情况时迷失自己的方向。

7.其他国家的代理问题并不严重,主要取决于其他国家的私人投资者占比重较小。

较少的私人投资者能减少不同的企业目标。

高比重的机构所有权导致高学历的股东和管理层讨论决策风险项目。

此外,机构投资者比私人投资者可以根据自己的资源和经验更好地对管理层实施有效的监督机制。

罗斯《公司理财》第9版笔记和课后习题（含考研真题）详解-第8篇理财专题【圣才出品】第8篇理财专题第29章收购、兼并与剥离29.1 复习笔记企业间的并购是一项充满不确定性的投资活动。

在并购决策中必须运用的基本法则是：当一家企业能够为并购企业的股东带来正的净现值时才会被并购。

因此确定目标企业的净现值显得尤为重要。

并购具有以下几个特点：并购活动产生的收益被称作协同效应；并购活动涉及复杂的会计、税收和法律因素；并购是股东可行使的一种重要控制机制；并购分析通常以计算并购双方的总价值为中心；并购有时涉及非善意交易。

1．收购的基本形式收购是指一个公司（收购方）用现金、债券或股票购买另一家公司的部分或全部资产或股权，从而获得对该公司的控制权的经济活动。

收购的对象一般有两种：股权和资产。

企业可以运用以下三种基本法律程序进行收购，即：①吸收合并或新设合并；②收购股票；③收购资产。

吸收合并是指一家企业被另一家企业吸收，兼并企业保持其名称和身份，并且收购被兼并企业的全部资产和负债的收购形式。

吸收合并的目标企业不再作为一个独立经营实体而存在。

新设合并是指兼并企业和被兼并企业终止各自的法人形式，共同组成一家新的企业。

收购股票是指用现金、股票或其他证券购买目标企业具有表决权的股票。

2．并购的分类兼并通常是指一个公司以现金、证券或其他形式购买取得其他公司的产权，使其他公司丧失法人资格或改变法人实体，并取得对这些企业决策控制权的经济行为。

兼并和收购虽然有很多不同，但也存在不少相似之处：①兼并与收购的基本动因相似。

要么为扩大企业的市场占有率；要么为扩大企业生产规模，实现规模经营；要么为拓宽企业经营范围，实现分散经营或综合化经营。

总之，企业兼并或收购都是增强企业实力的外部扩张策略或途径。

②企业兼并与收购都以企业产权交易为对象，都是企业资本营运的基本方式。

正是由于两者有很多相似之处，现实中，两者通常统称为“并购”。

按照并购双方的业务性质可以分为：（1）横向并购。

罗斯《公司理财》第9版笔记和课后习题（含考研真题）详解[视频详解]（股票估值）【圣才出品】罗斯《公司理财》第9版笔记和课后习题（含考研真题）详解[视频详解]第9章股票估值9.1复习笔记1．不同类型股票的估值（1）零增长股利股利不变时，一股股票的价格由下式给出：在这里假定Div1=Div2=…=Div。

（2）固定增长率股利如果股利以恒定的速率增长，那么一股股票的价格就为：式中，g是增长率；Div是第一期期末的股利。

（3）变动增长率股利2．股利折现模型中的参数估计（1）对增长率g的估计有效估计增长率的方法是：g=留存收益比率×留存收益收益率（ROE）只要公司保持其股利支付率不变，g就可以表示公司的股利增长率以及盈利增长率。

（2）对折现率R的估计对于折现率R的估计为：R=Div/P0+g该式表明总收益率R由两部分组成。

其中，第一部分被称为股利收益率，是预期的现金股利与当前的价格之比。

3．增长机会每股股价可以写做：该式表明，每股股价可以看做两部分的加和。

第一部分（EPS/R）是当公司满足于现状，而将其盈利全部发放给投资者时的价值；第二部分是当公司将盈利留存并用于投资新项目时的新增价值。

当公司投资于正NPVGO的增长机会时，公司价值增加。

反之，当公司选择负NPVGO 的投资机会时，公司价值降低。

但是，不管项目的NPV是正的还是负的，盈利和股利都是增长的。

不应该折现利润来获得每股价格，因为有部分盈利被用于再投资了。

只有股利被分到股东手中，也只有股利可以加以折现以获得股票价格。

4．市盈率即股票的市盈率是三个因素的函数：（1）增长机会。

拥有强劲增长机会的公司具有高市盈率。

（2）风险。

低风险股票具有高市盈率。

（3）会计方法。

采用保守会计方法的公司具有高市盈率。

5．股票市场交易商：持有一项存货，然后准备在任何时点进行买卖。

经纪人：将买者和卖者撮合在一起，但并不持有存货。

9.2课后习题详解一、概念题1．股利支付率（payout ratio）答：股利支付率一般指公司发放给普通股股东的现金股利占总利润的比例。

第八章：利率和债券估值1. a. P = $1,000/(1 + .05/2)⌒20 = $610.27b. P = $1,000/(1 + .10/2)⌒20 = $376.89c. P = $1,000/(1 + .15/2)⌒20 = $235.412.a. P = $35({1 – [1/(1 + .035)]⌒50 } / .035) + $1,000[1 / (1 + .035)⌒50]= $1,000.00When the YTM and the coupon rate are equal, the bond will sell at par.b. P = $35({1 – [1/(1 + .045)]⌒50 } / .045) + $1,000[1 / (1 + .045)⌒50]= $802.38When the YTM is greater than the coupon rate, the bond will sell at a discount.c. P = $35({1 – [1/(1 + .025)]⌒50 } / .025) + $1,000[1 / (1 + .025)⌒50]= $1,283.62When the YTM is less than the coupon rate, the bond will sell at a premium.3. P = $1,050 = $39(PVIFAR%,20) + $1,000(PVIFR%,20) R = 3.547%YTM = 2 *3.547% = 7.09%4. P = $1,175 = C(PVIFA3.8%,27) + $1,000(PVIF3.8%,27) C = $48.48年收益：2 × $48.48 = $96.96则票面利率：Coupon rate = $96.96 / $1,000 = .09696 or 9.70%5. P = €84({1 – [1/(1 + .076)]⌒15 } / .076) + €1,000[1 / (1 + .076)⌒15] = €1,070.186. P = ¥87,000 = ¥5,400(PVIFAR%,21) + ¥100,000(PVIFR%,21) R = 6.56%7. 近似利率为：R = r + h= .05 –.039 =.011 or 1.10%根据公式(1 + R) = (1 + r)(1 + h)→(1 + .05) = (1 + r)(1 + .039)实际利率= [(1 + .05) / (1 + .039)] – 1 = .0106 or 1.06%8. (1 + R) = (1 + r)(1 + h)→R = (1 + .025)(1 + .047) – 1 = .0732 or 7.32%9. (1 + R) = (1 + r)(1 + h)→h = [(1 + .17) / (1 + .11)] – 1 = .0541 or 5.41%10. (1 + R) = (1 + r)(1 + h)→r = [(1 + .141) / (1.068)] – 1 = .0684 or 6.84%11. The coupon rate is 6.125%. The bid price is:买入价= 119:19 = 119 19/32 = 119.59375%⨯ $1,000 = $1,195.9375The previous day‘s ask price is found by:pr evious day‘s ask price = Today‘s asked price – Change = 119 21/32 – (–17/32) = 120 6/32 前一天的卖出价= 120.1875% ⨯ $1,000 = $1,201.87512.premium bond当前收益率= Annual coupon payment / Asked price = $75/$1,347.1875 = .0557 or 5.57% The YTM is located under the ―Asked yield‖column, so the YTM is 4.4817%.Bid-Ask spread = 134:23 – 134:22 = 1/3213.P = C(PVIFAR%,t) + $1,000(PVIFR%,t)票面利率为9%：P0 = $45(PVIFA3.5%,26) + $1,000(PVIF3.5%,26) = $1,168.90P1 = $45(PVIFA3.5%,24) + $1,000(PVIF3.5%,24) = $1,160.58P3 = $45(PVIFA3.5%,20) + $1,000(PVIF3.5%,20) = $1,142.12P8 = $45(PVIFA3.5%,10) + $1,000(PVIF3.5%,10) = $1,083.17P12 = $45(PVIFA3.5%,2) + $1,000(PVIF3.5%,2) = $1,019.00P13 = $1,000票面利率为7%：P0 = $35(PVIFA4.5%,26) + $1,000(PVIF4.5%,26) = $848.53P1 = $35(PVIFA4.5%,24) + $1,000(PVIF4.5%,24) = $855.05P3 = $35(PVIFA4.5%,20) + $1,000(PVIF4.5%,20) = $869.92P8 = $35(PVIFA4.5%,10) + $1,000(PVIF4.5%,10) = $920.87P12 = $35(PVIFA4.5%,2) + $1,000(PVIF4.5%,2) = $981.27P13 = $1,00014.PLaurel = $40(PVIFA5%,4) + $1,000(PVIF5%,4) = $964.54PHardy = $40(PVIFA5%,30) + $1,000(PVIF5%,30) = $846.28Percentage change in price = (New price -Original price) / Original price△PLaurel% = ($964.54 -1,000) / $1,000 = -0.0355 or -3.55%△PHardy% = ($846.28 -1,000) / $1,000 = -0.1537 or -15.37%If the YTM suddenly falls to 6 percentPLaurel = $40(PVIFA3%,4) + $1,000(PVIF3%,4) = $1,037.17PHardy = $40(PVIFA3%,30) + $1,000(PVIF3%,30) = $1,196.00△PLaurel% = ($1,037.17 -1,000) / $1,000 = +0.0372 or 3.72%△PHardy% = ($1,196.002 -1,000) / $1,000 = +0.1960 or 19.60%15. Initially, at a YTM of 10 percent, the prices of the two bonds are:P Faulk = $30(PVIFA5%,16) + $1,000(PVIF5%,16) = $783.24P Gonas = $70(PVIFA5%,16) + $1,000(PVIF5%,16) = $1,216.76If the YTM rises from 10 percent to 12 percent:P Faulk = $30(PVIFA6%,16) + $1,000(PVIF6%,16) = $696.82P Gonas = $70(PVIFA6%,16) + $1,000(PVIF6%,16) = $1,101.06Percentage change in price = (New price – Original price) / Original price△PFaulk% = ($696.82 -783.24) / $783.24 = -0.1103 or -11.03%△PGonas% = ($1,101.06 -1,216.76) / $1,216.76 = -0.0951 or -9.51%If the YTM declines from 10 percent to 8 percent:PFaulk = $30(PVIFA4%,16) + $1,000(PVIF4%,16) = $883.48PGonas = $70(PVIFA4%,16) + $1,000(PVIF4%,16) = $1,349.57△PFaulk% = ($883.48 -783.24) / $783.24 = +0.1280 or 12.80%△PGonas% = ($1,349.57 -1,216.76) / $1,216.76 = +0.1092 or 10.92%16.P0 = $960 = $37(PVIFAR%,18) + $1,000(PVIFR%,18) R = 4.016% YTM = 2 *4.016% = 8.03%Current yield = Annual coupon payment / Price = $74 / $960 = .0771 or 7.71% Effective annual yield = (1 + 0.04016)⌒2 – 1 = .0819 or 8.19%17.P = $1,063 = $50(PVIFA R%,40) + $1,000(PVIF R%,40) R = 4.650% YTM = 2 *4.650% = 9.30%18.Accrued interest = $84/2 × 4/6 = $28Clean price = Dirty price – Accrued interest = $1,090 – 28 = $1,06219.Accrued interest = $72/2 × 2/6 = $12.00Dirty price = Clean price + Accrued interest = $904 + 12 = $916.0020.Current yield = .0842 = $90/P0→P0 = $90/.0842 = $1,068.88P = $1,068.88 = $90{[(1 – (1/1.0781)⌒t ] / .0781} + $1,000/1.0781⌒t $1,068.88 (1.0781)⌒t = $1,152.37 (1.0781)⌒t – 1,152.37 + 1,000t = log 1.8251 / log 1.0781 = 8.0004 ≈8 years21.P = $871.55 = $41.25(PVIFA R%,20) + $1,000(PVIF R%,20) R = 5.171% YTM = 2 *5.171% = 10.34%Current yield = $82.50 / $871.55 = .0947 or 9.47%22.略23.P: P0 = $90(PVIFA7%,5) + $1,000(PVIF7%,5) = $1,082.00P1 = $90(PVIFA7%,4) + $1,000(PVIF7%,4) = $1,067.74Current yield = $90 / $1,082.00 = .0832 or 8.32%Capital gains yield = (New price – Original price) / Original priceCapital gains yield = ($1,067.74 – 1,082.00) / $1,082.00 = –0.0132 or –1.32%D: P0 = $50(PVIFA7%,5) + $1,000(PVIF7%,5) = $918.00P1 = $50(PVIFA7%,4) + $1,000(PVIF7%,4) = $932.26Current yield = $50 / $918.00 = 0.0545 or 5.45%Capital gains yield = ($932.26 – 918.00) / $918.00 = 0.0155 or 1.55%24. a.P0 = $1,140 = $90(PVIFA R%,10) + $1,000(PVIF R%,10) R = YTM = 7.01%b.P2 = $90(PVIFA6.01%,8) + $1,000(PVIF6.01%,8) = $1,185.87P0 = $1,140 = $90(PVIFA R%,2) + $1,185.87(PVIF R%,2)R = HPY = 9.81%The realized HPY is greater than the expected YTM when the bond was bought because interest rates dropped by 1 percent; bond prices rise when yields fall.25.PM = $800(PVIFA4%,16)(PVIF4%,12)+$1,000(PVIFA4%,12)(PVIF4%,28)+ $20,000(PVIF4%,40) PM = $13,117.88Notice that for the coupon payments of $800, we found the PV A for the coupon payments, and then discounted the lump sum back to todayBond N is a zero coupon bond with a $20,000 par value; therefore, the price of the bond is the PV of the par, or:PN = $20,000(PVIF4%,40) = $4,165.7826.(1 + R) = (1 + r)(1 + h)1 + .107 = (1 + r)(1 + .035)→r = .0696 or 6.96%EAR = {[1 + (APR / m)]⌒m }– 1APR = m[(1 + EAR)⌒1/m – 1] = 52[(1 + .0696)⌒1/52 – 1] = .0673 or 6.73%Weekly rate = APR / 52= .0673 / 52= .0013 or 0.13%PVA = C({1 – [1/(1 + r)]⌒t } / r)= $8({1 – [1/(1 + .0013)]30(52)} / .0013)= $5,359.6427.Stock account:(1 + R) = (1 + r)(1 + h) →1 + .12 = (1 + r)(1 + .04) →r = .0769 or 7.69%APR = m[(1 + EAR)1/⌒1/m– 1]= 12[(1 + .0769)⌒1/12– 1]= .0743 or 7.43%Monthly rate = APR / 12= .0743 / 12= .0062 or 0.62%Bond account:(1 + R) = (1 + r)(1 + h)→1 + .07 = (1 + r)(1 + .04)→r = .0288 or 2.88%APR = m[(1 + EAR)⌒1/m– 1]= 12[(1 + .0288)⌒1/12– 1]= .0285 or 2.85%Monthly rate = APR / 12= .0285 / 12= .0024 or 0.24%Stock account:FVA = C {(1 + r )⌒t– 1] / r}= $800{[(1 + .0062)360 – 1] / .0062]}= $1,063,761.75Bond account:FVA = C {(1 + r )⌒t– 1] / r}= $400{[(1 + .0024)360 – 1] / .0024]}= $227,089.04Account value = $1,063,761.75 + 227,089.04= $1,290,850.79(1 + R) = (1 + r)(1 + h)→1 + .08 = (1 + r)(1 + .04) →r = .0385 or 3.85%APR = m[(1 + EAR)1/m– 1]= 12[(1 + .0385)1/12– 1]= .0378 or 3.78%Monthly rate = APR / 12= .0378 / 12= .0031 or 0.31%PVA = C({1 – [1/(1 + r)]t } / r )$1,290,850.79 = C({1 – [1/(1 + .0031)]⌒300 } / .0031)C = $6,657.74FV = PV(1 + r)⌒t= $6,657.74(1 + .04)(30 + 25)= $57,565.30。

CH5 11，13，18，19，2011.To find the PV of a lump sum, we use:PV = FV / (1 + r)tPV = $1,000,000 / (1.10)80 = $488.1913.To answer this question, we can use either the FV or the PV formula. Both will give the sameanswer since they are the inverse of each other. We will use the FV formula, that is:FV = PV(1 + r)tSolving for r, we get:r = (FV / PV)1 / t– 1r = ($1,260,000 / $150)1/112– 1 = .0840 or 8.40%To find the FV of the first prize, we use:FV = PV(1 + r)tFV = $1,260,000(1.0840)33 = $18,056,409.9418.To find the FV of a lump sum, we use:FV = PV(1 + r)tFV = $4,000(1.11)45 = $438,120.97FV = $4,000(1.11)35 = $154,299.40Better start early!19. We need to find the FV of a lump sum. However, the money will only be invested for six years,so the number of periods is six.FV = PV(1 + r)tFV = $20,000(1.084)6 = $32,449.3320.To answer this question, we can use either the FV or the PV formula. Both will give the sameanswer since they are the inverse of each other. We will use the FV formula, that is:FV = PV(1 + r)tSolving for t, we get:t = ln(FV / PV) / ln(1 + r)t = ln($75,000 / $10,000) / ln(1.11) = 19.31So, the money must be invested for 19.31 years. However, you will not receive the money for another two years. From now, you’ll wait:2 years + 19.31 years = 21.31 yearsCH6 16，24，27，42，5816.For this problem, we simply need to find the FV of a lump sum using the equation:FV = PV(1 + r)tIt is important to note that compounding occurs semiannually. To account for this, we will divide the interest rate by two (the number of compounding periods in a year), and multiply the number of periods by two. Doing so, we get:FV = $2,100[1 + (.084/2)]34 = $8,505.9324.This problem requires us to find the FVA. The equation to find the FVA is:FVA = C{[(1 + r)t– 1] / r}FVA = $300[{[1 + (.10/12) ]360 – 1} / (.10/12)] = $678,146.3827.The cash flows are annual and the compounding period is quarterly, so we need to calculate theEAR to make the interest rate comparable with the timing of the cash flows. Using the equation for the EAR, we get:EAR = [1 + (APR / m)]m– 1EAR = [1 + (.11/4)]4– 1 = .1146 or 11.46%And now we use the EAR to find the PV of each cash flow as a lump sum and add them together: PV = $725 / 1.1146 + $980 / 1.11462 + $1,360 / 1.11464 = $2,320.3642.The amount of principal paid on the loan is the PV of the monthly payments you make. So, thepresent value of the $1,150 monthly payments is:PVA = $1,150[(1 – {1 / [1 + (.0635/12)]}360) / (.0635/12)] = $184,817.42The monthly payments of $1,150 will amount to a principal payment of $184,817.42. The amount of principal you will still owe is:$240,000 – 184,817.42 = $55,182.58This remaining principal amount will increase at the interest rate on the loan until the end of the loan period. So the balloon payment in 30 years, which is the FV of the remaining principal will be:Balloon payment = $55,182.58[1 + (.0635/12)]360 = $368,936.5458.To answer this question, we should find the PV of both options, and compare them. Since we arepurchasing the car, the lowest PV is the best option. The PV of the leasing is simply the PV of the lease payments, plus the $99. The interest rate we would use for the leasing option is thesame as the interest rate of the loan. The PV of leasing is:PV = $99 + $450{1 – [1 / (1 + .07/12)12(3)]} / (.07/12) = $14,672.91The PV of purchasing the car is the current price of the car minus the PV of the resale price. The PV of the resale price is:PV = $23,000 / [1 + (.07/12)]12(3) = $18,654.82The PV of the decision to purchase is:$32,000 – 18,654.82 = $13,345.18In this case, it is cheaper to buy the car than leasing it since the PV of the purchase cash flows is lower. To find the breakeven resale price, we need to find the resale price that makes the PV of the two options the same. In other words, the PV of the decision to buy should be:$32,000 – PV of resale price = $14,672.91PV of resale price = $17,327.09The resale price that would make the PV of the lease versus buy decision is the FV of this value, so:Breakeven resale price = $17,327.09[1 + (.07/12)]12(3) = $21,363.01CH7 3，18，21，22，313.The price of any bond is the PV of the interest payment, plus the PV of the par value. Notice thisproblem assumes an annual coupon. The price of the bond will be:P = $75({1 – [1/(1 + .0875)]10 } / .0875) + $1,000[1 / (1 + .0875)10] = $918.89We would like to introduce shorthand notation here. Rather than write (or type, as the case may be) the entire equation for the PV of a lump sum, or the PVA equation, it is common to abbreviate the equations as:PVIF R,t = 1 / (1 + r)twhich stands for Present Value Interest FactorPVIFA R,t= ({1 – [1/(1 + r)]t } / r )which stands for Present Value Interest Factor of an AnnuityThese abbreviations are short hand notation for the equations in which the interest rate and the number of periods are substituted into the equation and solved. We will use this shorthand notation in remainder of the solutions key.18.The bond price equation for this bond is:P0 = $1,068 = $46(PVIFA R%,18) + $1,000(PVIF R%,18)Using a spreadsheet, financial calculator, or trial and error we find:R = 4.06%This is the semiannual interest rate, so the YTM is:YTM = 2 4.06% = 8.12%The current yield is:Current yield = Annual coupon payment / Price = $92 / $1,068 = .0861 or 8.61%The effective annual yield is the same as the EAR, so using the EAR equation from the previous chapter:Effective annual yield = (1 + 0.0406)2– 1 = .0829 or 8.29%20. Accrued interest is the coupon payment for the period times the fraction of the period that haspassed since the last coupon payment. Since we have a semiannual coupon bond, the coupon payment per six months is one-half of the annual coupon payment. There are four months until the next coupon payment, so two months have passed since the last coupon payment. The accrued interest for the bond is:Accrued interest = $74/2 × 2/6 = $12.33And we calculate the clean price as:Clean price = Dirty price – Accrued interest = $968 – 12.33 = $955.6721. Accrued interest is the coupon payment for the period times the fraction of the period that haspassed since the last coupon payment. Since we have a semiannual coupon bond, the coupon payment per six months is one-half of the annual coupon payment. There are two months untilthe next coupon payment, so four months have passed since the last coupon payment. The accrued interest for the bond is:Accrued interest = $68/2 × 4/6 = $22.67And we calculate the dirty price as:Dirty price = Clean price + Accrued interest = $1,073 + 22.67 = $1,095.6722.To find the number of years to maturity for the bond, we need to find the price of the bond. Sincewe already have the coupon rate, we can use the bond price equation, and solve for the number of years to maturity. We are given the current yield of the bond, so we can calculate the price as: Current yield = .0755 = $80/P0P0 = $80/.0755 = $1,059.60Now that we have the price of the bond, the bond price equation is:P = $1,059.60 = $80[(1 – (1/1.072)t ) / .072 ] + $1,000/1.072tWe can solve this equation for t as follows:$1,059.60(1.072)t = $1,111.11(1.072)t– 1,111.11 + 1,000111.11 = 51.51(1.072)t2.1570 = 1.072tt = log 2.1570 / log 1.072 = 11.06 11 yearsThe bond has 11 years to maturity.31.The price of any bond (or financial instrument) is the PV of the future cash flows. Even thoughBond M makes different coupons payments, to find the price of the bond, we just find the PV of the cash flows. The PV of the cash flows for Bond M is:P M= $1,100(PVIFA3.5%,16)(PVIF3.5%,12) + $1,400(PVIFA3.5%,12)(PVIF3.5%,28) + $20,000(PVIF3.5%,40)P M= $19,018.78Notice that for the coupon payments of $1,400, we found the PVA for the coupon payments, and then discounted the lump sum back to today.Bond N is a zero coupon bond with a $20,000 par value, therefore, the price of the bond is the PV of the par, or:P N= $20,000(PVIF3.5%,40) = $5,051.45CH8 4，18，20，22，24ing the constant growth model, we find the price of the stock today is:P0 = D1 / (R– g) = $3.04 / (.11 – .038) = $42.2218.The price of a share of preferred stock is the dividend payment divided by the required return.We know the dividend payment in Year 20, so we can find the price of the stock in Year 19, one year before the first dividend payment. Doing so, we get:P19 = $20.00 / .064P19 = $312.50The price of the stock today is the PV of the stock price in the future, so the price today will be: P0 = $312.50 / (1.064)19P0 = $96.1520.We can use the two-stage dividend growth model for this problem, which is:P0 = [D0(1 + g1)/(R –g1)]{1 – [(1 + g1)/(1 + R)]T}+ [(1 + g1)/(1 + R)]T[D0(1 + g2)/(R –g2)]P0= [$1.25(1.28)/(.13 – .28)][1 – (1.28/1.13)8] + [(1.28)/(1.13)]8[$1.25(1.06)/(.13 – .06)]P0= $69.5522.We are asked to find the dividend yield and capital gains yield for each of the stocks. All of thestocks have a 15 percent required return, which is the sum of the dividend yield and the capital gains yield. To find the components of the total return, we need to find the stock price for each stock. Using this stock price and the dividend, we can calculate the dividend yield. The capital gains yield for the stock will be the total return (required return) minus the dividend yield.W: P0 = D0(1 + g) / (R–g) = $4.50(1.10)/(.19 – .10) = $55.00Dividend yield = D1/P0 = $4.50(1.10)/$55.00 = .09 or 9%Capital gains yield = .19 – .09 = .10 or 10%X: P0 = D0(1 + g) / (R–g) = $4.50/(.19 – 0) = $23.68Dividend yield = D1/P0 = $4.50/$23.68 = .19 or 19%Capital gains yield = .19 – .19 = 0%Y: P0 = D0(1 + g) / (R–g) = $4.50(1 – .05)/(.19 + .05) = $17.81Dividend yield = D1/P0 = $4.50(0.95)/$17.81 = .24 or 24%Capital gains yield = .19 – .24 = –.05 or –5%Z: P2 = D2(1 + g) / (R–g) = D0(1 + g1)2(1 + g2)/(R–g2) = $4.50(1.20)2(1.12)/(.19 – .12) = $103.68P0 = $4.50 (1.20) / (1.19) + $4.50 (1.20)2/ (1.19)2 + $103.68 / (1.19)2 = $82.33Dividend yield = D1/P0 = $4.50(1.20)/$82.33 = .066 or 6.6%Capital gains yield = .19 – .066 = .124 or 12.4%In all cases, the required return is 19%, but the return is distributed differently between current income and capital gains. High growth stocks have an appreciable capital gains component but a relatively small current income yield; conversely, mature, negative-growth stocks provide a high current income but also price depreciation over time.24.Here we have a stock with supernormal growth, but the dividend growth changes every year forthe first four years. We can find the price of the stock in Year 3 since the dividend growth rate is constant after the third dividend. The price of the stock in Year 3 will be the dividend in Year 4, divided by the required return minus the constant dividend growth rate. So, the price in Year 3 will be:P3 = $2.45(1.20)(1.15)(1.10)(1.05) / (.11 – .05) = $65.08The price of the stock today will be the PV of the first three dividends, plus the PV of the stock price in Year 3, so:P0 = $2.45(1.20)/(1.11) + $2.45(1.20)(1.15)/1.112 + $2.45(1.20)(1.15)(1.10)/1.113 + $65.08/1.113 P0 = $55.70CH9 3，4，6，9，153.Project A has cash flows of $19,000 in Year 1, so the cash flows are short by $21,000 ofrecapturing the initial investment, so the payback for Project A is:Payback = 1 + ($21,000 / $25,000) = 1.84 yearsProject B has cash flows of:Cash flows = $14,000 + 17,000 + 24,000 = $55,000during this first three years. The cash flows are still short by $5,000 of recapturing the initial investment, so the payback for Project B is:B: Payback = 3 + ($5,000 / $270,000) = 3.019 yearsUsing the payback criterion and a cutoff of 3 years, accept project A and reject project B.4.When we use discounted payback, we need to find the value of all cash flows today. The valuetoday of the project cash flows for the first four years is:Value today of Year 1 cash flow = $4,200/1.14 = $3,684.21Value today of Year 2 cash flow = $5,300/1.142 = $4,078.18Value today of Year 3 cash flow = $6,100/1.143 = $4,117.33Value today of Year 4 cash flow = $7,400/1.144 = $4,381.39To find the discounted payback, we use these values to find the payback period. The discounted first year cash flow is $3,684.21, so the discounted payback for a $7,000 initial cost is:Discounted payback = 1 + ($7,000 – 3,684.21)/$4,078.18 = 1.81 yearsFor an initial cost of $10,000, the discounted payback is:Discounted payback = 2 + ($10,000 – 3,684.21 – 4,078.18)/$4,117.33 = 2.54 yearsNotice the calculation of discounted payback. We know the payback period is between two and three years, so we subtract the discounted values of the Year 1 and Year 2 cash flows from the initial cost. This is the numerator, which is the discounted amount we still need to make to recover our initial investment. We divide this amount by the discounted amount we will earn in Year 3 to get the fractional portion of the discounted payback.If the initial cost is $13,000, the discounted payback is:Discounted payback = 3 + ($13,000 – 3,684.21 – 4,078.18 – 4,117.33) / $4,381.39 = 3.26 years 6.Our definition of AAR is the average net income divided by the average book value. The averagenet income for this project is:Average net income = ($1,938,200 + 2,201,600 + 1,876,000 + 1,329,500) / 4 = $1,836,325And the average book value is:Average book value = ($15,000,000 + 0) / 2 = $7,500,000So, the AAR for this project is:AAR = Average net income / Average book value = $1,836,325 / $7,500,000 = .2448 or 24.48% 9.The NPV of a project is the PV of the outflows minus the PV of the inflows. Since the cashinflows are an annuity, the equation for the NPV of this project at an 8 percent required return is: NPV = –$138,000 + $28,500(PVIFA8%, 9) = $40,036.31At an 8 percent required return, the NPV is positive, so we would accept the project.The equation for the NPV of the project at a 20 percent required return is:NPV = –$138,000 + $28,500(PVIFA20%, 9) = –$23,117.45At a 20 percent required return, the NPV is negative, so we would reject the project.We would be indifferent to the project if the required return was equal to the IRR of the project, since at that required return the NPV is zero. The IRR of the project is:0 = –$138,000 + $28,500(PVIFA IRR, 9)IRR = 14.59%15.The profitability index is defined as the PV of the cash inflows divided by the PV of the cashoutflows. The equation for the profitability index at a required return of 10 percent is:PI = [$7,300/1.1 + $6,900/1.12 + $5,700/1.13] / $14,000 = 1.187The equation for the profitability index at a required return of 15 percent is:PI = [$7,300/1.15 + $6,900/1.152 + $5,700/1.153] / $14,000 = 1.094The equation for the profitability index at a required return of 22 percent is:PI = [$7,300/1.22 + $6,900/1.222 + $5,700/1.223] / $14,000 = 0.983We would accept the project if the required return were 10 percent or 15 percent since the PI is greater than one. We would reject the project if the required return were 22 percent since the PI is less than one.CH10 9，13，14，17，18ing the tax shield approach to calculating OCF (Remember the approach is irrelevant; the finalanswer will be the same no matter which of the four methods you use.), we get:OCF = (Sales – Costs)(1 – t C) + t C DepreciationOCF = ($2,650,000 – 840,000)(1 – 0.35) + 0.35($3,900,000/3)OCF = $1,631,50013.First we will calculate the annual depreciation of the new equipment. It will be:Annual depreciation = $560,000/5Annual depreciation = $112,000Now, we calculate the aftertax salvage value. The aftertax salvage value is the market price minus (or plus) the taxes on the sale of the equipment, so:Aftertax salvage value = MV + (BV – MV)t cVery often the book value of the equipment is zero as it is in this case. If the book value is zero, the equation for the aftertax salvage value becomes:Aftertax salvage value = MV + (0 – MV)t cAftertax salvage value = MV(1 – t c)We will use this equation to find the aftertax salvage value since we know the book value is zero.So, the aftertax salvage value is:Aftertax salvage value = $85,000(1 – 0.34)Aftertax salvage value = $56,100Using the tax shield approach, we find the OCF for the project is:OCF = $165,000(1 – 0.34) + 0.34($112,000)OCF = $146,980Now we can find the project NPV. Notice we include the NWC in the initial cash outlay. The recovery of the NWC occurs in Year 5, along with the aftertax salvage value.NPV = –$560,000 – 29,000 + $146,980(PVIFA10%,5) + [($56,100 + 29,000) / 1.105]NPV = $21,010.2414.First we will calculate the annual depreciation of the new equipment. It will be:Annual depreciation charge = $720,000/5Annual depreciation charge = $144,000The aftertax salvage value of the equipment is:Aftertax salvage value = $75,000(1 – 0.35)Aftertax salvage value = $48,750Using the tax shield approach, the OCF is:OCF = $260,000(1 – 0.35) + 0.35($144,000)OCF = $219,400Now we can find the project IRR. There is an unusual feature that is a part of this project.Accepting this project means that we will reduce NWC. This reduction in NWC is a cash inflow at Year 0. This reduction in NWC implies that when the project ends, we will have to increase NWC. So, at the end of the project, we will have a cash outflow to restore the NWC to its levelbefore the project. We also must include the aftertax salvage value at the end of the project. The IRR of the project is:NPV = 0 = –$720,000 + 110,000 + $219,400(PVIFA IRR%,5) + [($48,750 – 110,000) / (1+IRR)5] IRR = 21.65%17.We will need the aftertax salvage value of the equipment to compute the EAC. Even though theequipment for each product has a different initial cost, both have the same salvage value. The aftertax salvage value for both is:Both cases: aftertax salvage value = $40,000(1 – 0.35) = $26,000To calculate the EAC, we first need the OCF and NPV of each option. The OCF and NPV for Techron I is:OCF = –$67,000(1 – 0.35) + 0.35($290,000/3) = –9,716.67NPV = –$290,000 – $9,716.67(PVIFA10%,3) + ($26,000/1.103) = –$294,629.73EAC = –$294,629.73 / (PVIFA10%,3) = –$118,474.97And the OCF and NPV for Techron II is:OCF = –$35,000(1 – 0.35) + 0.35($510,000/5) = $12,950NPV = –$510,000 + $12,950(PVIFA10%,5) + ($26,000/1.105) = –$444,765.36EAC = –$444,765.36 / (PVIFA10%,5) = –$117,327.98The two milling machines have unequal lives, so they can only be compared by expressing both on an equivalent annual basis, which is what the EAC method does. Thus, you prefer the Techron II because it has the lower (less negative) annual cost.18.To find the bid price, we need to calculate all other cash flows for the project, and then solve forthe bid price. The aftertax salvage value of the equipment is:Aftertax salvage value = $70,000(1 – 0.35) = $45,500Now we can solve for the necessary OCF that will give the project a zero NPV. The equation for the NPV of the project is:NPV = 0 = –$940,000 – 75,000 + OCF(PVIFA12%,5) + [($75,000 + 45,500) / 1.125]Solving for the OCF, we find the OCF that makes the project NPV equal to zero is:OCF = $946,625.06 / PVIFA12%,5 = $262,603.01The easiest way to calculate the bid price is the tax shield approach, so:OCF = $262,603.01 = [(P – v)Q – FC ](1 – t c) + t c D$262,603.01 = [(P – $9.25)(185,000) – $305,000 ](1 – 0.35) + 0.35($940,000/5)P = $12.54CH14 6、9、20、23、246. The pretax cost of debt is the YTM of the company’s bonds, so:P0 = $1,070 = $35(PVIFA R%,30) + $1,000(PVIF R%,30)R = 3.137%YTM = 2 × 3.137% = 6.27%And the aftertax cost of debt is:R D = .0627(1 – .35) = .0408 or 4.08%9. ing the equation to calculate the WACC, we find:WACC = .60(.14) + .05(.06) + .35(.08)(1 – .35) = .1052 or 10.52%b.Since interest is tax deductible and dividends are not, we must look at the after-tax cost ofdebt, which is:.08(1 – .35) = .0520 or 5.20%Hence, on an after-tax basis, debt is cheaper than the preferred stock.ing the debt-equity ratio to calculate the WACC, we find:WACC = (.90/1.90)(.048) + (1/1.90)(.13) = .0912 or 9.12%Since the project is riskier than the company, we need to adjust the project discount rate for the additional risk. Using the subjective risk factor given, we find:Project discount rate = 9.12% + 2.00% = 11.12%We would accept the project if the NPV is positive. The NPV is the PV of the cash outflows plus the PV of the cash inflows. Since we have the costs, we just need to find the PV of inflows. The cash inflows are a growing perpetuity. If you remember, the equation for the PV of a growing perpetuity is the same as the dividend growth equation, so:PV of future CF = $2,700,000/(.1112 – .04) = $37,943,787The project should only be undertaken if its cost is less than $37,943,787 since costs less than this amount will result in a positive NPV.23. ing the dividend discount model, the cost of equity is:R E = [(0.80)(1.05)/$61] + .05R E = .0638 or 6.38%ing the CAPM, the cost of equity is:R E = .055 + 1.50(.1200 – .0550)R E = .1525 or 15.25%c.When using the dividend growth model or the CAPM, you must remember that both areestimates for the cost of equity. Additionally, and perhaps more importantly, each methodof estimating the cost of equity depends upon different assumptions.Challenge24.We can use the debt-equity ratio to calculate the weights of equity and debt. The debt of thecompany has a weight for long-term debt and a weight for accounts payable. We can use the weight given for accounts payable to calculate the weight of accounts payable and the weight of long-term debt. The weight of each will be:Accounts payable weight = .20/1.20 = .17Long-term debt weight = 1/1.20 = .83Since the accounts payable has the same cost as the overall WACC, we can write the equation for the WACC as:WACC = (1/1.7)(.14) + (0.7/1.7)[(.20/1.2)WACC + (1/1.2)(.08)(1 – .35)]Solving for WACC, we find:WACC = .0824 + .4118[(.20/1.2)WACC + .0433]WACC = .0824 + (.0686)WACC + .0178(.9314)WACC = .1002WACC = .1076 or 10.76%We will use basically the same equation to calculate the weighted average flotation cost, except we will use the flotation cost for each form of financing. Doing so, we get:Flotation costs = (1/1.7)(.08) + (0.7/1.7)[(.20/1.2)(0) + (1/1.2)(.04)] = .0608 or 6.08%The total amount we need to raise to fund the new equipment will be:Amount raised cost = $45,000,000/(1 – .0608)Amount raised = $47,912,317Since the cash flows go to perpetuity, we can calculate the present value using the equation for the PV of a perpetuity. The NPV is:NPV = –$47,912,317 + ($6,200,000/.1076)NPV = $9,719,777CH16 1，4，12，14，171. a. A table outlining the income statement for the three possible states of the economy isshown below. The EPS is the net income divided by the 5,000 shares outstanding. The lastrow shows the percentage change in EPS the company will experience in a recession or anexpansion economy.Recession Normal ExpansionEBIT $14,000 $28,000 $36,400Interest 0 0 0NI $14,000 $28,000 $36,400EPS $ 2.80 $ 5.60 $ 7.28%∆EPS –50 –––+30b.If the company undergoes the proposed recapitalization, it will repurchase:Share price = Equity / Shares outstandingShare price = $250,000/5,000Share price = $50Shares repurchased = Debt issued / Share priceShares repurchased =$90,000/$50Shares repurchased = 1,800The interest payment each year under all three scenarios will be:Interest payment = $90,000(.07) = $6,300The last row shows the percentage change in EPS the company will experience in arecession or an expansion economy under the proposed recapitalization.Recession Normal ExpansionEBIT $14,000 $28,000 $36,400Interest 6,300 6,300 6,300NI $7,700 $21,700 $30,100EPS $2.41 $ 6.78 $9.41%∆EPS –64.52 –––+38.714. a.Under Plan I, the unlevered company, net income is the same as EBIT with no corporate tax.The EPS under this capitalization will be:EPS = $350,000/160,000 sharesEPS = $2.19Under Plan II, the levered company, EBIT will be reduced by the interest payment. The interest payment is the amount of debt times the interest rate, so:NI = $500,000 – .08($2,800,000)NI = $126,000And the EPS will be:EPS = $126,000/80,000 sharesEPS = $1.58Plan I has the higher EPS when EBIT is $350,000.b.Under Plan I, the net income is $500,000 and the EPS is:EPS = $500,000/160,000 sharesEPS = $3.13Under Plan II, the net income is:NI = $500,000 – .08($2,800,000)NI = $276,000And the EPS is:EPS = $276,000/80,000 sharesEPS = $3.45Plan II has the higher EPS when EBIT is $500,000.c.To find the breakeven EBIT for two different capital structures, we simply set the equationsfor EPS equal to each other and solve for EBIT. The breakeven EBIT is:EBIT/160,000 = [EBIT – .08($2,800,000)]/80,000EBIT = $448,00012. a.With the information provided, we can use the equation for calculating WACC to find thecost of equity. The equation for WACC is:WACC = (E/V)R E + (D/V)R D(1 – t C)The company has a debt-equity ratio of 1.5, which implies the weight of debt is 1.5/2.5, and the weight of equity is 1/2.5, soWACC = .10 = (1/2.5)R E + (1.5/2.5)(.07)(1 – .35)R E = .1818 or 18.18%b.To find the unlevered cost of equity we need to use M&M Proposition II with taxes, so:R E = R U + (R U– R D)(D/E)(1 – t C).1818 = R U + (R U– .07)(1.5)(1 – .35)R U = .1266 or 12.66%c.To find the cost of equity under different capital structures, we can again use M&MProposition II with taxes. With a debt-equity ratio of 2, the cost of equity is:R E = R U + (R U– R D)(D/E)(1 – t C)R E = .1266 + (.1266 – .07)(2)(1 – .35)R E = .2001 or 20.01%With a debt-equity ratio of 1.0, the cost of equity is:R E = .1266 + (.1266 – .07)(1)(1 – .35)R E = .1634 or 16.34%And with a debt-equity ratio of 0, the cost of equity is:R E = .1266 + (.1266 – .07)(0)(1 – .35)R E = R U = .1266 or 12.66%14. a.The value of the unlevered firm is:V U = EBIT(1 – t C)/R UV U = $92,000(1 – .35)/.15V U = $398,666.67b.The value of the levered firm is:V U = V U + t C DV U = $398,666.67 + .35($60,000)V U = $419,666.6717.With no debt, we are finding the value of an unlevered firm, so:V U = EBIT(1 – t C)/R UV U = $14,000(1 – .35)/.16V U = $56,875With debt, we simply need to use the equation for the value of a levered firm. With 50 percent debt, one-half of the firm value is debt, so the value of the levered firm is:V L = V U + t C(D/V)V UV L = $56,875 + .35(.50)($56,875)V L = $66,828.13And with 100 percent debt, the value of the firm is:V L = V U + t C(D/V)V UV L = $56,875 + .35(1.0)($56,875)V L = $76,781.25c.The net cash flows is the present value of the average daily collections times the daily interest rate, minus the transaction cost per day, so:Net cash flow per day = $1,276,275(.0002) – $0.50(385)Net cash flow per day = $62.76The net cash flow per check is the net cash flow per day divided by the number of checks received per day, or:Net cash flow per check = $62.76/385Net cash flow per check = $0.16Alternatively, we could find the net cash flow per check as the number of days the system reduces collection time times the average check amount times the daily interest rate, minus the transaction cost per check. Doing so, we confirm our previous answer as:Net cash flow per check = 3($1,105)(.0002) – $0.50Net cash flow per check = $0.16 per checkThis makes the total costs:Total costs = $18,900,000 + 56,320,000 = $75,220,000The flotation costs as a percentage of the amount raised is the total cost divided by the amount raised, so:Flotation cost percentage = $75,220,000/$180,780,000 = .4161 or 41.61%8.The number of rights needed per new share is:Number of rights needed = 120,000 old shares/25,000 new shares = 4.8 rights per new share.Using P RO as the rights-on price, and P S as the subscription price, we can express the price per share of the stock ex-rights as:P X = [NP RO + P S]/(N + 1)a.P X = [4.8($94) + $94]/(4.80 + 1) = $94.00; No change.b. P X = [4.8($94) + $90]/(4.80 + 1) = $93.31; Price drops by $0.69 per share.c. P X = [4.8($94) + $85]/(4.80 + 1) = $92.45; Price drops by $1.55 per share.To get EBITD (earnings before interest, taxes, and depreciation), the numerator in the cash coverageratio, add depreciation to EBIT:EBITD = EBIT + Depreciation = $23,556.52 + 2,382 = $25,938.52Now, simply plug the numbers into the cash coverage ratio and calculate:。

第一章1.在所有权形式的公司中,股东是公司的所有者。

股东选举公司的董事会,董事会任命该公司的管理层。

企业的所有权和控制权分离的组织形式是导致的代理关系存在的主要原因。

管理者可能追求自身或别人的利益最大化,而不是股东的利益最大化。

在这种环境下,他们可能因为目标不一致而存在代理问题。

2.非营利公司经常追求社会或政治任务等各种目标。

非营利公司财务管理的目标是获取并有效使用资金以最大限度地实现组织的社会使命。

3.这句话是不正确的。

管理者实施财务管理的目标就是最大化现有股票的每股价值，当前的股票价值反映了短期和长期的风险、时间以及未来现金流量。

4.有两种结论。

一种极端,在市场经济中所有的东西都被定价。

因此所有目标都有一个最优水平，包括避免不道德或非法的行为，股票价值最大化。

另一种极端,我们可以认为这是非经济现象,最好的处理方式是通过政治手段。

一个经典的思考问题给出了这种争论的答案:公司估计提高某种产品安全性的成本是30美元万。

然而,该公司认为提高产品的安全性只会节省20美元万。

请问公司应该怎么做呢?”5.财务管理的目标都是相同的,但实现目标的最好方式可能是不同的,因为不同的国家有不同的社会、政治环境和经济制度。

6.管理层的目标是最大化股东现有股票的每股价值。

如果管理层认为能提高公司利润，使股价超过35美元,那么他们应该展开对恶意收购的斗争。

如果管理层认为该投标人或其它未知的投标人将支付超过每股35美元的价格收购公司,那么他们也应该展开斗争。

然而,如果管理层不能增加企业的价值,并且没有其他更高的投标价格,那么管理层不是在为股东的最大化权益行事。

现在的管理层经常在公司面临这些恶意收购的情况时迷失自己的方向。

7.其他国家的代理问题并不严重,主要取决于其他国家的私人投资者占比重较小。

较少的私人投资者能减少不同的企业目标。

高比重的机构所有权导致高学历的股东和管理层讨论决策风险项目。

此外,机构投资者比私人投资者可以根据自己的资源和经验更好地对管理层实施有效的监督机制。