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商学导论2015年期末词汇选择题

商学导论2015年期末词汇选择题
商学导论2015年期末词汇选择题

CHAPTER 9

Multiple Choice

11. The goal of ______ is to develop an efficient, high quality process for producing products or services.

a) conversion management

b) assembly-line control

c) flexible manufacturing

d) production management 生产管理

e) routing

12. A ______ represents代表a series of tasks in which resources are used to produce a product or service.

a) layout chart

b) Venn diagram

c) organization chart

d) production process生产流程

e) chain of command

13. A sequence of work stations一系列的工作in which each work station is designed to cover specific phases of the production process is called a(n):

a) assembly line.

b) hotelling.

c) deintegration.

d) product location.

e) Gantt chart.

14. The factors that affect a site decision include all of the following except:影响一个网站的决定的因素包括所有以下除外

a) cost of workplace space.

b) tax incentives.

c) source of demand.

d) access to transportation.

e) quality assurance.质量保证

15. Once a site for the manufacturing plant is chosen, the next step to be determined is:一旦选择制造工厂的网站,下一步有待确定

a) design and layout.设计与布置

b) production control.

c) hotelling.

d) deintegration.

e) inventory control.

16. All of the following characteristics influence design and layout decisions except the:所有以下特点影响,除了设计和布局决策

a) production process.

b) desired production capacity.

c) product line.

d) purchasing applications.

e) site.

17. Which of the following production processes is most commonly used for assembly-line production?

a) flexible manufacturing

b) fixed-position layout

c) product layout

d) capacity layout

e) cost-benefit layout

18. A production process where employees go to the position of the product, rather than waiting for the product to come to them, is a(n):生产过程中员工去产品的位置,而不是等待未来产品对他们来说,是一

个(n):

a) assembly line.

b) batch process.

c) fixed-position layout.定位布局

d) unit production process.

e) mass production process.

19. Firms are forced to search for new sites once demand for their product exceeds their:

a) quality control.

b) production capacity.

c) inspection requirements.

d) routing schedules.

e) purchase plans.

20. The development of temporary, shared office space for those employees who normally work at home is called:

a) flexible manufacturing.

b) deintegration.

c) production control.

d) hotelling.

e) quality control.

21. All of the following are key tasks in production control except:

a) layout and design.

b) inventory control.

c) routing.

d) scheduling.

e) quality control.

22. A company that makes use of a(n) ______ can detect the existing level of supplies物资and automatically reorder when supplies fall to a specific level.公司使用了一个(n)……可以检测现有的供应水平物资并自动重新排序时供应下降到一个特定的水平。

a) e-procurement system

b) e-inventory system

c) e-outsourcing system

d) e-purchasing system

e) e-business system

23. A strategy of delegating some production tasks to suppliers is referred to as:将一些生产任务委托给供应商的策略被称为

a) routing.

b) dispatching.

c) deintegration.

d) quality assurance.

e) hotelling.

24. A system that attempts to reduce material inventories to a bare minimum by frequently ordering small amounts of materials from suppliers is called:系统试图材料库存减少到最低限度,经常订购少量的材料从供应商被称为:a) routing.

b) just-in-time.

c) scheduling.

d) quality control.

e) deintegration.

25. The process of managing inventory at a level that minimizes costs is called:

a) scheduling.

b) routing.

c) dispatching.

d) production planning.

e) inventory control.

26. Firms attempt to minimize the amount of inventory they have in order to reduce their:

a) purchasing costs.

b) production costs.

c) carrying costs.

d) quality control.

e) human resources.

27. The sequence of tasks necessary to complete the production of a product is:

a) dispatching.

b) quality control.

c) purchasing.

d) routing. e) deintegration.

28. The act of setting time periods for each task in the production process is called:

a) routing.

b) scheduling.

c) inventory control.

d) dispatching.

e) quality control.

29. A method of scheduling tasks that illustrates the expected timing for each task within the production process is a(n):调度任务的方法,说明了预计时间为生产过程中的每个任务(n)

a) Venn diagram.

b) Gantt chart.

c) MRP system.

d) just-in-time system.

e) production plan.

30. To minimize delays, the tasks that are part of the ______ are reviewed.

a) purchasing applications

b) Gantt chart

c) critical path

d) raw material inventory

e) hotelling

31. Which of the following terms describes the process of monitoring the characteristics of a product to ensure that the firm’s standards are met?下列哪方面描述的过程监控产品的特点,以确保公司的标准得到满足?

a) expectation downsizing

b) quality control

c) critical path management

d) program evaluation and review technique

e) work-in-process control

32. A method of evaluating performance by comparison to some specified level, usually a level set by another company, is called:

a) cost control.

b) total quality management.

c) targeting.

d) benchmarking.

e) goal setting.

33. Through ______ firms achieve a lower average cost per unit by producing a larger volume.

a) inventory management

b) per unit expense control

c) economies of scale

d) deintegration

e) effective marketing

34. At the break-even point:

a) the number of units produced equals the number of units sold.

b) economies of scale fail.

c) the company begins to lose money.

d) fixed costs equal variable costs.

e) total revenue equals total cost.

35. The revision of the production process in an attempt to improve efficiency is called:

a) restructuring.

b) realignment.

c) reintegration.

d) downsizing.

e) reengineering.

36. The supply chain is:供应链是:

a) the flow of inventory from raw materials to finished goods.

b) the outsourcing process from supplier to firm.

c) the marketing process from concept to consumption.

d) the production process from beginning to consumer purchase.?生产过程从开始到消费者购买e) the conversion of resources to a product or service.

CHAPTER 11

True or False

1. Job analysis represents the forecasting of a firm’s employee needs.

2. One task of human resource planning is recruiting.

3. Firms tend to avoid hiring new full-time workers to meet temporary needs for higher production levels.

4. A job specification states the credentials necessary to qualify for the position.

5. Federal laws make it illegal to discriminate on the basis of factors not related to potential job performance.

6. Employee benefits such as health insurance and dental insurance are taxed.

7. Firms should offer the same compensation package to their workers in foreign countries that they offer to employees in their home country.

8. The overall performance evaluation of most employees is based on multiple criteria.

9. Employees perceive performance evaluation as a method for allocating wage increases.

10. Each of the performance criteria must be weighted equally to avoid unbalancing the performance appraisal.

Multiple Choice

11. The document that specifies credentials necessary to qualify for the job position is a:所需的文档指定证书工作位置

a) job specification.

b) job description.

c) job analysis.

d) job evaluation.

e) performance evaluation.

12. A major responsibility of a human resource manager is to:

a) help each specific department recruit candidates for its open positions.帮助每一个特定的部门招聘职位的候选人

b) conduct the performance evaluations for all employees.

c) establish the information system and local area network used by the firm’s employees.

d) help select the members of top management who will serve on the firm’s board of directors.

e) prevent the formation of labor unions.

13. The tasks and responsibilities of a job position are disclosed in a(n):

a) job specification.

b) indenture agreement.

c) job description.

d) organization chart.

e) staffing report.

14. The process used to determine the tasks and the necessary credentials for a particular position is referred to as:这个过程用于确定的任务和必要的凭证被称为一个特定的位置

a) job analysis.

b) job screening.

c) human resource planning.

d) human resource forecasting.

e) recruiting.

15. Human resource planning includes all of the following tasks except:

a) designing the appropriate compensation package.

b) performing job analysis.

c) forecasting employment needs.

d) recruiting.

16. If firms wish to avoid hiring during a temporary increase in production, they can offer _____

to existing workers.

a) overtime

b) vacations

c) training programs

d) affirmative action

e) orientation programs

17. When a firm attempts to fill job openings with persons it already employs, it is engaging in:

a) intrapreneurship.

b) internal recruiting.

c) entrenchment.

d) precruiting.

e) focused recruiting.

18. A(n) _____ is an assignment to a

higher-level job with more responsibility and greater pay.

a) transfer

b) lateral assignment

c) perquisite

d) upward appraisal

e) promotion

19. A firm’s human resource manager can obtain detailed information about the applicant’s past work experience through a(n):

a) employment test.

b) physical exam.

c) interview.

d) orientation program.

e) job analysis.

20. A step in the recruiting process that involves screening applicants is the:

a) training procedure.

b) orientation procedure.

c) upward appraisal.

d) interview. e) probation period.

21. All of the following are advantages of diversity in the workplace except:

a) increased innovation.

b) less chance of discrimination lawsuits.

c) enhanced ability to interact with customers.

d) better access to the pool of eligible employees.

e) a change in the production process.

22. A company gives employees the right to purchase its stock at a specified price when it provides them with:

a) presumptive rights.

b) an indenture agreement.

c) stock options.

d) a stock preference.

e) a closed-end agreement.

23. The use of stock options as a means of compensation:

a) legally can be provided only to top executives and members of the board of directors.

b) is declining in popularity since options reduce the firm’s profits.

c) is opposed by labor unions, since options are available only to nonunion employees.

d) may tempt managers to manipulate financial statements to boost stock prices.

e) has allowed workers in many firms to control who serves on the board of directors of their firm.

24. The case of Enron and other corporate scandals shows that managers who receive stock options may be tempted to do all of the following except:

a) magnify company expenses.

b) manipulate the stock price.

c) exaggerate company earnings.

d) issue overly optimistic reports.

e) withhold bad news.

25. An extra onetime payment at the end of a period in which performance was measured is a:

a) salary.

b) wage.

c) stock option.

d) piece rate.

e) bonus.

26. ______ normally represent compensation for

achieving specific sales objectives and often are part of the compensation received by people working in sales positions.

a) Pensions

b) Commissions

c) Perquisites

d) Stock options

e) Dividends

27. Additional privileges given to high-level employees, such as a company car or membership in an exclusive club, are known as:

a) professional privileges.

b) commissions.

c) executive options.

d) perquisites.

e) golden parachutes.

28. ______ are additional privileges, such as paid vacation time and health and dental insurance, given to most or all employees.

a) Employee benefits

b) Perquisites

c) Commissions

d) Implicit compensations

e) Kickbacks

29. Employees who are directly involved in the production process (such as assembly-line workers) tend to receive most of their compensation in the form of a:

a) bonus.

b) commission.

c) salary.

d) stock option.

e) perquisite.

30. If a manager is having difficulties managing his or her subordinates, _____ would be recommended.

a) human relations training

b) safety skills training

c) decision-making skill training

d) customer service training

e) technical training

31. A performance evaluation:

a) should avoid subjective criteria because they are impossible to measure with any accuracy. b) is only useful as a means of determining whether employees qualify for pay raises.

c) is typically based on multiple criteria, some of which are objective while others are subjective.

d) is only necessary for workers who are likely candidates for higher-level positions.

e) should be given only to workers who are experiencing job-related problems.

32. The following are objective criteria in performance evaluation except for:

a) parts produced per week.

b) number of days absent.

c) percentage of deadlines missed.

d) defective parts produced by employee errors.

e) willingness of an employee to help other employees.

33. If an employee receives a poor performance appraisal, the first action that should be taken is: a) communicating the performance criteria to the employee.

b) terminating the employee.

c) determining the reasons for poor performance.

d) suspending the employee.

e) reassigning the employee.

34. When firms allow employees to evaluate their supervisors, this process is known as a(n):

a) management audit.

b) upward appraisal.

c) forward appraisal.

d) peer review.

e) executive evaluation.

35. When employees evaluate their supervisors, the results are likely to be more meaningful if the appraisal is done:

a) verbally, with nothing put in writing.

b) without the supervi sor’s knowledge.

c) no more than once every two years.

d) anonymously.

e) only by employees who have known the supervisor for more than two years.

36. Lawsuits against firms by fired employees:

a) have become much less common in recent years.

b) allow the fired employees to collect compensatory damages, but not punitive damages.

c) are decided by a judge rather than a jury.

d) usually should be settled out of court as soon as possible to avoid negative publicity.

e) are usually settled in favor of the firm if supervisors followed proper procedures when firing the employees.

CHAPTER 12

Multiple Choice

11. A Rolex watch and a Jaguar automobile are considered:

a) convenience products.

b) shopping goods.

c) industrial products.

d) specialty products.

e) priority products.

12. When a hospital supply company offers a wide variety of products to its customers, the firm is:

a) offering quantity price discounts in order to attract price-conscious customers.

b) encouraging customers to pay their outstanding debts in order to take advantage of discounts.

c) practicing product differentiation.

d) diversifying its product mix.

e) responding to the needs of a diverse labor force.

13. All of the following are key factors that influence consumer preferences and the size of a target market except:

a) social values.

b) anthropology.

c) economic factors.

d) geography.

e) demographics.

14. Cameras, clothes, and household items are examples of products that exist in:

a) industrial markets.

b) business markets.

c) consumer markets.

d) government markets.

e) foreign industrial markets.

15. The size of a particular target market is most likely to change in response to a change in:

a) inflation.

b) consumer preferences. c) interest rates.

d) the number of competitors.

e) the size of the largest competitor.

16. When firms develop products, they assess the markets of their competitors to determine their:

a) financial plans.

b) marketing strategies.

c) industrial strategies.

d) geographic segmentation.

e) business segmentation.

17. Personal computers are subject to _____ because of the rapid changes in the development of computer hardware components.

a) product feasibility

b) penetration pricing

c) planned obsolescence

d) the development of generic brands

e) technological obsolesce nce

18. E-marketing supports marketing research in all the following ways except:

a) low cost of personal surveys.

b) speed of receiving marketing information.

c) customer openness with opinions.

d) access to customers of varied income levels.

e) face-to-face interviews.

19. To develop new ideas for expanding their product line, many firms have recently increased their investment in:

a) research and development.

b) production facilities.

c) distribution facilities.

d) overseas production and assembly operations.

e) inventory control.

20. Which of the following can be used by a firm to protect its investments in research and product development?

a) marketing research

b) patents

c) demographics

d) target market selection

e) product mix

21. The first step in creating a new product is to:

a) assess the feasibility of the product.

b) develop a product idea.

c) design the product.

d) test the product.

e) distribute and promote the product.

22. New and revised products may be tested through:

a) commercialization.

b) geographic sales.

c) product life cycle.

d) family brands.

e) marketing research.

23. All of the following are methods commonly used to differentiate products from those of competitors except:

a) quality.

b) design.

c) tax policies.

d) packaging.

e) branding.

24. The Coca-Cola Company sells Coca-Cola, Diet Coke, Cherry Coke, and other soft drinks, which is an example of a(n):

a) family brand.

b) individual brand.

c) corporate brand.

d) trademark.

e) copyright.

25. Many _____ strategies are focused on convenience.

a) packaging

b) economic

c) partnership

d) obsolescence

e) finance

26. Products that are not branded by the producer or retail store are called:

a) manufacturer brands.

b) national brands.

c) store brands.

d) obsolete brands.

e) generic brands.

27. All of the following are benefits of product branding except:

a) greater company name recognition.

b) lower prices.

c) easier to introduce new products.

d) easier to enter new geographic markets.

e) easier to obtain retail store shelf space.

28. The process of combining two noncompeting products at a discounted price is called: a) complementary advertising.

b) multiple discounts.

c) co-branding.

d) sales promotion double.

e) quantity pricing.

29. Sales of the product increase rapidly during the _____ phase of the product life cycle.

a) maturity

b) introduction

c) saturation

d) growth

e) declining

30. Which of the following pricing strategies would likely be used in a market where no other competitive products are available?

a) cost-based pricing

b) penetration pricing

c) predatory pricing

d) price skimming

e) defensive pricing

31. Managers typically attempt to set a price that will maximize a firm’s:

a) value.

b) cost.

c) production.

d) advertising.

e) promotion.

32. When a firm lowers its price and total revenue increases, it tells us that:

a) the demand for the product is price-inelastic.

b) a penetration pricing strategy is being followed.

c) consumers are not very responsive to price changes.

d) the demand for the product is price-elastic.

e) the firm is using a price-skimming strategy.

33. Some pricing decisions are directly related to the supply of:

a) social values.

b) social norms.

c) maintenance operations.

d) creditors in the marketplace.

e) inventory.

34. Which of the following pricing strategies adds a profit markup to the per-unit cost of production?

a) prestige pricing

b) cost-based pricing

c) defensive pricing

d) profit pricing

e) penetration pricing

35. When a cost of production remains unchanged regardless of how many units are produced, it is referred to as:

a) variable.

b) semifinished.

c) fixed.

d) in process.

e) terminal.

36. (Fixed Cost) + (Quantity * Variable Cost per Unit) describes:

a) Total Cost.

b) Total Revenue.

c) Break-Even Point.

d) Profits.

e) Average Cost Per Unit.

37. The break-even point occurs when:

a) profits are maximized.

b) sales are at a minimum.

c) total revenue equals total cost.

d) contribution margin is highest.

e) sales discounts are minimized.

38. Discounts:

a) are considered predatory pricing.

b) work best in price-inelastic situations.

c) tend to erode profits.

d) attract consumers who are price conscious.

e) are an inefficient means of segmenting the market.

CHAPTER 13

Multiple Choice

11. The manner by which a firm’s products are made accessible to its customers is determined by its:

a) advertising strategies.

b) product decisions.

c) pricing strategies.

d) distribution decisions.

e) package designs.

12. A distribution channel通道represents the path of a product from producer to:

a) retailer.

b) wholesaler.

c) consumer.

d) manufacturer.

e) industrial distributor.

13. With a direct channel of distribution, the full difference between the manufacturer’s cost and the price paid by the consumer goes to the:

a) manufacturer.

b) wholesaler.

c) retailer.

d) intermediary.

e) merchant.

14. Wholesalers are marketing intermediaries who purchase products from manufacturers and sell

them to:

a) final users.

b) retailers.

c) other manufacturers.

d) primary customers.

e) secondary customers.

15. Marketing intermediaries that match buyers and sellers of products without becoming the owners of the products themselves are known as:

a) single-service marketers.

b) agents.

c) commission-based wholesalers.

d) stockers.

e) mediators.

16. Products that are standardized and easily transported are likely to:

a) be sold at a high markup.

b) have limited market areas.

c) use intermediaries in their distribution channels.

d) be sold at steep discounts.

e) use a direct channel of distribution.

17. _____ refers to the degree of product distribution among outlets.

a) The marketing mix

b) Demographic distribution

c) Market coverage

d) Channelization

e) The retail ratio

18. Firms that fill orders over the Internet tend to

use a(n) _____ channel of distribution.

a) one-level

b) unidirectional

c) multimodal

d) direct

e) intrinsic

19. _____ distribution is used when a producer distributes its products through certain chosen outlets while intentionally avoiding other possible outlets.

a) Restrictive

b) Exclusive

c) Intensive

d) Narrow

e) Selective

20. An advantage of exclusive distribution is that it:

a) makes the product widely available to consumers at a variety of outlets.

b) eliminates all market intermediaries.

c) allows the firm to avoid charging a sales tax on the goods.

d) may allow the firm to create and maintain an image of prestige.

e) provides the goods to consumers at the lowest possible cost.

21. Newspaper publishers have their papers available in grocery stores, convenience stores, and vending machines and at many other locations throughout a city. This is an example of a(n) _____ distribution of a product.

a) nonspecific

b) specialized

c) geographically dispersed

d) intensive

e) decentralized

22. Exclusive distribution can be viewed as an extreme form of:

a) intensive distribution.

b) the one-channel approach.

c) selective distribution.

d) price discrimination.

e) mass merchandising.

23. A(n) _____ is a retailer with only one outlet.

a) exclusive retailer

b) independent retail store

c) wholesaler d) franchise retailer

e) sole proprietorship

24. _____ are usually the best way to ship goods when the goods must be delivered quickly to several different locations in a local area.

a) Trucks

b) Barges

c) The railroads

d) Pipelines

e) Containerized modules

25. One way to accelerate the distribution process is to make sure that it is integrated with the _____ process.

a) marketing

b) financing

c) credit approval

d) advertising

e) production

26. Restructuring a distribution process commonly results in the elimination of:

a) production.

b) warehouses.

c) manufacturers.

d) product lines.

e) product mixes.

27. _____ allows a firm to check orders online, determine where future inventory shortages may occur, and increase its production accordingly.

a) E-marketing

b) Integrated production

c) Source-to-source coordination

d) Marketing logistics

e) Inventory management

28. Specialty stores in a shopping mall can offer the customer convenience while retaining their:

a) selectivity.

b) prestige.

c) price advantage.

d) wide customer appeal.

e) product variety.

29. A camera shop that has knowledgeable salespeople who can provide advice to purchasers and

also offers to service and repair the cameras it sells is an example of a(n):

a) mass merchandiser.

b) agent-seller.

c) one-stop shopping outlet.

d) distribution chain.

e) full-service retailer.

30. Stores that tend to focus on only one or a few types of products are:

a) specialty retailers.

b) variety department stores.

c) retail outlets.

d) discount stores.

e) cash-and-carry retailers.

31. When the wholesaler purchases the products from the manufacturer and sells them to retailers on credit, it normally assumes the:

a) package design.

b) credit risk.

c) promotional expenses of the manufacturer.

d) manufacturer’s guarantee.

e) producer’s risk.

32. A wholesaler provides all of the following services to manufacturers except:

a) production.

b) warehousing.

c) delivery to retailers.

d) sales expertise.

e) feedback from retailers.

33. A situation in which two or more levels of distribution are managed by a single firm is called:

a) vertical channel integration.

b) horizontal channel integration.

c) multilevel marketing.

d) wheel of retailing.

e) conglomeration.

34. When a _____ considers vertical integration, it must be concerned about whether it will lose its established business with retail firms.

a) retailer

b) producer

c) service provider

d) retailer

e) chain store

35. All of the following are distribution difficulties that firms may encounter when operating internationally except:

a) poorly organized distribution networks.

b) organized crime.

c) payoffs. d) lack of potential customers.

e) lack of intermediaries.

CHAPTER 14

Multiple Choice

11. Even if a firm’s product is properly produced, priced, and distributed, it still needs to be:

a) manufactured.

b) inspected.

c) graded.

d) promoted.

e) market tested.

12. All of the following are methods of promotion except:

a) target marketing.

b) personal selling.

c) advertising.

d) sales promotion.

e) public relations.

13. The act of informing or reminding consumers about a specific product or brand is referred to as:

a) personal selling.

b) production.

c) finance.

d) promotion.

e) research and development.

14. Which of the following promotion strategies is a nonpersonal sales promotion aimed at a large

number of consumers?

a) advertising

b) public relations

c) telemarketing

d) retail selling

e) mega-marketing

15. A nonpersonal sales presentation about a specific brand is:

a) institutional advertising.

b) personal selling.

c) brand advertising.

d) comparative advertising.

e) reminder advertising.

16. The type of advertising that is used for grocery products such as cereal, peanut butter, and dog

food is:

a) institutional advertising.

b) reminder advertising.

c) the push strategy.

d) industry advertising.

e) public relations advertising.

17. Ads that show consumers choosing between Pepsi and Coca-Cola are examples of

__________ advertising.

a) comparative

b) institutional

c) industry

d) reminder

e) generic

18. All of the following are forms of advertising except:

a) direct mail.

b) outdoor ads.

c) personal selling.

d) online banner ads.

e) transportation ads.

19. Ads that are televised separately rather than within a show are called:

a) commercials.

b) specialty ads.

c) infomercials.

d) institutional ads.

e) direct-mail ads.

20. All of the following are advantages of Internet advertising except:

a) direct, personal contact with the potential consumer.

b) low cost.

c) fees can be based on the number of customer orders.

d) generates high levels of response.

e) can create product awareness.

21. The use of the telephone for promoting and selling products is known as:

a) telepromotion.

b) telemarketing.

c) online sales promotion.

d) telecommunication mix.

e) annoying phone calls.

22. Salespeople generally perform all of the following steps except:

a) identify the target market.

b) follow up. c) contact potential customers.

d) make the sales presentation.

e) advertising.

23. A salesperson who has just completed an effective sales presentation should attempt to:

a) analyze the market.

b) win at all costs.

c) close the sale.

d) exploit the customer.

e) maximize sales returns and allowances.

24. A visual method that retail stores use in promoting particular products is a:

a) display.

b) rebate.

c) coupon.

d) premium.

e) market.

25. The promotion strategy of sampling is most often used to:

a) provide customers with a premium as an incentive to purchase more of the product.

b) introduce new products.

c) give customers a discount if a larger quantity is purchased.

d) serve as a reminder for former customers to buy the product again.

e) unload surplus inventory.

26. The main, immediate goal of public relations is to:

a) remind customers of the firm’s existence.

b) compare the firm’s brand to a competitor’s brand.

c) identify the firm’s target market.

d) enhance the image of the firm.

e) increase sales.

27. Which of the following sales promotion strategies provides a gift or prize to consumers who purchase a specific product?

a) pull

b) push

c) sampling

d) rebates

e) premiums

28. When firms promote products, they highlight the advantages over all other products. They emphasize the product’s:

a) publicity.

b) features.

c) sales promotion.

d) labeling.

e) life cycle.

29. Firms that hire __________ to promote products must consider the perceptions of the consumers in each country.

a) accountants

b) economists

c) suppliers

d) clients

e) celebrities

30. Which of the following is a public relations strategy in which an organization provides the media with a written announcement?

a) special events

b) press conference

c) concert sponsorship

d) direct mail

e) news release

31. If a firm’s target market is made up of a wide variety of customers throughout a specific region, it would likely use __________ to promote its product.

a) personal selling

b) advertising

c) door-to-door sales

d) one-on-one communication

e) target marketing

32. When producers promote their products to wholesalers or retailers, their promotion effort is called a:

a) push strategy.

b) premium price strategy.

c) sales promotion.

d) market segmentation.

e) pull strategy.

33. Which of the following is a strategy where firms focus their promotional messages on the target market customers, who in turn request the product from wholesalers or producers?

a) push

b) co-branding

c) product life cycle

d) sponsorship

e) pull

34. The promotion budget varies substantially across firms and may even vary for each firm’s product line over time. Its characteristics are influenced by all of the following except:

a) size of human resource department.

b) competition.

c) phase of the product life cycle.

d) economic conditions.

35. If marketing managers anticipate a larger demand for a product in response to new promotion strategies, they must inform their:

a) labor union.

b) stockholders.

c) creditors.

d) production department.

e) appropriate government agency. CHAPTER 15

Multiple Choice

12. Publicly owned firms are required to periodically report their financial condition for existing or potential:

a) suppliers.

b) customers.

c) employees.

d) shareholders.

e) unions.

13. The type of accounting performed for reporting purposes is referred to as:

a) ratio analysis.

b) financial accounting.

c) managerial accounting.

d) cost accounting.

e) payroll accounting.

14. Which of the following groups are primarily concerned with the risk of default on a loan?

a) owners

b) certified public accountants

c) creditors

d) auditors

e) stockholders

15. Firms use financial information developed by accountants to:

a) support financial data.

b) analyze job descriptions.

c) support decisions.

d) prepare job specifications.

e) analyze working conditions.

16. Individuals who provide accounting services to a variety of firms for a fee are:

a) master accountants.

b) managerial accountants.

c) internal auditors.

d) corporate controllers.

e) public accountants.

17. The type of accounting performed执行,表演to provide information to help managers of the firm make decisions is referred to as:

a) certified public accounting.

b) external auditing.

c) public accounting.

d) government accounting.

e) managerial accounting.

18. Which of the following financial statements summarizes a firm’s revenues, costs, and earnings for a specific period of time?

a) balance sheet.

b) income statement.

c) cash budget.

d) retained earnings statement.

e) sources and uses of funds statement.

19. The statement that reports the book value of all assets, liabilities, and owner’s equity of firms at a given point in time is the:

a) income statement.

b) cash budget.

c) profit and loss statement.

d) revenue statement.

e) balance sheet.

20. A firm’s operating expenses are subtracted from gross profit to determine its:

a) net sales.

b) cost of goods sold.

c) profit or loss.

d) balance sheet.

e) earnings before interest and taxes (EBIT).

21. The value of materials used in the production of goods that are then sold is called:

a) net sales.

b) cost of goods sold.

c) sales return and allowances.

d) gross profit. e) net income.

22. Which of the following represents funds provided by the owners of a business?

a) revenue.

b) cost of goods sold.

c) gross profit.

d) net income.

e) owner’s equity.

23. The firm’s assets are financed with its:

a) cost of goods sold.

b) earnings before interest and taxes.

c) liabilities and owner’s equity.

d) plant and equipment.

e) net sales.

24. If a firm has $1,000 in assets and $300 in liabilities, the owner’s equity must be:

a) $700.

b) $333.

c) $1,300.

d) $3,000.

e) $0.30.

25. Assets that will be converted into cash within one year are:

a) fixed assets.

b) current assets.

c) plant and equipment.

d) owner’s equity.

e) liabilities.

26. A reduction in the value of the assets to reflect deterioration in assets over time is:

a) cost of goods sold.

b) gross profit.

c) sales revenue.

d) depreciation.

e) owner’s equity.

27. In order to encourage board members to enforce proper financial disclosures:

a) all board members should be certified public accountants or financial analysts.

b) all board members should be outside members.

c) board members should not be allowed to own the firm’s stock.

d) all board members should be officers of the corporation.

e) board members should not be able to sell the firm’s stock while serving on the board.

28. An evaluation of the relationship between financial statement variables is called:

a) ratio analysis.

b) asset turnover.

c) cost of goods sold.

d) operating expenses.

e) gross profit.

29. All of the following are characteristics commonly used to classify financial ratios except for:

a) revenue.

b) liquidity.

c) efficiency.

d) leverage.

e) profitability.

30. Which of the following categories of financial ratios measures how well management uses its assets to generate sales?

a) liquidity.

b) profitability.

c) efficiency.

d) financial leverage.

e) sales leverage.

31. Long-term borrowing undertaken by a firm can be assessed through:

a) liquidity ratios.

b) profitability ratios.

c) current ratios.

d) efficiency ratios.

e) leverage ratios.

32. A ratio that measures net income as a percentage of sales is the:

a) net profit margin.

b) leverage ratio.

c) liquidity ratio.

d) activity ratio.

e) asset turnover.

33. A ratio that measures the firm’s dollar amount of profit relative to sales, assets, or equity is a(n):

a) current ratio.

b) liquidity ratio.

c) profitability ratio.

d) activity ratio.

e) leverage ratio.

34. All of the following are limitations of ratio analysis except: a) the identification of a comparable firm.

b) the firm operates in more than one industry.

c) accounting practices may vary between firms.

d) firms are too much alike.

e) firms may have large seasonal swings in sales.

35. Any firm with foreign subsidiaries must consolidate the financial data from all subsidiaries when preparing its:

a) mission statement.

b) foreign exchange.

c) balance of payment.

d) financial statements.

e) domestic policy.

36. A U.S. firm will report the earnings of its foreign subsidiaries in:

a) the currencies of the countries where the subsidiaries exist.

b) U.S. dollars.

c) units of the product sold.

d) the consolidated balance sheet of the firm.

e) the annual liquidity report.

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学科导论心得体会

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一门专业知识,课堂上老师从各个方面来阐述统计学在社会生产和国家经济的发展的重要作用及其在人们生活中扮演的必不可少的角色。学科导论课上,我得知,统计有三种涵义:统计工作,统计资料,统计学。这三种涵义是相互联系的。统计工作是统计的实践过程,统计资料是统计工作的成果,统计学是统计工作的理论指导。统计源于实践,却又高于实践。三者是理论与实践辩论统一的关系。 通过便捷的网络查阅,根据资料得知,统计实践远早于统计学得诞生,在一些文明古国中较早付诸于实践。据历史记载,在中国古代,大禹治水的时候,统计已初具雏型,大禹按山川土质,人口物产,贡赋的多少分中国为九州,著有禹贡九州篇,记载当时的人口约1355万,土地约2438顷,这便是人口和土地统计的雏型;秦朝商君书中已有全国的人口调查记录,并把反映国情、国力的十三数作为富国强兵的重要依据;汉朝实行口钱制,表明当时已有全国户口与人口年龄的统计,并据此征收赋税;明朝初期编有记载全国户口,丁粮的黄册,作为核定赋税、劳役的依据。在世界的其他文明古国中,统计实践也是很早的,埃及在公元前3020xx年建造金字塔时,为了征集建筑费用和劳力,对全国人口和财产进行调查;古罗马在公元前420xx年就建立了出生、死亡登记制度。 当人类进入资本主义社会以后,社会主义生产发展很快,社会分工日益精细,交通运输、商业贸易日趋发达,国际市场逐步形成。由于政府要了解国情、国力的相关数据,

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