Fundamentals of Corporate Finance, 12e (Ross)Chapter 1 Introduction to Corporate Finance1) Which one of the following functions should be the responsibility of the controller rather than the treasurer?A) Depositing cash receiptsB) Processing cost reportsC) Analyzing equipment purchasesD) Approving credit for a customerE) Paying a vendorAnswer: BDifficulty: 1 EasyTopic: Management organization and rolesLearning Objective: 01-01 Define the basic types of financial management decisions and the role of the financial manager.Bloom's: UnderstandAACSB: Reflective ThinkingAccessibility: Keyboard Navigation2) The treasurer of a corporation generally reports directly to the:A) board of directors.B) chairman of the board.C) chief executive officer.D) president.E) vice president of finance.Answer: EDifficulty: 1 EasyTopic: Management organization and rolesLearning Objective: 01-01 Define the basic types of financial management decisions and the role of the financial manager.Bloom's: RememberAACSB: Reflective ThinkingAccessibility: Keyboard Navigation3) Which one of the following correctly defines the upward chain of command in a typical corporate organizational structure?A) The vice president of finance reports to the chairman of the board.B) The chief executive officer reports to the president.C) The controller reports to the chief financial officer.D) The treasurer reports to the president.E) The chief operations officer reports to the vice president of production.Answer: CDifficulty: 1 EasyTopic: Management organization and rolesLearning Objective: 01-01 Define the basic types of financial management decisions and the role of the financial manager.Bloom's: RememberAACSB: Reflective ThinkingAccessibility: Keyboard Navigation4) An example of a capital budgeting decision is deciding:A) how many shares of stock to issue.B) whether or not to purchase a new machine for the production line.C) how to refinance a debt issue that is maturing.D) how much inventory to keep on hand.E) how much money should be kept in the checking account.Answer: BDifficulty: 1 EasyTopic: Financial management decisionsLearning Objective: 01-01 Define the basic types of financial management decisions and the role of the financial manager.Bloom's: UnderstandAACSB: Reflective ThinkingAccessibility: Keyboard Navigation5) When evaluating the timing of a project's projected cash flows, a financial manager is analyzing:A) the amount of each expected cash flow.B) only the start-up costs that are expected to require cash resources.C) only the date of the final cash flow related to the project.D) the amount by which cash receipts are expected to exceed cash outflows.E) when each cash flow is expected to occur.Answer: EDifficulty: 1 EasyTopic: Financial management decisionsLearning Objective: 01-01 Define the basic types of financial management decisions and the role of the financial manager.Bloom's: UnderstandAACSB: Reflective ThinkingAccessibility: Keyboard Navigation6) Capital structure decisions include determining:A) which one of two projects to accept.B) how to allocate investment funds to multiple projects.C) the amount of funds needed to finance customer purchases of a new product.D) how much debt should be assumed to fund a project.E) how much inventory will be needed to support a project.Answer: DDifficulty: 1 EasyTopic: Financial management decisionsLearning Objective: 01-01 Define the basic types of financial management decisions and the role of the financial manager.Bloom's: UnderstandAACSB: Reflective ThinkingAccessibility: Keyboard Navigation7) The decision to issue additional shares of stock is an example of:A) working capital management.B) a net working capital decision.C) capital budgeting.D) a controller's duties.E) a capital structure decision.Answer: EDifficulty: 1 EasyTopic: Financial management decisionsLearning Objective: 01-01 Define the basic types of financial management decisions and the role of the financial manager.Bloom's: UnderstandAACSB: Reflective ThinkingAccessibility: Keyboard Navigation8) Which one of the following questions is a working capital management decision?A) Should the company issue new shares of stock or borrow money?B) Should the company update or replace its older equipment?C) How much inventory should be on hand for immediate sale?D) Should the company close one of its current stores?E) How much should the company borrow to buy a new building?Answer: CDifficulty: 1 EasyTopic: Financial management decisionsLearning Objective: 01-01 Define the basic types of financial management decisions and the role of the financial manager.Bloom's: UnderstandAACSB: Reflective ThinkingAccessibility: Keyboard Navigation9) Which one of the following is a working capital management decision?A) What type(s) of equipment is (are) needed to complete a current project?B) Should the firm pay cash for a purchase or use the credit offered by the supplier?C) What amount of long-term debt is required to complete a project?D) How many shares of stock should the firm issue to fund an acquisition?E) Should a project should be accepted?Answer: BDifficulty: 1 EasyTopic: Financial management decisionsLearning Objective: 01-01 Define the basic types of financial management decisions and the role of the financial manager.Bloom's: UnderstandAACSB: Reflective ThinkingAccessibility: Keyboard Navigation10) Working capital management decisions include determining:A) the minimum level of cash to be kept in a checking account.B) the best method of producing a product.C) the number of employees needed to work during a particular shift.D) when to replace obsolete equipment.E) if a competitor should be acquired.Answer: ADifficulty: 1 EasyTopic: Financial management decisionsLearning Objective: 01-01 Define the basic types of financial management decisions and the role of the financial manager.Bloom's: UnderstandAACSB: Reflective ThinkingAccessibility: Keyboard Navigation11) Which one of the following terms is defined as the management of a firm's long-term investments?A) Working capital managementB) Financial allocationC) Agency cost analysisD) Capital budgetingE) Capital structureAnswer: DDifficulty: 1 EasyTopic: Financial management decisionsLearning Objective: 01-01 Define the basic types of financial management decisions and the role of the financial manager.Bloom's: UnderstandAACSB: Reflective ThinkingAccessibility: Keyboard Navigation12) Which one of the following terms is defined as the mixture of a firm's debt and equity financing?A) Working capital managementB) Cash managementC) Cost analysisD) Capital budgetingE) Capital structureAnswer: EDifficulty: 1 EasyTopic: Financial management decisionsLearning Objective: 01-01 Define the basic types of financial management decisions and the role of the financial manager.Bloom's: UnderstandAACSB: Reflective ThinkingAccessibility: Keyboard Navigation13) A firm's short-term assets and its short-term liabilities are referred to as the firm's:A) working capital.B) debt.C) investment capital.D) net capital.E) capital structure.Answer: ADifficulty: 1 EasyTopic: Financial management decisionsLearning Objective: 01-01 Define the basic types of financial management decisions and the role of the financial manager.Bloom's: RememberAACSB: Reflective ThinkingAccessibility: Keyboard Navigation14) Which one of the following questions is least likely to be addressed by financial managers?A) How should a product be marketed?B) Should customers be given 30 or 45 days to pay for their credit purchases?C) Should the firm borrow more money?D) Should the firm acquire new equipment?E) How much cash should the firm keep on hand?Answer: ADifficulty: 1 EasyTopic: Financial management decisionsLearning Objective: 01-01 Define the basic types of financial management decisions and the role of the financial manager.Bloom's: UnderstandAACSB: Reflective ThinkingAccessibility: Keyboard Navigation15) A business owned by a solitary individual who has unlimited liability for the firm's debt is called a:A) corporation.B) sole proprietorship.C) general partnership.D) limited partnership.E) limited liability company.Answer: BDifficulty: 1 EasyTopic: Forms of business organizationLearning Objective: 01-03 Articulate the financial implications of the different forms of business organization.Bloom's: UnderstandAACSB: Reflective ThinkingAccessibility: Keyboard Navigation16) A business formed by two or more individuals who each have unlimited liability for all of the firm's business debts is called a:A) corporation.B) sole proprietorship.C) general partnership.D) limited partnership.E) limited liability company.Answer: CDifficulty: 1 EasyTopic: Forms of business organizationLearning Objective: 01-03 Articulate the financial implications of the different forms of business organization.Bloom's: UnderstandAACSB: Reflective ThinkingAccessibility: Keyboard Navigation17) A business partner whose potential financial loss in the partnership will not exceed his or her investment in that partnership is called a:A) general partner.B) sole proprietor.C) limited partner.D) corporate shareholder.E) zero partner.Answer: CDifficulty: 1 EasyTopic: Forms of business organizationLearning Objective: 01-03 Articulate the financial implications of the different forms of business organization.Bloom's: UnderstandAACSB: Reflective ThinkingAccessibility: Keyboard Navigation18) A business created as a distinct legal entity and treated as a legal "person" is called a(n):A) corporation.B) sole proprietorship.C) general partnership.D) limited partnership.E) unlimited liability company.Answer: ADifficulty: 1 EasyTopic: Forms of business organizationLearning Objective: 01-03 Articulate the financial implications of the different forms of business organization.Bloom's: UnderstandAACSB: Reflective ThinkingAccessibility: Keyboard Navigation19) Which one of the following statements concerning a sole proprietorship is correct?A) A sole proprietorship is designed to protect the personal assets of the owner.B) The profits of a sole proprietorship are subject to double taxation.C) The owner of a sole proprietorship is personally responsible for all of the company's debts.D) There are very few sole proprietorships remaining in the U.S. today.E) A sole proprietorship is structured the same as a limited liability company.Answer: CDifficulty: 1 EasyTopic: Forms of business organizationLearning Objective: 01-03 Articulate the financial implications of the different forms of business organization.Bloom's: UnderstandAACSB: Reflective ThinkingAccessibility: Keyboard Navigation20) Which one of the following statements concerning a sole proprietorship is correct?A) The life of a sole proprietorship is limited.B) A sole proprietor can generally raise large sums of capital quite easily.C) Transferring ownership of a sole proprietorship is easier than transferring ownership of a corporation.D) A sole proprietorship is taxed the same as a C corporation.E) A sole proprietorship is the most regulated form of organization.Answer: ADifficulty: 1 EasyTopic: Forms of business organizationLearning Objective: 01-03 Articulate the financial implications of the different forms of business organization.Bloom's: UnderstandAACSB: Reflective ThinkingAccessibility: Keyboard Navigation21) Which of the following individuals have unlimited liability for a firm's debts based on their ownership interest?A) Only general partnersB) Only sole proprietorsC) All stockholdersD) Both limited and general partnersE) Both general partners and sole proprietorsAnswer: EDifficulty: 1 EasyTopic: Forms of business organizationLearning Objective: 01-03 Articulate the financial implications of the different forms of business organization.Bloom's: UnderstandAACSB: Reflective ThinkingAccessibility: Keyboard Navigation22) The primary advantage of being a limited partner is:A) the receipt of tax-free income.B) the partner's active participation in the firm's activities.C) the lack of any potential financial loss.D) the daily control over the business affairs of the partnership.E) the partner's maximum loss is limited to their capital investment.Answer: EDifficulty: 1 EasyTopic: Forms of business organizationLearning Objective: 01-03 Articulate the financial implications of the different forms of business organization.Bloom's: UnderstandAACSB: Reflective ThinkingAccessibility: Keyboard Navigation23) A general partner:A) is personally responsible for all partnership debts.B) has no say over a firm's daily operations.C) faces double taxation whereas a limited partner does not.D) has a maximum loss equal to his or her equity investment.E) receives a salary in lieu of a portion of the profits.Answer: ADifficulty: 1 EasyTopic: Forms of business organizationLearning Objective: 01-03 Articulate the financial implications of the different forms of business organization.Bloom's: UnderstandAACSB: Reflective ThinkingAccessibility: Keyboard Navigation24) A limited partnership:A) has an unlimited life.B) can opt to be taxed as a corporation.C) terminates at the death of any one limited partner.D) has at least one partner who has unlimited liability for all of the partnership's debts.E) consists solely of limited partners.Answer: DDifficulty: 1 EasyTopic: Forms of business organizationLearning Objective: 01-03 Articulate the financial implications of the different forms of business organization.Bloom's: UnderstandAACSB: Reflective ThinkingAccessibility: Keyboard Navigation25) A partnership with four general partners:A) distributes profits based on percentage of ownership.B) has an unlimited partnership life.C) limits the active involvement in the firm to a single partner.D) limits each partner's personal liability to 25 percent of the partnership's total debt.E) must distribute 25 percent of the profits to each partner.Answer: EDifficulty: 1 EasyTopic: Forms of business organizationLearning Objective: 01-03 Articulate the financial implications of the different forms of business organization.Bloom's: UnderstandAACSB: Reflective ThinkingAccessibility: Keyboard Navigation26) One disadvantage of the corporate form of business ownership is the:A) limited liability of its shareholders for the firm's debts.B) double taxation of distributed profits.C) firm's greater ability to raise capital than other forms of ownership.D) firm's potential for an unlimited life.E) firm's ability to issue additional shares of stock.Answer: BDifficulty: 1 EasyTopic: Forms of business organizationLearning Objective: 01-03 Articulate the financial implications of the different forms of business organization.Bloom's: UnderstandAACSB: Reflective ThinkingAccessibility: Keyboard Navigation27) Which one of the following statements is correct?A) The majority of firms in the U.S. are structured as corporations.B) Corporate profits are taxable income to the shareholders when earned.C) Corporations can have an unlimited life.D) Shareholders are protected from all potential losses.E) Shareholders directly elect the corporate president.Answer: CDifficulty: 1 EasyTopic: Forms of business organizationLearning Objective: 01-03 Articulate the financial implications of the different forms of business organization.Bloom's: UnderstandAACSB: Reflective ThinkingAccessibility: Keyboard Navigation28) Which one of the following statements is correct?A) A general partnership is legally the same as a corporation.B) Income from both sole proprietorships and partnerships that is taxable is treated as individual income.C) Partnerships are the most complicated type of business to form.D) All business organizations have bylaws.E) Only firms organized as sole proprietorships have limited lives.Answer: BDifficulty: 1 EasyTopic: Forms of business organizationLearning Objective: 01-03 Articulate the financial implications of the different forms of business organization.Bloom's: UnderstandAACSB: Reflective ThinkingAccessibility: Keyboard Navigation29) The articles of incorporation:A) describe the purpose of the firm and set forth the number of shares of stock that can be issued.B) are amended periodically especially prior to corporate elections.C) explain how corporate directors are to be elected and the length of their terms.D) sets forth the procedures by which a firm regulates itself.E) include only the corporation's name and intended life.Answer: ADifficulty: 1 EasyTopic: Forms of business organizationLearning Objective: 01-03 Articulate the financial implications of the different forms of business organization.Bloom's: UnderstandAACSB: Reflective ThinkingAccessibility: Keyboard Navigation30) Corporate bylaws:A) must be amended should a firm decide to increase the number of shares authorized.B) cannot be amended once adopted.C) define the name by which the firm will operate.D) describe the intended life and purpose of the organization.E) determine how a corporation regulates itself.Answer: EDifficulty: 1 EasyTopic: Forms of business organizationLearning Objective: 01-03 Articulate the financial implications of the different forms of business organization.Bloom's: UnderstandAACSB: Reflective ThinkingAccessibility: Keyboard Navigation31) A limited liability company:A) can only have a single owner.B) is comprised of limited partners only.C) is taxed similar to a partnership.D) is taxed similar to a C corporation.E) generates totally tax-free income.Answer: CDifficulty: 1 EasyTopic: Forms of business organizationLearning Objective: 01-03 Articulate the financial implications of the different forms of business organization.Bloom's: UnderstandAACSB: Reflective ThinkingAccessibility: Keyboard Navigation32) Which business form is best suited to raising large amounts of capital?A) Sole proprietorshipB) Limited liability companyC) CorporationD) General partnershipE) Limited partnershipAnswer: CDifficulty: 1 EasyTopic: Forms of business organizationLearning Objective: 01-03 Articulate the financial implications of the different forms of business organization.Bloom's: UnderstandAACSB: Reflective ThinkingAccessibility: Keyboard Navigation33) A ________ has all the respective rights and privileges of a legal person.A) sole proprietorshipB) general partnershipC) limited partnershipD) corporationE) limited liability companyAnswer: DDifficulty: 1 EasyTopic: Forms of business organizationLearning Objective: 01-03 Articulate the financial implications of the different forms of business organization.Bloom's: UnderstandAACSB: Reflective ThinkingAccessibility: Keyboard Navigation34) Sam, Alfredo, and Juan want to start a small U.S. business. Juan will fund the venture but wants to limit his liability to his initial investment and has no interest in the daily operations. Sam will contribute his full efforts on a daily basis but has limited funds to invest in the business. Alfredo will be involved as an active consultant and manager and will also contribute funds. Sam and Alfredo are willing to accept liability for the firm's debts as they feel they have nothing to lose by doing so. All three individuals will share in the firm's profits and wish to keep the initial organizational costs of the business to a minimum. Which form of business entity should these individuals adopt?A) Sole proprietorshipB) Joint stock companyC) Limited partnershipD) General partnershipE) CorporationAnswer: CDifficulty: 2 MediumTopic: Forms of business organizationLearning Objective: 01-03 Articulate the financial implications of the different forms of business organization.Bloom's: ApplyAACSB: Knowledge ApplicationAccessibility: Keyboard Navigation35) Sally and Alicia are equal general partners in a business. They are content with their current management and tax situation but are uncomfortable with their unlimited liability. Which form of business entity should they consider as a replacement to their current arrangement assuming they wish to remain the only two owners of the business?A) Sole proprietorshipB) Joint stock companyC) Limited partnershipD) Limited liability companyE) CorporationAnswer: DDifficulty: 2 MediumTopic: Forms of business organizationLearning Objective: 01-03 Articulate the financial implications of the different forms of business organization.Bloom's: ApplyAACSB: Knowledge ApplicationAccessibility: Keyboard Navigation36) The growth of both sole proprietorships and partnerships is frequently limited by the firm's:A) double taxation.B) bylaws.C) inability to raise cash.D) limited liability.E) agency problems.Answer: CDifficulty: 1 EasyTopic: Forms of business organizationLearning Objective: 01-03 Articulate the financial implications of the different forms of business organization.Bloom's: UnderstandAACSB: Reflective ThinkingAccessibility: Keyboard Navigation37) Corporate dividends are:A) tax-free because the income is taxed at the personal level when earned by the firm.B) tax-free because they are distributions of aftertax income.C) tax-free since the corporation pays tax on that income when it is earned.D) taxed at both the corporate and the personal level when the dividends are paid to shareholders.E) taxable income of the recipient even though that income was previously taxed.Answer: EDifficulty: 1 EasyTopic: Forms of business organizationLearning Objective: 01-03 Articulate the financial implications of the different forms of business organization.Bloom's: UnderstandAACSB: Reflective ThinkingAccessibility: Keyboard Navigation38) Financial managers should primarily focus on the interests of:A) stakeholders.B) the vice president of finance.C) their immediate supervisor.D) shareholders.E) the board of directors.Answer: DDifficulty: 1 EasyTopic: Goal of financial managementLearning Objective: 01-02 Explain the goal of financial management.Bloom's: UnderstandAACSB: Reflective ThinkingAccessibility: Keyboard Navigation39) Which one of the following best states the primary goal of financial management?A) Maximize current dividends per shareB) Maximize the current value per shareC) Increase cash flow and avoid financial distressD) Minimize operational costs while maximizing firm efficiencyE) Maintain steady growth while increasing current profitsAnswer: BDifficulty: 1 EasyTopic: Goal of financial managementLearning Objective: 01-02 Explain the goal of financial management.Bloom's: RememberAACSB: Reflective ThinkingAccessibility: Keyboard Navigation40) Which one of the following best illustrates that the management of a firm is adhering to thegoal of financial management?A) An increase in the amount of the quarterly dividendB) A decrease in the per unit production costsC) An increase in the number of shares outstandingD) A decrease in the net working capitalE) An increase in the market value per shareAnswer: EDifficulty: 1 EasyTopic: Goal of financial managementLearning Objective: 01-02 Explain the goal of financial management.Bloom's: UnderstandAACSB: Reflective ThinkingAccessibility: Keyboard Navigation41) Financial managers should strive to maximize the current value per share of the existing stock to:A) guarantee the company will grow in size at the maximum possible rate.B) increase employee salaries.C) best represent the interests of the current shareholders.D) increase the current dividends per share.E) provide managers with shares of stock as part of their compensation.Answer: CDifficulty: 1 EasyTopic: Goal of financial managementLearning Objective: 01-02 Explain the goal of financial management.Bloom's: UnderstandAACSB: Reflective ThinkingAccessibility: Keyboard Navigation42) Decisions made by financial managers should primarily focus on increasing the:A) size of the firm.B) growth rate of the firm.C) gross profit per unit produced.D) market value per share of outstanding stock.E) total sales.Answer: DDifficulty: 1 EasyTopic: Goal of financial managementLearning Objective: 01-02 Explain the goal of financial management.Bloom's: UnderstandAACSB: Reflective ThinkingAccessibility: Keyboard Navigation43) The Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002 is a governmental response to:A) decreasing corporate profits.B) the terrorist attacks on 9/11/2001.C) a weakening economy.D) deregulation of the stock exchanges.E) management greed and abuses.Answer: EDifficulty: 1 EasyTopic: Ethics, governance, and regulationLearning Objective: 01-04 Explain the conflicts of interest that can arise between managers and owners.Bloom's: UnderstandAACSB: Reflective ThinkingAccessibility: Keyboard Navigation44) Which one of the following is an unintended result of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act?A) More detailed and accurate financial reportingB) Increased management awareness of internal controlsC) Corporations delisting from major exchangesD) Increased responsibility for corporate officersE) Identification of internal control weaknessesAnswer: CDifficulty: 1 EasyTopic: Ethics, governance, and regulationLearning Objective: 01-04 Explain the conflicts of interest that can arise between managers and owners.Bloom's: UnderstandAACSB: Reflective ThinkingAccessibility: Keyboard Navigation45) A firm which opts to "go dark" in response to the Sarbanes-Oxley Act:A) must continue to provide audited financial statements to the public.B) must continue to provide a detailed list of internal control deficiencies on an annual basis.C) can provide less information to its shareholders than it did prior to "going dark".D) can continue publicly trading its stock but only on the exchange on which it was previously listed.E) ceases to exist.Answer: CDifficulty: 1 EasyTopic: Ethics, governance, and regulationLearning Objective: 01-04 Explain the conflicts of interest that can arise between managers and owners.Bloom's: UnderstandAACSB: Reflective ThinkingAccessibility: Keyboard Navigation46) The Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002 holds a public company's ________ responsible for the accuracy of the company's financial statements.A) managersB) internal auditorsC) external legal counselD) internal legal counselE) Securities and Exchange Commission agentAnswer: ADifficulty: 1 EasyTopic: Ethics, governance, and regulationLearning Objective: 01-04 Explain the conflicts of interest that can arise between managers and owners.Bloom's: UnderstandAACSB: Reflective ThinkingAccessibility: Keyboard Navigation。
Fundamentals of Corporate Finance, 12e (Ross)Chapter 11 Project Analysis and Evaluation1) Forecasting risk is defined as the possibility that:A) some proposed projects will be rejected.B) some proposed projects will be temporarily delayed.C) incorrect decisions will be made due to erroneous cash flow projections.D) some projects will be mutually exclusive.E) tax rates could change over the life of a project.2) The key means of defending against forecasting risk is to:A) rely primarily on the net present value method of analysis.B) increase the discount rate assigned to a project.C) shorten the life of a project.D) identify sources of value within a project.E) ignore any potential salvage value that might be realized.3) Steve is fairly cautious when analyzing a new project and thus he projects the most optimistic, the most realistic, and the most pessimistic outcome that can reasonably be expected. Which type of analysis is he using?A) Simulation testingB) Sensitivity analysisC) Break-even analysisD) Rationing analysisE) Scenario analysis4) Scenario analysis is best suited to accomplishing which one of the following when analyzing a project?A) Determining how fixed costs affect NPVB) Estimating the residual value of fixed assetsC) Identifying the potential range of reasonable outcomesD) Determining the minimal level of sales required to break-even on an accounting basisE) Determining the minimal level of sales required to break-even on a financial basis5) Which one of the following will be used in the computation of the best-case analysis of a proposed project?A) Minimal number of units that are expected to be produced and soldB) The lowest expected salvage value that can be obtained for a project's fixed assetsC) The most anticipated sales price per unitD) The lowest variable cost per unit that can reasonably be expectedE) The highest level of fixed costs that is actually anticipated6) The base case values used in scenario analysis are the values considered to be the most:A) optimistic.B) desired by management.C) pessimistic.D) likely to create a positive net present value.E) likely to occur.7) Which of the following variables will be forecast at their highest expected level under a best-case scenario?A) Fixed costs and units valueB) Variable costs and sales priceC) Fixed costs and sales priceD) Salvage value and units soldE) Initial cost and variable costs8) When you assign the lowest anticipated sales price and the highest anticipated costs to a project, you are analyzing the project under the condition known as:A) best-case sensitivity analysis.B) worst-case sensitivity analysis.C) best-case scenario analysis.D) worst-case scenario analysis.E) base-case scenario analysis.9) Which one of the following statements concerning scenario analysis is correct?A) The pessimistic case scenario determines the maximum loss, in current dollars, that a firm could possibly incur from a given project.B) Scenario analysis defines the entire range of results that could be realized from a proposed investment project.C) Scenario analysis determines which variable has the greatest impact on a project's final outcome.D) Scenario analysis helps managers analyze various outcomes that are possible given reasonable ranges for each of the assumptions.E) Management is guaranteed a positive outcome for a project when the worst-case scenario produces a positive NPV.10) Sensitivity analysis determines the:A) range of possible outcomes given that most variables are reliable only within a stated range.B) degree to which the net present value reacts to changes in a single variable.C) net present value range that can be realized from a proposed project.D) degree to which a project relies on its initial costs.E) ideal ratio of variable costs to fixed costs for profit maximization.11) Assume you graph a project's net present value given various sales quantities. Which one of the following is correct regarding the resulting function?A) The steepness of the function relates to the project's degree of operating leverage.B) The steeper the function, the less sensitive the project is to changes in the sales quantity.C) The resulting function will be a hyperbole.D) The resulting function will include only positive values.E) The slope of the function measures the sensitivity of the net present value to a change in sales quantity.12) As the degree of sensitivity of a project to a single variable rises, the:A) less important the variable is to the final outcome of the project.B) less volatile the project's net present value is to that variable.C) greater is the importance of accurately predicting the value of that variable.D) greater is the sensitivity of the project to the other variable inputs.E) less volatile is the project's outcome.13) A firm's managers realize they cannot monitor all aspects of their projects but do want to maintain a constant focus on the key aspect of each project in an attempt to maximize their firm's value. Given this specific desire, which type of analysis should they require for each project and why?A) Sensitivity analysis; to identify the key variable that affects a project's profitabilityB) Scenario analysis; to guarantee each project will be profitableC) Cash breakeven; to ensure the firm recoups its initial investmentD) Accounting breakeven; to ensure each project earns its required rate of returnE) Financial breakeven; to ensure each project has a positive NPV14) Which type of analysis identifies the variable, or variables, that are most critical to the success of a particular project?A) ScenarioB) SimulationC) Break-evenD) SensitivityE) Cash flow15) Simulation analysis is based on assigning a ________ and analyzing the results.A) narrow range of values to a single variableB) narrow range of values to multiple variables simultaneouslyC) wide range of values to a single variableD) wide range of values to multiple variables simultaneouslyE) single value to each of the variables16) Which one of the following types of analysis is the most complex to conduct?A) ScenarioB) Break-evenC) SensitivityD) Degree of operating leverageE) Simulation17) Scenario analysis is defined as the:A) determination of the initial cash outlay required to implement a project.B) determination of changes in NPV estimates when what-if questions are posed.C) isolation of the effect that a single variable has on the NPV of a project.D) separation of a project's sunk costs from its opportunity costs.E) analysis of the effects that a project's terminal cash flows has on the project's NPV.18) An analysis of the change in a project's NPV when a single variable is changed is called ________ analysis.A) forecastingB) scenarioC) sensitivityD) simulationE) break-even19) Combining scenario analysis with sensitivity analysis can yield a crude form of ________ analysis.A) forecastingB) combinedC) complexD) simulationE) break-even20) Variable costs can be defined as the costs that:A) remain constant for all time periods.B) remain constant over the short run.C) vary directly with sales.D) are classified as noncash expenses.E) are inversely related to the number of units sold.21) Fixed costs:A) change as a small quantity of output produced changes.B) are constant over the short-run regardless of the quantity of output produced.C) are defined as the change in total costs when one more unit of output is produced.D) are subtracted from sales to compute the contribution margin.E) can be ignored in scenario analysis since they are constant over the life of a project.22) The change in revenue that occurs when one more unit of output is sold is referred to as:A) marginal revenue.B) average revenue.C) total revenue.D) erosion.E) scenario revenue.23) The change in variable costs that occurs when production is increased by one unit is referred to as the:A) marginal cost.B) average cost.C) total cost.D) scenario cost.E) net cost.24) By definition, which one of the following must equal zero at the accounting break-even point?A) Net present valueB) DepreciationC) Contribution marginD) Net incomeE) Operating cash flow25) Which one of these combinations must increase the contribution margin?A) Increasing both the sales price and the variable cost per unitB) Increasing the sales quantity and increasing the variable cost per unitC) Decreasing the sales price and increasing the sales quantityD) Decreasing both fixed costs and depreciation expenseE) Increasing the sales price and decreasing the variable cost per unit26) Which of the following are inversely related to variable costs per unit?A) Sales quantity and sales priceB) Net profit per unit and sales quantityC) Operating cash flow and sales quantityD) Operating cash flow per unit and contribution margin per unitE) Contribution margin per unit and marginal costs27) Steve, the sales manager for TL Products, wants to sponsor a one-week "Customer Appreciation Sale" where the firm offers to sell additional units of a product at the lowest price possible without negatively affecting the firm's profits. Which one of the following represents the price that should be charged for the additional units during this sale?A) Average variable costB) Average total costC) Average total revenueD) Marginal revenueE) Marginal cost28) The president of Global Wholesalers would like to offer special sale prices to the firm's best customers under the following terms:1. The prices will apply only to units purchased in excess of the quantity normally purchased bya customer.2. The units purchased must be paid for in cash at the time of sale.3. The total quantity sold under these terms cannot exceed the excess capacity of the firm.4. The net profit of the firm should not be affected.5. The prices will be in effect for one week only.Given these conditions, the special sale price should be set equal to the:A) average variable cost of materials only.B) average cost of all variable inputs.C) sensitivity value of the variable costs.D) marginal cost of materials only.E) marginal cost of all variable inputs.29) The contribution margin per unit is equal to the:A) sales price per unit minus the total costs per unit.B) variable cost per unit minus the fixed cost per unit.C) sales price per unit minus the variable cost per unit.D) pretax profit per unit.E) aftertax profit per unit.30) Which of the following values will be equal to zero when a firm is operating at the accounting break-even level of output?A) IRR and OCFB) Net income and contribution marginC) IRR and net incomeD) OCF and NPVE) Net income and NPV31) A decrease in which one of the following will increase the accounting break-even quantity? Assume straight-line depreciation is used and ignore taxes.A) Sales price per unitB) Management salariesC) Variable labor costs per unitD) Initial fixed asset purchasesE) Fixed costs32) Webster Iron Works started a new project last year. As it turns out, the project has been operating at its accounting break-even level of output and is now expected to continue at that level over its lifetime. Given this, you know that the project:A) will never pay back.B) has a zero net present value.C) is operating at a higher level than if it were operating at its cash break-even level.D) is operating at a higher level than if it were operating at its financial break-even level.E) is lowering the total net income of the firm.33) A project that has a payback period exactly equal to the project's life is operating at:A) its maximum capacity.B) the financial break-even point.C) the cash break-even point.D) the accounting break-even point.E) a zero level of output.34) Valerie just completed analyzing a project. Her analysis indicates that the project will have a six-year life and require an initial cash outlay of $120,000. Annual sales are estimated at $189,000 and the tax rate is 21 percent. The net present value is negative $120,000. Based on this analysis, the project is expected to operate at the:A) maximum possible level of production.B) minimum possible level of production.C) financial break-even point.D) accounting break-even point.E) cash break-even point.35) A project that has a projected IRR of negative 100 percent will also have a(n):A) discounted payback period equal to the life of the project.B) operating cash flow that is positive and equal to the depreciation.C) net present value that is negative and equal to the initial investment.D) payback period that is exactly equal to the life of the project.E) net present value that is equal to zero.36) Which one of the following characteristics relates to the cash break-even point for a given project?A) The project never pays back.B) The discounted payback period equals the project's life.C) The NPV is equal to zero.D) The IRR equals the required rate of return.E) The OCF is equal to the depreciation expense.37) When the operating cash flow of a project is equal to zero, the project is operating at the:A) maximum possible level of production.B) minimum possible level of production.C) financial break-even point.D) accounting break-even point.E) cash break-even point.38) Which one of the following represents the level of output where a project produces a rate of return just equal to its requirement?A) Capital break-evenB) Cash break-evenC) Accounting break-evenD) Financial break-evenE) Internal break-even39) Which one of these is most associated with an IRR of negative 100 percent?A) Degree of operating leverageB) Accounting break-even pointC) Contribution marginD) Simulation analysisE) Cash break-even point40) You would like to know the minimum level of sales that is needed for a project to be accepted based on its net present value. To determine that sales level you should compute the:A) contribution margin per unit and set that margin equal to the fixed costs per unit.B) degree of operating leverage at the current sales level.C) accounting break-even point.D) cash break-even point.E) financial break-even point.41) Theresa is analyzing a project that currently has a projected NPV of zero. Which one of the following changes that she is considering is most apt to cause that project to produce a positive NPV instead? Consider each change independently.A) Decrease the sales priceB) Increase the materials cost per unitC) Decrease the labor hours per unit producedD) Decrease the sales quantityE) Increase the amount of the initial investment in net working capital42) Given the following, which feature identifies the most desirable level of output for a project?A) Operating cash flow equal to the depreciation expenseB) Payback period equal to the project's lifeC) Discounted payback period equal to the project's lifeD) Zero IRRE) Zero operating cash flow43) Assume both the discount and tax rates are positive values. At the financial break-even point, the:A) payback period equals the project's life.B) NPV is negative.C) OCF is zero.D) contribution margin per unit equals the fixed costs per unit.E) IRR equals the required return.44) By definition, which one of the following must equal zero at the cash break-even point?A) Net present valueB) Internal rate of returnC) Contribution marginD) Net incomeE) Operating cash flow45) Assume a project has a discounted payback that equals the project's life. The project's sales quantity must be at which one of these break-even points?A) AccountingB) LeveragedC) MarginalD) CashE) Financial46) Operating leverage is the degree of dependence a firm places on its:A) variable costs.B) fixed costs.C) sales.D) operating cash flows.E) depreciation tax shield.47) Which one of the following is the relationship between the percentage change in operating cash flow and the percentage change in quantity sold?A) Degree of sensitivityB) Degree of operating leverageC) Accounting break-evenD) Cash break-evenE) Contribution margin48) You are considering a project and are concerned about the reliability of the cash flow forecasts. To reduce any potentially harmful results from accepting this project, you should consider:A) lowering the degree of operating leverage.B) lowering the contribution margin per unit.C) increasing the initial cash outlay.D) increasing the fixed costs per unit.E) lowering the operating cash flow.49) Which one of the following characteristics best describes a project that has a low degree of operating leverage?A) High variable costs relative to the fixed costsB) Relatively high initial cash outlayC) OCF that is highly sensitive to the sales quantityD) High level of forecasting riskE) High depreciation expense50) Which one of the following will best reduce the risk of a project by lowering the degree of operating leverage?A) Hiring additional employees rather than using temporary outside contractorsB) Subcontracting portions of the project rather than purchasing new equipment to do all the work in-houseC) Buying equipment rather than leasing it short-termD) Lowering the projected selling price per unitE) Changing the proposed labor-intensive production method to a more capital intensive method51) The degree of operating leverage is equal to:A) 1 + OCF/(FC + VC).B) 1 + OCF/FC.C) 1 + FC/OCF.D) 1 + VC/OCF.E) 1 − (FC + VC)/OCF.52) Uptown Promotions has three divisions. As part of the planning process, the CFO requested that each division submit its capital budgeting proposals for next year. These proposals represent positive net present value projects that fall within the long-range plans of the firm. The requests from the divisions are $4.2 million, $3.1 million, and $6.8 million. For the firm as a whole, management has limited spending to $10 million for new projects next year even though the firm could afford additional investments. This is an example of:A) scenario analysis.B) sensitivity analysis.C) an operating leverage application.D) soft rationing.E) hard rationing.53) Bell Weather Goods has several proposed independent projects that have positive NPVs. However, the firm cannot initiate any of the projects due to a lack of financing. This situation is referred to as:A) financial rejection.B) project rejection.C) soft rationing.D) marginal rationing.E) capital rationing.54) The procedure of allocating a fixed amount of funds for capital spending to each business unit is called:A) marginal spending.B) capital preservation.C) soft rationing.D) hard rationing.E) marginal rationing.55) PC Enterprises wants to commence a new project but is unable to obtain the financing under any circumstances. This firm is facing:A) financial deferral.B) financial allocation.C) capital allocation.D) marginal rationing.E) hard rationing.56) Brubaker & Goss has received requests for capital investment funds for next year from each of its five divisions. All requests represent positive net present value projects. All projects are independent. Senior management has decided to allocate the available funds based on the profitability index of each project since the company has insufficient funds to fulfill all of the requests. Management is following a practice known as:A) scenario analysis.B) sensitivity analysis.C) leveraging.D) hard rationing.E) soft rationing.57) The CFO of Edward's Food Distributors is continually receiving capital funding requests from its division managers. These requests are seeking funding for positive net present value projects. The CFO continues to deny all funding requests due to the financial situation of the company. Apparently, the company is:A) operating at the accounting break-even point.B) operating at the financial break-even point.C) facing hard rationing.D) operating with zero leverage.E) operating at maximum capacity.58) New Town Instruments is analyzing a proposed project. The company expects to sell 1,600 units, ±3 percent. The expected variable cost per unit is $220 and the expected fixed costs are $438,000. Cost estimates are considered accurate within a ±2 percent range. The depreciation expense is $64,000. The sales price is estimated at $647 per unit, ±2 percent. What is the sales revenue under the worst-case scenario?A) $1,086,825B) $896,201C) $984,061D) $1,014,496E) $932,01759) Precise Machinery is analyzing a proposed project that is expected to have sales of 2,450 units, ±8 percent. The expected variable cost per unit is $246 and the expected fixed costs are $309,000. Cost estimates are considered accurate within a ±3 percent range. The depreciation expense is $106,000. The sales price is estimated at $599 per unit, ±2 percent. What is the amount of the total costs per unit under the worst-case scenario?A) $448.58B) $404.16C) $366.67D) $338.23E) $394.5860) Precise Machinery is analyzing a proposed project. The company expects to sell 7,500 units, ±10 percent. The expected variable cost per unit is $314 and the expected fixed costs are $647,000. Cost estimates are considered accurate within a ±4 percent range. The depreciation expense is $187,000. The sales price is estimated at $849 per unit, give or take 2 percent. The tax rate is 21 percent. The company is conducting a sensitivity analysis on the sales price using a sales price estimate of $850. What is the operating cash flow based on this analysis?A) $2,703,940B) $2,293,089C) $1,986,675D) $2,354,874E) $2,284,83761) The Creamery is analyzing a project with expected sales of 5,700 units, ±5 percent. The expected variable cost per unit is $168 and the expected fixed costs are $424,000. Cost estimates are considered accurate within a ±3 percent range. The depreciation expense is $156,000. The sales price is estimated at $339 per unit, ±5 percent. The tax rate is 21 percent. The company is conducting a sensitivity analysis with fixed costs of $425,000. What is the OCF given this analysis?A) $416,511B) $385,350C) $467,023D) $394,874E) $421,30062) HiLo Mfg. is analyzing a project with anticipated sales of 12,500 units, ±2 percent. The variable cost per unit is $13, ± 2 percent, and the expected fixed costs are $237,000, ±1 percent.The sales price is estimated at $69 a unit, ±3 percent. The depreciation expense is $68,000 and the tax rate is 22 percent. What is the earnings before interest and taxes under the base-case scenario?A) $368,500B) $421,000C) $395,000D) $414,900E) $427,50063) Assume a project has a sales quantity of 7,400 units, ±6 percent and a sales price of $59 a unit, ±1 percent. The expected variable cost per unit is $13, ±3 percent, and the expected fixed costs are $214,000, ±2 percent. The depreciation expense is $63,000 and the tax rate is 23 percent. What is the operating cash flow under the best-case scenario?A) $136,759B) $118,470C) $145,705D) $134,208E) $124,22064) Windows and More is reviewing a project with sales of 6,200 units, ±2 percent, at a sales price of $29, ±1 percent, per unit. The expected variable cost per unit is $11, ±3 percent, and the expected fixed costs are $87,000, ±1 percent. The depreciation expense is $68,000 and the tax rate is 21 percent. What is the net income under the worst-case scenario?A) −$38,578B) −$39,713C) $15,846D) –$28,704E) $4,69665) Stellar Plastics is analyzing a proposed project with annual depreciation of $28,750 and a tax rate of 23 percent. The company expects to sell 16,500 units, ±3 percent. The expected variable cost per unit is $1.87, ±1 percent, and the expected fixed costs are $24,900, ±1 percent. The sales price is estimated at $7.99 a unit, ±2 percent. What is the operating cash flow for a sensitivity analysis using total fixed costs of $26,000?A) $54,208B) $64,347C) $63,591D) $62,408E) $60,54066) Your company is reviewing a project with estimated labor costs of $14.68 per unit, estimated raw material costs of $43.18 a unit, and estimated fixed costs of $18,000 a month. Sales are projected at 15,500 units, ±5 percent, over the one-year life of the project. Cost estimates are accurate within a range of ±3 percent. What are the total variable costs for the best-case scenario?A) $869,925B) $861,560C) $913,421D) $951,960E) $891,96067) A project has base-case earnings before interest and taxes of $36,408, fixed costs of $42,700,a selling price of $24 a unit, and a sales quantity of 22,000 units. All estimates are accurate within ±2 percent. Depreciation is $16,700. What is the base-case variable cost per unit?A) $22.16B) $23.84C) $19.65D) $22.23E) $17.1868) Consider a 5-year project with an initial fixed asset investment of $324,000, straight-line depreciation to zero over the project's life, a zero salvage value, a selling price of $34, variable costs of $17, fixed costs of $189,700, a sales quantity of 94,000 units, and a tax rate of 21 percent. What is the sensitivity of OCF to changes in the sales price?A) $74,260 per $1 of salesB) $61,600 per $1 of salesC) $78,700 per $1 of salesD) $59,470 per $1 of salesE) $68,850 per $1 of sales69) You are considering a new product launch. The project will have an initial cost for fixed assets of $1,150,000, a three-year life, and no salvage value; depreciation is straight-line to zero. Sales are projected at 230 units per year, price per unit will be $7,500, variable cost per unit will be $3,900, and fixed costs will be $122,000 per year. The required return is 14.5 percent and the relevant tax rate is 24 percent. Based on your experience, you think the unit sales and price are accurate within a ±2 percent range while costs may vary by ±3 percent. What is the worst-case NPV?A) −$117,907B) $156,446C) −$78,517D) $162,134E) −$118,02070) Shoe Supply has decided to produce a new line of shoes that will have a selling price of $68 and a variable cost of $27 per pair. The company spent $187,000 for a marketing study that determined the company should sell 85,000 pairs of the new shoes each year for three years. The marketing study also determined that the company will lose sales of 24,000 pairs of its high-priced shoes that sell for $129 and have variable costs of $63 a pair. The company will also increase sales of its inexpensive shoes by 19,000 pairs. The inexpensive shoes sell for $39 and have variable costs of $15 per pair. The fixed costs each year will be $1.42 million. The company has also spent $1.29 million on research and development for the new shoes. The initial fixed asset requirement is $4.2 million and will be depreciated on a straight-line basis over the life of the project. The new shoes will also require an increase in net working capital of $447,000 that will be returned at the end of the project. Sales and cost projections have a ±2 percent range. The tax rate is 21 percent, and the cost of capital is 12 percent. What is the NPV for the new line of shoes assuming the base-case scenario?A) −$1,844,788B) −$806,318C) $102,311D) $687,415E) $520,90971) A suggested project requires initial fixed assets of $227,000, has a life of 4 years, and has no salvage value. Assume depreciation is straight-line to zero over the life of the project. Sales are projected at 31,000 units per year, the price per unit is $47, variable cost per unit is $23, and fixed costs are $842,900 per year. The tax rate is 23 percent and the required return is 11.5 percent. Suppose the projections given for price and quantity can vary by ±4 percent while variable and fixed cost estimates are accurate to within ±2 percent. What is the best-case NPV?A) $4,613B) −$67,008C) $127,511D) $82,409E) −$132,19472) A project has expected sales of 54,000 units, ±5 percent, variable cost per unit of $87, ±2 percent, fixed costs of $287,000, ±1 percent, and a sales price per unit of $219, ±2 percent. The depreciation expense is $47,000 and the tax rate is 23 percent. What is the contribution margin per unit for a sensitivity analysis using a variable cost per unit of $85?A) $132B) $134C) $135D) $136E) $133。
