国际财务管理(英文版)课后习题答案8
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CHAPTER 8 MANAGEMENT OF TRANSACTION EXPOSURE SUGGESTED ANSWERS AND SOLUTIONS TO END-OF-CHAPTER QUESTIONS ANDPROBLEMSQUESTIONS1. How would you define transaction exposure? How is it different from economic exposure?Answer: Transaction exposure is the sensitivity of realized domestic currency values of the firm‟s contractual cash flows denominated in foreign currencies to unexpected changes in exchange rates. Unlike economic exposure, transaction exposure is well-defined and short-term.2. Discuss and compare hedging transaction exposure using the forward contract vs. money market instruments. When do the alternative hedging approaches produce the same result?Answer: Hedging transaction exposure by a forward contract is achieved by selling or buying foreign currency receivables or payables forward. On the other hand, money market hedge is achieved by borrowing or lending the present value of foreign currency receivables or payables, thereby creating offsetting foreign currency positions. If the interest rate parity is holding, the two hedging methods are equivalent.3. Discuss and compare the costs of hedging via the forward contract and the options contract.Answer: There is no up-front cost of hedging by forward contracts. In the case of options hedging, however, hedgers should pay the premiums for the contracts up-front. The cost of forward hedging, however, may be realized ex post when the hedger regrets his/her hedging decision.4. What are the advantages of a currency options contract as a hedging tool compared with the forward contract?Answer: The main advantage of using options contracts for hedging is that the hedger can decide whether to exercise options upon observing the realized future exchange rate. Options thus provide a hedge against ex post regret that forward hedger might have to suffer. Hedgers can only eliminate the downside risk while retaining the upside potential.5. Suppose your company has purchased a put option on the German mark to manage exchange exposure associated with an account receivable denominated in that currency. In this case, your company can be said to have an …insurance‟ policy on its receivable. Explain in what sense this is so.Answer: Your company in this case knows in advance that it will receive a certain minimum dollar amount no matter what might happen to the $/€exchange rate. Furthermore, if the German mark appreciates, your company will benefit from the rising euro.6. Recent surveys of corporate exchange risk management practices indicate that many U.S. firms simply do not hedge. How would you explain this result?Answer: There can be many possible reasons for this. First, many firms may feel that they are not really exposed to exchange risk due to product diversification, diversified markets for their products, etc. Second, firms may be using self-insurance against exchange risk. Third, firms may feel that shareholders can diversify exchange risk themselves, rendering corporate risk management unnecessary.7. Should a firm hedge? Why or why not?Answer: In a perfect capital market, firms may not need to hedge exchange risk. But firms can add to their value by hedging if markets are imperfect. First, if management knows about the firm‟s exposure better than shareholders, the firm, not its shareholders, should hedge. Second, firms may be able to hedge at a lower cost. Third, if default costs are significant, corporate hedging can be justifiable because it reduces the probability of default. Fourth, if the firm faces progressive taxes, it can reduce tax obligations by hedging which stabilizes corporate earnings.8. Using an example, discuss the possible effect of hedging on a firm‟s tax obligations.Answer: One can use an example similar to the one presented in the chapter.9. Explain contingent exposure and discuss the advantages of using currency options to manage this type of currency exposure.Answer: Companies may encounter a situation where they may or may not face currency exposure. In this situation, companies need options, not obligations, to buy or sell a given amount of foreign exchange they may or may not receive or have to pay. If companies either hedge using forward contracts or do not hedge at all, they may face definite currency exposure.10. Explain cross-hedging and discuss the factors determining its effectiveness.Answer: Cross-hedging involves hedging a position in one asset by taking a position in another asset. The effectiveness of cross-hedging would depend on the strength and stability of the relationship between the two assets.PROBLEMS1. Cray Research sold a super computer to the Max Planck Institute in Germany on credit and invoiced €10 million payable in six months. Currently, the six-month forward exchange rate is $1.10/€ and the foreign exchange advisor for Cray Research predicts that the spot rate is likely to be $1.05/€ in six months.(a) What is the expected gain/loss from the forward hedging?(b) If you were the financial manager of Cray Research, would you recommend hedging this euro receivable? Why or why not?(c) Suppose the foreign exchange advisor predicts that the future spot rate will be the same as the forward exchange rate quoted today. Would you recommend hedging in this case? Why or why not?Solution: (a) Expected gain($) = 10,000,000(1.10 – 1.05)= 10,000,000(.05)= $500,000.(b) I would recommend hedging because Cray Research can increase the expected dollar receipt by $500,000 and also eliminate the exchange risk.(c) Since I eliminate risk without sacrificing dollar receipt, I still would recommend hedging.2. IBM purchased computer chips from NEC, a Japanese electronics concern, and was billed ¥250 million payable in three months. Currently, the spot exchange rate is ¥105/$ and the three-month forward rate is ¥100/$. The three-month money market interest rate is 8 percent per annum in the U.S. and 7 percent per annum in Japan. The management of IBM decided to use the money market hedge to deal with this yen account payable.(a) Explain the process of a money market hedge and compute the dollar cost of meeting the yen obligation.(b) Conduct the cash flow analysis of the money market hedge.Solution: (a). Let‟s first compute the PV of ¥250 million, i.e.,250m/1.0175 = ¥245,700,245.7So if the above yen amount is invested today at the Japanese interest rate for three months, the maturity value will be exactly equal to ¥25 million which is the amount of payable.To buy the above yen amount today, it will cost:$2,340,002.34 = ¥250,000,000/105.The dollar cost of meeting this yen obligation is $2,340,002.34 as of today.(b)___________________________________________________________________Transaction CF0 CF1____________________________________________________________________1. Buy yens spot -$2,340,002.34with dollars ¥245,700,245.702. Invest in Japan - ¥245,700,245.70 ¥250,000,0003. Pay yens - ¥250,000,000Net cash flow - $2,340,002.34____________________________________________________________________3. You plan to visit Geneva, Switzerland in three months to attend an international business conference. You expect to incur the total cost of SF 5,000 for lodging, meals and transportation during your stay. As of today, the spot exchange rate is $0.60/SF and the three-month forward rate is $0.63/SF. You can buy the three-month call option on SF with the exercise rate of $0.64/SF for the premium of $0.05 per SF. Assume that your expected future spot exchange rate is the same as the forward rate. The three-month interest rate is 6 percent per annum in the United States and 4 percent per annum in Switzerland.(a) Calculate your expected dollar cost of buying SF5,000 if you choose to hedge via call option on SF.(b) Calculate the future dollar cost of meeting this SF obligation if you decide to hedge using a forward contract.(c) At what future spot exchange rate will you be indifferent between the forward and option market hedges?(d) Illustrate the future dollar costs of meeting the SF payable against the future spot exchange rate under both the options and forward market hedges.Solution: (a) Total option premium = (.05)(5000) = $250. In three months, $250 is worth $253.75 = $250(1.015). At the expected future spot rate of $0.63/SF, which is less than the exercise price, you don‟t expect to exercise options. Rather, you expect to buy Swiss franc at $0.63/SF. Since you are going to buy SF5,000, you expect to spend $3,150 (=.63x5,000). Thus, the total expected cost of buying SF5,000 will be the sum of $3,150 and $253.75, i.e., $3,403.75.(b) $3,150 = (.63)(5,000).(c) $3,150 = 5,000x + 253.75, where x represents the break-even future spot rate. Solving for x, we obtain x = $0.57925/SF. Note that at the break-even future spot rate, options will not be exercised.(d) If the Swiss franc appreciates beyond $0.64/SF, which is the exercise price of call option, you will exercise the option and buy SF5,000 for $3,200. The total cost of buying SF5,000 will be $3,453.75 = $3,200 + $253.75.This is the maximum you will pay.4. Boeing just signed a contract to sell a Boeing 737 aircraft to Air France. Air France will be billed €20 million which is payable in one year. The current spot exchange rate is $1.05/€ and the one -year forward rate is $1.10/€. The annual interest rate is 6.0% in the U.S. and5.0% in France. Boeing is concerned with the volatile exchange rate between the dollar and the euro and would like to hedge exchange exposure. (a) It is considering two hedging alternatives: sell the euro proceeds from the sale forward or borrow euros from the Credit Lyonnaise against the euro receivable. Which alternative would you recommend? Why?(b) Other things being equal, at what forward exchange rate would Boeing be indifferent between the two hedging methods?Solution: (a) In the case of forward hedge, the future dollar proceeds will be (20,000,000)(1.10) = $22,000,000. In the case of money market hedge (MMH), the firm has to first borrow the PV of its euro receivable, i.e., 20,000,000/1.05 =€19,047,619. Then the firm should exchange this euro amount into dollars at the current spot rate to receive: (€19,047,619)($1.05/€) = $20,000,000, which can be invested at the dollar interest rate for one year to yield:$20,000,000(1.06) = $21,200,000.Clearly, the firm can receive $800,000 more by using forward hedging.(b) According to IRP, F = S(1+i $)/(1+i F ). Thus the “indifferent” forward rate will be:F = 1.05(1.06)/1.05 = $1.06/€. $ Cost Options hedge Forward hedge $3,453.75 $3,150 0 0.579 0.64 (strike price) $/SF$253.755. Suppose that Baltimore Machinery sold a drilling machine to a Swiss firm and gave the Swiss client a choice of paying either $10,000 or SF 15,000 in three months.(a) In the above example, Baltimore Machinery effectively gave the Swiss client a free option to buy up to $10,000 dollars using Swiss franc. What is the …implied‟ exercise exchange rate?(b) If the spot exchange rate turns out to be $0.62/SF, which currency do you think the Swiss client will choose to use for payment? What is the value of this free option for the Swiss client?(c) What is the best way for Baltimore Machinery to deal with the exchange exposure?Solution: (a) The implied exercise (price) rate is: 10,000/15,000 = $0.6667/SF.(b) If the Swiss client chooses to pay $10,000, it will cost SF16,129 (=10,000/.62). Since the Swiss client has an option to pay SF15,000, it will choose to do so. The value of this option is obviously SF1,129 (=SF16,129-SF15,000).(c) Baltimore Machinery faces a contingent exposure in the sense that it may or may not receive SF15,000 in the future. The firm thus can hedge this exposure by buying a put option on SF15,000.6. Princess Cruise Company (PCC) purchased a ship from Mitsubishi Heavy Industry. PCC owes Mitsubishi Heavy Industry 500 million yen in one year. The current spot rate is 124 yen per dollar and the one-year forward rate is 110 yen per dollar. The annual interest rate is 5% in Japan and 8% in the U.S. PCC can also buy a one-year call option on yen at the strike price of $.0081 per yen for a premium of .014 cents per yen.(a) Compute the future dollar costs of meeting this obligation using the money market hedge and the forward hedges.(b) Assuming that the forward exchange rate is the best predictor of the future spot rate, compute the expected future dollar cost of meeting this obligation when the option hedge is used.(c) At what future spot rate do you think PCC may be indifferent between the option and forward hedge?Solution: (a) In the case of forward hedge, the dollar cost will be 500,000,000/110 = $4,545,455. In the case of money market hedge, the future dollar cost will be: 500,000,000(1.08)/(1.05)(124)= $4,147,465.(b) The option premium is: (.014/100)(500,000,000) = $70,000. Its future value will be $70,000(1.08) = $75,600.At the expected future spot rate of $.0091(=1/110), which is higher than the exercise of $.0081, PCC will exercise its call option and buy ¥500,000,000 for $4,050,000 (=500,000,000x.0081).The total expected cost will thus be $4,125,600, which is the sum of $75,600 and $4,050,000.(c) When the option hedge is used, PCC will spend “at most” $4,125,000. On the other hand, when the forward hedging is used, PCC will have to spend $4,545,455 regardless of the future spot rate. This means that the options hedge dominates the forward hedge. At no future spot rate, PCC will be indifferent between forward and options hedges.7. Airbus sold an aircraft, A400, to Delta Airlines, a U.S. company, and billed $30 million payable in six months. Airbus is concerned with the euro proceeds from international sales and would like to control exchange risk. The current spot exchang e rate is $1.05/€ and six-month forward exchange rate is $1.10/€ at the moment. Airbus can buy a six-month put option on U.S. dollars with a strike price of €0.95/$ for a premium of €0.02 per U.S. dollar. Currently, six-month interest rate is 2.5% in the euro zone and 3.0% in the U.S.pute the guaranteed euro proceeds from the American sale if Airbus decides to hedge using aforward contract.b.If Airbus decides to hedge using money market instruments, what action does Airbus need to take?What would be the guaranteed euro proceeds from the American sale in this case?c.If Airbus decides to hedge using put options on U.S. dollars, what would be the …expected‟ europroceeds from the American sale? Assume that Airbus regards the current forward exchange rate as an unbiased predictor of the future spot exchange rate.d.At what future spot exchange rate do you think Airbus will be indifferent between the option andmoney market hedge?Solution:a. Airbus will sell $30 million forward for €27,272,727 = ($30,000,000) / ($1.10/€).b. Airbus will borrow the present value of the dollar receivable, i.e., $29,126,214 = $30,000,000/1.03, and then sell the dollar proceeds spot for euros: €27,739,251. This is the euro amount that Airbus is going to keep.c. Since th e expected future spot rate is less than the strike price of the put option, i.e., €0.9091< €0.95, Airbus expects to exercise the option and receive €28,500,000 = ($30,000,000)(€0.95/$). This is gross proceeds. Airbus spent €600,000 (=0.02x30,000,000) upfr ont for the option and its future cost is equal to €615,000 = €600,000 x 1.025. Thus the net euro proceeds from the American sale is €27,885,000, which is the difference between the gross proceeds and the option costs.d. At the indifferent future spot rate, the following will hold:€28,432,732 = S T (30,000,000) - €615,000.Solving for S T, we obtain the “indifference” future spot exchange rate, i.e., €0.9683/$, or $1.0327/€.Note that €28,432,732 is the future value of the proceeds under money market hed ging:€28,432,732 = (€27,739,251) (1.025).Suggested solution for Mini Case: Chase Options, Inc.[See Chapter 13 for the case text]Chase Options, Inc.Hedging Foreign Currency Exposure Through Currency OptionsHarvey A. PoniachekI. Case SummaryThis case reviews the foreign exchange options market and hedging. It presents various international transactions that require currency options hedging strategies by the corporations involved. Seven transactions under a variety of circumstances are introduced that require hedging by currency options. The transactions involve hedging of dividend remittances, portfolio investment exposure, and strategic economic competitiveness. Market quotations are provided for options (and options hedging ratios), forwards, and interest rates for various maturities.II. Case Objective.The case introduces the student to the principles of currency options market and hedging strategies. The transactions are of various types that often confront companies that are involved in extensive international business or multinational corporations. The case induces students to acquire hands-on experience in addressing specific exposure and hedging concerns, including how to apply various market quotations, which hedging strategy is most suitable, and how to address exposure in foreign currency through cross hedging policies.III. Proposed Assignment Solution1. The company expects DM100 million in repatriated profits, and does not want the DM/$ exchange rate at which they convert those profits to rise above 1.70. They can hedge this exposure using DM put options with a strike price of 1.70. If the spot rate rises above 1.70, they can exercise the option, while ifthat rate falls they can enjoy additional profits from favorable exchange rate movements.To purchase the options would require an up-front premium of:DM 100,000,000 x 0.0164 = DM 1,640,000.With a strike price of 1.70 DM/$, this would assure the U.S. company of receiving at least:DM 100,000,000 – DM 1,640,000 x (1 + 0.085106 x 272/360)= DM 98,254,544/1.70 DM/$ = $57,796,791by exercising the option if the DM depreciated. Note that the proceeds from the repatriated profits are reduced by the premium paid, which is further adjusted by the interest foregone on this amount.However, if the DM were to appreciate relative to the dollar, the company would allow the option to expire, and enjoy greater dollar proceeds from this increase.Should forward contracts be used to hedge this exposure, the proceeds received would be:DM100,000,000/1.6725 DM/$ = $59,790,732,regardless of the movement of the DM/$ exchange rate. While this amount is almost $2 million more than that realized using option hedges above, there is no flexibility regarding the exercise date; if this date differs from that at which the repatriate profits are available, the company may be exposed to additional further current exposure. Further, there is no opportunity to enjoy any appreciation in the DM.If the company were to buy DM puts as above, and sell an equivalent amount in calls with strike price 1.647, the premium paid would be exactly offset by the premium received. This would assure that the exchange rate realized would fall between 1.647 and 1.700. If the rate rises above 1.700, the company will exercise its put option, and if it fell below 1.647, the other party would use its call; for any rate in between, both options would expire worthless. The proceeds realized would then fall between:DM 100,00,000/1.647 DM/$ = $60,716,454andDM 100,000,000/1.700 DM/$ = $58,823,529.This would allow the company some upside potential, while guaranteeing proceeds at least $1 million greater than the minimum for simply buying a put as above.Buy/Sell OptionsDM/$Spot Put Payoff “Put”Profits Call Payoff“Call”Profits Net Profit1.60 (1,742,846) 0 1,742,846 60,716,454 60,716,454 1.61 (1,742,846) 0 1,742,846 60,716,454 60,716,454 1.62 (1,742,846) 0 1,742,846 60,716,454 60,716,454 1.63 (1,742,846) 0 1,742,846 60,716,454 60,716,454 1.64 (1,742,846) 0 1,742,846 60,716,454 60,716,454 1.65 (1,742,846) 60,606,061 1,742,846 0 60,606,061 1.66 (1,742,846) 60,240,964 1,742,846 0 60,240,964 1.67 (1,742,846) 59,880,240 1,742,846 0 59,880,240 1.68 (1,742,846) 59,523,810 1,742,846 0 59,523,810 1.69 (1,742,846) 59,171,598 1,742,846 0 59,171,598 1.70 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 1.71 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 1.72 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 1.73 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 1.74 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 1.75 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 1.76 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 1.77 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 1.78 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 1.79 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 1.80 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 1.81 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 1.82 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 1.83 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 1.84 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 1.85 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529Since the firm believes that there is a good chance that the pound sterling will weaken, locking them into a forward contract would not be appropriate, because they would lose the opportunity to profit from this weakening. Their hedge strategy should follow for an upside potential to match their viewpoint. Therefore, they should purchase sterling call options, paying a premium of:5,000,000 STG x 0.0176 = 88,000 STG.If the dollar strengthens against the pound, the firm allows the option to expire, and buys sterling in the spot market at a cheaper price than they would have paid for a forward contract; otherwise, the sterling calls protect against unfavorable depreciation of the dollar.Because the fund manager is uncertain when he will sell the bonds, he requires a hedge which will allow flexibility as to the exercise date. Thus, options are the best instrument for him to use. He can buy A$ puts to lock in a floor of 0.72 A$/$. Since he is willing to forego any further currency appreciation, he can sell A$ calls with a strike price of 0.8025 A$/$ to defray the cost of his hedge (in fact he earns a net premium of A$ 100,000,000 x (0.007234 –0.007211) = A$ 2,300), while knowing that he can‟t receive less than 0.72 A$/$ when redeeming his investment, and can benefit from a small appreciation of the A$.Example #3:Problem: Hedge principal denominated in A$ into US$. Forgo upside potential to buy floor protection.I. Hedge by writing calls and buying puts1) Write calls for $/A$ @ 0.8025Buy puts for $/A$ @ 0.72# contracts needed = Principal in A$/Contract size100,000,000A$/100,000 A$ = 1002) Revenue from sale of calls = (# contracts)(size of contract)(premium)$75,573 = (100)(100,000 A$)(.007234 $/A$)(1 + .0825 195/360)3) Total cost of puts = (# contracts)(size of contract)(premium)$75,332 = (100)(100,000 A$)(.007211 $/A$)(1 + .0825 195/360)4) Put payoffIf spot falls below 0.72, fund manager will exercise putIf spot rises above 0.72, fund manager will let put expire5) Call payoffIf spot rises above .8025, call will be exercised If spot falls below .8025, call will expire6) Net payoffSee following Table for net payoff Australian Dollar Bond HedgeStrikePrice Put Payoff “Put”Principal Call Payoff“Call”Principal Net Profit0.60 (75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,2410.61 (75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,2410.62 (75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,2410.63 (75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,2410.64 (75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,2410.65 (75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,2410.66 (75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,2410.67 (75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,2410.68 (75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,2410.69 (75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,2410.70 (75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,2410.71 (75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,2410.72 (75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,2410.73 (75,332) 73,000,000 75,573 0 73,000,2410.74 (75,332) 74,000,000 75,573 0 74,000,2410.75 (75,332) 75,000,000 75,573 0 75,000,2410.76 (75,332) 76,000,000 75,573 0 76,000,2410.77 (75,332) 77,000,000 75,573 0 77,000,2410.78 (75,332) 78,000,000 75,573 0 78,000,2410.79 (75,332) 79,000,000 75,573 0 79,000,2410.80 (75,332) 80,000,000 75,573 0 80,000,2410.81 (75,332) 0 75,573 80,250,000 80,250,2410.82 (75,332) 0 75,573 80,250,000 80,250,2410.83 (75,332) 0 75,573 80,250,000 80,250,2410.84 (75,332) 0 75,573 80,250,000 80,250,2410.85 (75,332) 0 75,573 80,250,000 80,250,2414. The German company is bidding on a contract which they cannot be certain of winning. Thus, the need to execute a currency transaction is similarly uncertain, and using a forward or futures as a hedge is inappropriate, because it would force them to perform even if they do not win the contract.Using a sterling put option as a hedge for this transaction makes the most sense. For a premium of:12 million STG x 0.0161 = 193,200 STG,they can assure themselves that adverse movements in the pound sterling exchange rate will not diminish the profitability of the project (and hence the feasibility of their bid), while at the same time allowing the potential for gains from sterling appreciation.5. Since AMC in concerned about the adverse effects that a strengthening of the dollar would have on its business, we need to create a situation in which it will profit from such an appreciation. Purchasing a yen put or a dollar call will achieve this objective. The data in Exhibit 1, row 7 represent a 10 percent appreciation of the dollar (128.15 strike vs. 116.5 forward rate) and can be used to hedge against a similar appreciation of the dollar.For every million yen of hedging, the cost would be:Yen 100,000,000 x 0.000127 = 127 Yen.To determine the breakeven point, we need to compute the value of this option if the dollar appreciated 10 percent (spot rose to 128.15), and subtract from it the premium we paid. This profit would be compared with the profit earned on five to 10 percent of AMC‟s sales (which would be lost as a result of the dollar appreciation). The number of options to be purchased which would equalize these two quantities would represent the breakeven point.Example #5:Hedge the economic cost of the depreciating Yen to AMC.If we assume that AMC sales fall in direct proportion to depreciation in the yen (i.e., a 10 percent decline in yen and 10 percent decline in sales), then we can hedge the full value of AMC‟s sales. I have assumed $100 million in sales.1) Buy yen puts# contracts needed = Expected Sales *Current ¥/$ Rate / Contract size9600 = ($100,000,000)(120¥/$) / ¥1,250,0002) Total Cost = (# contracts)(contract size)(premium)$1,524,000 = (9600)( ¥1,250,000)($0.0001275/¥)3) Floor rate = Exercise – Premium128.1499¥/$ = 128.15¥/$ - $1,524,000/12,000,000,000¥4) The payoff changes depending on the level of the ¥/$ rate. The following table summarizes thepayoffs. An equilibrium is reached when the spot rate equals the floor rate.AMC ProfitabilityYen/$ Spot Put Payoff Sales Net Profit 120 (1,524,990) 100,000,000 98,475,010 121 (1,524,990) 99,173,664 97,648,564 122 (1,524,990) 98,360,656 96,835,666 123 (1,524,990) 97,560,976 86,035,986 124 (1,524,990) 96,774,194 95,249,204 125 (1,524,990) 96,000,000 94,475,010 126 (1,524,990) 95,238,095 93,713,105 127 (847,829) 94,488,189 93,640,360 128 (109,640) 93,750,000 93,640,360 129 617,104 93,023,256 93,640,360 130 1,332,668 92,307,692 93,640,360 131 2,037,307 91,603,053 93,640,360 132 2,731,269 90,909,091 93,640,360 133 3,414,796 90,225,664 93,640,360 134 4,088,122 89,552,239 93,640,360 135 4,751,431 88,888,889 93,640,360 136 5,405,066 88,235,294 93,640,360 137 6,049,118 87,591,241 93,640,360 138 6,683,839 86,966,522 93,640,360 139 7,308,425 86,330,936 93,640,360 140 7,926,075 85,714,286 93,640,360 141 8,533,977 85,106,383 93,640,360 142 9,133,318 84,507,042 93,640,360 143 9,724,276 83,916,084 93,640,360 144 10,307,027 83,333,333 93,640,360 145 10,881,740 82,758,621 93,640,360 146 11,448,579 82,191,781 93,640,360 147 12,007,707 81,632,653 93,640,360 148 12,569,279 81,081,081 93,640,360 149 13,103,448 80,536,913 93,640,360 150 13,640,360 80,000,000 93,640,360。
Chapter 8Relationships Among Inflation,Interest Rates, and Exchange Rates Lecture OutlinePurchasing Power Parity (PPP)Interpretations of PPPRationale Behind PPP TheoryDerivation of PPPUsing PPP to Estimate Exchange Rate EffectsGraphic Analysis of PPPTesting the PPP TheoryWhy PPP Does Not OccurPPP in the Long RunInternational Fisher Effect (IFE)Implications of the IFE for Foreign InvestorsDerivation of the IFEGraphic Analysis of the IFETests of the IFEWhy the IFE Does Not OccurComparison of IRP, PPP, and IFE TheoriesChapter ThemeThis chapter discusses the relationship between inflation and exchange rates according to the purchasing power parity (PPP) theory. Since this is one of the most popular subjects in inter-national finance, it is covered thoroughly. While PPP is a relevant theory, it should be emphasized that PPP will not always hold in reality. It does however, provide a foundation in understanding how inflation can affect exchange rates. The international Fisher effect (IFE) is also discussed in this chapter. This theory is also very important. Yet, it should again be emphasized that this theory does not always hold. If the PPP and IFE theories held consistently, decision making by MNCs would be much easier. Because these theories do not hold consistently, an MNC’s decision making is very challenging.Topics to Stimulate Class Discussion1. Provide reasoning for why highly inflated countries such as Brazil tend to have weak homecurrencies.2. Identify the inflation rate of your home country and some well-known foreign country. Thenidentify the percentage change of your home currency with respect to that foreign country.Did the currency change in the direction and by the magnitude that you would have expected according to PPP? If not, offer possible reasons for this discrepancy.3. Identify the quoted one-year interest rates in your home country and in a well-known foreigncountry as of one year ago. Also determine how your home currency changed relative to this foreign currency over the last year. Did the currency change according to the IFE theory? If not, does this information disprove IFE? Elaborate.4. Provide a simple explanation of the difference between interest rate parity (from the previouschapter), PPP (from this chapter), and IFE (from this chapter).Critical debateDoes PPP Eliminate Concerns about Long-Term Exchange Rate Risk?Proposition Yes. Studies have shown that exchange rate movements are related to inflation differentials in the long run. Based on PPP, the currency of a high-inflation country will depreciate against the home currency. A subsidiary in that country should generate inflated revenue from the inflation, which will help offset the adverse exchange effects when its earnings are remitted to the parent. If a firm is focused on long-term performance, the deviations from PPP will offset over time. In some years, the exchange rate effects may exceed the inflation effects, and in other years the inflation effects will exceed the exchange rate effects.Opposing view No. Even if the relationship between inflation and exchange rate effects is consistent, this does not guarantee that the effects on the firm will be offsetting. A subsidiary in a high-inflation country will not necessarily be able to adjust its price level to keep up with the increased costs of doing business there. The effects vary with each MNC’s situation. Even if the subsidiary can raise its prices to match the rising costs, there are short-term deviations from PPP. The investors who invest in an MNC’s stock may be concerned about short-term deviations fromPPP, because they will not necessarily hold the stock for the long term. Thus, investors may prefer that firms manage in a manner that reduces the volatility in their performance in short-run and long-run periods.With whom do you agree? State your reasons Examine the exchange rate policies of the major multinationals by referring to their annual reports. The Forbes listing of major multinationals on the web is a good starting point. In particular, consult the reports of Renault (France) and Phillips (Holland).ANSWER: It is possible that inflation and exchange rate effects will offset over the long run. However, many investors will not be satisfied because they may invest in the firm for just a few years or even a shorter term. Thus, they will prefer that MNCs assess their exposure to exchange rate risk and attempt to limit the risk.Answers to End of Chapter Questions1. PPP. Explain the theory of purchasing power parity (PPP). Based on this theory, what is ageneral forecast of the values of currencies in countries with high inflation?ANSWER: PPP suggests that the purchasing power of a consumer will be similar when purchasing goods in a foreign country or in the home country. If inflation in a foreign country differs from inflation in the home country, the exchange rate will adjust to maintain equal purchasing power.Currencies in countries with high inflation will be weak according to PPP, causing the purchasing power of goods in the home country versus these countries to be similar.2. Rationale of PPP. Explain the rationale of the PPP theory.ANSWER: When inflation is high in a particular country, foreign demand for goods in that country will decrease. In addition, that country’s demand for foreign goods should increase.Thus, the home currency of that country will weaken; this tendency should continue until the currency has weakened to the extent that a foreign country’s goods are no more attractive than the home country’s goods. Inflation differentials are offset by exchange rate changes. 3. Testing PPP. Explain how you could determine whether PPP exists. Describe a limitation intesting whether PPP holds.ANSWER: One method is to choose two countries and compare the inflation differential to the exchange rate change for several different periods. Then, determine whether the exchange rate changes were similar to what would have been expected under PPP theory.A second method is to choose a variety of countries and compare the inflation differential ofeach foreign country relative to the home country for a given period. Then, determine whether the exchange rate changes of each foreign currency were what would have been expected based on the inflation differentials under PPP theory.A limitation in testing PPP is that the results will vary with the base period chosen. The baseperiod should reflect an equilibrium position, but it is difficult to determine when such a period exists.4. Testing PPP. Inflation differentials between the U.S. and other industrialized countries havetypically been a few percentage points in any given year. Yet, in many years annual exchange rates between the corresponding currencies have changed by 10 percent or more.What does this information suggest about PPP?ANSWER: The information suggests that there are other factors besides inflation differentials that influence exchange rate movements. Thus, the exchange rate movements will not necessarily conform to inflation differentials, and therefore PPP will not necessarily hold.5. Limitations of PPP. Explain why PPP does not hold.ANSWER: PPP does not consistently hold because there are other factors besides inflation that influences exchange rates. Thus, exchange rates will not move in perfect tandem with inflation differentials. In addition, there may not be substitutes for traded goods. Therefore, even when a country’s inflation increases, the foreign demand for its products will not necessarily decrease (in the manner suggested by PPP) if substitutes are not available.6. Implications of IFE. Explain the international Fisher effect (IFE). What is the rationale forthe existence of the IFE? What are the implications of the IFE for firms with excess cash that consistently invest in foreign Treasury bills? Explain why the IFE may not hold.ANSWER: The IFE suggests that a currency’s value will adjust in accordance with the differential in interest rates between two countries.The rationale is that if a particular currency exhibits a high nominal interest rate, this may reflect a high anticipated inflation. Thus, the inflation will place downward pressure on the currency’s value if it occurs.The implications are that a firm that consistently purchases foreign Treasury bills will on average earn a similar return as on domestic Treasury bills.The IFE may not hold because exchange rate movements react to other factors in addition to interest rate differentials. Therefore, an exchange rate will not necessarily adjust in accordance with the nominal interest rate differentials, so that IFE may not hold.7. Implications of IFE. Assume UK interest rates are generally above foreign interest rates.What does this suggest about the future strength or weakness of the pound based on the IFE?Should UK investors invest in foreign securities if they believe in the IFE? Should foreign investors invest in UK securities if they believe in the IFE?ANSWER: The IFE would suggest that the pound will depreciate over time if UK interest rates are currently higher than foreign interest rates. Consequently, foreign investors who purchased UK securities would on average receive a similar yield as what they receive in their own country, and UK investors who purchased foreign securities would on average receive a yield similar to UK rates.8. Comparing Parity Theories. Compare and contrast interest rate parity (discussed in theprevious chapter), purchasing power parity (PPP), and the international Fisher effect (IFE).ANSWER: Interest rate parity can be evaluated using data at any one point in time to determine the relationship between the interest rate differential of two countries and the forward premium (or discount). PPP suggests a relationship between the inflation differential of two countries and the percentage change in the spot exchange rate over time. IFE suggestsa relationship between the interest rate differential of two countries and the percentagechange in the spot exchange rate over time. IFE is based on nominal interest rate differentials, which are influenced by expected inflation. Thus, the IFE is closely related to PPP.9. Real Interest Rate. One assumption made in developing the IFE is that all investors in allcountries have the same real interest rate. What does this mean?ANSWER: The real return is the nominal return minus the inflation rate. If all investors require the same real return, then the differentials in nominal interest rates should be solely due to differentials in anticipated inflation among countries.10. Interpreting Inflationary Expectations. If investors in the UK and Canada require the samereal interest rate, and the nominal rate of interest is 2 percent higher in Canada, what does this imply about expectations of UK inflation and Canadian inflation? What do these inflationary expectations suggest about future exchange rates?ANSWER: Expected inflation in Canada is 2 percent above expected inflation in the UK. If these inflationary expectations come true, PPP would suggest that the value of the Canadian dollar should depreciate by 2 percent against the pound.11. PPP Applied to the Euro. Assume that several European countries that use the euro as theircurrency experience higher inflation than the United States, while two other European countries that use the euro as their currency experience lower inflation than the United States.According to PPP, how will the euro’s value against the dollar be affected?ANSWER: The high European inflation overall would reduce the U.S. demand for European products, increase the European demand for U.S. products, and cause the euro to depreciate against the dollar.According to the PPP theory, the euro's value would adjust in response to the weighted inflation rates of the European countries that are represented by the euro relative to the inflation in the U.S. If the European inflation rises, while the U.S. inflation remains low, there would be downward pressure on the euro.12. Source of Weak Currencies. Currencies of some Latin American countries, such as Braziland Venezuela, frequently weaken against most other currencies. What concept in this chapter explains this occurrence? Why don’t all U.S.-based MNCs use forward contracts to hedge their future remittances of funds from Latin American countries to the U.S. even if they expect depreciation of the currencies against the dollar?ANSWER: Latin American countries typically have very high inflation, as much as 200 percent or more. PPP theory would suggest that currencies of these countries will depreciateagainst the U.S. dollar (and other major currencies) in order to retain purchasing power across countries. The high inflation discourages demand for Latin American imports and places downward pressure in their Latin American currencies. Depreciation of the currencies offsets the increased prices on Latin American goods from the perspective of importers in other countries.Interest rate parity forces the forward rates to contain a large discount due to the high interest rates in Latin America, which reflects a disadvantage of hedging these currencies. The decision to hedge makes more sense if the expected degree of depreciation exceeds the degree of the forward discount. Also, keep in mind that some remittances cannot be perfectly hedged anyway because the amount of future remittances is uncertain.13. PPP. Japan has typically had lower inflation than the United States. How would one expectthis to affect the Japanese yen’s value? Why does this expected relationship not always occur?ANSWER: Japan’s low inflation should place upward pressure on the yen’s value. Yet, other factors can sometimes offset this pressure. For example, Japan heavily invests in U.S.securities, which places downward pressure on the yen’s value.14. IFE. Assume that the nominal interest rate in Mexico is 48 percent and the interest rate in theUnited States is 8 percent for one-year securities that are free from default risk. What does the IFE suggest about the differential in expected inflation in these two countries? Using this information and the PPP theory, describe the expected nominal return to U.S. investors who invest in Mexico.ANSWER: If investors from the U.S. and Mexico required the same real (inflation-adjusted) return, then any difference in nominal interest rates is due to differences in expected inflation. Thus, the inflation rate in Mexico is expected to be about 40 percent above the U.S.inflation rate.According to PPP, the Mexican peso should depreciate by the amount of the differential between U.S. and Mexican inflation rates. Using a 40 percent differential, the Mexican peso should depreciate by about 40 percent. Given a 48 percent nominal interest rate in Mexico and expected depreciation of the peso of 40 percent, U.S. investors will earn about 8 percent.(This answer used the inexact formula, since the concept is stressed here more than precision.)15. IFE. Shouldn’t the IFE discourage investors from attempting to capitalize on higher foreigninterest rates? Why do some investors continue to invest overseas, even when they have no other transactions overseas?ANSWER: According to the IFE, higher foreign interest rates should not attract investors because these rates imply high expected inflation rates, which in turn imply potential depreciation of these currencies. Yet, some investors still invest in foreign countries where nominal interest rates are high. This may suggest that some investors believe that (1) the anticipated inflation rate embedded in a high nominal interest rate is overestimated, or (2) the potentially high inflation will not cause substantial depreciation of the foreign currency (which could occur if adequate substitute products were not available elsewhere), or (3) thereare other factors that can offset the possible impact of inflation on the foreign currency’s value.16. Changes in Inflation. Assume that the inflation rate in Brazil is expected to increasesubstantially. How will this affect Brazil’s nominal interest rates and the value of its currency (called the real)? If the IFE holds, how will the nominal return to UK investors who invest in Brazil be affected by the higher inflation in Brazil? Explain.ANSWER: Brazil’s nominal interest rate would likely increase to maintain the real return required by Brazilian investors. The Brazilian real would be expected to depreciate according to the IFE. If the IFE holds, the return to UK investors who invest in Brazil would not be affected. Even though they now earn a higher nominal interest rate, the expected decline in the Brazilian real offsets the additional interest to be earned.17. Comparing PPP and IFE. How is it possible for PPP to hold if the IFE does not?ANSWER: For the IFE to hold, the following conditions are necessary:(1) investors across countries require the same real returns,(2) the expected inflation rate embedded in the nominal interest rate occurs,(3) the exchange rate adjusts to the inflation rate differential according to PPP.If conditions (1) or (2) do not hold, PPP may still hold, but investors may achieve consistently higher returns when investing in a foreign country’s securities. Thus, IFE would be refuted.18. Estimating Depreciation Due to PPP. Assume that the spot exchange rate of the Britishpound is $1.73. How will this spot rate adjust according to PPP if the United Kingdom experiences an inflation rate of 7 percent while the United States experiences an inflation rate of 2 percent?ANSWER: According to PPP, the exchange rate of the pound will depreciate by 4.7 percent.Therefore, the spot rate would adjust to $1.73 × [1 + (–.047)] = $1.65.19. Forecasting the Future Spot Rate Based on IFE. Assume that the spot exchange rate of theSingapore dollar is £0.35. The one-year interest rate is 11 percent in the United Kingdom and7 percent in Singapore. What will the spot rate be in one year according to the IFE? (Youmay use the approximate formula to answer this question.)ANSWER: £0.35 × (1 + .04) = £0.36420. Deriving Forecasts of the Future Spot Rate. As of today, assume the following informationis available:UK MexicoReal rate of interest requiredinvestors 2% 2%byNominal interest rate 11% 15%Spot rate — £0.05One-year forward rate — £0.049a. Use the forward rate to forecast the percentage change in the Mexican peso over the nextyear.ANSWER: (£0.049– £0.05)/£0.05 = –.02, or –2%b. Use the differential in expected inflation to forecast the percentage change in theMexican peso over the next year.ANSWER: 11% – 15% = –4%; the negative sign represents depreciation of the peso.c. Use the spot rate to forecast the percentage change in the Mexican peso over the next year.ANSWER: zero percent change21. Inflation and Interest Rate Effects. The opening of Russia's market has resulted in a highlyvolatile Russian currency (the rouble). Russia's inflation has commonly exceeded 20 percent per month. Russian interest rates commonly exceed 150 percent, but this is sometimes less than the annual inflation rate in Russia.a. Explain why the high Russian inflation has put severe pressure on the value of theRussian rouble.ANSWER: As Russian prices were increasing, the purchasing power of Russian consumers was declining. This would encourage them to purchase goods in the UK and elsewhere, which results in a large supply of roubles for sale. Given the high Russian inflation, foreign demand for roubles to purchase Russian goods would be low. Thus, the rouble’s value should depreciate against the dollar, and against other currencies.b. Does the effect of Russian inflation on the decline in the rouble’s value support the PPPtheory? How might the relationship be distorted by political conditions in Russia?ANSWER: The general relationship suggested by PPP is supported, but the rouble’s value will not normally move exactly as specified by PPP. The political conditions that could restrict trade or currency convertibility can prevent Russian consumers from shifting to foreign goods. Thus, the rouble may not decline by the full degree to offset the inflation differential between Russia and the UK Furthermore, the government may not allow the rouble to float freely to its proper equilibrium level.c. Does it appear that the prices of Russian goods will be equal to the prices of UK goodsfrom the perspective of Russian consumers (after considering exchange rates)? Explain.ANSWER: Russian prices might be higher than UK prices, even after considering exchange rates, because the rouble might not depreciate enough to fully offset the Russian inflation. The exchange rate cannot fully adjust if there are barriers on trade or currency convertibility.d. Will the effects of the high Russian inflation and the decline in the rouble offset eachother for UK importers? That is, how will UK importers of Russian goods be affected by the conditions?ANSWER: UK importers will likely experience higher prices, because the Russian inflation may not be completely offset by the decline in the rouble’s value. This may cause a reduction in the UK demand for Russian goods.22. IFE Application to Asian Crisis. Before the Asian crisis, many investors attempted tocapitalize on the high interest rates prevailing in the Southeast Asian countries although the level of interest rates primarily reflected expectations of inflation. Explain why investors behaved in this manner.Why does the IFE suggest that the Southeast Asian countries would not have attracted foreign investment before the Asian crisis despite the high interest rates prevailing in those countries?ANSWER: The investors' behavior suggests that they did not expect the international Fisher effect (IFE) to hold. Since central banks of some Asian countries were maintaining their currencies within narrow bands, they were effectively preventing the exchange rate from depreciating in a manner that would offset the interest rate differential. Consequently, superior profits from investing in the foreign countries were possible.If investors believed in the IFE, the Asian countries would not attract a high level of foreign investment because of exchange rate expectations. Specifically, the high nominal interest rate should reflect a high level of expected inflation. According to purchasing power parity (PPP), the higher interest rate should result in a weaker currency because of the implied market expectations of high inflation.23. IFE Applied to the Euro. Given the recent conversion of several European currencies to theeuro, explain what would cause the euro’s value to change against the dollar according to the IFE.ANSWER: If interest rates change in these European countries whose home currency is the euro, the expected inflation rate in those countries change, so that the inflation differential between those countries and the U.S. changes. Thus, there may be an impact on the value of the euro, because a change in the inflation differential affects trade flows and therefore affects the exchange rate.Advanced Questions24. IFE. Beth Miller does not believe that the international Fisher effect (IFE) holds. Currentone-year interest rates in Europe are 5 percent, while one-year interest rates in the U.S. are 3 percent. Beth converts $100,000 to euros and invests them in Germany. One year later, she converts the euros back to dollars. The current spot rate of the euro is $1.10.a. According to the IFE, what should the spot rate of the euro in one year be?b. If the spot rate of the euro in one year is $1.00, what is Beth’s percentage return from herstrategy?c. If the spot rate of the euro in one year is $1.08, what is Beth’s percentage return from herstrategy?d. What must the spot rate of the euro be in one year for Beth’s strategy to be successful?ANSWER:a.%90.11)05.1()03.1(1)1()1(−=−=−++=f h f i i eIf the IFE holds, the euro should depreciate by 1.90 percent in one year. This translates to a spot rate of $1.10 × (1 – 1.90%) = $1.079.b.1. Convert dollars to euros: $100,000/$1.10 = €90,909.092. Invest euros for one year and receive €90,909.09 × 1.05 = €95,454.553. Convert euros back to dollars and receive €95,454.55 × $1.00 = $95,454.55The percentage return is $95,454.55/$100,000 – 1 = –4.55%.c.1. Convert dollars to euros: $100,000/$1.10 = €90,909.092. Invest euros for one year and receive €90,909.09 × 1.05 = €95,454.553. Convert euros back to dollars and receive €95,454.55 × $1.08 = $103,090.91The percentage return is $103,090.91/$100,000 – 1 = 3.09%.d. Beth’s strategy would be successful if the spot rate of the euro in one year is greater than$1.079.25. Integrating IRP and IFE. Assume the following information is available for the U.S. andEurope:U.S. Europe Nominal interest rate 4% 6%Expected inflation 2% 5%Spot rate ----- $1.13One-year forward rate ----- $1.10a. Does IRP hold?b. According to PPP, what is the expected spot rate of the euro in one year?c. According to the IFE, what is the expected spot rate of the euro in one year?d. Reconcile your answers to parts (a). and (c).ANSWER:a.%89.11)06.1()04.1(1)1()1(−=−=−++=f h i i pTherefore, the forward rate of the euro should be $1.13 × (1 – 1.89%) = $1.109. IRP does not hold in this case.b.%86.21)05.1()02.1(1)1()1(−=−=−++=f h f I I eAccording to PPP, the expected spot rate of the euro in one year is $1.13 × (1 – 2.86%) = $1.098.c.%89.11)06.1()04.1(1)1()1(−=−=−++=f h f i i eAccording to the IFE, the expected spot rate of the euro in one year is $1.13 × (1 – 2.86%) = $1.098.Parts a and c combined say that the forward rate premium or discount is exactly equal to theexpectedpercentage appreciation or depreciation of the euro.26. IRP. The one-year risk-free interest rate in Mexico is 10%. The one-year risk-free rate in theUK is 2%. Assume that interest rate parity exists. The spot rate of the Mexican peso is £0.14.a. What is the forward rate premium?b. What is the one-year forward rate of the peso?c. Based on the international Fisher effect, what is the expected change in the spot rate over thenext year?d.If the spot rate changes as expected according to the IFE, what will be the spot rate in oneyear?pare your answers to (b) and (d) and explain the relationship.ANSWER:a. According to interest rate parity, the forward premium is07273.1)10.1()02.1(−=−++b. The forward rate is £0.14 × (1 – .07273) = £0.1298.c. According to the IFE, the expected change in the peso is:07273.1)10.1()02.1(−=−++or –7.273%d. £.14 × (1 – .07273) = £0.1298e. The answers are the same. When IRP holds, the forward rate premium and the expected percentage change in the spot rate are derived in the same manner. Thus, the forward premium serves as the forecasted percentage change in the spot rate according to IFE.27. Testing the PPP. How could you use regression analysis to determine whether therelationship specified by PPP exists on average? Specify the model, and describe how you would assess the regression results to determine if there is a significant difference from the relationship suggested by PPP.ANSWER: A regression model could be applied to historical data to test PPP. The model isspecified as:()e a a 1+I 1 + I u f 01U.S.f =+−⎡⎣⎢⎤⎦⎥+1where e f is the percentage change in the foreign currency’s exchange rate, I U.S. and I f are U.S.and foreign inflation rates, a 0 is a constant, a 1 is the slope coefficient, and u is an error term. If PPP holds, a 0 should equal zero, and a 1 should equal 1. A t-test on a 0 and a 1 is shown below.t -test for a : t = a 0s.e. of a t -test for a : t = a1s.e. of a 0001 1 1−−。
CHAPTER 1 GLOBALIZATION AND THE MULTINATIONAL FIRM ANSWERS & SOLUTIONS TO END-OF-CHAPTER QUESTIONS AND PROBLEMSQUESTIONS1. Why is it important to study international financial management?Answer: We are now living in a world where all the major economic functions, i。
e。
,consumption,production,and investment,are highly globalized。
It is thus essential for financial managers to fully understand vital international dimensions of financial management. This global shift is in marked contrast to a situation that existed when the authors of this book were learning finance some twenty years ago。
At that time, most professors customarily (and safely, to some extent)ignored international aspects of finance。
This mode of operation has become untenable since then.2. How is international financial management different from domestic financial management?Answer: There are three major dimensions that set apart international finance from domestic finance. They are:1. foreign exchange and political risks,2. market imperfections, and3. expanded opportunity set.3. Discuss the major trends that have prevailed in international business during the last two decades。
Chapter 3International Financial Markets Lecture OutlineMotives for Using International Financial Markets Motives for Investing in Foreign MarketsMotives for Providing Credit in Foreign MarketsMotives for Borrowing in Foreign MarketsForeign Exchange MarketHistory of Foreign ExchangeForeign Exchange TransactionsExchange QuotationsForeignInterpretingCurrency Futures and Options MarketsInternational Money MarketOrigins and DevelopmentStandardizing Global Bank RegulationsInternational Credit MarketSyndicated LoansInternational Bond MarketEurobond MarketDevelopment of Other Bond MarketsComparing Interest Rates Among CurrenciesInternational Stock MarketsIssuance of Foreign Stock in the U.S.Issuance of Stock in Foreign MarketsComparison of International Financial MarketsHow Financial Markets Affect an MNC’s ValueChapter ThemeThis chapter identifies and discusses the various international financial markets used by MNCs. These markets facilitate day-to-day operations of MNCs, including foreign exchange transactions, investing in foreign markets, and borrowing in foreign markets.Topics to Stimulate Class Discussion1. Why do international financial markets exist?2. How do banks serve international financial markets?3. Which international financial markets are most important to a firm that consistently needsshort-term funds? What about a firm that needs long-term funds?Critical debateShould firms that go public engage in international offerings?Proposition Yes. When a firm issues shares to the public for the first time in an initial public offering (IPO), it is naturally concerned about whether it can place all of its shares at a reasonable price. It will be able to issue its shares at a higher price by attracting more investors. It will increase its demand by spreading the shares across countries. The higher the price at which it can issue shares, the lower is its cost of using equity capital. It can also establish a global name by spreading shares across countries.Opposing view No. If a firm spreads its shares across different countries at the time of the IPO, there will be less publicly traded shares in the home country. Thus, it will not have as much liquidity in the secondary market. Investors desire shares that they can easily sell in the secondary market, which means that they require that the shares have liquidity. To the extent that a firm reduces its liquidity in the home country by spreading its share across countries, it may not attract sufficient home demand for the shares. Thus, its efforts to create global name recognition may reduce its name recognition in the home country.With whom do you agree? State your reasons. Use InfoTrac or some other search engine to learn more about this issue. Which argument do you support? Offer your own opinion on this issue.ANSWER: The key is that students recognize the tradeoff involved. A firm that engages in a relatively small IPO will have limited liquidity even when all of the stock is issued in the home country. Thus, it should not consider issuing stock internationally. However, firms with larger stock offerings may be in a position to issue a portion of their shares outside the home country. They should not spread the stocks across several countries, but perhaps should target one or two countries where they conduct substantial business. They want to ensure sufficient liquidity in each of the foreign countries where they sell shares.Stock Markets are inefficientPropositionI cannot believe that if the value of the euro in terms of, say, the British pound increases three days in a row, on the fourth day there is still a 50:50 chance that it will go up or down in value. I think that most investors will see a trend and will buy, therefore the price is morelikely to go up. Also, if the forward market predicts a rise in value, on average, surely it is going to rise in value. In other words, currency prices are predictable. And finally, if it were so unpredictable and therefore unprofitable to the speculator, how is it that there is such a vast sum of money being traded every day for speculative purposes – there is no smoke without fire.The simple answer is that if that is what you believe, buy currencies that have viewOpposingincreased three days in a row and on average you should make a profit, buy currencies where the forward market shows an increase in value. The fact is that there are a lot of investors with just your sort of views. The market traders know all about such beliefs and will price the currency so that such easy profit (their loss) cannot be made. Look at past currency rates for yourself, check all fourth day changes after three days of rises, any difference is going to be not enough to cover transaction costs or trading expenses and the slight inaccuracy in your figures which are likely to be closing day mid point of the bid/ask spread. No, all currency movements are related to information and no-one knows if tomorrows news will be better or worse than expected.With whom do you agree? Could there be undiscovered patterns? Could some movements not be related to information? Could some private news be leaking out?ANSWER: Clearly there are no obvious patterns. Discussion on the impossibility of obvious patterns is worth emphasizing. However, does market inefficiency necessarily involve patterns, could market manipulation be occasional. There is worrying evidence from share price movements that there is unusual movement before announcements on many occasions, so the ideathat traders do not occasionally collude and move the price without supporting economic evidence is not an unreasonable view. Proof is however difficult as we have to separate anticipation from prior knowledge, the lucky speculator from the speculator who was in the know.Answers to End of Chapter Questions1. Motives for Investing in Foreign Money Markets. Explain why an MNC may invest fundsin a financial market outside its own country.ANSWER: The MNC may be able to earn a higher interest rate on funds invested in a financial market outside of its own country. In addition, the exchange rate of the currency involved may be expected to appreciate.2. Motives for Providing Credit in Foreign Markets. Explain why some financial institutionsprefer to provide credit in financial markets outside their own country.ANSWER: Financial institutions may believe that they can earn a higher return by providing credit in foreign financial markets if interest rate levels are higher and if the economic conditions are strong so that the risk of default on credit provided is low. The institutions may also want to diversity their credit so that they are not too exposed to the economic conditions in any single country.3. Exchange Rate Effects on Investing. Explain how the appreciation of the Australian dollaragainst the euro would affect the return to a French firm that invested in an Australian money market security.ANSWER: If the Australian dollar appreciates over the investment period, this implies that the French firm purchased the Australian dollars to make its investment at a lower exchange rate than the rate at which it will convert A$ to euros when the investment period is over.Thus, it benefits from the appreciation. Its return will be higher as a result of this appreciation.4. Exchange Rate Effects on Borrowing. Explain how the appreciation of the Japanese yenagainst the UK pound would affect the return to a UK firm that borrowed Japanese yen and used the proceeds for a UK project.ANSWER: If the Japanese yen appreciates over the borrowing period, this implies that the UK firm converted yen to pounds at a lower exchange rate than the rate at which it paid for yen at the time it would repay the loan. Thus, it is adversely affected by the appreciation. Its cost of borrowing will be higher as a result of this appreciation.5. Bank Services. List some of the important characteristics of bank foreign exchange servicesthat MNCs should consider.ANSWER: The important characteristics are (1) competitiveness of the quote, (2) the firm’s relationship with the bank, (3) speed of execution, (4) advice about current market conditions, and (5) forecasting advice.6. Bid/ask Spread. Delay Bank’s bid price for US dollars is £0.53 and its ask price is £0.55.What is the bid/ask percentage spread?ANSWER: (£0.55– £0.53)/£0.55 = .036 or 3.6%7. Bid/ask Spread. Compute the bid/ask percentage spread for Mexican peso in which the askrate is 20.6 New peso to the dollar and the bid rate is 21.5 New peso to the dollar.ANSWER: direct rates are 1/20.6 = $0.485:1 peso as the ask rate and 1/21.5 = $0.465:1 peso as the bid rate so the spread is[($0.485 – $0.465)/$0.485] = .041, or 4.1%. Note that the spread is fro the Mexiccan peso not the dollar.8. Forward Contract. The Wolfpack ltd is a UK exporter that invoices its exports to the UnitedStates in dollars. If it expects that the dollar will appreciate against the pound in the future, should it hedge its exports with a forward contract? Explain..ANSWER: The forward contract can hedge future receivables or payables in foreign currencies to insulate the firm against exchange rate risk. Yet, in this case, the Wolfpack Corporation should not hedge because it would benefit from appreciation of the dollar when it converts the dollars to pounds.9. Euro. Explain the foreign exchange situation for countries that use the euro when theyengage in international trade among themselves.ANSWER: There is no foreign exchange. Euros are used as the medium of exchange.10. Indirect Exchange Rate. If the direct exchange rate of the euro is worth £0.685, what is theindirect rate of the euro? That is, what is the value of a pound in euros?ANSWER: 1/0.685 = 1.46 euros.11. Cross Exchange Rate. Assume Poland’s currency (the zloty) is worth £0.17 and theJapanese yen is worth £0.005. What is the cross (implied) rate of the zloty with respect to yen?ANSWER: £0.17/£0.005 = 34 zloty:1 yen12. Syndicated Loans. Explain how syndicated loans are used in international markets.ANSWER: A large MNC may want to obtain a large loan that no single bank wants to accommodate by itself. Thus, a bank may create a syndicate whereby several other banks also participate in the loan.13. Loan Rates. Explain the process used by banks in the Eurocredit market to determine the rateto charge on loans.ANSWER: Banks set the loan rate based on the prevailing LIBOR, and allow the loan rate to float (change every 6 months) in accordance with changes in LIBOR.14. International Markets. What is the function of the international money market? Brieflydescribe the reasons for the development and growth of the European money market. Explain how the international money, credit, and bond markets differ from one another.ANSWER: The function of the international money market is to efficiently facilitate the flow of international funds from firms or governments with excess funds to those in need of funds.Growth of the European money market was largely due to (1) regulations in the U.S. that limited foreign lending by U.S. banks; and (2) regulated ceilings placed on interest rates of dollar deposits in the U.S. that encouraged deposits to be placed in the Eurocurrency market where ceilings were nonexistent.The international money market focuses on short-term deposits and loans, while the international credit market is used to tap medium-term loans, and the international bond market is used to obtain long-term funds (by issuing long-term bonds).15. Evolution of Floating Rates. Briefly describe the historical developments that led to floatingexchange rates as of 1973.ANSWER: Country governments had difficulty in maintaining fixed exchange rates. In 1971, the bands were widened. Yet, the difficulty of controlling exchange rates even within these wider bands continued. As of 1973, the bands were eliminated so that rates could respond to market forces without limits (although governments still did intervene periodically).16. International Diversification. Explain how the Asian crisis would have affected the returnsto a UK. firm investing in the Asian stock markets as a means of international diversification.[See the chapter appendix.]ANSWER: The returns to the UK firm would have been reduced substantially as a result of the Asian crisis because of both declines in the Asian stock markets and because of currency depreciation. For example, the Indonesian stock market declined by about 27% from June 1997 to June 1998. Furthermore, the Indonesian rupiah declined against the U.S. dollar by 84%.17.Eurocredit Loans.a.With regard to Eurocredit loans, who are the borrowers?b. Why would a bank desire to participate in syndicated Eurocredit loans?c. What is LIBOR and how is it used in the Eurocredit market?ANSWER:a. Large corporations and some government agencies commonly request Eurocredit loans.b. With a Eurocredit loan, no single bank would be totally exposed to the risk that theborrower may fail to repay the loan. The risk is spread among all lending banks within the syndicate.c. LIBOR (London interbank offer rate) is the rate of interest at which banks in Europe lendto each other. It is used as a base from which loan rates on other loans are determined in the Eurocredit market.18. Foreign Exchange. You just came back from Canada, where the Canadian dollar was worth£0.43. You still have C$200 from your trip and could exchange them for pounds at the airport, but the airport foreign exchange desk will only buy them for £0.40. Next week, you will be going to Mexico and will need pesos. The airport foreign exchange desk will sell you pesos for £0.055 per peso. You met a tourist at the airport who is from Mexico and is on his way to Canada. He is willing to buy your C$200 for 1500 New Pesos. Should you accept the offer or cash the Canadian dollars in at the airport? Explain.ANSWER: Exchange with the tourist. If you exchange the C$ for pesos at the foreign exchange desk, the C$200 is multiplied by £0.40 and then divided by £0.055 ie a ratio of £0.40/0.055 = 7.27 pesos to the C$. The total pesos would be 200 x 7.27 = 1454 pesos, a little less than is being offered by the tourist.19. Foreign Stock Markets. Explain why firms may issue stock in foreign markets. Why mightMNCs issue more stock in Europe since the conversion to a single currency in 1999?ANSWER: Firms may issue stock in foreign markets when they are concerned that their home market may be unable to absorb the entire issue. In addition, these firms may have foreign currency inflows in the foreign country that can be used to pay dividends on foreign-issued stock. They may also desire to enhance their global image. Since the euro can be used in several countries, firms may need a large amount of euros if they are expanding across Europe.20. Stock Market Integration. Bullet plc a UK firm, is planning to issue new shares on theLondon Stock Exchange this month. The only decision still to be made is the specific day on which the shares will be issued. Why do you think Bullet monitors results of the Tokyo stock market every morning?ANSWER: The UK stock market prices sometimes follow Japanese market prices. Thus, the firm would possibly be able to issue its stock at a higher price in the UK if it can use the Japanese market as an indicator of what will happen in the UK market. However, this indicator will not always be accurate.Advanced Questions21. Effects of September 11. Why do you think the terrorist attack on the U.S. was expected tocause a decline in U.S. interest rates? Given the expectations for a potential decline in U.S.interest rates and stock prices, how were capital flows between the U.S. and other countries likely affected?ANSWER: The attack was expected to cause a weaker economy, which would result in lower U.S. interest rates. Given the lower interest rates, and the weak stock prices, the amount of funds invested by foreign investors in U.S. securities would be reduced.22. International Financial Markets. Carrefour the French Supermarket chain has established retail outlets worldwide. These outlets are massive and contain products purchased locally as well as imports. As Carrefour generates earnings beyond what it needs abroad, it may remit those earnings back to France. Carrefour is likely to build additional outlets especially in China.a. Explain how the Carrefour outlets in China would use the spot market in foreign exchange.ANSWER:The Carrefour stores in China need other currencies to buy products from other countries, and must convert the Chinese currency (yuan) into the other currencies in the spot market to purchase these products. They also could use the spot market to convert excess earnings denominated in yuan into euros, which would be remitted to the French parent.b. Explain how Carrefour might utilize the international money markets when it isestablishing other Carrefour stores in Asia.ANSWER: Carrefour may need to maintain some deposits in the Eurocurrency market that can be used (when needed) to support the growth of Carrefour stores in various foreign markets. When some Carrefour stores in foreign markets need funds, they borrow from banks in the Eurocurrency market. Thus, the Eurocurrency market serves as a deposit or lending source for Carrefour and other MNCs on a short-term basis. (Eurocurrency refers to international currencies, most likely the dollar, not just the euro!)c. Explain how Carrefour could use the international bond market to finance theestablishment of new outlets in foreign markets.ANSWER: Carrefour could issue bonds in the Eurobond market to generate funds needed to establish new outlets. The bonds may be denominated in the currency that is needed; then, once the stores are established, some of the cash flows generated by those stores could be used to pay interest on the bonds.23.Interest Rates. Why do interest rates vary among countries? Why are interest rates normallysimilar for those European countries that use the euro as their currency? Offer a reason why the government interest rate of one country could be slightly higher than that of the government interest rate of another country, even though the euro is the currency used in both countries.ANSWER: Interest rates in each country are based on the supply of funds and demand for funds for a given currency. However, the supply and demand conditions for the euro are dictated by all participating countries in aggregate, and do not vary among participating countries. Yet, the government interest rate in one country that uses the euro could be slightly higher than others that use the euro if it is subject to default risk. The higher interest rate would reflect a risk premium.Blades plc Case Study。
章1跨国财务管理: 概述讲座大纲管理跨国公司面临代理问题跨国公司的治理结构为什么选择冷杉m它追求国际商务比较优势理论不完善的市场理论产品周期理论企业如何从事国际业务国际贸易发牌特许经营合资收购现有业务建立新的外国子公司方法摘要跨国公司的估值模型国内车型评估国际现金流跨国公司周围的不确定性’s 现金流案文的组织12 国际财务管理章节主题本章介绍跨国公司具有与纯粹的国内公司相似的目标, 但机会种类繁多。
随着更多的机会的出现, 潜在的回报增加, 并需要考虑其他形式的风险。
介绍了潜在的好处和风险。
鼓励课堂讨论的主题(一) 跨国公司的适当定义是什么?2。
为什么跨国公司会在国际上扩张?(三) 有什么问题吗?跨国公司在国际上扩张的风险是什么?4. 我的工作是什么?你认为欧洲国家为什么会吸引U.S.公司?5。
为什么纯粹的国内企业必须关注国际环境?点:跨国公司是否应该降低其道德标准, 以在国际上竞争?点: 是的。
当一家总部设在美国的跨国公司在一些国家竞争时, 它可能会遇到一些在那里不允许的商业规范。
U.S.例如, 在竞争政府合同时, 企业可能会向将作出决定的政府官员提供回报。
然而, 在United States, 一家公司有时会带客户进行昂贵的高尔夫出游, 或提供比赛门票。
这和回报没有什么不同。
如果一些国家的回报更大, 跨国公司只有通过匹配竞争对手提供的回报才能竞争。
点: 不可以. 总部设在美国的跨国公司应保持适用于任何国家的标准道德守则, 即使它在外国处于不利地位, 允许可能被视为不道德的活动。
通过这种方式, 跨国公司在全球范围内建立了更高的信誉。
谁是正确的?使用互联网以了解有关此问题的更多信息。
你支持哪种论点?在这个问题上提出自己的看法。
回答: 这个问题经常被讨论。
很容易建议跨国公司应保持标准的道德守则, 但实际上, 这意味着它在某些情况下无法竞争。
例如, 即使它提交了特定外国政府项目的最低出价, 如果没有向外国政府官员支付报酬, 它也不会收到投标。
CHAPTER 1 GLOBALIZATION AND THE MULTINATIONAL FIRM SUGGESTED ANSWERS TO END-OF-CHAPTER QUESTIONSQUESTIONS1. Why is it important to study international financial managementAnswer: We are now living in a world where all the major economic functions i.e. consumptionproduction and investment are highly globalized. It is thus essential for financial managers to fullyunderstand vital international dimensions of financial management. This global shift is in markedcontrast to a situation that existed when the authors of this book were learning finance some twenty yearsago.At that time most professors customarily and safely to some extent ignored international aspectsof finance. This mode of operation has become untenable since then.2. How is international financial management different from domestic financial managementAnswer: There are three major dimensions that set apart international finance from domestic finance.They are: 1. foreign exchange and political risks 2. market imperfections and 3. expanded opportunity set.3. Discuss the three major trends that have prevailed in international business during the last two decades.Answer: The 1980s brought a rapid integration of international capital and financial markets. Impetus forglobalized financial markets initially came from the governments of major countries that had begun toderegulate their foreign exchange and capital markets. The economic integration and globalization thatbegan in the eighties is picking up speed in the 1990s via privatization. Privatization is the process bywhich a country divests itself of the ownership and operation of a business venture by turning it over tothe free market system. Lastly trade liberalization and economic integration continued to proceed at boththe regional and global levels.4. How is a country‟s economic well-being enhanced through free international trade in goods andservicesAnswer: According to David Ricardo with free international trade it is mutually beneficial for twocountries to each specialize in the production of the goods that it can produce relatively most efficientlyand then trade those goods. By doing so the two countries can increase their combined productionwhich allows both countries to consume more of both goods. This argument remains valid even if acountry can produce both goods more efficiently than the other country. International trade is not a …zero-sum‟ game in which one country benefits at the expense of another country. Rather international tradecould be an …increasing-sum‟ game at which all players become winners.5. What considerations might limit the extent to which the theory of comparative advantage is realisticAnswer: The theory of comparative advantage was originally advanced by the nineteenth centuryeconomist David Ricardo as an explanation for why nations trade with one another. The theory claimsthat economic well-being is enhanced if each country‟s citizens produce what they have a comparativeadvantage in producing relative to the citizens of other countries and then trade products. Underlying thetheory are the assumptions of free trade between nations and that the factors of production landbuildings labor technology and capital are relatively immobile. To the extent that these assumptions donot hold the theory of comparative advantage will not realistically describe international trade.6. What are multinational corporations MNCs and what economic roles do they playAnswer: A multinational corporation MNC can be defined as a business firm incorporated in onecountry that has production and sales operations in several other countries. Indeed some MNCs haveoperations in dozens of different countries. MNCs obtain financing from major money centers around theworld in many different currencies to finance their operations. Global operations force the treasurer‟soffice to establish international banking relationships to place short-term fundsin several currencydenominations and to effectively manage foreign exchange risk.7. Mr. Ross Perot a former Presidential candidate of the Reform Party which is a third political party inthe United States had strongly objected to the creation of the North American Trade AgreementNAFTA which nonetheless was inaugurated in 1994 for the fear of losing American jobs to Mexicowhere it is much cheaper to hire workers. What are the merits and demerits of Mr. Perot‟s position onNAFTA Considering the recent economic developments in North America how would you assess Mr.Perot‟s position on NAFTAAnswer: Since the inception of NAFTA many American companies indeed have invested heavily inMexico sometimes relocating production from the United States to Mexico. Although this might havetemporarily caused unemployment of some American workers they were eventually rehired by otherindustries often for higher wages. Currently the unemployment rate in the U.S. is quite low by historicalstandard. At the same time Mexico has been experiencing a major economic boom. It seems clear thatboth Mexico and the U.S. have benefited from NAFTA. Mr. Perot‟s concern appears to hav e been illfounded.8. In 1995 a working group of French chief executive officers was set up by the Confederation of FrenchIndustry CNPF and the French Association of Private Companies AFEP to study the French corporategovernance structure. The group reported the following among other things “The board of directorsshould not simply aim at maximizing share values as in the U.K. and the U.S. Rather its goal should be toserve the company whose interests should be clearly distinguished from those of its shareholdersemployees creditors suppliers and clients but still equated with their general common interest which isto safeguard the prosperity and continuity of the company”. Evaluate the above recommendation of theworking group.Answer: The recommendations of the French working group clearly show that shareholder wealthmaximization is not a universally accepted goal of corporate management especially outside the UnitedStates and possibly a few other Anglo-Saxon countries including the United Kingdom and Canada. Tosome extent this may reflect the fact that share ownership is not wide spread in most other countries. InFrance about 15 of households own shares.9. Emphasizing the importance of voluntary compliance as opposed to enforcement in the aftermath ofcorporate scandals e.g. Enron and WorldCom U.S. President George W. Bush stated that while tougherlaws might help “ultimately the ethics of American business depends on the conscience of America‟sbusiness leaders.” Describe your view on this statement.Answer: There can be different answers to this question. If business leaders always behave with a highethical standard many of the corporate scandals we have seen lately might not have happened. Since wecannot fully depend on the ethical behavior on the part of business leaders the society should protectitself by adopting therules/regulations and governance structure that would induce business leaders tobehave in the interest of the society at large.10. Suppose you are interested in investing in shares of Nokia Corporation of Finland which is a worldleader in wireless communication. But before you make investment decision you would like to learnabout the company. Visit the website of CNN Financial network and collectinformation about Nokia including the recent stock price history and analysts‟ views of the company.Discuss what you learn about the company. Also discuss how the instantaneous access to information viainternet would affect the nature and workings of financial markets.Answer: As students might have learned from visiting the website information is readily available evenfor foreign companies like Nokia. Ready access to international information helpsintegrate financialmarkets dismantling barriers to international investment and financing. Integration however may help afinancial shock in one market to be transmitted to other markets.MINI CASE: NIKE‟S DECISION Nike a U.S.-based company with a globally recognized brand name manufactures athletic shoes insuch Asian developing countries as China Indonesia and Vietnam using subcontractors and sells theproducts in the U.S. and foreign markets. The company has no production facilities in the United States.In each of those Asian countries where Nike has production facilities the rates of unemployment andunderemployment are quite high. The wage rate is very low in those countries by the U.S. standardhourly wage rate in the manufacturing sector is less than one dollar in each of those countries which iscompared with about 18 in the U.S. In addition workers in those countries often are operating in poorand unhealthy environments and their rights are not well protected. Understandably Asian host countriesare eager to attract foreign investments like Nike‟s to develop their economies and raise the livingstandards of th eir citizens. Recently however Nike came under a world-wide criticism for its practice ofhiring workers for such a low pay “next to nothing” in the words of critics and condoning poor workingconditions in host countries. Evaluate and discuss various …ethical‟ as well as economic ramifications of Nike‟s decision toinvest in those Asian countries.Suggested Solution to Nike‟s Decision Obviously Nike‟s investments in such Asian countries as China Indonesia and Vietnam weremotivated to take advantage of low labor costs in those countries. While Nike was criticized for the poorworking conditions for its workers the company has recognized the problem and has substantiallyimproved the working environments recently. Although Nike‟s workers get paid very low wages by theWestern standard they probably are making substantially more than their local compatriots who are eitherunder- or unemployed. While Nike‟s detractors may have valid points one should not ignore the fact thatthe company is making contributions to the economic welfare of those Asian countries by creating jobopportunities. CHAPTER 1A THEORY OF COMPARATIVE ADVANTAGE SUGGESTED SOLUTIONS TO APPENDIX PROBLEMSPROBLEMS1. Country C can produce seven pounds of food or four yards of textiles per unit of input. Compute theopportunity cost of producing food instead of textiles. Similarly compute the opportunity cost ofproducing textiles instead of food.Solution: The opportunity cost of producing food instead of textiles is one yard of textiles per 7/4 1.75pounds of food. A pound of food has an opportunity cost of4/7 .57 yards of textiles.2. Consider the no-trade input/output situation presented in the following table for Countries X and Y.Assuming that free trade is allowed develop a scenario that will benefit the citizens of both countries.INPUT/OUTPUT WITHOUT TRADE_________________________________________________________________ ______ Country X YTotal___________________________________________________________________ _____I. Units of Input000000_____________________________________________________Food 70 60Textiles 4030______________________________________________________________________ __II. Output per Unit of Inputlbs or yards____________________________________________________Food 17 5Textiles 52_______________________________________________________________________ _III. Total Outputlbs or yards000000____________________________________________________Food 1190 300 1490Textiles 200 60260_____________________________________________________________________ ___IV. Consumptionlbs or yards000000___________________________________________________Food 1190 300 1490Textiles 200 60260_____________________________________________________________________ ___Solution: Examination of the no-trade input/output table indicates that Country X has an absoluteadvantage in the production of food and textiles. Country X can “trade off” one unit of productionneeded to produce 17 pounds of food for five yards of textiles. Thus a yard of textiles has an opportunitycost of 17/5 3.40 pounds of food or a pound of food has an opportunity cost of 5/17 .29 yards oftextiles. Analogously Country Y has an opportunity cost of 5/2 2.50 pounds of food per yard oftextiles or 2/5 .40 yards of textiles per pound of food. In terms of opportunity cost it is clear thatCountry X is relatively more efficient in producing food and Country Y is relatively more efficient inproducing textiles. Thus Country X Y has a comparative advantage in producing food textile iscomparison to Country Y X. When there are no restrictions or impediments to free trade the economic-well being of thecitizens of both countries is enhanced through trade. Suppose that Country X shifts 20000000 unitsfrom the production of textiles to the production of food where it has a comparative advantage and thatCountry Y shifts 60000000 units from the production of food to the production of textiles where it has acomparative advantage. Total output will now be 90000000 x 17 1530000000 pounds of food and20000000 x 5 100000000 90000000 x 2 180000000 280000000 yards of textiles.Further suppose that Country X and Country Y agree on a price of 3.00 pounds of food for one yard oftextiles and that Country X sells Country Y 330000000 pounds of food for 110000000 yards of textiles.Under free trade the following table shows that the citizens of Country X Y have increased theirconsumption of food by 10000000 30000000 pounds and textiles by 10000000 10000000 yards.INPUT/OUTPUT WITH FREE TRADE_________________________________________________________________ _________ Country X YTotal___________________________________________________________________ _______I. Units of Input 000000_______________________________________________________Food 90 0Textiles 2090______________________________________________________________________ ____II. Output per Unit of Input lbs or yards______________________________________________________Food 17 5Textiles 52_______________________________________________________________________ ___III. Total Output lbs or yards 000000_____________________________________________________Food 1530 0 1530Textiles 100 180280_____________________________________________________________________ _____IV. Consumption lbs or yards 000000_____________________________________________________Food 1200 330 1530Textiles 210 70280_____________________________________________________________________ _____ CHAPTER 3 BALANCE OF PAYMENTS SUGGESTED ANSWERS AND SOLUTIONS TO END-OF-CHAPTER QUESTIONS AND PROBLEMSQUESTIONS1. Define the balance of payments.Answer: The balance of payments BOP can be defined as the statistical record of a country‟sinternational transactions over a certain period of time presented in the form of double-entry bookkeeping.2. Why would it be useful.。
IM-1 CHAPTER 7 FUTURES AND OPTIONS ON FOREIGN EXCHANGESUGGESTED ANSWERS AND SOLUTIONS TO END-OF-CHAPTER QUESTIONS AND PROBLEMSQUESTIONS 1. Explain Explain the the the basic basic basic differences differences differences between between between the the the operation operation operation of of of a a a currency currency currency forward forward forward market market market and and and a a a futures futures market. Answer: The The forward forward forward market market market is is is an an an OTC OTC OTC market market market where where where the the the forward forward forward contract contract contract for for for purchase purchase purchase or or or sale sale sale of of foreign currency is tailor-made between the client and its international bank. No money changes hands until the maturity date of the contract when delivery and receipt are typically made. A futures contract is an an exchange-traded exchange-traded exchange-traded instrument instrument instrument with with with standardized standardized standardized features features features specifying specifying specifying contract contract contract size size size and and and delivery delivery delivery date. date. Futures Futures contracts contracts contracts are are are marked-to-market marked-to-market marked-to-market daily daily daily to to to reflect reflect reflect changes changes changes in in in the the the settlement settlement settlement price. price. Delivery Delivery is is seldom made in a futures market. Rather a reversing trade is made to close out a long or short position.2. In In order order order for for for a a a derivatives derivatives derivatives market market market to to to function function function most most most efficiently, efficiently, two two types types types of of of economic economic economic agents agents agents are are needed: hedgers and speculators. Explain. Answer: Two Two types types types of of of market market market participants participants participants are are are necessary necessary necessary for for for the the the efficient efficient efficient operation operation operation of of of a a a derivatives derivatives market: speculators and h edgers hedgers . A speculator attempts to profit from a change in the futures price. To To do do do this, this, this, the the the speculator speculator speculator will will will take take take a a a long long long or or or short short short position position position in in in a a a futures futures futures contract contract contract depending depending depending upon upon upon his his expectations of future price movement. A hedger, on-the-other-hand, desires to avoid price variation by locking in a purchase price of the underlying asset through a long position in a futures contract or a sales price through a short position. In effect, the hedger passes off the risk of price variation to the speculator who is better able, or at least more willing, to bear this risk. 3. Why are most futures positions closed out through a reversing trade rather than held to delivery? Answer: In forward markets, approximately 90 percent of all contracts that are initially established result i n the short making delivery to the long of the asset underlying the contract. This is natural because the terms of forward forward contracts contracts contracts are are are tailor-made tailor-made between the the long long long and and and short. short. By By contrast, contrast, only only about about about one one one percent percent percent of of currency futures contracts result in delivery. While futures contracts are useful for speculation and hedgi n g , their standardized delivery delivery dates dates dates make them make them unlikely unlikely to to to correspond correspond correspond to the actual future to the actual future dates when foreign IM-2 exchange exchange transactions transactions transactions will will will occur. occur. Thus, Thus, they they they are are are generally generally generally closed closed closed out out out in in in a a a reversing reversing reversing trade. trade. In In fact, fact, fact, the the commission commission that that that buyers buyers buyers and and and sellers sellers sellers pay to pay to transact transact in in in the the the futures futures futures market market market is a single is a single a mount amount amount that covers that covers the round-trip transactions of initiating and closing out the position. 4. How can the FX futures market be used for price discovery? Answer: To the extent that FX forward prices are an unbiased predictor of future spot exchange rates, the market anticipates whether one currency will appreciate or depreciate versus another. Because FXfutures contracts trade in an expiration cycle, different contracts expire at different periodic dates into the future. The pattern of the prices of these cont racts provides information as to the market’s current belief about about the the the relative relative relative future future future value value value of of of one one one currency currency currency versus versus versus another at another at the the scheduled scheduled scheduled expiration expiration expiration dates dates dates of of of the the contracts. One will generally generally see see see a a a steadily steadily steadily appreciating appreciating appreciating or or or depreciating depreciating depreciating pattern; pattern; pattern; however, however, however, it it it may may may be be mixed mixed at at at times. times. Thus, Thus, the the the futures futures futures market market market is is is useful useful useful for for price discovery , , i.e., i.e., i.e., obtaining obtaining obtaining the the the market’s market’s forecast of the spot exchange rate at different future dates. 5. What is the major difference in the obligation of one with a long position in a futures (or forward) contract in comparison to an options contract? Answer: Answer: A A A futures futures futures (or (or (or forward) forward) forward) contract contract contract is is is a a a vehicle vehicle vehicle for for for buying buying buying or or or selling selling selling a a a stated stated stated amount amount amount of of of foreign foreign exchange at a stated price per unit at a specified time in the future. If the long holds the contract to the delivery date, he pays the effective contractual futures (or forward) price, regardless of whether it is an advantageous advantageous price price price in in in comparison comparison comparison to to to the the the spot spot spot price price price at at at the the the delivery delivery delivery date. date. By By contrast, contrast, contrast, an an an option option option is is is a a contract giving the long the right to buy or sell a given quantity of an asset at a specified price at some time time in in in the the the future, future, future, but but but not enforcing not enforcing any any obligation obligation obligation on on on him him him if if if the the the spot spot spot price price price is is is more more more favorable favorable favorable than than than the the exercise price. Because the option owner does not have to exercise the option if it is to his disadvantage, the option has a price, or premium, whereas no price is paid at inception to enter into a futures (or forward) contract. 6. What is meant by the terminology that an option is in-, at-, or out-of-the-money? Answer: A call (put) option with S t > E (E > S t ) is referred to as trading in-the-money. If S t@ E the option is trading at-the-money. If S t< E (E < S t ) the call (put) option is trading out-of-the-money . IM-3 7. List List the the the arguments (variables) arguments (variables) of of which which which an an an FX call FX call or or put put put option option option model model model price price price is is is a function. a function. How does the call and put premium change with respect to a change in the arguments? Answer: Both call and put options are functions of only six variables: S t , E, r i , r $, Ta nd and s . When all else remains the same, the price of a European FX call (put) option will increase: 1. the larger (smaller) is S , 2. the smaller (larger) is E , 3. the smaller (larger) is r i , 4. the larger (smaller) is r $, 5. the larger (smaller) r $ is relative to r i , and 6. the greater is s . When r $ and r i are not too much different in size, a European FX call and put will increase in price when the option term-to-maturity increases. However, when r $ is very much larger than r i , a European FX call will will increase increase increase in in in price, price, price, but but but the the the put put put premium premium premium will will will decrease, decrease, decrease, when when when the the the option option option term-to-maturity term-to-maturity term-to-maturity increases. increases. The opposite is true when r i is very much greater than r $. For American FX options the analysis is less complicated. Since Since a a a longer longer longer term term term American American American option option option can can can be be be exercised exercised exercised on on on any any any date date date that that that a shorter a shorter term option can be exercised, or a some later date, it follows that the all else remaining the same, the longer term American option will sell at a price at least as large as the shorter term option. IM-4 PROBLEMS 1. Assume Assume today’s today’s today’s settlement settlement settlement price price price on on on a a a CME CME CME EUR EUR EUR futures futures futures contract contract contract is is is $1.3140/EUR. $1.3140/EUR. ou Y ou have have have a a short position in one contract. Your performance bond account currently has a balance of $1,700. The next next three three three days’ days’ days’ settlement settlement settlement prices prices prices are are are $1.3126, $1.3126, $1.3126, $1.3133, $1.3133, $1.3133, and and and $1.3049. $1.3049. Calculate Calculate the the the chan chan changes ges ges in in in the the performance performance bond bond bond account account account from from from daily daily daily marking-to-market marking-to-market and and the the the balance balance balance of of of the the the performance performance performance bond bond account after the third day. Solution: $1,700 + [($1.3140 - $1.3126) + ($1.3126 - $1.3133) + ($1.3133 - $1.3049)] x EUR125,000 = $2,837.50, where EUR125,000 is the contractual size of one EUR contract. 2. Do problem 1 again assuming you have a long position in the futures contract. Solution: $1,700 + [($1.3126 - $1.3140) + ($1.3133 - $1.3126) + ($1.3049 - $1.3133)] x EUR125,000 = $562.50, where EUR125,000 is the contractual size of one EUR contract. With only $562.50 in your performance bond account, you would experience a a margin margin call requesting that additional funds be added to your performance bond account to bring the balance back up to the initial performance bond level. 3. Using Using the the the quotations quotations quotations in in in Exhibit Exhibit Exhibit 7.3, 7.3, 7.3, calculate calculate calculate the the the face face face value value value of of of the the the open open open interest interest interest in in in the the the June June June 2005 2005 Swiss franc futures contract. Solution: 2,101 contracts x SF125,000 = SF262,625,000.where SF125,000 is the contractual size of one SF contract. 4. Using the quotations in Exhibit 7.3, note that the June 2005 Mexican peso futures contract has a price of of $0.08845. $0.08845. ou Y ou believe believe believe the the the spot spot spot price price price in in in June will June will be be $0.09500. $0.09500. What speculative position position would would you enter into to attempt to profit from your beliefs? Calculate your anticipated profits, assuming you take a position i n three contracts. in three contracts. What is the size of your profit (loss) if the futures price is indeed an unbiased predictor of the future spot price and this price materializes? September 20, 1999 December 20, 1999 March 20, 2000 ·Borrow $100 million at ·Pay interest for first three ·Pay back principal September 20 LIBOR + 200 months plus interest basis points (bps) ·Roll loan over at ·September 20 LIBOR = 7% December 20 LIBOR + 200 bps IM-6 Loan First loan payment (9%) Second payment initiated and futures contract expires and principal ¯ ¯ ¯· · ·9/20/99 12/20/99 3/20/00 a. Formulate Johnson’s September 20 floating -to-fixed-rate strategy using the Eurodollar future contracts discussed discussed in in in the the the text text text above. above. Show Show that that that this this this strategy strategy strategy would would would result result result in in in a a a fixed-rate fixed-rate fixed-rate loan, loan, loan, assuming assuming assuming an an increase in the LIBOR rate to 7.8 percent by December 20, which remains at 7.8 percent through March 20. Show all calculations. Johnson Johnson is is is considering considering considering a a a 12-month 12-month 12-month loan loan loan as as as an an an alternative. alternative. This This approach approach approach will will will result result result in in in two two two additional additional uncertain cash flows, as follows: Loan First Second Third Fourth payment initiated payment (9%) payment payment and principal ¯ ¯ ¯ ¯¯· · · · ·9/20/99 12/20/99 3/20/00 6/20/00 9/20/00 b. Describe the strip hedge that Johnson could use and explain how it hedges the 12-month loan (specify number of contracts). No calculations are needed. CFA Guideline Answer a. The basis point value (BPV) of a Eurodollar futures contract can be found by substituting the contract specifications into the following money market relationship: BPV FUT = Change in V alue = (face value) x (days to maturity / 360) x (change in yield)= ($1 million) x (90 / 360) x (.0001) = $25 The number of contract, N, can be found by: N = (BPV spot) / (BPV futures) = ($2,500) / ($25) = 100 OR IM-7 N = (value of spot position) / (face value of each futures contract) = ($100 million) / ($1 million) = 100 OR N = (value of spot position) / (value of futures position) = ($100,000,000) / ($981,750) where value of futures position = $1,000,000 x [1 – (0.073 / 4)] » 102 contracts Therefore on September 20, Johnson would sell 100 (or 102) December Eurodollar futures contracts at the 7.3 percent yield. The implied LIBOR rate in December is 7.3 percent as indicated by the December Eurofutures discount yield of 7.3 percent. Thus a borrowing rate of 9.3 percent (7.3 percent + 200 basis points) can be locked in if the hedge is correctly implemented. A rise in the rate to 7.8 percent represents a 50 basis point (bp) i ncrease over the implied LIBOR rate. increase over the implied LIBOR rate. For a 50 basis point increase in LIBOR, the cash flow on the short futures position is: = ($25 per basis point per contract) x 50 bp x 100 contracts = $125,000. However, the cash flow on the floating rate liability is: = -0.098 x ($100,000,000 / 4) = - $2,450,000. Combining Combining the the the cash cash cash flow flow flow from from from the the the hedge hedge hedge with with with the the the cash cash cash flow flow flow from from from the the the loan loan loan results results results in in in a a a net net net outflow outflow outflow of of $2,325,000, which translates into an annual rate of 9.3 percent: = ($2,325,000 x 4) / $100,000,000 = 0.093 This is precisely the implied borrowing rate that Johnson locked in on September 20. Regardless of the LIBOR rate on December 20, the net cash outflow will be $2,325,000, which translates into an annualized rate of 9.3 percent. Consequently, the floating rate liability has been converted to a fixed rate liability in the sense that the interest rate uncertainty associated with the March 20 payment (using the December 20 contract) has been removed as of September 20. b. In a strip hedge, Johnson would sell 100 December futures (for the March payment), 100 March futures (for (for the the the June June June payment), payment), payment), and and and 100 100 100 June futures (for June futures (for t he the the September September September payment). payment). The The objective objective objective is is is to to to hedge hedge each each interest interest interest rate rate rate payment payment payment separately separately separately using using using the the the appropriate appropriate appropriate number number number of of of contracts. contracts. The The problem problem problem is is is the the same as in Part A except here three cash flows are subject to rising rates and a strip of futures is used to Strategy A Strategy BContract Month (contracts) (contracts)September 1998 300 100 December 1998 0 100 March 1999 0 100 a. Explain why strategy B is a more effective hedge than strategy A when the yield curve IM-9 a. Strategy B’s SuperiorityStrategy B is a strip hedge that is constructed by selling (shorting) 100 futures contracts maturing in each of of the the the next next next three three three quarters. quarters. With With the the the strip strip strip hedge hedge hedge in in in place, place, place, each each each quarter quarter quarter of of of the the the coming coming coming year year year is is is hedged hedged against shifts in interest rates for that quarter. The reason Strategy B will be a more effective hedge than Strategy Strategy A A A for for for Jacob Jacob Jacob Bower Bower Bower is is is that that that Strategy Strategy Strategy B B B is is is likely likely likely to to to work work work well well well whether whether whether a a a parallel parallel parallel shift shift shift or or or a a nonparallel shift occurs over the one-year term of Bower’s liability. That is, regardless of what happens to the term structure, Strategy B structures the futures hedge so that the rates reflected by the Eurodollar futures cash price match the applicable rates for the underlying liability-the 90day LIBOR-based rate on Bower’s Bower’s liability. liability. The The same same same is is is not not not true true true for for for Strategy Strategy Strategy A. A. Because Because Jacob Jacob Jacob Bower’s Bower’s Bower’s liability liability liability carries carries carries a a floating interest rate that resets quarterly, he needs a strategy that provides a series of three-month hedges. Strategy A will need to be restructured when the three-month September contract expires. In particular, if the yield curve twists upward (futures yields rise more for distant expirations than for near expirations), Strategy A will produce inferior hedge results. b. Scenario in Which Strategy A is Superior Strategy Strategy A A A is is is a a a stack stack stack hedge strategy hedge strategy that that initially initially initially involves involves involves selling selling selling (shorting) (shorting) (shorting) 300 300 300 September September September contracts. contracts. Strategy Strategy A A A is is is rarely rarely rarely better better better than than than Strategy Strategy Strategy B B B as as as a a a hedging hedging hedging or or or risk-reduction risk-reduction risk-reduction strategy. strategy. Only Only from from from the the perspective of favorable cash flows is Strategy A better than Strategy B. Such cash flows occur only in certain certain interest interest interest rate rate rate scenarios. scenarios. For For example example example Strategy Strategy Strategy A A A will will will work work work as as as well well well as as as Strategy Strategy Strategy B B B for for for Bower’s Bower’s liability liability if if if interest interest interest rates rates rates (instantaneously) (instantaneously) (instantaneously) change change change in in in parallel parallel parallel fashion. fashion. Another Another interest interest interest rate rate rate scenario scenario where where Strategy Strategy Strategy A A A outperforms outperforms outperforms Strategy Strategy Strategy B B B is is is one one one in in in which which which the the the yield yield yield curve curve curve rises rises rises but but but with with with a a a twist twist twist so so so that that futures futures yields yields yields rise rise rise more more more for for for near near near expirations expirations than than for for for distant distant distant expirations. expirations. Upon Upon expiration expiration expiration of of of the the September contract, Bower will have to roll out his hedge by selling 200 December contracts to hedge the remaining interest payments. This action will have the effect that the cash flow from Strategy A will be larger than the cash flow from Strategy B because the appreciation on the 300 short September futures contracts will be larger than the cumulative appreciation in the 300 contracts shorted in Strategy B (i.e., 100 100 September, September, September, 100 100 100 December, December, December, and and and 100 100 100 March). March). Consequently, Consequently, the the the cash cash cash flow flow flow from from from Strategy Strategy Strategy A A A will will more than offset the increase in the interest payment on the liability, whereas the cash flow from Strategy B will exactly offset the increase in the interest payment on the liability. 8. Use Use the the the quotations quotations quotations in in in Exhibit Exhibit Exhibit 7.7 7.7 7.7 to to to calculate calculate calculate the the the intrinsic intrinsic intrinsic value value value and and and the the the time time time value value value of of of the the the 97 97 September Japanese yen American call and put options.Solution: Premium - Intrinsic V alue = Time V alue IM-10 97 Sep Call 2.08 - Max[95.80 – 97.00 = - 1.20, 0] = 2.08 cents per 100 yen 97 Sep Put 2.47 - Max[97.00 – 95.80 = 1.20, 0] = 1.27 cents per 100 yen 9. Assume Assume spot spot spot Swiss Swiss Swiss franc franc franc is is is $0.7000 $0.7000 $0.7000 and and and the the the six-month six-month six-month forward forward forward rate rate rate is is is $0.6950. $0.6950. What What is is is the the minimum price that a six-month American call option with a striking price of $0.6800 should sell for in a rational market? Assume the annualized six-month Eurodollar rate is 3 ½ percent. Solution: Note to Instructor: A complete solution to this problem relies on the boundary expressions presented in footnote 3 of the text of Chapter 7. C a ³Max [(70 - 68), (69.50 - 68)/(1.0175), 0] ³ Max [ 2, 1.47, 0] = 2 cents 10. Do problem 9 again assuming an American put option instead of a call option.Solution: P a ³Max [(68 - 70), (68 - 69.50)/(1.0175), 0] ³Max [ -2, -1.47, 0] = 0 cents 11. Use the European option-pricing models developed in the chapter to value the call of problem 9 and the the put put put of of of problem problem problem 10. 10. Assume Assume the the the annualized annualized annualized volatility volatility volatility of of of the the the Swiss Swiss Swiss franc franc franc is is is 14.2 14.2 14.2 percent. percent. This problem can be solved using the FXOPM.xls spreadsheet. Solution: d 1 = [ln (69.50/68) + .5(.142)2(.50)]/(.142)Ö.50 = .2675 d 2 = d 1 - .142Ö.50 = .2765 - .1004 = .1671 N(d 1) = .6055 N(d 2) = .5664 N(-d 1) = .3945 N(-d 2) = .4336 C e = [69.50(.6055) - 68(.5664)]e -(.035)(.50) = 3.51 cents P e = [68(.4336) - 69.50(.3945)]e -(.035)(.50) = 2.03 cents 12. Use the binomial option-pricing model developed in the chapter to value the call of problem 9. IM-11 The volatility of the Swiss franc is 14.2 percent. Solution: The spot rate at T will be either 77.39¢ = 70.00¢(1.1056) or 63.32¢(1.1056) or 63.32¢ = 70.00¢ = 70.00¢(.9045), where (.9045), where u = e .142Ö.50 = = 1.1056 1.1056 1.1056 and and d = 1/u = .9045. At At the the the exercise exercise exercise price price price of of E = = 68, 68, 68, the the the option option option will will will only only only be be exercised at time T if the Swiss franc appreciates; its exercise value would be C uT = 9.39¢9.39¢ = 77.39¢ = 77.39¢ - - 68. If the Swiss franc depreciates it would not be rational to exercise the option; its value would be C dT = 0. The hedge ratio is h = (9.39 – 0)/(77.39 – 63.32) = .6674. Thus, the call premium is: C 0 = Max {[69.50(.6674) {[69.50(.6674) –– 68((70/68)(.6674 – 1) +1)]/(1.0175), 70 – 68} = Max [1.64, 2] = 2 cents per SF. IM-12 MINI CASE: THE OPTIONS SPECULA TOR A A speculator speculator speculator is is is considering considering considering the the the purchase purchase purchase of of of five five five three-month three-month three-month Japanese Japanese Japanese yen yen yen call call call options options options with with with a a striking price of 96 cents per 100 yen. The premium is 1.35 cents per 100 yen. The spot price is 95.28 cents cents per per per 100 100 100 yen yen yen and and and the the the 90-day 90-day 90-day forward forward forward rate rate rate is is is 95.71 95.71 95.71 cents. cents. cents. The The The speculator speculator speculator believes believes believes the the the yen yen yen will will appreciate to $1.00 per 100 yen over the next three months. As the speculator’s assistant, you have been asked to prepare the following: 1. Graph the call option cash flow schedule. 2. Determine the speculator’s profit if the yen appreciates to $1.00/100 yen.3. Determine the speculator’s profit if the yen only appreciates to the forward rate.4. Determine the future spot price at which the speculator will only break even. Suggested Solution to the Options Speculator: 1. +-2. (5 x ¥6,250,000) x [(100 - 96) - 1.35]/10000 = $8,281.25. 6,250,000) x [(100 - 96) - 1.35]/10000 = $8,281.25. 3. Since the option expires out-of-the-money, the speculator will let the option expire worthless. He will only lose the option premium. 4. S T = E + C = 96 + 1.35 = 97.35 cents per 100 yen. 。
CHAPTER 8 MANAGEMENT OF TRANSACTION EXPOSURE SUGGESTED ANSWERS AND SOLUTIONS TO END-OF-CHAPTER QUESTIONS ANDPROBLEMSQUESTIONS1. How would you define transaction exposure? How is it different from economic exposure?Answer: Transaction exposure is the sensitivity of realized domestic currency values of the firm’s contractual cash flows denominated in foreign currencies to unexpected changes in exchange rates. Unlike economic exposure, transaction exposure is well-defined and short-term.2. Discuss and compare hedging transaction exposure using the forward contract vs. money market instruments. When do the alternative hedging approaches produce the same result?Answer: Hedging transaction exposure by a forward contract is achieved by selling or buying foreign currency receivables or payables forward. On the other hand, money market hedge is achieved by borrowing or lending the present value of foreign currency receivables or payables, thereby creating offsetting foreign currency positions. If the interest rate parity is holding, the two hedging methods are equivalent.3. Discuss and compare the costs of hedging via the forward contract and the options contract.Answer: There is no up-front cost of hedging by forward contracts. In the case of options hedging, however, hedgers should pay the premiums for the contracts up-front. The cost of forward hedging, however, may be realized ex post when the hedger regrets his/her hedging decision.4. What are the advantages of a currency options contract as a hedging tool compared with the forward contract?Answer: The main advantage of using options contracts for hedging is that the hedger can decide whether to exercise options upon observing the realized future exchange rate. Options thus provide ahedge against ex post regret that forward hedger might have to suffer. Hedgers can only eliminate the downside risk while retaining the upside potential.5. Suppose your company has purchased a put option on the German mark to manage exchange exposure associated with an account receivable denominated in that currency. In this case, your company can be said to have an ‘insurance’ policy on its receivable. Explain in what sense this is so.Answer: Your company in this case knows in advance that it will receive a certain minimum dollar amount no matter what might happen to the $/€exchange rate. Furthermore, if the German mark appreciates, your company will benefit from the rising euro.6. Recent surveys of corporate exchange risk management practices indicate that many U.S. firms simply do not hedge. How would you explain this result?Answer: There can be many possible reasons for this. First, many firms may feel that they are not really exposed to exchange risk due to product diversification, diversified markets for their products, etc. Second, firms may be using self-insurance against exchange risk. Third, firms may feel that shareholders can diversify exchange risk themselves, rendering corporate risk management unnecessary.7. Should a firm hedge? Why or why not?Answer: In a perfect capital market, firms may not need to hedge exchange risk. But firms can add to their value by hedging if markets are imperfect. First, if management knows about the firm’s exposure better than shareholders, the firm, not its shareholders, should hedge. Second, firms may be able to hedge at a lower cost. Third, if default costs are significant, corporate hedging can be justifiable because it reduces the probability of default. Fourth, if the firm faces progressive taxes, it can reduce tax obligations by hedging which stabilizes corporate earnings.8. Using an example, discuss the possible effect of hedging on a firm’s tax obligations.Answer: One can use an example similar to the one presented in the chapter.9. Explain contingent exposure and discuss the advantages of using currency options to manage this type of currency exposure.Answer: Companies may encounter a situation where they may or may not face currency exposure. In this situation, companies need options, not obligations, to buy or sell a given amount of foreign exchange they may or may not receive or have to pay. If companies either hedge using forward contracts or do not hedge at all, they may face definite currency exposure.10. Explain cross-hedging and discuss the factors determining its effectiveness.Answer: Cross-hedging involves hedging a position in one asset by taking a position in another asset. The effectiveness of cross-hedging would depend on the strength and stability of the relationship between the two assets.PROBLEMS1. Cray Research sold a super computer to the Max Planck Institute in Germany on credit and invoiced €10 million payable in six months. Currently, the six-month forward exchange rate i s $1.10/€ and the foreign exchange advisor for Cray Research predicts that the spot rate is likely to be $1.05/€ in six months.(a) What is the expected gain/loss from the forward hedging?(b) If you were the financial manager of Cray Research, would you recommend hedging this euro receivable? Why or why not?(c) Suppose the foreign exchange advisor predicts that the future spot rate will be the same as the forward exchange rate quoted today. Would you recommend hedging in this case? Why or why not?Solution: (a) Expected gain($) = 10,000,000(1.10 – 1.05)= 10,000,000(.05)= $500,000.(b) I would recommend hedging because Cray Research can increase the expected dollar receipt by $500,000 and also eliminate the exchange risk.(c) Since I eliminate risk without sacrificing dollar receipt, I still would recommend hedging.2. IBM purchased computer chips from NEC, a Japanese electronics concern, and was billed ¥250 million payable in three months. Currently, the spot exchange rate is ¥105/$ and the three-month forward rate is ¥100/$. The three-month money market interest rate is 8 percent per annum in the U.S. and 7 percent per annum in Japan. The management of IBM decided to use the money market hedge to deal with this yen account payable.(a) Explain the process of a money market hedge and compute the dollar cost of meeting the yen obligation.(b) Conduct the cash flow analysis of the money market hedge.Solution: (a). Let’s first compute the PV of ¥250 million, i.e.,250m/1.0175 = ¥245,700,245.7So if the above yen amount is invested today at the Japanese interest rate for three months, the maturity value will be exactly equal to ¥25 million which is the amount of payable.To buy the above yen amount today, it will cost:$2,340,002.34 = ¥250,000,000/105.The dollar cost of meeting this yen obligation is $2,340,002.34 as of today.(b)___________________________________________________________________Transaction CF0 CF1____________________________________________________________________1. Buy yens spot -$2,340,002.34with dollars ¥245,700,245.702. Invest in Japan - ¥245,700,245.70 ¥250,000,0003. Pay yens - ¥250,000,000Net cash flow - $2,340,002.34____________________________________________________________________3. You plan to visit Geneva, Switzerland in three months to attend an international business conference. You expect to incur the total cost of SF 5,000 for lodging, meals and transportation during your stay. As of today, the spot exchange rate is $0.60/SF and the three-month forward rate is $0.63/SF. You can buy the three-month call option on SF with the exercise rate of $0.64/SF for the premium of $0.05 per SF. Assume that your expected future spot exchange rate is the same as the forward rate. The three-month interest rate is 6 percent per annum in the United States and 4 percent per annum in Switzerland.(a) Calculate your expected dollar cost of buying SF5,000 if you choose to hedge via call option on SF.(b) Calculate the future dollar cost of meeting this SF obligation if you decide to hedge using a forward contract.(c) At what future spot exchange rate will you be indifferent between the forward and option market hedges?(d) Illustrate the future dollar costs of meeting the SF payable against the future spot exchange rate under both the options and forward market hedges.Solution: (a) Total option premium = (.05)(5000) = $250. In three months, $250 is worth $253.75 = $250(1.015). At the expected future spot rate of $0.63/SF, which is less than the exercise price, you don’t expect to exercise options. Rather, you expect to buy Swiss franc at $0.63/SF. Since you are going to buy SF5,000, you expect to spend $3,150 (=.63x5,000). Thus, the total expected cost of buying SF5,000 will be the sum of $3,150 and $253.75, i.e., $3,403.75.(b) $3,150 = (.63)(5,000).(c) $3,150 = 5,000x + 253.75, where x represents the break-even future spot rate. Solving for x, we obtain x = $0.57925/SF. Note that at the break-even future spot rate, options will not be exercised.(d) If the Swiss franc appreciates beyond $0.64/SF, which is the exercise price of call option, you will exercise the option and buy SF5,000 for $3,200. The total cost of buying SF5,000 will be $3,453.75 = $3,200 + $253.75.This is the maximum you will pay.4. Boeing just signed a contract to sell a Boeing 737 aircraft to Air France. Air France will be billed €20 million which is payable in one year. The current spot exchange rate is $1.05/€ and the one -year forwa rd rate is $1.10/€. The annual interest rate is 6.0% in the U.S. and5.0% in France. Boeing is concerned with the volatile exchange rate between the dollar and the euro and would like to hedge exchange exposure.(a) It is considering two hedging alternatives: sell the euro proceeds from the sale forward or borrow euros from the Credit Lyonnaise against the euro receivable. Which alternative would you recommend? Why?(b) Other things being equal, at what forward exchange rate would Boeing be indifferent between the two hedging methods?Solution: (a) In the case of forward hedge, the future dollar proceeds will be (20,000,000)(1.10) = $22,000,000. In the case of money market hedge (MMH), the firm has to first borrow the PV of its euro receivable, i.e., 20,000,000/1.05 =€19,047,619. Then the firm should exchange this euro amount into dollars at the current spot rate to receive: (€19,047,619)($1.05/€) = $20,000,000, which can be invested at the dollar interest rate for one year to yield:$20,000,000(1.06) = $21,200,000.Clearly, the firm can receive $800,000 more by using forward hedging.(b) According to IRP, F = S(1+i $)/(1+i F ). Thus the “indifferent” forward rate will be:$ Co st Options hedge Forward hedge $3,453.75 $3,150 0 0.579 0.64 (strike $/SF $253.75F = 1.05(1.06)/1.05 = $1.06/€.5. Suppose that Baltimore Machinery sold a drilling machine to a Swiss firm and gave the Swiss client a choice of paying either $10,000 or SF 15,000 in three months.(a) In the above example, Baltimore Machinery effectively gave the Swiss client a free option to buy up to $10,000 dolla rs using Swiss franc. What is the ‘implied’ exercise exchange rate?(b) If the spot exchange rate turns out to be $0.62/SF, which currency do you think the Swiss client will choose to use for payment? What is the value of this free option for the Swiss client?(c) What is the best way for Baltimore Machinery to deal with the exchange exposure?Solution: (a) The implied exercise (price) rate is: 10,000/15,000 = $0.6667/SF.(b) If the Swiss client chooses to pay $10,000, it will cost SF16,129 (=10,000/.62). Since the Swiss client has an option to pay SF15,000, it will choose to do so. The value of this option is obviously SF1,129 (=SF16,129-SF15,000).(c) Baltimore Machinery faces a contingent exposure in the sense that it may or may not receive SF15,000 in the future. The firm thus can hedge this exposure by buying a put option on SF15,000.6. Princess Cruise Company (PCC) purchased a ship from Mitsubishi Heavy Industry. PCC owes Mitsubishi Heavy Industry 500 million yen in one year. The current spot rate is 124 yen per dollar and the one-year forward rate is 110 yen per dollar. The annual interest rate is 5% in Japan and 8% in the U.S. PCC can also buy a one-year call option on yen at the strike price of $.0081 per yen for a premium of .014 cents per yen.(a) Compute the future dollar costs of meeting this obligation using the money market hedge and the forward hedges.(b) Assuming that the forward exchange rate is the best predictor of the future spot rate, compute the expected future dollar cost of meeting this obligation when the option hedge is used.(c) At what future spot rate do you think PCC may be indifferent between the option and forward hedge?Solution: (a) In the case of forward hedge, the dollar cost will be 500,000,000/110 = $4,545,455. In the case of money market hedge, the future dollar cost will be: 500,000,000(1.08)/(1.05)(124) = $4,147,465.(b) The option premium is: (.014/100)(500,000,000) = $70,000. Its future value will be $70,000(1.08) = $75,600.At the expected future spot rate of $.0091(=1/110), which is higher than the exercise of $.0081, PCC will exercise its call option and buy ¥500,000,000 for $4,050,000 (=500,000,000x.0081).The total expected cost will thus be $4,125,600, which is the sum of $75,600 and $4,050,000.(c) When the option hedge is used, PCC will spend “at most” $4,125,000. On the other hand, when the forward hedging is used, PCC will have to spend $4,545,455 regardless of the future spot rate. This means that the options hedge dominates the forward hedge. At no future spot rate, PCC will be indifferent between forward and options hedges.7. Airbus sold an aircraft, A400, to Delta Airlines, a U.S. company, and billed $30 million payable in six months. Airbus is concerned with the euro proceeds from international sales and would like to control exchange risk. The current spot exchange rate is $1.05/€ and six-month forward exchange rate is $1.10/€ at the moment. Airbus can buy a six-month put option on U.S. dollars with a strike price of €0.95/$ for a premium of €0.02 p er U.S. dollar. Currently, six-month interest rate is 2.5% in the euro zone and 3.0% in the U.S.pute the guaranteed euro proceeds from the American sale if Airbus decides tohedge using a forward contract.b.If Airbus decides to hedge using money market instruments, what action does Airbusneed to take? What would be the guaranteed euro proceeds from the American sale in this case?c.If Airbus decides to hedge using put options on U.S. dollars, what would be the ‘expected’euro proceeds from the American sale? Assume that Airbus regards the current forward exchange rate as an unbiased predictor of the future spot exchange rate.d.At what future spot exchange rate do you think Airbus will be indifferent between theoption and money market hedge?Solution:a. Airbus will sell $30 million forward for €27,272,727 = ($30,000,000) / ($1.10/€).b. Airbus will borrow the present value of the dollar receivable, i.e., $29,126,214 = $30,000,000/1.03, and then sell the dollar proceeds spot for euros: €27,739,251. This is the euro amount that Airbus is going to keep.c. Since the expected future spot rate is less than the strike price of the put option, i.e., €0.9091< €0.95, Airbus expects to exercise the option and receive €28,500,000 = ($30,000,000)(€0.95/$). Th is is gross proceeds. Airbus spent €600,000 (=0.02x30,000,000) upfront for the option and its future cost is equal to €615,000 = €600,000 x 1.025. Thus the net euro proceeds from the American sale is €27,885,000, which is the difference between the gross proceeds and the option costs.d. At the indifferent future spot rate, the following will hold:€28,432,732 = S T (30,000,000) - €615,000.Solving for S T, we obtain the “indifference” future spot exchange rate, i.e., €0.9683/$, or $1.0327/€. Note that €28,432,732 is the future value of the proceeds under money market hedging: €28,432,732 = (€27,739,251) (1.025).Suggested solution for Mini Case: Chase Options, Inc.[See Chapter 13 for the case text]Chase Options, Inc.Hedging Foreign Currency Exposure Through Currency OptionsHarvey A. PoniachekI. Case SummaryThis case reviews the foreign exchange options market and hedging. It presents various international transactions that require currency options hedging strategies by the corporations involved. Seven transactions under a variety of circumstances are introduced that require hedging by currency options. The transactions involve hedging of dividend remittances, portfolio investment exposure, and strategic economic competitiveness. Market quotations are provided for options (and options hedging ratios), forwards, and interest rates for various maturities.II. Case Objective.The case introduces the student to the principles of currency options market and hedging strategies. The transactions are of various types that often confront companies that are involved in extensive international business or multinational corporations. The case induces students to acquire hands-on experience in addressing specific exposure and hedging concerns, including how to apply various market quotations, which hedging strategy is most suitable, and how to address exposure in foreign currency through cross hedging policies.III. Proposed Assignment Solution1. The company expects DM100 million in repatriated profits, and does not want the DM/$ exchangerate at which they convert those profits to rise above 1.70. They can hedge this exposure using DM put options with a strike price of 1.70. If the spot rate rises above 1.70, they can exercise the option, while if that rate falls they can enjoy additional profits from favorable exchange rate movements.To purchase the options would require an up-front premium of:DM 100,000,000 x 0.0164 = DM 1,640,000.With a strike price of 1.70 DM/$, this would assure the U.S. company of receiving at least:DM 100,000,000 – DM 1,640,000 x (1 + 0.085106 x 272/360)= DM 98,254,544/1.70 DM/$ = $57,796,791by exercising the option if the DM depreciated. Note that the proceeds from the repatriated profits are reduced by the premium paid, which is further adjusted by the interest foregone on this amount.However, if the DM were to appreciate relative to the dollar, the company would allow the option to expire, and enjoy greater dollar proceeds from this increase.Should forward contracts be used to hedge this exposure, the proceeds received would be:DM100,000,000/1.6725 DM/$ = $59,790,732,regardless of the movement of the DM/$ exchange rate. While this amount is almost $2 million more than that realized using option hedges above, there is no flexibility regarding the exercise date; if this date differs from that at which the repatriate profits are available, the company may be exposed to additional further current exposure. Further, there is no opportunity to enjoy any appreciation in the DM.If the company were to buy DM puts as above, and sell an equivalent amount in calls with strike price 1.647, the premium paid would be exactly offset by the premium received. This would assure that the exchange rate realized would fall between 1.647 and 1.700. If the rate rises above 1.700, the company will exercise its put option, and if it fell below 1.647, the other party would use its call; for any rate in between, both options would expire worthless. The proceeds realized would then fall between:DM 100,00,000/1.647 DM/$ = $60,716,454andDM 100,000,000/1.700 DM/$ = $58,823,529.This would allow the company some upside potential, while guaranteeing proceeds at least $1 million greater than the minimum for simply buying a put as above.Buy/Sell OptionsDM/$ Sp otPutPayoff“Put”ProfitsCallPayoff“Call”ProfitsNetProfit1. 60(1,742,846)01,742,84660,716,45460,716,4541. 61(1,742,846)01,742,84660,716,45460,716,4541. 62(1,742,846)01,742,84660,716,45460,716,4541. 63(1,742,846)01,742,84660,716,45460,716,4541. 64(1,742,846)01,742,84660,716,45460,716,4541. 65(1,742,846)60,606,0611,742,846060,606,0611. 66(1,742,846)60,240,9641,742,846060,240,9641. 67(1,742,846)59,880,2401,742,846059,880,2401. 68(1,742,846)59,523,8101,742,846059,523,8101. 69(1,742,846)59,171,5981,742,846059,171,5981. 70(1,742,846)58,823,5291,742,846058,823,5291.(1,742,858,8231,742,8058,823,7146),529465291. 72(1,742,846)58,823,5291,742,846058,823,5291. 73(1,742,846)58,823,5291,742,846058,823,5291. 74(1,742,846)58,823,5291,742,846058,823,5291. 75(1,742,846)58,823,5291,742,846058,823,5291. 76(1,742,846)58,823,5291,742,846058,823,5291. 77(1,742,846)58,823,5291,742,846058,823,5291. 78(1,742,846)58,823,5291,742,846058,823,5291. 79(1,742,846)58,823,5291,742,846058,823,5291. 80(1,742,846)58,823,5291,742,846058,823,5291. 81(1,742,846)58,823,5291,742,846058,823,5291. 82(1,742,846)58,823,5291,742,846058,823,5291. 83(1,742,846)58,823,5291,742,846058,823,5291. 84(1,742,846)58,823,5291,742,846058,823,5291. 85(1,742,846)58,823,5291,742,846058,823,529Since the firm believes that there is a good chance that the pound sterling will weaken, locking them into a forward contract would not be appropriate, because they would lose the opportunity to profit from this weakening. Their hedge strategy should follow for an upside potential to match their viewpoint. Therefore, they should purchase sterling call options, paying a premium of:5,000,000 STG x 0.0176 = 88,000 STG.If the dollar strengthens against the pound, the firm allows the option to expire, and buys sterling in the spot market at a cheaper price than they would have paid for a forward contract; otherwise, the sterling calls protect against unfavorable depreciation of the dollar.Because the fund manager is uncertain when he will sell the bonds, he requires a hedge which will allow flexibility as to the exercise date. Thus, options are the best instrument for him to use. He can buy A$ puts to lock in a floor of 0.72 A$/$. Since he is willing to forego any further currency appreciation, he can sell A$ calls with a strike price of 0.8025 A$/$ to defray the cost of his hedge (in fact he earns a net premium of A$ 100,000,000 x (0.007234 –0.007211) = A$ 2,300), while knowing that he can’t receive less than 0.72 A$/$ when redeeming his investment, and can benefit from a small appreciation of the A$.Example #3:Problem: Hedge principal denominated in A$ into US$. Forgo upside potential to buy floor protection.I. Hedge by writing calls and buying puts1) Write calls for $/A$ @ 0.8025Buy puts for $/A$ @ 0.72# contracts needed = Principal in A$/Contract size100,000,000A$/100,000 A$ = 1002) Revenue from sale of calls = (# contracts)(size of contract)(premium)$75,573 = (100)(100,000 A$)(.007234 $/A$)(1 + .0825 195/360)3) Total cost of puts = (# contracts)(size of contract)(premium)$75,332 = (100)(100,000 A$)(.007211 $/A$)(1 + .0825 195/360)4) Put payoffIf spot falls below 0.72, fund manager will exercise putIf spot rises above 0.72, fund manager will let put expire5) Call payoffIf spot rises above .8025, call will be exercisedIf spot falls below .8025, call will expire6) Net payoffSee following Table for net payoff Australian Dollar Bond HedgeStrike PricePutPayoff“Put”PrincipalCallPayoff“Call”PrincipalNetProfit0. 60(75,332)72,000,00075,573072,000,2410. 61(75,332)72,000,00075,573072,000,2410. 62(75,332)72,000,00075,573072,000,2410. 63(75,332)72,000,00075,573072,000,2410. 64(75,332)72,000,00075,573072,000,2410. 65(75,332)72,000,00075,573072,000,2410. 66(75,332)72,000,00075,573072,000,2410. 67(75,332)72,000,00075,573072,000,2410. 68(75,332)72,000,00075,573072,000,2410. 69(75,332)72,000,00075,573072,000,2410. 70(75,332)72,000,00075,573072,000,2410. 71(75,332)72,000,00075,573072,000,2410. 72(75,332)72,000,00075,573072,000,2410. 73(75,332)73,000,00075,573073,000,2410. 74(75,332)74,000,00075,573074,000,2410. 75(75,332)75,000,00075,573075,000,2410. 76(75,332)76,000,00075,573076,000,2410. 77(75,332)77,000,00075,573077,000,2410. 78(75,332)78,000,00075,573078,000,2410. 79(75,332)79,000,00075,573079,000,2410. 80(75,332)80,000,00075,573080,000,2410. 81(75,332)075,57380,250,00080,250,2410. 82(75,332)075,57380,250,00080,250,2410. 83(75,332)075,57380,250,00080,250,2410. 84(75,332)075,57380,250,00080,250,2410. 85(75,332)075,57380,250,00080,250,2414. The German company is bidding on a contract which they cannot be certain of winning. Thus, the need to execute a currency transaction is similarly uncertain, and using a forward or futures as a hedge is inappropriate, because it would force them to perform even if they do not win the contract.Using a sterling put option as a hedge for this transaction makes the most sense. For a premium of:12 million STG x 0.0161 = 193,200 STG,they can assure themselves that adverse movements in the pound sterling exchange rate will not diminish the profitability of the project (and hence the feasibility of their bid), while at the same time allowing the potential for gains from sterling appreciation.5. Since AMC in concerned about the adverse effects that a strengthening of the dollar would have on its business, we need to create a situation in which it will profit from such an appreciation. Purchasing a yen put or a dollar call will achieve this objective. The data in Exhibit 1, row 7 represent a 10 percent appreciation of the dollar (128.15 strike vs. 116.5 forward rate) and can be used to hedge against a similar appreciation of the dollar.For every million yen of hedging, the cost would be:Yen 100,000,000 x 0.000127 = 127 Yen.To determine the breakeven point, we need to compute the value of this option if the dollar appreciated 10 percent (spot rose to 128.15), and subtract from it the premium we paid. This profit would be compared with the profit earned on five to 10 percent of AMC’s sales (which would be lost as a result of the dollar appreciation). The number of options to be purchased which would equalize these two quantities would represent the breakeven point.Example #5:Hedge the economic cost of the depreciating Yen to AMC.If we assume that AMC sales fall in direct proportion to depreciation in the yen (i.e., a 10 percent decline in yen and 10 percent decline in sales), then we can hedge the full value of AMC’s sales. I have assumed $100 million in sales.1) Buy yen puts# contracts needed = Expected Sales *Current ¥/$ Rate / Contract size 9600 = ($100,000,000)(120¥/$) / ¥1,250,0002) Total Cost = (# contracts)(contract size)(premium)$1,524,000 = (9600)( ¥1,250,000)($0.0001275/¥)3) Floor rate = Exercise – Premium128.1499¥/$ = 128.15¥/$ - $1,524,000/12,000,000,000¥4) The payoff changes depending on the level of the ¥/$ rate. The following tablesummarizes the payoffs. An equilibrium is reached when the spot rate equals the floor rate.。
CHAPTER 7 FUTURES AND OPTIONS ON FOREIGN EXCHANGESUGGESTED ANSWERS AND SOLUTIONS TO END-OF-CHAPTERQUESTIONS AND PROBLEMSQUESTIONS1. Explain the basic differences between the operation of a currency forward market and a futures market.Answer: The forward market is an OTC market where the forward contract for purchase or sale of foreign currency is tailor-made between the client and its international bank. No money changes hands until the maturity date of the contract when delivery and receipt are typically made. A futures contract is an exchange-traded instrument with standardized features specifying contract size and delivery date. Futures contracts are marked-to-market daily to reflect changes in the settlement price. Delivery is seldom made in a futures market. Rather a reversing trade is made to close out a long or short position.2. In order for a derivatives market to function most efficiently, two types of economic agents are needed: hedgers and speculators. Explain.Answer: Two types of market participants are necessary for the efficient operation of a derivatives market: speculators and hedgers. A speculator attempts to profit from a change in the futures price. To do this, the speculator will take a long or short position in a futures contract depending upon his expectations of future price movement. A hedger, on-the-other-hand, desires to avoid price variation by locking in a purchase price of the underlying asset through a long position in a futures contract or a sales price through a short position. In effect, the hedger passes off the risk of price variation to the speculator who is better able, or at least more willing, to bear this risk.3. Why are most futures positions closed out through a reversing trade rather than held to delivery?Answer: In forward markets, approximately 90 percent of all contracts that are initially established result in the short making delivery to the long of the asset underlying the contract. This is natural because the terms of forward contracts are tailor-made between the long and short. By contrast, only about one percent of currency futures contracts result in delivery. While futures contracts are useful for speculation and hedging, their standardized delivery dates make them unlikely to correspond to the actual future dates when foreignexchange transactions will occur. Thus, they are generally closed out in a reversing trade. In fact, the commission that buyers and sellers pay to transact in the futures market is a single amount that covers the round-trip transactions of initiating and closing out the position.4. How can the FX futures market be used for price discovery?Answer: To the extent that FX forward prices are an unbiased predictor of future spot exchange rates, the market anticipates whether one currency will appreciate or depreciate versus another. Because FX futures contracts trade in an expiration cycle, different contracts expire at different periodic dates into the future. The pattern of the prices of these cont racts provides information as to the market’s current belief about the relative future value of one currency versus another at the scheduled expiration dates of the contracts. One will generally see a steadily appreciating or depreciating pattern; however, it may be mixed at times. Thus, the futures market is useful for price discovery, i.e., obtaining the market’s forecast of the spot exchange rate at different future dates.5. What is the major difference in the obligation of one with a long position in a futures (or forward) contract in comparison to an options contract?Answer: A futures (or forward) contract is a vehicle for buying or selling a stated amount of foreign exchange at a stated price per unit at a specified time in the future. If the long holds the contract to the delivery date, he pays the effective contractual futures (or forward) price, regardless of whether it is an advantageous price in comparison to the spot price at the delivery date. By contrast, an option is a contract giving the long the right to buy or sell a given quantity of an asset at a specified price at some time in the future, but not enforcing any obligation on him if the spot price is more favorable than the exercise price. Because the option owner does not have to exercise the option if it is to his disadvantage, the option has a price, or premium, whereas no price is paid at inception to enter into a futures (or forward) contract.6. What is meant by the terminology that an option is in-, at-, or out-of-the-money?Answer: A call (put) option with S t > E (E > S t) is referred to as trading in-the-money. If S t E the option is trading at-the-money. If S t< E (E < S t) the call (put) option is trading out-of-the-money.7. List the arguments (variables) of which an FX call or put option model price is a function. How does the call and put premium change with respect to a change in the arguments?Answer: Both call and put options are functions of only six variables: S t, E, r i, r$, T andσ.When all else remains the same, the price of a European FX call (put) option will increase:1. the larger (smaller) is S,2. the smaller (larger) is E,3. the smaller (larger) is r i,4. the larger (smaller) is r$,5. the larger (smaller) r$ is relative to r i, and6. the greater is σ.When r$ and r i are not too much different in size, a European FX call and put will increase in price when the option term-to-maturity increases. However, when r$ is very much larger than r i, a European FX call will increase in price, but the put premium will decrease, when the option term-to-maturity increases. The opposite is true when r i is very much greater than r$. For American FX options the analysis is less complicated. Since a longer term American option can be exercised on any date that a shorter term option can be exercised, or a some later date, it follows that the all else remaining the same, the longer term American option will sell at a price at least as large as the shorter term option.PROBLEMS1. Assume today’s settlement price on a CME EUR futures contract is $1.3140/EUR. You have a short position in one contract. Your performance bond account currently has a balance of $1,700. The next three days’ settlement prices are $1.3126, $1.3133, and $1.3049. Calculate the chan ges in the performance bond account from daily marking-to-market and the balance of the performance bond account after the third day.Solution: $1,700 + [($1.3140 - $1.3126) + ($1.3126 - $1.3133)+ ($1.3133 - $1.3049)] x EUR125,000 = $2,837.50,where EUR125,000 is the contractual size of one EUR contract.2. Do problem 1 again assuming you have a long position in the futures contract.Solution: $1,700 + [($1.3126 - $1.3140) + ($1.3133 - $1.3126) + ($1.3049 - $1.3133)] x EUR125,000 = $562.50,where EUR125,000 is the contractual size of one EUR contract.With only $562.50 in your performance bond account, you would experience a margin call requesting that additional funds be added to your performance bond account to bring the balance back up to the initial performance bond level.3. Using the quotations in Exhibit 7.3, calculate the face value of the open interest in the June 2005 Swiss franc futures contract.Solution: 2,101 contracts x SF125,000 = SF262,625,000.where SF125,000 is the contractual size of one SF contract.4. Using the quotations in Exhibit 7.3, note that the June 2005 Mexican peso futures contract has a price of $0.08845. You believe the spot price in June will be $0.09500. What speculative position would you enter into to attempt to profit from your beliefs? Calculate your anticipated profits, assuming you take a position in three contracts. What is the size of your profit (loss) if the futures price is indeed an unbiased predictor of the future spot price and this price materializes?Solution: If you expect the Mexican peso to rise from $0.08845 to $0.09500, you would take a long position in futures since the futures price of $0.08845 is less than your expected spot price.Your anticipated profit from a long position in three contracts is: 3 x ($0.09500 - $0.08845) x MP500,000 = $9,825.00, where MP500,000 is the contractual size of one MP contract.If the futures price is an unbiased predictor of the expected spot price, the expected spot price is the futures price of $0.08845/MP. If this spot price materializes, you will not have any profits or losses from your short position in three futures contracts: 3 x ($0.08845 - $0.08845) x MP500,000 = 0.5. Do problem 4 again assuming you believe the June 2005 spot price will be $0.08500.Solution: If you expect the Mexican peso to depreciate from $0.08845 to $0.07500, you would take a short position in futures since the futures price of $0.08845 is greater than your expected spot price.Your anticipated profit from a short position in three contracts is: 3 x ($0.08845 - $0.07500) x MP500,000 = $20,175.00.If the futures price is an unbiased predictor of the future spot price and this price materializes, you will not profit or lose from your long futures position.6. George Johnson is considering a possible six-month $100 million LIBOR-based, floating-rate bank loan to fund a project at terms shown in the table below. Johnson fears a possible rise in the LIBOR rate by December and wants to use the December Eurodollar futures contract to hedge this risk. The contract expires December 20, 1999, has a US$ 1 million contract size, and a discount yield of7.3 percent.Johnson will ignore the cash flow implications of marking to market, initial margin requirements, and any timing mismatch between exchange-traded futures contract cash flows and the interest payments due in March.Loan TermsSeptember 20, 1999 December 20, 1999 March 20, 2000 •Borrow $100 million at •Pay interest for first three •Pay back principal September 20 LIBOR + 200 months plus interestbasis points (bps) •Roll loan over at•September 20 LIBOR = 7% December 20 LIBOR +200 bpsLoan First loan payment (9%) Second paymentinitiated and futures contract expires and principal↓↓↓•••9/20/99 12/20/99 3/20/00a. Formulate Johnson’s September 20 floating-to-fixed-rate strategy using the Eurodollar future contracts discussed in the text above. Show that this strategy would result in a fixed-rate loan, assuming an increase in the LIBOR rate to 7.8 percent by December 20, which remains at 7.8 percent through March 20. Show all calculations.Johnson is considering a 12-month loan as an alternative. This approach will result in two additional uncertain cash flows, as follows:Loan First Second Third Fourth payment initiated payment (9%) payment payment and principal ↓↓↓↓↓•••••9/20/99 12/20/99 3/20/00 6/20/00 9/20/00 b. Describe the strip hedge that Johnson could use and explain how it hedges the 12-month loan (specify number of contracts). No calculations are needed.CFA Guideline Answera. The basis point value (BPV) of a Eurodollar futures contract can be found by substituting the contract specifications into the following money market relationship:BPV FUT = Change in Value = (face value) x (days to maturity / 360) x (change in yield)= ($1 million) x (90 / 360) x (.0001)= $25The number of contract, N, can be found by:N = (BPV spot) / (BPV futures)= ($2,500) / ($25)= 100ORN = (value of spot position) / (face value of each futures contract)= ($100 million) / ($1 million)= 100ORN = (value of spot position) / (value of futures position)= ($100,000,000) / ($981,750)where value of futures position = $1,000,000 x [1 – (0.073 / 4)]102 contractsTherefore on September 20, Johnson would sell 100 (or 102) December Eurodollar futures contracts at the 7.3 percent yield. The implied LIBOR rate in December is 7.3 percent as indicated by the December Eurofutures discount yield of 7.3 percent. Thus a borrowing rate of 9.3 percent (7.3 percent + 200 basis points) can be locked in if the hedge is correctly implemented.A rise in the rate to 7.8 percent represents a 50 basis point (bp) increase over the implied LIBOR rate. For a 50 basis point increase in LIBOR, the cash flow on the short futures position is:= ($25 per basis point per contract) x 50 bp x 100 contracts= $125,000.However, the cash flow on the floating rate liability is:= -0.098 x ($100,000,000 / 4)= - $2,450,000.Combining the cash flow from the hedge with the cash flow from the loan results in a net outflow of $2,325,000, which translates into an annual rate of 9.3 percent:= ($2,325,000 x 4) / $100,000,000 = 0.093This is precisely the implied borrowing rate that Johnson locked in on September 20. Regardless of the LIBOR rate on December 20, the net cash outflow will be $2,325,000, which translates into an annualized rate of 9.3 percent. Consequently, the floating rate liability has been converted to a fixed rate liability in the sense that the interest rate uncertainty associated with the March 20 payment (using the December 20 contract) has been removed as of September 20.b. In a strip hedge, Johnson would sell 100 December futures (for the March payment), 100 March futures (for the June payment), and 100 June futures (for the September payment). The objective is to hedge each interest rate payment separately using the appropriate number of contracts. The problem is the same as in Part A except here three cash flows are subject to rising rates and a strip of futures is used tohedge this interest rate risk. This problem is simplified somewhat because the cash flow mismatch between the futures and the loan payment is ignored. Therefore, in order to hedge each cash flow, Johnson simply sells 100 contracts for each payment. The strip hedge transforms the floating rate loan into a strip of fixed rate payments. As was done in Part A, the fixed rates are found by adding 200 basis points to the implied forward LIBOR rate indicated by the discount yield of the three different Eurodollar futures contracts. The fixed payments will be equal when the LIBOR term structure is flat for the first year.7. Jacob Bower has a liability that:•has a principal balance of $100 million on June 30, 1998,•accrues interest quarterly starting on June 30, 1998,•pays interest quarterly,•has a one-year term to maturity, and•calculates interest due based on 90-day LIBOR (the London Interbank OfferedRate).Bower wishes to hedge his remaining interest payments against changes in interest rates.Bower has correctly calculated that he needs to sell (short) 300 Eurodollar futures contracts to accomplish the hedge. He is considering the alternative hedging strategies outlined in the following table.Initial Position (6/30/98) in90-Day LIBOR Eurodollar ContractsStrategy A Strategy BContract Month (contracts) (contracts)September 1998 300 100December 1998 0 100March 1999 0 100a. Explain why strategy B is a more effective hedge than strategy A when the yield curveundergoes an instantaneous nonparallel shift.b. Discuss an interest rate scenario in which strategy A would be superior to strategy B.CFA Guideline Answera. Strategy B’s SuperiorityStrategy B is a strip hedge that is constructed by selling (shorting) 100 futures contracts maturing in each of the next three quarters. With the strip hedge in place, each quarter of the coming year is hedged against shifts in interest rates for that quarter. The reason Strategy B will be a more effective hedge than Strategy A for Jacob Bower is that Strategy B is likely to work well whether a parallel shift or a nonparallel shift occurs over the one-year term of Bower’s liability. That is, regardless of what happens to the term structure, Strategy B structures the futures hedge so that the rates reflected by the Eurodollar futures cash price match the applicable rates for the underlying liability-the 90day LIBOR-based rate on Bower’s liability. The same is not true for Strategy A. Because Jacob Bower’s liability carries a floating interest rate that resets quarterly, he needs a strategy that provides a series of three-month hedges. Strategy A will need to be restructured when the three-month September contract expires. In particular, if the yield curve twists upward (futures yields rise more for distant expirations than for near expirations), Strategy A will produce inferior hedge results.b. Scenario in Which Strategy A is SuperiorStrategy A is a stack hedge strategy that initially involves selling (shorting) 300 September contracts. Strategy A is rarely better than Strategy B as a hedging or risk-reduction strategy. Only from the perspective of favorable cash flows is Strategy A better than Strategy B. Such cash flows occur only in certain interest rate scenarios. For example Strategy A will work as well as Strategy B for Bower’s liability if interest rates (instantaneously) change in parallel fashion. Another interest rate scenario where Strategy A outperforms Strategy B is one in which the yield curve rises but with a twist so that futures yields rise more for near expirations than for distant expirations. Upon expiration of the September contract, Bower will have to roll out his hedge by selling 200 December contracts to hedge the remaining interest payments. This action will have the effect that the cash flow from Strategy A will be larger than the cash flow from Strategy B because the appreciation on the 300 short September futures contracts will be larger than the cumulative appreciation in the 300 contracts shorted in Strategy B (i.e., 100 September, 100 December, and 100 March). Consequently, the cash flow from Strategy A will more than offset the increase in the interest payment on the liability, whereas the cash flow from Strategy B will exactly offset the increase in the interest payment on the liability.8. Use the quotations in Exhibit 7.7 to calculate the intrinsic value and the time value of the 97 September Japanese yen American call and put options.Solution: Premium - Intrinsic Value = Time Value97 Sep Call 2.08 - Max[95.80 – 97.00 = - 1.20, 0] = 2.08 cents per 100 yen97 Sep Put 2.47 - Max[97.00 – 95.80 = 1.20, 0] = 1.27 cents per 100 yen9. Assume spot Swiss franc is $0.7000 and the six-month forward rate is $0.6950. What is the minimum price that a six-month American call option with a striking price of $0.6800 should sell for in a rational market? Assume the annualized six-month Eurodollar rate is 3 ½ percent.Solution:Note to Instructor: A complete solution to this problem relies on the boundary expressions presented in footnote 3 of the text of Chapter 7.C a≥Max[(70 - 68), (69.50 - 68)/(1.0175), 0]≥Max[ 2, 1.47, 0] = 2 cents10. Do problem 9 again assuming an American put option instead of a call option.Solution: P a≥Max[(68 - 70), (68 - 69.50)/(1.0175), 0]≥Max[ -2, -1.47, 0] = 0 cents11. Use the European option-pricing models developed in the chapter to value the call of problem 9 and the put of problem 10. Assume the annualized volatility of the Swiss franc is 14.2 percent. This problem can be solved using the FXOPM.xls spreadsheet.Solution:d1 = [ln(69.50/68) + .5(.142)2(.50)]/(.142)√.50 = .2675d2 = d1 - .142√.50 = .2765 - .1004 = .1671N(d1) = .6055N(d2) = .5664N(-d1) = .3945N(-d2) = .4336C e = [69.50(.6055) - 68(.5664)]e-(.035)(.50) = 3.51 centsP e = [68(.4336) - 69.50(.3945)]e-(.035)(.50) = 2.03 cents12. Use the binomial option-pricing model developed in the chapter to value the call of problem 9.The volatility of the Swiss franc is 14.2 percent.Solution: The spot rate at T will be either 77.39¢ = 70.00¢(1.1056) or 63.32¢ = 70.00¢(.9045), where u = e.142 .50= 1.1056 and d = 1/u= .9045. At the exercise price of E= 68, the option will only be exercised at time T if the Swiss franc appreciates; its exercise value would be C uT= 9.39¢ = 77.39¢ - 68. If the Swiss franc depreciates it would not be rational to exercise the option; its value would be C dT = 0.The hedge ratio is h = (9.39 – 0)/(77.39 – 63.32) = .6674.Thus, the call premium is:C0= Max{[69.50(.6674) – 68((70/68)(.6674 – 1) +1)]/(1.0175), 70 – 68}= Max[1.64, 2] = 2 cents per SF.MINI CASE: THE OPTIONS SPECULATORA speculator is considering the purchase of five three-month Japanese yen call options with a striking price of 96 cents per 100 yen. The premium is 1.35 cents per 100 yen. The spot price is 95.28 cents per 100 yen and the 90-day forward rate is 95.71 cents. The speculator believes the yen will appreciate to $1.00 per 100 yen over the next three months. As the speculator’s assistant, you have been asked to prepare the following:1. Graph the call option cash flow schedule.2. Determine the speculator’s profit if the yen appreciates to $1.00/100 yen.3. Determine the speculator’s profit if the yen only appreciates to the forward rate.4. Determine the future spot price at which the speculator will only break even.Suggested Solution to the Options Speculator:1.2. (5 x ¥6,250,000) x [(100 - 96) - 1.35]/10000 = $8,281.25.3. Since the option expires out-of-the-money, the speculator will let the option expire worthless. He will only lose the option premium.4. S T = E + C = 96 + 1.35 = 97.35 cents per 100 yen.。
CHAPTER 7 FUTURES AND OPTIONS ON FOREIGN EXCHANGESUGGESTED ANSWERS AND SOLUTIONS TO END-OF-CHAPTERQUESTIONS AND PROBLEMSQUESTIONS1. Explain the basic differences between the operation of a currency forward market and a futures market.Answer: The forward market is an OTC market where the forward contract for purchase or sale of foreign currency is tailor-made between the client and its international bank. No money changes hands until the maturity date of the contract when delivery and receipt are typically made. A futures contract is an exchange-traded instrument with standardized features specifying contract size and delivery date. Futures contracts are marked-to-market daily to reflect changes in the settlement price. Delivery is seldom made in a futures market. Rather a reversing trade is made to close out a long or short position.2. In order for a derivatives market to function most efficiently, two types of economic agents are needed: hedgers and speculators. Explain.Answer: Two types of market participants are necessary for the efficient operation of a derivatives market: speculators and hedgers. A speculator attempts to profit from a change in the futures price. To do this, the speculator will take a long or short position in a futures contract depending upon his expectations of future price movement. A hedger, on-the-other-hand, desires to avoid price variation by locking in a purchase price of the underlying asset through a long position in a futures contract or a sales price through a short position. In effect, the hedger passes off the risk of price variation to the speculator who is better able, or at least more willing, to bear this risk.3. Why are most futures positions closed out through a reversing trade rather than held to delivery?Answer: In forward markets, approximately 90 percent of all contracts that are initially established result i n the short making delivery to the long of the asset underlying the contract. This is natural because the terms of forward contracts are tailor-made between the long and short. By contrast, only about one percent of currency futures contracts result in delivery. While futures contracts are useful for speculation and hedgi ng, their standardized delivery dates make them unlikely to correspond to the actual future dates when foreignexchange transactions will occur. Thus, they are generally closed out in a reversing trade. In fact, the commission that buyers and sellers pay to transact in the futures market is a single amount that covers the round-trip transactions of initiating and closing out the position.4. How can the FX futures market be used for price discovery?Answer: To the extent that FX forward prices are an unbiased predictor of future spot exchange rates, the market anticipates whether one currency will appreciate or depreciate versus another. Because FX futures contracts trade in an expiration cycle, different contracts expire at different periodic dates into the future. The pattern of the prices of these cont racts provides information as to the market’s current belief about the relative future value of one currency versus another at the scheduled expiration dates of the contracts. One will generally see a steadily appreciating or depreciating pattern; however, it may be mixed at times. Thus, the futures market is useful for price discovery, i.e., obtaining the market’s forecast of the spot exchange rate at different future dates.5. What is the major difference in the obligation of one with a long position in a futures (or forward) contract in comparison to an options contract?Answer: A futures (or forward) contract is a vehicle for buying or selling a stated amount of foreign exchange at a stated price per unit at a specified time in the future. If the long holds the contract to the delivery date, he pays the effective contractual futures (or forward) price, regardless of whether it is an advantageous price in comparison to the spot price at the delivery date. By contrast, an option is a contract giving the long the right to buy or sell a given quantity of an asset at a specified price at some time in the future, but not enforcing any obligation on him if the spot price is more favorable than the exercise price. Because the option owner does not have to exercise the option if it is to his disadvantage, the option has a price, or premium, whereas no price is paid at inception to enter into a futures (or forward) contract.6. What is meant by the terminology that an option is in-, at-, or out-of-the-money?Answer: A call (put) option with S t > E (E > S t) is referred to as trading in-the-money. If S t E the option is trading at-the-money. If S t< E (E < S t) the call (put) option is trading out-of-the-money.7. List the arguments (variables) of which an FX call or put option model price is a function. How does the call and put premium change with respect to a change in the arguments?Answer: Both call and put options are functions of only six variables: S t, E, r i, r$, T andσ.When all else remains the same, the price of a European FX call (put) option will increase:1. the larger (smaller) is S,2. the smaller (larger) is E,3. the smaller (larger) is r i,4. the larger (smaller) is r$,5. the larger (smaller) r$ is relative to r i, and6. the greater is σ.When r$ and r i are not too much different in size, a European FX call and put will increase in price when the option term-to-maturity increases. However, when r$ is very much larger than r i, a European FX call will increase in price, but the put premium will decrease, when the option term-to-maturity increases. The opposite is true when r i is very much greater than r$. For American FX options the analysis is less complicated. Since a longer term American option can be exercised on any date that a shorter term option can be exercised, or a some later date, it follows that the all else remaining the same, the longer term American option will sell at a price at least as large as the shorter term option.PROBLEMS1. Assume today’s settlement price on a CME EUR futures contract is $1.3140/EUR. You have a short position in one contract. Your performance bond account currently has a balance of $1,700. The next three days’ settlement prices are $1.3126, $1.3133, and $1.3049. Calculate the chan ges in the performance bond account from daily marking-to-market and the balance of the performance bond account after the third day.Solution: $1,700 + [($1.3140 - $1.3126) + ($1.3126 - $1.3133)+ ($1.3133 - $1.3049)] x EUR125,000 = $2,837.50,where EUR125,000 is the contractual size of one EUR contract.2. Do problem 1 again assuming you have a long position in the futures contract.Solution: $1,700 + [($1.3126 - $1.3140) + ($1.3133 - $1.3126) + ($1.3049 - $1.3133)] x EUR125,000 = $562.50,where EUR125,000 is the contractual size of one EUR contract.With only $562.50 in your performance bond account, you would experience a margin call requesting that additional funds be added to your performance bond account to bring the balance back up to the initial performance bond level.3. Using the quotations in Exhibit 7.3, calculate the face value of the open interest in the June 2005 Swiss franc futures contract.Solution: 2,101 contracts x SF125,000 = SF262,625,000.where SF125,000 is the contractual size of one SF contract.4. Using the quotations in Exhibit 7.3, note that the June 2005 Mexican peso futures contract has a price of $0.08845. You believe the spot price in June will be $0.09500. What speculative position would you enter into to attempt to profit from your beliefs? Calculate your anticipated profits, assuming you take a position in three contracts. What is the size of your profit (loss) if the futures price is indeed an unbiased predictor of the future spot price and this price materializes?Solution: If you expect the Mexican peso to rise from $0.08845 to $0.09500, you would take a long position in futures since the futures price of $0.08845 is less than your expected spot price.Your anticipated profit from a long position in three contracts is: 3 x ($0.09500 - $0.08845) x MP500,000 = $9,825.00, where MP500,000 is the contractual size of one MP contract.If the futures price is an unbiased predictor of the expected spot price, the expected spot price is the futures price of $0.08845/MP. If this spot price materializes, you will not have any profits or losses from your short position in three futures contracts: 3 x ($0.08845 - $0.08845) x MP500,000 = 0.5. Do problem 4 again assuming you believe the June 2005 spot price will be $0.08500.Solution: If you expect the Mexican peso to depreciate from $0.08845 to $0.07500, you would take a short position in futures since the futures price of $0.08845 is greater than your expected spot price.Your anticipated profit from a short position in three contracts is: 3 x ($0.08845 - $0.07500) x MP500,000 = $20,175.00.If the futures price is an unbiased predictor of the future spot price and this price materializes, you will not profit or lose from your long futures position.6. George Johnson is considering a possible six-month $100 million LIBOR-based, floating-rate bank loan to fund a project at terms shown in the table below. Johnson fears a possible rise in the LIBOR rate by December and wants to use the December Eurodollar futures contract to hedge this risk. The contract expires December 20, 1999, has a US$ 1 million contract size, and a discount yield of7.3 percent.Johnson will ignore the cash flow implications of marking to market, initial margin requirements, and any timing mismatch between exchange-traded futures contract cash flows and the interest payments due in March.Loan TermsSeptember 20, 1999 December 20, 1999 March 20, 2000 ∙Borrow $100 million at ∙Pay interest for first three ∙Pay back principal September 20 LIBOR + 200 months plus interestbasis points (bps) ∙Roll loan over at∙September 20 LIBOR = 7% December 20 LIBOR +200 bpsLoan First loan payment (9%) Second paymentinitiated and futures contract expires and principal↓↓↓∙∙9/20/99 12/20/99 3/20/00a. Formulate Johnson’s September 20 floating-to-fixed-rate strategy using the Eurodollar future contracts discussed in the text above. Show that this strategy would result in a fixed-rate loan, assuming an increase in the LIBOR rate to 7.8 percent by December 20, which remains at 7.8 percent through March 20. Show all calculations.Johnson is considering a 12-month loan as an alternative. This approach will result in two additional uncertain cash flows, as follows:Loan First Second Third Fourth payment initiated payment (9%) payment payment and principal↓↓↓↓↓∙∙∙∙9/20/99 12/20/99 3/20/00 6/20/00 9/20/00b. Describe the strip hedge that Johnson could use and explain how it hedges the 12-month loan (specify number of contracts). No calculations are needed.CFA Guideline Answera. The basis point value (BPV) of a Eurodollar futures contract can be found by substituting the contract specifications into the following money market relationship:BPV FUT = Change in Value = (face value) x (days to maturity / 360) x (change in yield)= ($1 million) x (90 / 360) x (.0001)= $25The number of contract, N, can be found by:N = (BPV spot) / (BPV futures)= ($2,500) / ($25)= 100ORN = (value of spot position) / (face value of each futures contract)= ($100 million) / ($1 million)= 100ORN = (value of spot position) / (value of futures position)= ($100,000,000) / ($981,750)where value of futures position = $1,000,000 x [1 – (0.073 / 4)]102 contractsTherefore on September 20, Johnson would sell 100 (or 102) December Eurodollar futures contracts at the 7.3 percent yield. The implied LIBOR rate in December is 7.3 percent as indicated by the December Eurofutures discount yield of 7.3 percent. Thus a borrowing rate of 9.3 percent (7.3 percent + 200 basis points) can be locked in if the hedge is correctly implemented.A rise in the rate to 7.8 percent represents a 50 basis point (bp) increase over the implied LIBOR rate. For a 50 basis point increase in LIBOR, the cash flow on the short futures position is:= ($25 per basis point per contract) x 50 bp x 100 contracts= $125,000.However, the cash flow on the floating rate liability is:= -0.098 x ($100,000,000 / 4)= - $2,450,000.Combining the cash flow from the hedge with the cash flow from the loan results in a net outflow of $2,325,000, which translates into an annual rate of 9.3 percent:= ($2,325,000 x 4) / $100,000,000 = 0.093This is precisely the implied borrowing rate that Johnson locked in on September 20. Regardless of the LIBOR rate on December 20, the net cash outflow will be $2,325,000, which translates into an annualized rate of 9.3 percent. Consequently, the floating rate liability has been converted to a fixed rate liability in the sense that the interest rate uncertainty associated with the March 20 payment (using the December 20 contract) has been removed as of September 20.b. In a strip hedge, Johnson would sell 100 December futures (for the March payment), 100 March futures (for the June payment), and 100 June futures (for the September payment). The objective is to hedge each interest rate payment separately using the appropriate number of contracts. The problem is the same as in Part A except here three cash flows are subject to rising rates and a strip of futures is used tohedge this interest rate risk. This problem is simplified somewhat because the cash flow mismatch between the futures and the loan payment is ignored. Therefore, in order to hedge each cash flow, Johnson simply sells 100 contracts for each payment. The strip hedge transforms the floating rate loan into a strip of fixed rate payments. As was done in Part A, the fixed rates are found by adding 200 basis points to the implied forward LIBOR rate indicated by the discount yield of the three different Eurodollar futures contracts. The fixed payments will be equal when the LIBOR term structure is flat for the first year.7. Jacob Bower has a liability that:∙has a principal balance of $100 million on June 30, 1998,∙accrues interest quarterly starting on June 30, 1998,∙pays interest quarterly,∙has a one-year term to maturity, and∙calculates interest due based on 90-day LIBOR (the London Interbank OfferedRate).Bower wishes to hedge his remaining interest payments against changes in interest rates.Bower has correctly calculated that he needs to sell (short) 300 Eurodollar futures contracts to accomplish the hedge. He is considering the alternative hedging strategies outlined in the following table.Initial Position (6/30/98) in90-Day LIBOR Eurodollar ContractsStrategy A Strategy BContract Month (contracts) (contracts)September 1998 300 100December 1998 0 100March 1999 0 100a. Explain why strategy B is a more effective hedge than strategy A when the yield curveundergoes an instantaneous nonparallel shift.b. Discuss an interest rate scenario in which strategy A would be superior to strategy B.CFA Guideline Answera. Strategy B’s SuperiorityStrategy B is a strip hedge that is constructed by selling (shorting) 100 futures contracts maturing in each of the next three quarters. With the strip hedge in place, each quarter of the coming year is hedged against shifts in interest rates for that quarter. The reason Strategy B will be a more effective hedge than Strategy A for Jacob Bower is that Strategy B is likely to work well whether a parallel shift or a nonparallel shift occurs over the one-year term of Bower’s liability. That is, regardless of what happens to the term structure, Strategy B structures the futures hedge so that the rates reflected by the Eurodollar futures cash price match the applicable rates for the underlying liability-the 90day LIBOR-based rate on Bower’s liability. The same is not true for Strategy A. Because Jacob Bower’s liability carries a floating interest rate that resets quarterly, he needs a strategy that provides a series of three-month hedges. Strategy A will need to be restructured when the three-month September contract expires. In particular, if the yield curve twists upward (futures yields rise more for distant expirations than for near expirations), Strategy A will produce inferior hedge results.b. Scenario in Which Strategy A is SuperiorStrategy A is a stack hedge strategy that initially involves selling (shorting) 300 September contracts. Strategy A is rarely better than Strategy B as a hedging or risk-reduction strategy. Only from the perspective of favorable cash flows is Strategy A better than Strategy B. Such cash flows occur only in certain interest rate scenarios. For example Strategy A will work as well as Strategy B for Bower’s liability if interest rates (instantaneously) change in parallel fashion. Another interest rate scenario where Strategy A outperforms Strategy B is one in which the yield curve rises but with a twist so that futures yields rise more for near expirations than for distant expirations. Upon expiration of the September contract, Bower will have to roll out his hedge by selling 200 December contracts to hedge the remaining interest payments. This action will have the effect that the cash flow from Strategy A will be larger than the cash flow from Strategy B because the appreciation on the 300 short September futures contracts will be larger than the cumulative appreciation in the 300 contracts shorted in Strategy B (i.e., 100 September, 100 December, and 100 March). Consequently, the cash flow from Strategy A will more than offset the increase in the interest payment on the liability, whereas the cash flow from Strategy B will exactly offset the increase in the interest payment on the liability.8. Use the quotations in Exhibit 7.7 to calculate the intrinsic value and the time value of the 97 September Japanese yen American call and put options.Solution: Premium - Intrinsic Value = Time Value97 Sep Call 2.08 - Max[95.80 – 97.00 = - 1.20, 0] = 2.08 cents per 100 yen97 Sep Put 2.47 - Max[97.00 – 95.80 = 1.20, 0] = 1.27 cents per 100 yen9. Assume spot Swiss franc is $0.7000 and the six-month forward rate is $0.6950. What is the minimum price that a six-month American call option with a striking price of $0.6800 should sell for in a rational market? Assume the annualized six-month Eurodollar rate is 3 ½ percent.Solution:Note to Instructor: A complete solution to this problem relies on the boundary expressions presented in footnote 3 of the text of Chapter 7.C a≥Max[(70 - 68), (69.50 - 68)/(1.0175), 0]≥Max[ 2, 1.47, 0] = 2 cents10. Do problem 9 again assuming an American put option instead of a call option.Solution: P a≥Max[(68 - 70), (68 - 69.50)/(1.0175), 0]≥Max[ -2, -1.47, 0] = 0 cents11. Use the European option-pricing models developed in the chapter to value the call of problem 9 and the put of problem 10. Assume the annualized volatility of the Swiss franc is 14.2 percent. This problem can be solved using the FXOPM.xls spreadsheet.Solution:d1 = [ln(69.50/68) + .5(.142)2(.50)]/(.142)√.50 = .2675d2 = d1 - .142√.50 = .2765 - .1004 = .1671N(d1) = .6055N(d2) = .5664N(-d1) = .3945N(-d2) = .4336C e = [69.50(.6055) - 68(.5664)]e-(.035)(.50) = 3.51 centsP e = [68(.4336) - 69.50(.3945)]e-(.035)(.50) = 2.03 cents12. Use the binomial option-pricing model developed in the chapter to value the call of problem 9.The volatility of the Swiss franc is 14.2 percent.Solution: The spot rate at T will be either 77.39¢ = 70.00¢(1.1056) or 63.32¢ = 70.00¢(.9045), where u = e.142 .50= 1.1056 and d = 1/u= .9045. At the exercise price of E= 68, the option will only be exercised at time T if the Swiss franc appreciates; its exercise value would be C uT= 9.39¢ = 77.39¢ - 68. If the Swiss franc depreciates it would not be rational to exercise the option; its value would be C dT = 0.The hedge ratio is h = (9.39 – 0)/(77.39 – 63.32) = .6674.Thus, the call premium is:C0= Max{[69.50(.6674) – 68((70/68)(.6674 – 1) +1)]/(1.0175), 70 – 68}= Max[1.64, 2] = 2 cents per SF.MINI CASE: THE OPTIONS SPECULATORA speculator is considering the purchase of five three-month Japanese yen call options with a striking price of 96 cents per 100 yen. The premium is 1.35 cents per 100 yen. The spot price is 95.28 cents per 100 yen and the 90-day forward rate is 95.71 cents. The speculator believes the yen will appreciate to $1.00 per 100 yen over the next three months. As the speculator’s assistant, you have been asked to prepare the following:1. Graph the call option cash flow schedule.2. Determine the speculator’s profit if the yen appreciates to $1.00/100 yen.3. Determine the speculator’s profit if the yen only appreciates to the forward rate.4. Determine the future spot price at which the speculator will only break even.Suggested Solution to the Options Speculator:1.-2. (5 x ¥6,250,000) x [(100 - 96) - 1.35]/10000 = $8,281.25.3. Since the option expires out-of-the-money, the speculator will let the option expire worthless. He will only lose the option premium.4. S T = E + C = 96 + 1.35 = 97.35 cents per 100 yen.。