2020年广州市初中毕业生学业考试（中考英语）
一、语法选择
阅读下面短文，按照句子结构的语法性和上下文连贯的要求，从1-15各题所给的A、B、C和D项中选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
Deep in the forest lives David, who loves books. As soon as he reads one book, he brings home___1_____. Soon the house ___2_____ books. His wife, Alice, is angry. “You ____3____ do something!”
David thinks hard and has____4____ idea. “I can bring my books into the faraway hills and share____5____ I have with the children.”
Every week, David sets off across the countryside to faraway villages with his two donkeys. Early ___6_____ a sunny morning, David and his donkeys stop at a river____7____. Then, from deep in the shadows, a bandit(山贼) jumps out! “Please let us pass,”David says. “The children ____8____.” The bandit takes one book and shouts, “Next time I want ____9____!”
They move on until at last, David sees some houses below. The children run to meet ____10____. David reads them a story first. _____11___ the story ends, it’s time for everyone to choose a book. The children hold their books close as they say good-bye and run home ___12_____. David and his donkeys head back, over and around the hills, and into the sunset.
At home, Alice feeds her hungry husband and the donkeys. But then, instead of ____13____. David picks up his book, ____14____ reads deep into the night. And far away in the hills, candles and lanterns burn as the children read borrowed books deep into their night, ____15____.
1.A,other B, another C, the other D, the others
2.A, fills with B, filled with C, is filled with D, was filled with
3.A, must B, could C, would D, may
4.A, a B, an C, the D,/
5.A, what B, who C, why D, how
6.A, in B, on C, at D, for
7.A, drink B, drinking C, drink D, to drink
8.A, wait B, waited C, are waiting D, have waited
9.A, some money B, any money C, some moneys D, any moneys
10.A, he B, his C, him D, himself
11.A, Before B,When C, If D,Because
12.A, cheer B, cheerful C, cheerfully D, more cheerful
13.A, sleep B, slept C, sleeps D, sleeping
15.A, either B, neither C, also D, too
二、完形填空
阅读下面短文，掌握其大意，然后从16~25各题所给的A、B、C和D项中选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
One sunny morning, when Zebra(斑马) visited the river for a cool drink, he heard a tiny voice. “Help me, Zebra!”
Zebra looked around and found Wasp(黄蜂) ____16____ in a spider web in a thornbush(荆棘丛). Carefully, Zebra reached into it, but the thorns____17____ him. “Ouch!” Zebra stepped back and was leaving.
“Please help me,” said Wasp. “One day I will ____18____ your help.”
Zebra laughed. “I’m fast and strong. Besides, I have a big family. Why would I need help from a ____19____ wasp?”
“Please try one more time,” Wasp said. Zebra knocked at the web again. ____20____ , this time it was enough to free Wasp. “Try to stay out of trouble,”Zebra said. “I might not be nearby the next time a spider gets ____21____ .” Then he left.
All day, Zebra stayed with his family until he noticed his favourite fruit-some berries! The hungry Zebra ran to____22____ the berries.
Wasp was resting in the bushes when she saw Zebra. She also found Lion hiding quietly ahead. If Zebra got too close to Lion....
Thinking quickly, Wasp flew down and gave Lion a sudden sting. The ____23____ lion cried. “Roooooaaar!” Zebra heard the loud cry. In a second, he turned around and ran back to his ____24____ .
A moment later, Wasp flew around Zebra’s head. “Try to say out of trouble,”Wasp said with a____25____ . “I might not be nearby the next time a lion gets hungry.”
21.A,resting B, playing C, caught D, hidden
22.A, hurt B, hit C, refused D, killed
23.A, remember B, return C, repeat D, report
24.A, noisy B, lazy C, shy D, little
25.A, Sadly B, Suddenly C,Luckily D, Strangely
26.A, sleepy B, angry C, thirsty D, hungry
27.A, smell B, taste C, touch D, watch
28.A, surprised B, excited C, interested D, bored
29.A, friend B, family C, river D, fruit
30.A, laugh B, shout C, wish D, promise
三、阅读理解（共两节，满分45分）
第一节阅读理解（共20小题；每小题2分，满分40分）
阅读下列短文，从26-45各题所给的A、B、C和D项中选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
（A）
“Amy! Milk!” Mama called.
Milk. It was Amy’s turn to get it. Amy sighed and shut her first-aid(急救)book.
Amy tied the cow close to a tree. Somewhere down the mountain, some volunteer doctors were teaching medical skills to village nurses. Amy heard Betty drive off hours ago. “She should have taken me with her. She thinks I’m too young,” Amy thought. “But she’s wrong. I am already 15!”
Amy carried the milk back to Mama, then wandered up the road. Roy, a village boy, was trying to stand on a horse’s back. “No wonder they don’t trust kids with anything important,” Amy thought.
She had just turned away when she heard a heavy fall and a few cries. Roy was on the ground. “Roy!” The kids nearby ran towards him. “Get Betty,” one said. Amy shook her head. “Betty’s gone to the city.”
The kids didn’t know what to do. Amy ran to Roy and saw one of his legs out of shape. A broken leg! She remembered what the first-aid book said about it.
“Victor!” Amy called to one of the boys. “Go get Roy’s mama, and find someone with a truck.” She turned to the others. “Give me your shirts. We need something to tie his leg with.”
Amy then found a strong, straight stick. She carefully wrapped the shirts around Roy’s leg and the stick. Roy cried out in pain. “I know it hurts,” Amy said softly. “But this will hold it still until you get to the hospital.”
When Amy was done, she looked up and saw Roy’s mama and a man watching beside a truck. “Thank you, Amy,” Roy’s mama said. Amy helped them lift Roy into the truck, then they drove down the hillside towards the hospital.
The next day, Betty came to Amy’s home. “I heard what you did,” Betty said. “You kept your head in an emergency. That’s an important skill.”
Amy’s face turned red. “I was afraid...”
Betty shook her head. “It’s OK for a nurse to be afraid, as long as she has a clear head. The volunteer doctors are coming tomorrow with vaccines. We need some more hands. Can you help?”
“I’d love to.” Amy replied at once.
“Come early, then. There is a lot to learn.”
Amy smiled. “I’ll bring my first-aid book.”
A,Amy was busy reading B, Amy had to milk the cow
C, Betty left too early in the morning D, Betty thought Amy wasn’t old enough
27.What happened to Roy?
A,He fell off the horseback. B, He was kicked by the horse
C, He successfully stood on the horseback. D, He was pulled off the horseback by kids.
28.What is the correct order of Amy’s first-aid actions?
a. She found a proper stick
b. She helped lift Roy into the truck
c. She asked the boys for some shirts
d. She tied the shirts around the broken leg.
e. She sent someone to get Roy’s mum and a truck.
A,c-e-a-b-d B,a-c-e-d-b C,e-c-a-d-b D,e-c-a-b-d
29.Why did Betty invite Amy to help the doctors in the end?
A, Amy had similar experiences before.
B, Amy was cool-headed when giving first-aid.
C, Betty regretted not taking Amy to the training.
D,Betty realized that Amy had become a good doctor.
30.Which sentence best describes a lesson from the story?
A,Only trained doctors and nurses can provide first-aid.
B, Knowledge from books can help solve real-life problems.
C, Children need enough practice before they can be helpful.
D,Helping with housework is important to children’s health.
(B)
How would you like to build a time machine? Paper, sticks, glue and string are all you need. Put them together to build a kite. A kite connects you to the past.
No one knows who flew the first kite. It was probably someone in China or perhaps Indonesia. Indonesian fishermen hung fishhooks on kites and sent them out to sea to catch fish. Starting 2,000 years ago, Chinese farmers flew kites to welcome the New Year and bring good luck to Earth.
In China, people also used kites during wartime. One Chinese story tells how soldiers put noise makers on kites and flew them at night over the enemy camp. The enemies were frightened by the noise and ran away.
About 1,300 years ago, Chinese travelers took kites to Japan. Soon kites filled the skies there. Kites reached Thailand about 700 years ago. During floods, Thai farmers flew kites over their fields. They
Today, kites are a passion all over the world. Kite fans meet at festival in many parts of the world and have great fun.
Over the years, Kites have also helped people understand the natural world. In 1794, for example, thermometers were tied to kites to measure temperatures. In 1906, cameras hanging from kites took pictures of San Francisco, California after an earthquake. The photos helped people plan what to do.
Kites also helped inventors find out how to make airplanes. The Wright brothers studied how kites flew, which helped them make the first successful airplane.
Since the ancient Chinese first set their kites into the air, people have loved flying kites. Kites give us ways to celebrate, relax and explore. So go fly a kite! Enjoy the feeling of wonder that kite flyers have felt for centuries.
31.According to the passage, in which countries were kites used to make good wishes?
A, China and Japan B, China and Thailand C,Japan and Indonesia D,Thailand and Indonesia 32.According to the Chinese story, the arm used kites to__________.
A, make the enemies leave in fear
B, celebrate victories during wartime
C, stop the enemies from sleeping well
D,carry soldiers to fight against the enemies
33.The underlined word “passion” in Paragraph 4 means ______.
A, strong love B, useful machine C, happy dream D, common treasure
34.How does the writer develop Paragraph 5?
A, By telling stories B, By listing numbers C, By comparing facts D, By giving examples
35.What’s the purpose of this passage?
A, To show people how to fly kites
B, To explain how kites are used in science
C, To introduce the roles of kites in history
D, To discuss the difference among kites worldwide
(C)
Five interesting sports
Our most unusual sports from around the world
Every country has a national sport and some popular sports are now played across the world. However, in most countries, people also play unusual sports, with strange or interesting rules. Here are our top five unusual sports from around the planet.
Man vs. Horse Marathon
This race takes place in a small town in Wales, about 200 miles from London. It’s called a marathon(马拉松), but it’s actually 35.4 km, not 42.4 km like a usual marathon. People race against horses across the hills and mountains. It started in 1981, but a human did not win until 2004.
Camel Wrestling
In Turkey, camel(骆驼) wresting is very old sport. The largest camel wresting competition takes place every year and thousands of people come in the sport, two camels fight against each other. Sometimes the camels do not want to fight and they run through the crowds, which can be dangerous.
Dragon Boat Racing
Every year in China, thousands of people watch dragon boat races. A dragon boat is a traditional Chinese boat with a painted dragon’s head on one end. There can be up to 36 people or more racing in each boat in the water. Dragon boat racing is also popular in some other Asian countries.
Caber Toss
In this sport, players compete to throw a large piece of wood called a caber as far as they can. There is no rule about the size of the caber, but it’s usually the size of a small tree. It’s an ancient Scottish sport. Visitors to the UK can check it out.
Chess Boxing
A good chess boxer needs to be both strong and smart. Players play a round of chess, followed by a round of boxing. There are eleven rounds in total. Chess boxing was invented in 1992 by an English comic book writer. The sport is more popular in England and Germany.
36.What can we learn about Man vs. Horse Marathon?
A.It is an outdoor sport.
B.It first appeared 16 years ago.
C.No human has ever won the game.
D.It follows the rules of a usual marathon.
37.Which of the following is mentioned about Camel Wrestling?
A, It should be stopped B, It’s worth seeing
C, It’s unfair to the animals. D, It’s sometimes dangerous to watch.
38.Which picture best describes Caber Toss?
39.Which sport is popular in Asia?
A, Man vs. Horse Marathon B, Dragon Boat Racing
C, Caber Toss D, Chess Boxing
40.How many sports have animals as players?
A, 1 B, 2 C, 3 D, 4
(D)
What will astronauts（宇航员）eat when a space trip takes years?
“Lots of fresh vegetables,”says Dr. Janet Williams, whose team have spent the last 10 years learning how to grow plants in a space station. And it’s a good thing that she has already started her work, because space gardening can be really hard.
As usual, astronaut George White looked into the closed plant room. He had planted Dr. William’s quick-growing seedlings in it, but none of the stems were showing. He opened the room to check and found the problem. The stems weren’t growing upward and the roots weren’t growing downward. On Earth, gravity(重力)helps a plant’s stems and roots to find “up”and “down”. However, in the space station, there was almost no gravity.
Dr. Williams suggested a solution: give the plants more light, as plants also use sunlight to find their way. And it worked. When the plants had more light, the stems turned up and the roots went down.
Now Dr. Williams was free to worry about the next problem: Would her baby plants live to flower? Can we grow food on a space journey?
Many plants died in the space station. Dr. Williams thought she knew why: the space plants were hungry for air. Plants live by taking up CO2 from the air. Since a plant uses it up in the air around, the plant needs moving air to bring more CO2 close to its surface. On Earth, the air is always moving. Gravity pulls down cold air, and warm air rises. And with these air movement, plants get enough CO2 .
Many earlier experiments with plants in space had used closed rooms. Dr. Williams tried a new greenhouse that had a fan to keep the air move. The plants loved it. They flowered and even produced more seeds. Using Dr. Williams’s method, astronaut George completed the first seed-to-seed experiment in space, and moved one plant closer to a garden in space.
“And this,” says Dr. Williams, “is good news for long-term space travel.”
41.Why have Dr. Williams’s team tried to grow plants in space?
A, To produce fresh air for astronauts
B,To help astronauts relax themselves
C,To provide food for long space journeys
D, To make the space garden more beautiful
42.How did light help solve the problem mentioned in Paragraph 3?
A, It caused the gravity to change.
B, It encourage the plants to grow faster.
C, It help the plants to grow in the right direction.
D, It showed the astronauts where to plant vegetables.
43.Why did many plants die in the space station?
A, The light was too strong B, There was too much CO2
C,There was not enough room to grow
D,The air condition was not good enough
44.The underlined word “it” in Paragraph 7 refers to__________.
A, the moving air B, the closed room C, the space journey D, the space garden
45.What can we learn about Dr. Williams’s team from the passage?
A, They mainly live on fresh vegetables
B.They have successfully built a space garden.
C, They invented a special fan for their greenhouse
D, They have worked on space gardening for many years.
第二节阅读填空
阅读短文及文后A~E选项，选出可以填入46-50各题空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
Storytelling
Storytelling has caught the human imagination for thousands of years. People everywhere have told stories to amuse, to teach,to remember, and just to pass the time. People started telling stories long before writing was invented. ______________ But people all over the world still tell one another stories out loud. A person who can tell a good story nearly always finds listeners.
Before people developed writing, storytelling was the most important way to pass along information. Anything a culture wanted to protect-its beliefs, its history, and its traditions- had to be told out loud. Each generation would tell the culture’s stories to the next. ______________ Knowledge passed on in this method is called the spoken tradition. Even cultures that know how to write still pass along some information in this way.
______________ In other cultures only special storytellers were trusted to do this important job. A
people would listen and remember them. Sometimes people would sing the stories or tell them in the form of poems. ______________
However, stories told aloud change over time as different people tell them. A storyteller might change a story in order to make it better. Or a teller may simply not remember all the details of a story. Unlike written stories, the spoken tradition is not created by any one person.______________ Sometimes the stories are collected and written down long after they have been created.
A.In this way the stories were passed along.
B.In some cultures everyone would pass along the stories.
C.Songs and poems can both make stories easier to remember.
D.Instead, a whole culture helps shape the changing stories throughout history.
E.Today stories are also written down in books and acted out in movies, TV shows, and plays.
四、写作
第一节单词拼写
51.He gets up early and exercise every day. It’s a good h_____________.
52.It’s a general rule to keep q_____________ in libraries and concerts.
53.For visitors to Guangzhou, there are p_____________ of places to experience its culture.
54.U_____________ you work hard, you will not succeed.
55.Before you t_____________ away anything, always think whether it can be reused or not.
56.The study group discussed the problem again and again, and they f_____________ worked it out.
第二节完成句子
57.凯特决定去社区工作，而不去度假。
Instead of____________ ____________ ____________, Kate decide to work in the community.
58.在我们的帮助下，小鸟终于回巢了。
____________ ____________ ____________, the baby bird got back to its nest in the end.
59.学好英语，以便我们能够与世界分享中国故事。
Learn English well ____________ ____________ we can share Chinese stories with the world.
60.从这里走到白云山顶大约要花一小时。
____________ ____________ about an hour ____________ ____________ to the top of the Baiyun Mountain from here.
61.明年广州将会使用更多智能出租车。
More smart taxis____________ ____________ ____________ in Guangzhou next year.
62.流溪河的水多么清澈啊！
63.我很好奇你在艺术节唱了哪首歌。
I wonder____________ song ____________ ____________ at the art festival.
第三节书面表达
今天英语课上，班级进行了题为“我送过的一份珍贵的礼物”的主题分享。请你写一篇英语短文，回报你们四人小组的分享内容，需包括以下要点。
From Bob Kate Lily You
To parents good friend foreign teacher （请补充）
What
（请补充）
Why thanks and love friendship culture （请补充）
注意：1.词数：80词左右（短文开头已给出，不计入词数）
2.不得透露学校，姓名等任何个人信息，否则不予评分。
In today’s English class, we had a discussion on “A valuable gift I gave”. here is what we shared in our group......
2020年广州中考英语试题及答案 本试卷共四大题，12页，满分110分。考试时间120分钟。 一、语法选择（共15小题：每小题1分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，按照句子结构的语法性和上下文连贯的要求，从1?15各题所给的A、B、C和D项中 选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。 Deep in the forest lives David, who loves books. As soon as he reads one book, he brings home 1 . Soon the house 2 . books. His wife, Alice, is angry. You 3 .do something!” David thinks hard and has 4 . idea. “I can bring my books into the faraway hills and share 5 .I have with the children.” Every week, David sets off across the countryside to faraway villages with his two donkeys. Early 6 a sunny morning, David and his donkeys stop at a river 7 .Then, from deep in the shadows, a bandit (山贼）jumps out! “P l ease let us pass,” David says. “The children 8 .”The bandit takes one book and shouts, “Next time I want 9 !” They move on until at last, David sees some houses below. The children run to meet 10 .David reads them a story first. 11 the story ends, it's time for everyone to choose a book. The children hold their books close as they say good-bye and run home 12 . David and his donkeys head back, over and around the hills, and into the sunset. At home, Alice feeds her hungry husband and the donkeys. But then, instead of 13 ,David picks up his book, 14 reads deep into the night. And far away in the hills, candles and lanterns bum as the children read borrowed books deep into their night, 15 . 1. A. other B. another C. the other D. the others 2. A. fills with B. filled with C. is filled with D. was filled with 3. A. must B. could C. would D. may
历年广州中考英语试题 与答案 TTA standardization office【TTA 5AB- TTAK 08- TTA 2C】
广州市2006年初中毕业生学业考试 英语 第一部分（共100分） 一、听力（共20题，30分） 听取信息（共5小题，5分，每题1分） 1．听下面一段对话，请根据题目要求，从所听到的内容中获取必要的信息，填入答题卡号为A～E的空格中，听对话前，你有10秒钟的时间阅读题目：对话读两遍。 Name of Trip Afternoon Adventure Night Lights Price ________yuan 80 yuan Leaving Time pm ________pm Trip Length 3 hours 2 and a half hours What to see the countryside of Guangzhou many rice ______and animals beautiful city ________ Guangdong music ______ 2．对话理解（共10小题，15分，每小题分） 听下面5段对话，每段对话后有一个或几个小题，请根据所听到的内容从题中所给的三个选项中选出最佳选项，并涂在答题卡的相应位置。听每段对话前，你将有时间阅读各小题，每小题3秒钟：每段对话读两遍。 听第一段对话，回答第1题。 1. Who lives in London
A. Dr Johnson. B. Dr King. C. Peter. 听第二段对话，回答第2、3题。 2. What is Tina going to do? A. Play in the park. B. Have a birthday party. C. Work in the bookshop. 3. Which of the following is Tina’s family tree? 听第三段对话，回答第4、5题。 4. When will Angelo have an important meeting? A. On Friday. B. On Saturday. C. On Sunday. 5. What does Ann believe the tea bag is good for? A. Making people get up and dance. B. Keeping people awake at night. C. Making people with colds feel better. 听第四段对话，回答第6、7题。 6. Where are the two speakers most possibly talking? A. In a restaurant. B. In a market. C. In a fruit shop. 7. What fruit does the man finally ask for? A. A pair of bananas. B. Two pears and a banana. C. A pear and two bananas. 听第五段对话，回答第8至10题。 8. Where is the doctor’s office? A. No. 45 Smith Street. B. No. 51 West Street. C. No. 51 Smith Street. 9. When will John go to see the doctor? A. Today. B. Tomorrow. C. Friday. 10. How will John go to the doctor’s office? A. By bus. B. By taxi. C. On foot. 3、讲话理解（共5小题，10分，每小题2分） 听下面一段讲话。讲话后有5个小题，请根据所听到的内容从题中所给的三个选项中选出最佳选项，并涂在答题卡的相应位置。听讲话前，你将有时间阅读各小题，每小题5秒钟：
2017年上海市中考英语试卷 I. Listening comprehension（听力理解）（共30分）A．Listenandchoosetherightpicture（根据你听到的内容，选出相应的图片） 1． 1．2．3．4．5．6．． B. Listen to the dialogue and choose the best answer to the question you hear（根据你听到的对话和问题，选出最恰当的答案） 7．A．Pink． B．Blue． C．White． D．Brown． 8．A．For one week． B．For one year． C．For two weeks． D．For two years． 9．A．By making a call．B．By sending an email．C．By writing a letter．D．By leaving a message．
10．A．On Monday．B．On Wednesday．C．On Thursday．D．On Friday．11．A．To visit China． B．To try something new． C．To make friends． D．To learn something easy． 12．A．Work on her project． B．Go to the school dance． C．Take a physics exam． D．Meet her dance teacher． 13．A．In a hotel． B．In a bookshop． C．In a cinema． D．In a classroom． 14．A．The food． B．Their car． C．The supermarket． D．Their house． C. Listen to the passage and tell whether the following sentences are true or false 15．判断下列句子是否符合你听到的短文内容，符合的用“T“表示，不符合的用“F“表示 15．Peter makes hamburgers for customers in a fast food restaurant．16．Once，Peter delivered 30 sets of hamburger meals to a school with his partner．17．The students were waiting at the school gate when Peter arrived． 18．There would be a sports meeting for the student the next day． 19．The teacher ordered the hamburger meals to encourage the students．20．Peter loves his job as he gains happiness from his working experiences． D. Listen to the dialogue and complete the following sentences听对话，完成下列
初三英语期中考试试卷分析及总结 鹅公中学叶月平期中测试阅卷结束后我对英语试卷做了统计分析和调查结果表明英语成绩不够理想。在本次期中测试中我教初三1和4班英语共有2个班三1班共57人参加考试及格38人优秀7人最高分113最低分38三4共63人参加考试及格3人优秀0最高分86最低分17。一、试卷特点试卷紧扣教学大纲的要求着重考察了学生的基础知识以及在掌握知识的同时对基础知识的运用。试卷总体感觉不难但是从学生角度反应出试题具有较大的迷惑性要求学生能够排除干扰因素并且注意知识细节。二、本试卷在命题上的特点听力部分三大题考查了学生的理解日常英语的能力相当部分题目难以直接从录音对话中找到答案学生必须通过思考从词语释义、句意理解或段意理解等不同方式悟出正确的选择内容难度不大而且语速不快但部分学生本来基础知识欠熟练而且没有掌握好答题技巧也就是说没能按老师平时的要求在听录音前做到反复看透听力的题目所以答题反应慢而失分说明学生的听力理解能力还待提高。如单项选择题。试卷要求所有的考点都不是孤立地考语法知识而是将他们放在特定的语境中学生必须看懂题干的全部内容以后经过思考方能选出正确答案。一些中下层生失分多集中在语法方面。完型填空。大部分学生比平常测试的成绩要好一些上层生得分较高其中原因一是短文所描述的内容较容 易理解学生对这方面了解较多。阅读理解。第一、二篇短文内容较为简单所选的答题大体都能一目了然但7选5这题错的较多学生不能把握短文意思而且学生很多审题不清。书面表达。明显检查学生运用语言能力这是学生成绩差距最大的一题15分的题目差的只能得23分普通的一般是56分左右好的约910分关键是学生很多以汉语的思路来写作以至不能正确表达意思从中反映了学生句子结构还不熟练语言表达能力弱语法错误多的缺点。三、学情分析总的来说这次考试成绩不理想优秀率偏低尖子生还没有发挥水平低分较多两极分化的距离还没有缩少。通过整体的分析反映了学生在复习中基本上能领会课堂的要点要求一些知识点在堂上反复出现的掌握得较牢固但是运用这些知识去解决实际问题的能力较差这与课后的练习有关说明了部分学生对课后的练习作业不够重视、缺乏主动性而且解题的依赖性强缺乏独立的思考能力另外对于一些相关的语法知识和句子的构成学生的遗忘率也很高。四、今后的教学措施针对目前学生状况要提高成绩首先要端正学生思想态度在保证课堂质量的同时一定要确保课后的“自我消化”环节尤其是中上层学生只有通过练才能达到知识的巩固、才能学会灵活运用、才能发现问题查漏补缺、才能培养独立的解题能力。结合实际我们的具体计划第一、加强听力方面的练习在有可能的情况下多给学生开展听力训练。认真用好《初三英语听说训 练》平时组织学生定期训练真正提高学生的听力水平。第二、强化单词的记忆并结合目前的情况对优生及中上等的注意培养他们对一些多义词、兼类词的实际运用能力提高他们基础题的解题水平。第三、抓好语法的分类复习在此过程中就当前所暴露出来的弱点开展进行通过分析试题教会学生学会归纳知识并如何把识记的内容用于实践中第四、完形填空及阅读理解部分平时应加强训练同学们的答题速度及答题质量。有针对性地组织学生组织阅读训练期中考试后组织学生用好《初三英语读写训练》确保每周训练12次。第五、争取改变学生凭感觉做动词填空的方式。通过时态语态固定用法等培养学生动词填空的能力。第六、指导学生做好短文填词这一中考题型首字母填空是一项综合能力考查题要求学生能读懂短文然后选用恰当的词进行填空我们需要对学生进行方法指导并多做这类题目才能真正提高学生的能力。第七、书面表达是一个薄弱环节主要是学生组句的能力差语法漏洞多不会审题的原因所以在以后要重视对作文的评讲及优秀范文的分析。 扩展阅读：初三英语期中考试试卷分析及总结报告书 初三英语期中考试试卷分析及总结报告书 期中测试阅卷结束后，我们对英语试卷做了统计分析和调查，结果表明，我校英语成绩不够
广州中考英语模拟试题（三） 本试卷共四大题，10页，满分110分。考试时间120分钟。 一、语法选择（共15题，每小题1分，满分15分） Michelle and I are saddened to learn of the passing of Steve Jobs. Steve was ____1____ the greatest of American innovators（创新者）--- brave enough to think differently, bold enough ____2____ he could change the world, and ____3____ enough to do it. By building one of the planet’s most successful companies from his garage, he exemplified the spirit of American ingenuity（独创性）. By making computers personal and ____4____ the internet in our pockets, he made the information revolution not only accessible, ____5____ intuitive（直观的）and fun. And ____6____ turning his talents to storytelling, he has brought joy to ____7____ children and grownups alike. Steve was fond of saying ____8____ he lived every day like it was ____9____ last. Because he ____10____, he transformed our lives, redefined entire industries, and achieved one of the rarest feats in human history: he changed the way each of us sees the world. The world ____11____ a visionary（有智慧的人）. And there may be no greater tribute to Steve’s ____12____ than the fact that much of the world learned of his passing on a device ____13____ he invented. Michelle and I send our thoughts and prayers ____14____ Steve’s wife Laurene, his family, and all those ____15____ loved him. 1. A. on B. in C. among D. between 2. A. believe B. to believe C. believing D. believed 3. A. talent B. talents C. talented D. talentless 4. A. put B. to put C. putting D. puts 5. A. and B. but C. or D. so 6. A. by B. with C. from D. in 7. A. million B. millions C. million of D. millions of 8. A. that B. which C. what D. why 9. A. he B. him C. his D. himself 10. A. does B. is doing C. did D. has done 11. A. loses B. is losing C. lost D. has lost 12. A. success B. succeed C. successful D. successfully 13. A. which B. when C. why D. where 14. A. for B. which C. to D. of 15. A. which B. who C. whom D. whose 二、完形填空（共10题，每小题1.5分，满分15分） Umbrellas are common in our daily life. On rainy days, many people ____16____ them to prevent the rain. But it’s not easy to hold an umbrella____17____ there is heavy rain and strong
广东省广州市2016年中考英语试卷 一、语法选择（共15小题：每小题1分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，按照句子结构的语法性和上下文连贯的要求，从1-15各题所给的A、B、C、D 项中选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。 In a far-away place, there was a village. The village was___1___ in potatoes than anywhere else in the country. At the end of every growing season, ___2____potatoes were dug out of the ground, and readied for market. In each home, men and women would_____3_____divide the potatoes into three groups, large, medium and small. One year, there was a young man___4_____received his share of the potatoes. As the other villagers_____5_____, he walked around the village laughing and talking._____6____villagers thought he was lazy, and they worried that this man would never get______7_____potatoes ready in time. When it was time for the villagers____8______to market, they were greatly surprised to find that the man’s potatoes____9____perfectly into three groups. After _____10____the man how he did it, they understood he was not lazy, ____11____very clever. He had put all his potatoes in a cart and pulled it alo ng the village’s rough dirt road. As the cart moved up and down over the road, the potatoes moved_____12____. The small potatoes moved to the bottom, the larger potatoes rose to the top and the medium potatoes rested___13___ the middle. Life___14____like this too. The rough roads we travel along can also___15____us. 1. A. rich B. richer C. richest D. more rich 2. A. thousand with B. thousands with C. thousand of D. thousands of 3. A. busily B. busy C. more busily D. busier 4. A. who B. which C. what D. whose 5. A. work B. was working C. were working D. works 6. A. A B. An C. The D. / 7. A. he B. him C. himself D. his 8. A. go B. going C. to go D. went 9. A. are divided B. were divided C. are dividing D. divided 10. A. asking B. asked C. ask D. asks 11. A. so B. and C. or D. but 12. A. too B. also C. either D. neither 13. A. on B. in C. with D. by
2017年常州市初中毕业统一学业英语考试试卷分析 一、试卷整体分析： 1. 选材贴近生活，体现人文性，具有时代感 今年完形填空也前几年中考题材相似，都是情感类记叙文。今年的选材是关于师生的，与学生的学习生活比较贴近，更容易让学生产生共鸣，选项集中于形容词，副词，动词，副词，短语等词义辨析。 四篇阅读理解文体各不相同，A篇是一个关于“蓝色都市”国际文学节的明细通知，这篇阅读是根据国外网站的一篇文章改编的，题目较简单，基本能在文中找到。B篇说明文，也是之前比较热的一个话题，一位年轻人发明了一个便携式的移动冰箱，并且不打算申请专利的事情。C篇是一个记叙文，话题与时下热点话题校园欺凌有关。D篇是议论文，内容是关于如何公正地评判别人。从选材和话题来看，阅读理解选取的文章主要是时下热点话题或者一些为人处世的态度。文章的来源主要是一些国外网站或者报刊杂志上的文章。 今年的作文是话题作文，题材也比较常见，是合理利用互联网进行学习。这个题材比较好写，学生有很多的相关经验。 2. 整卷难度适宜，阅读理解D篇稍有难度 2017年中考英语常州卷题型、分值与往年保持不变。全卷共八大题，60道小题，总分90分。从考察内容来看，语言基础知识部分，包括单项选择、词汇运用、动词填空、完成句子，共32分；阅读部分，包括完形填空、阅读理解、任务型阅读，共6个语篇，共43分；书面表达15分。整体难度中等偏容易。在2014年英语中考达到难度高峰之后，近三年的试卷难度整体持平。易、中、难题比例为5:3:2。 其中，单选题偏基础，考查的点都是平时多次训练的考点。今年单选几乎没有涉及到句法考点，除最后一题情景对话之外，基本都是针对代词，动词，连词等词性用法的考查。其中，对于动词的考查占比很大。并且，今年的单选题给出的语境和语义都比较简单，没有陷阱题，大部分是比较熟悉的题型。 完型填空题难度较易。阅读理解A篇、B篇、C篇难度适中，D篇稍有难度。任务型阅读整体难度适中，考查学生对文本信息精准查找的能力，对常见词性转换及近义词转换要求较高。词汇运用部分考查的词汇均源于教材，且都是常用词，没有涉及到一些七八年级的长单词的考查，且变形较简单。动词填空考点分布也与往年类似，四道谓语动词加一道非谓语动词，其中，一题涉及被动，其余三个时态也是常考的过去进行时，现在完成时和一般过去时。非谓语动词考查不定式的否定形式，且是固定搭配，较简单。 二、各题型分析： 1. 单选题：
2019年广东中考英语试卷分析 与2018年相比，今年的考试时间和考试题型方面都没有变化，但整体难度有所下降。试题紧扣课标、考纲，整体考点分布均衡，难易适中，贴近学生学生，联系社会热点，突出传统文化主题，考查英语运用能力，和近年高考英语考试趋势接轨。试题全卷卷面分值没有发生改变，具体题型和分值如下：
读写综合 5信息归纳5考查学生综合运用语 言知识进行信息归纳 和书面表达的能力 1书面表达，写作15 各题型及分值占比 ?听力理解?单项填空■完形填空?阅读理解■短文填空■读写综合 二.考点对应 单项选择 单项填空考点对应 题号考占 P八、、 教材位置话题31冠词八年级上册M9 专有名词 the Great wall 32数词（序数词）八年级上册M9 序数词前有限定词， 故不再加定冠词the 37连词七年级上册M5 33介词七年级下册M6With伴随 35代词七年级下册M1 learn sth. by on eself 自学36不定式八年级上册M5-M6 42情态动词八年级上册M10-M11can表能力 38被动语态（将来时）九年级上册M7-M9 有in the future 提 示 34最咼级八年级上册M2-M4 one of+形容词最高级39比较级八年级上册M2-M4关于5G的热点话题41现在完成时八年级下册M2-M4有时间状语“ fo叶
从以上表格可以看出，选择题整体考点分布均衡，考查的知识点趋于稳定，整体难度不大。 注重基础，注重与学生实际生活和社会热点相结合，体现了英语学科的核心素养，如第37题关爱地球，第38题大湾区大学，第39题5G手机，第40题无人驾驶汽车，第43题2019 北京园艺博览会。 1.2019 年的单项填空注重考查语法基础及语境的分析及理解，关注学生日常生活，突出语用性；紧扣时事热点，体现人文性和时效性。
广东省广州市2013年初中毕业生学业考试 英语答案解析 一、听力 略 二、语言知识与运用 第一节单项选择 16.【答案】C 【解析】考查冠词。名词the boy被in white这个介词短语做定语修饰，特指“穿白色衣服”的那个男孩，故用定冠词the。 17.【答案】A 【解析】考查非谓语动词。不定式做tell的宾语补足语，构成tell sb．to do sth的结构。对不定式进行否定在to前加not，即not to do 18.【答案】B 【解析】考查反身代词。by oneself为“靠某人自己”，该题的主语the man为男士，故用himself（他自己）。 19.【答案】C 【解析】考查宾语从句的连词。宾语从句欠缺talk bout的宾语部分，故排除how和when（副词，只能做状语）；根据句意，我无法理解你所正在谈论的事情。故用what（什么）而不是which（哪一个）。 20.【答案】A 【解析】考查情态动词。根据句意，“我必须现在完成作业吗？”由答句可知，你没有必要（现在完成），故用needn't（没必要）；mustn't表“禁止”，shouldn't表“不应该”，can't表“不能”。 21.【答案】D 【解析】考查不可数名词。news为“新闻”，是不可数名词，所以不能用只能修饰可数名词的many和afewalot 后面要加of才能加名词。 22.【答案】B 【解析】考查介词。根据句意，“没有你的帮忙，我没法做这件事情”。故用without（没有，无）；with（有，伴随），for和to（对于），均不符合题意。 23.【答案】C 【解析】考查固定搭配。take away“带走”，take off“起飞”，take care of“照顾”take out of“从…..取出”。 24.【答案】B 【解析】考查时态。when引导一个过去时态的从句，可知主句动作发生在过去，故用一般过去。
冠词 ()1Annie was going to take her mother to American restaurant, but her mother just wanted to get home to rest. (2008年广州中考) A. a B. an C. the D. / ( ) 2. —What would you like for______ a fternoon tea? —Two pieces of bread and ______ cup of coffee, please. (2009年广州中考) A.an；a B./;a C.a;the D./；t he ( ) 3. I looked down and saw _____ policeman and an old lady, one of David’s neighbors. (2010年广州中考) A.a B.the C.an D./ ( ) 4. That’s_______ time I start work. (2011 年广州中考) A.a B.an C.the D. / ( ) 5. —Is this________ book you were talking about yesterday? —Yes, thank you very much. (2012年广州中考) A.a B.all C.the D./ () 6. —I enjoyed the performance very much. —Yes, it was really good. I think _______ b oy in white was the best actor. (2013年广州中考) A. a B.an C.the D./ ( ) 7. But when Eileen, _______ nurse，became ill with kidney(肾)disease, she didn’t go running to her friend. (2014年广州中考) A. a B.an C.the D./ ( ) 8. It was in fact_______ m agic harp, and could only be played well by someone who would put in the necessary effort. (2015年广州中考) A. a B.an C.the D./ ()9 ________ villagers thought he was lazy, and they worried that this man would never get his potatoes
2017江苏连云港中考英语试题解析 一、单项选择（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分） 从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。 1. Donald Trump,________ 71 -year-old businessman, was chosen_______ President of the US last year. A. a; a B. a; / C. the, a D. the; the 1. B【解析】考查冠词辨析。句意：唐纳德·特朗普，一个71岁的商人，去年被当选为美国总统。第一空表示泛指，用a；第二空president表示职位时应用零冠词。故选B。 2. 一I am planning a trip to Lianyungang this summer. How is the weather there? 一Not so hot. Sometimes _______ is a bit cool and wet. A. this B. that C. it D. one 2. C【解析】考查代词辨析。句意：——我计划这个暑期去连云港旅游。那里的天气怎么样？——不是很热。有时有点凉爽和潮湿。表示天气用it作主语。故选C。 3. —_______delicious food you served us tonight! Thank you very much! 一I’m glad that you enjoyed it. A. How B. How a C. What D. What a 3. C【解析】考查感叹句。句意：今晚你给我们提供了多么美味的食物呀！非常感谢。——我非常高兴你喜欢它。对名词感叹用what，又food是不可数名词，其前不加a或an。故选C。 (2017·江苏连云港)4. 一Have you heard of the big fire that broke out on Huaguo Mountain at Qingming Festival? —Yes. Luckily, hundreds of firemen went there and _______ the fire immediately. A. put off B. put away C. put down D. put out 4. D【解析】考查动词短语辨析。句意：——你听说清明节在花果山上突发的那场大火了吗？——是的，幸运的是，上百名消防员及时赶到并且扑灭了大火。put off推迟；put away 放好；put down 放下；put out熄灭。根据宾语fire可知与其搭配的动词短语应用put out。故选D。 5. 一________do the students in your school do outdoor activities every day? 一At least an hour. A. How often B. How long C. How much D. How far 5. B【解析】考查疑问词辨析。句意：——你们学校的学生每天做多长时间的户外活动？——至少一个小时。how often多久一次；how long多长时间；how much多少，多长时间；how far 多远。根据答语at least an hour可知表示时间段，就“时间段”提问用how long。故选B。 6. —Could I ride an electric bicycle to school, Mr. Wang? 一No, you________. Students under the age of 16 aren't allowed to ride electric bicycles. A. couldn't B. needn't C. can't D. shouldn't 6. C【解析】考查情态动词辨析。句意：——王老师，我可以骑电动车去上学吗？——不，
中考英语试卷分析报告 陕西省基础教育课程改革实验区英语试卷依据教育部新颁布的《英语课程标准》，陕西省初中毕业、升学考试说明和今年考生的实际情况命制。以反映九年义务教育的学科基本要求，培养学生的创新精神和实践能力，促进学生全面和谐发展与综合素质的提升为目标。全卷体现了以人为本的思想，具有强烈的时代感，体现和谐社会的主旋律，紧扣当前节能减排的话题。其次，严格依据初中英语教学大纲命题,在重视考察学生对基础知识和基本技能掌握的同时,侧重考察学生在具体情境中运 英语分析和解决问题的能力,保持考试的连续性和稳定性,"稳中有变".从我省英语教学实际出发,试题难易适度,题量适中。现就英语Ⅱ卷的试题及学生答卷情况具体分析如下： 一、完成句子，试题难易适中，考查全面，学生总体做的比较好，经过大量的试卷分析。80℅的学生能明确试题考查的方向，能读懂句意。对第一小题place填空的正确率比较高，经过对一定量试卷的分析，此题中各小题的正确率为：
由上表可见，学生对基础词汇掌握较好，但对词性变化掌握较差。也反映出学生存在的问题不少。 1、学生对单词掌握不牢固，就前五道小题，学生能把单词选对，但拼写有错误，其中字母顺序颠倒的情况比比皆是，影响得分。 2、书写潦草，U和V不分，C和L不分，也影响得分。 3、对词性不清。第七、八小题准确率低，许多学生不知道sun 和doctor 等词是名词还是动词，在词后乱加后缀，造成失分。 二、任务型阅读，共5小题，每题2分计10分，该题难易适中，适与大多数学生阅读理解并解答，此题考查了学生中美饮食习惯与差异，以列表填空的形式让学生完成本篇阅读文章。问题设置不难，第一小题让写出文章的标题，此答案位于文章的第一句话，学生大多能找出原句来回答问题，正确率为95℅，尤其是第三小题错误率较高，题目要求对中美午餐的正规程度做以比较并填空回答，但许多学生答成对时间多少的比较，据抽查部分学生答卷显示，正确率为85℅，第五小题正确率为80℅，由此可见少部分学生对这篇难易适中的任务型阅读并没有完全理解，对问题答所非问。整个来看，任务型阅读的得分率还可以，整体接近90℅。 三、补全对话，是近年来考查的热点题型，属于半开放式题目，该题通过设置语境来完成对话，这是对学生语言能力的考察，具有较强的综合性。补全对话分为A）、B）两组来完成此题，A）是要求学生从方框中选出正确的句子填写在横线上，B）组则是要求学生根据对话的内容填写适当的句子。从答卷情况来看，A）组答题情况较为良好，从100份样卷的抽查结果看，5道小题的正确率为43.6℅，B）组写出适当的句子综合能力强，难度较大，答卷情况不容乐观，正确率只有36.7℅。问题主要在于对情景中对话不理解，对对话的语境理解不够透彻而导致失分。此题存在以下主要问题。
2020年广州市初中毕业生学业考试 英语 本试共四大题，12页，满分11分，考试时间120分钟 注意事项： 1.答卷前，考生务必在答题卡上用黑色字迹的钢笔或签字笔填写自己的考生号、姓名、考试号、座位号，再用2B铅笔把对应这两个号码的标号涂黑。 2.选择题每小题选出答案后，用2B铅笔把答題卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需要改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再涂其他答案。不能答在试卷上。 3.非择题必须用黑色字迹的钢笔或签字笔作答，答案必须写在答題卡各题指定区域的相应位置上；如需要改动，先划掉原来的答案，然后再写上新的答案，改动的答案也不能超出指定的区域；不准使用铅笔、圆珠笔和涂改液。不按以上要求作答的答案无效。 4.考生必须保持答题卡的整洁，考试结来，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。 一、语法选择(共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分) 阅读下面短文，按照句子结构的语法性和上下文连贯的要求，从1～15各题所给的A、B、C和D项中选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。 Deep in the forest lives David, who loves books. As soon as he reads one book, he brings home 1 . Soon the house 2 books. His wife, Alice, is angry. " You 3 do something! " David thinks hard and has 4 idea. "1 can bring my books into the faraway hills and share 5 I have with the children. " Every week, David sets off across the countryside to faraway villages with his two donkeys. Early 6 a sunny morning, David and his donkeys stop at a river 7 . Then, from deep in the shadows, a bandit (山财）jumps out! "Please let us pass, "David says. "The children 8 " The bandit takes one book and shouts, "Next time I want 9 ! "
2017年中考英语试卷分析 纵观今年英语试卷，稳中有变，语法考查全面，难易适中；文章体裁多样，将知识、能力考查与情感价值观教育有机融合、无缝对接，体现了初中英语课程规范与中考说明的理念与要求，对今后的英语教案有着良好的指导作用。 (一)试卷结构 2017年中考与2016年河北省中考英语试卷结构总体保持稳定。试卷分卷Ⅰ和卷Ⅱ两部分。卷Ⅰ为选择题，卷Ⅱ为非选择题，共十一大题，总分为120分(听力部分30分，笔试部分90分)，考试时间为120分钟。和2016年相比，2017年的单项选择、词语运用分值有了较大变化。单项选择由15个调整为10个，分值也由15分调整为10分，词语运用由5个小题增加到10个小题，分值也由5分增加到10分，其他题仍然沿用2016年的分值分配，重点仍旧在主观题的考查即学生阅读，写作能力的考查。 (二)试卷特点 2017年试卷在保持难度稳定的原则下，在测试内容和测试方式上有所突破。试卷考点全、辐射面广，涉及语法工程中的37个小项，功能意念工程中的56个小项，话题工程中的65个小项。语法工程中的宾语从句，从单选调整到了连词成句，I think we should take a walk after supper.这在连续多年的考察中是大的突破，宾语从句在给出个人反应“Givea personal reaction”中语言作为工具的功能得以体现。 2．渗透文化品格，体现学科素养 试卷凸显学科特色，注重培养学生的英语学科综合素养。任务型阅读帮助
学生理解“感恩”文化内涵，吸收在感恩节餐桌上分享感恩的事例，吸取share something they are thankful for的文化精华，形成正确的价值观念，感恩生活，享受当下，从而培养对优秀文化的理解和认同。书面表达题以演讲稿的形式，引领学生深入思考，认识并接纳自我，充满希望地规划自己的未来，是整套试卷全面、客观评价考生在学科学习目标方面的较好形式。 3．以人为本，滋养学生心灵成长 试卷从立意和设题等维度，关注学生的心智成长和健康人格的发展。完形填空题通过小男孩摘玫瑰花被刺扎到的经历，体会“别人警告你再多次都没有你亲身碰壁让你印象深刻”。本题在文章的关键信息点设空，考查学生对文章主旨的理解；阅读理解C文通过蝴蝶未经破茧挣扎不能实现自我蜕变的现象，鼓励学生保持强大的内心，面对并克服困难方能做生活的强者。60小题要求学生在理解全文的基础上总结提炼文章主题，达到了“学中考，考中学”的育人目的。五篇文章都极具教育意义，可读性极强。我们仿佛又一次经历了人生的洗礼，内心充满了正能量，文章也对中学生未来的学习和生活有积极的指导作用。 (三)题型分析 1．听力部分 听力试卷的选材以口语材料为主，突出交际功能，考查学生获取信息、推理判断和正确应答的能力。 Ⅰ.听句子，选出句子中所包含的信息。第1小题考查单词辨音，三个名词；16，17年中考都是三个名词。第2小题考查的是三个on短语，16年中考第3小题考查也是短语辩音；第3小题考查时间短语，16年中考第2小题考查