LSAT真题详解(官方解释)Section 1
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LSAT逻辑题考查内容及题型(一)LSAT逻辑题考查内容及题型(一)LSAT逻辑题考查内容及题型(一)逻辑推理题主要考查以下推理能力:1)进行论证的能力2)评价论述的能力3)形成或评价行动方案的能力按照美国ets命题人员的说法,逻辑推理题主要考查考生在以下三个方面能否进行有效推理的能力。
一、论点构建(argumentconstruction)这一方面产问题主要让你去识别或找到:(一)论述的基本结构(thebasicstructureofanargument)(二)正确得到的结论(properlydrawnconclusion)(三)基于的假设(underlyingassumption)(四)被强有力支持的解释性假说(well-supportedexplanatoryhypotheses)(五)结构上相似的论点的平行结构(parallelsbetweenstructurallysimilararguments)二、论点评价(argumentevaluation)这一方面的问题主要让你在分析既定的论点基础之上去识别:(一)加强或削弱既定论点的因素(factorsthatwouldstrengthen,orweaken,thegivenargume nt)(二)在进行论述时所犯的推理错误(reasoningerrorscommittedinmakingthatargument)(三)进行论述所使用的方法(themethodbywhichtheargumentproceeds)三、形成并且评价行动方案(formulatingandevaluatingaplanofaction)这方面的问题主要让你去识别:(一)不同行动方案的相对合适性、有效性或效率(therelativeappropriateness,effectiveness,orefficiencyofdifferentplansofaction)(二)加强或削弱拟议行动方案成功可能的因素(factorsthatwouldstrengthen,orweaken,theprospectsofsuccessforaproposedplanofaction)(三)拟议行动计划所基于的假设(assumptionsunderlyingaproposedplanofaction)根据逻辑推理题的考查内容,我们认为熟悉逻辑推理的主要题型对你大有裨益,下面是我们在考试中将遇到的十一类逻辑推理题。
LSAT分析推理篇分析推理部分一般分四组,共有24个问题。
每组里面的每一个问题都基于一系列的条件,这些条件共同描述一种情况。
例如,把人分成几组,把物品按顺序排列等等。
这部分试题主要测试考生理解有关关系结构并推出结论的能力,于GRE考试逻辑部分极为相象。
【题型概况】1.有关分布的题型Six campers:Alice,Betty,Carmen,Dora,Gina,and Harriet are arranging a dishwashing schedule for the six days of their camping trip so that each of them will wash dishes on only one day.Betty washes either on day 2 or day 6.If Alice washes on day I,Carmen washes on day 4;Carmen does not wash on day 4 unless Alice washes on day I.If Alice washes on day I, Harriet washes on day 5; Harriet does not wash on day 5 unless Alice washes on day 1.If Gina does not wash on day 3, Alice washes on day 3.If Alice washes on day 4, Dora washes on day 5.If Betty washes on day 2, Gina washes on day 5.If Harriet washes on day 6, Dora washes on day 4.Question:*Which one of the following is an acceptable order in which the campers can wash dishes from the first to the last day?(A) Dora, Betty, Alice, Gina, Carmen, Harriet(B) Betty, Alice, Harriet, Carmen, Gina, Dora(C) Harriet, Gina, Betty, Carmen, Dora, Alice(D) Carmen, Betty, Alice, Dora, Gina, Harriet(E) Alice, Betty, Dora, Carmen, Gina, Harriet*If Dora washes on day 6, on which day does Carmen wash?(A) I (B) 2 (C)3 (D) 4 (E) 52.有关排列次序的问题Each of seven travelers—Norris,Oribe,Paulsen,Rosen,Semonelli, Tan, and Underwood—will be assigned to exactly one of nine airplane seats. The seats are numbered from 1 through 9 and arranged in rows as follows:Front row: 1 2 3Middle row: 4 5 6Last row: 7 8 9Only seats in the same row as each other are immediately beside each other. Seat assignments must meet the following conditions: Oribe’s seat is in the last row.Paulsen’s seat is immediately beside Rosen’s seat and also immediately beside an unassigned seat.Rosen’s seat is in the row immediately behind the row in which Norris’seat is located.Neither Semonelli nor Underwood is seated immediately beside Norris.Question:*Which one of the following is a pair of travelers who could be assigned to seats 2 and 8, respectively?(A) Norris, Semonelli(B) Oribe, Underwood(C) Paulsen, Oribe(D) Rosen, Semonelli(E) Underwood, Tan*If Semonelli and Underwood are not assigned to seats in the same row as each other, which one of the following must be false?(A) Norris is assigned to seat 2.(B) Paulsen is assigned to seat 5.(C) Rosen is assigned to seat 4.(D) Tan is assigned to seat 2.(E) Underwood is assigned to seat 1.3.有关编组的问题A jeweler makes a single strand of beads by threading onto a string in a single direction from a clasp a series of solid-colored beads. Each bead is either green, orange, purple, red, or yellow. The resulting strand satisfies the following specifications: If a purple bead is adjacent to a yellow bead, any bead that immediately follows and any bead that immediately precedes that pair must be red.Any pair of beads adjacent to each other that are the same color as each other must be green.No orange bead can be adjacent to any red bead.Any portion of the strand containing eight consecutive beads must include at least one bead of each color.Question:*If the strand has exactly eight beads, which one of the following is an acceptable order,starting from the clasp,for the eight beads?(A) green, red, purple, yellow, red, orange, green,purple(B) orange, yellow, red, red, yellow, purple, red,green(C) purple, yellow, red, green, green, orange,yellow, orange(D) red, orange, red, yellow, purple, green, yellow,green(E) red, yellow, purple, red, green, red, green, green*If an orange bead is the fourth bead from the clasp, which one of the following is a pair that could be the second and third beads, respectively?(A) green, orange(B) green, red(C) purple, purple(D) yellow, green(E) yellow, purple4.有关空间分布的问题At an evening concert, a total of six songs—O, P,T, X, Y, and Z—will be performed by three vocalists—George, Helen, and Leslie. The songs will be sung consecutively as solos, and each will be performed exactly once.The following constraints govern the composition of the concert program:Y must be performed earlier than T and earlier than O.P must be performed earlier than Z and later than O.George can perform only X, Y, and Z.Helen can perform only T, P, and X.Leslie can perform only O, P, and X.The vocalist who performs first must be different from the vocalist who performs last.Question:*Which one of the following is an acceptable schedule for the performance of the songs,in order from the first to last song performed?(A) X, T, Y, O, P, Z(B) X, Z, Y, T, O, P(C) Y, O, P, X, T, Z(D) Y, P, O, Z, T, X(E) Y, X, O, P, Z, T*Which one of the following must be true about the program?(A) George performs X.(B) Helen performs O.(C) Helen performs T.(D) Leslie performs P.(E) Leslie performs X.【解题技巧】1.在解答每一组问题时,将其作为一个单元。
美国法学院入学考试LSAT阅读真题9SECTION IITime 35 minutes 27 QuestionsDirections: Each passage in this section is followed by a group of questions to be answered on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. For some of the questions, more than one of the choices could conceivably answer the question. However, you are to choose the best answer, that is, the response that most accurately and completely answers the question, and blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet.The extent of a nation’s power over its coastal ecosystems and the natural resources in its coastal waters has been defined by two international law doctrines: freedom of the seas and adjacent state sovereignty. Until the mid-twentieth century, most nations favored application of broad open-seas freedoms and limited sovereign rights over coastal waters. A nation had the right to include within its territorial dominion only a very narrow band of coastal waters (generally extending three miles from the shoreline), within which it had the authority but not the responsibility, to regulate all activities. But, because this area of territorial dominion was so limited, most nations did not establish rules for management or protection of their territorial waters.Regardless of whether or not nations enforced regulations in their territorial waters, large ocean areas remained free of controls or restrictions. The citizens of all nations had the right to use these unrestricted ocean areas for any innocent purpose, including navigation and fishing. Except for controls over its own citizens, no nation had the responsibility, let alone the unilateralauthority, to control such activities in international waters. And, since there were few standards of conduct that applied on the “open seas”, there were few jurisdictional conflicts between nations.The lack of standards is traceable to popular perceptions held before the middle of this century. By and large, marine pollution was not perceived as a significant problem, in part because the adverse effect of coastal activities on ocean ecosystems was not widely recognized, and pollution caused by human activities was generally believed to be limited to that caused by navigation.Moreover, the freedom to fish, or overfish, was an essential element of the traditional legal doctrine of freedom of the seas that no maritime country wished to see limited. And finally, the technology that later allowed exploitation of other ocean resources, such as oil, did not yet exist.To date, controlling pollution and regulating ocean resources have still not been comprehensively addressed by law, but international law—established through the customs and practices of nations—does not preclude such efforts.And two recent developments may actually lead to future international rules providing for ecosystem management. First, the establishment of extensive fishery zones extending territorial authority as far as 200 miles out from a country’s coast, has provided the opportunity for nations individually to manage larger ecosystems. This opportunity, combined with national self-interest in maintaining fish populations, could lead nations to reevaluate policies formanagement of their fisheries and to address the problem of pollution in territorial waters. Second, the internationalcommunity is beginning to understand the importance of preserving the resources and ecology of international waters and to show signs of accepting responsibility for doing so.As an international consensus regarding the need for comprehensive management of ocean resources develops, it will become more likely that international standards and policies for broader regulation of human activities that affect ocean ecosystems will be adopted and implemented.1. According to the passage, until the mid-twentieth century there were few jurisdictional disputes over international waters because.(A) the nearest coastal nation regulated activities(B) few controls or restrictions applied to ocean areas(C) the ocean areas were used for only innocent purposes(D) the freedom of the seas doctrine settled all claims concerning navigation and fishing(E) broad authority over international waters was shared equally among all nations2. According to the international law doctrines applicable before themid-twentieth century, if commercial activity within a particular nation’s territorial waters threatened all marine life in those waters, the nation would have been(A) formally censured by an international organization for not properly regulating marine activities(B) called upon by other nations to establish rules to protect its territorial waters(C) able but not required to place legal limits on such commercial activities(D) allowed to resolve the problem at it own discretionproviding it could contain the threat to its own territorial waters(E) permitted to hold the commercial offenders liable only if they were citizens of that particular nation3. The author suggests that, before the mid-twentieth cen tury, most nations’ actions with respect to territorial and international waters indicated that(A) managing ecosystems in either territorial or international waters was given low priority(B) unlimited resources in international waters resulted in little interest in territorial waters(C) nations considered it their responsibility to protect territorial but not international waters(D) a nation’s authority over its citizenry ended at territorial lines(E) although nations could extend their territorial dominion beyond three milesfrom their shoreline, most chose not to do so4. The author cites which one of the following as an effect of the extension of territorial waters beyond the three-mile limit?(A) increased political pressure on individual nations to establish comprehensive laws regulating ocean resources(B) a greater number of jurisdictional disputes among nations over the regulation of fishing on the open seas(C) the opportunity for some nations to manage large ocean ecosystems(D) a new awareness of the need to minimize pollution caused by navigation(E) a political incentive for smaller nations to solve the problems of pollution in their coastal waters5. According to the passage, before the middle of thetwentieth century, nations failed to establish rules protecting their territorial waters because(A) the waters appeared to be unpolluted and to contain unlimited resources(B) the fishing industry would be adversely affected by such rules(C) the size of the area that would be subject to such rules was insignificant(D) the technology needed for pollution control and resource management did not exist(E) there were few jurisdictional conflicts over nations’ territorial waters6. The passage as a whole can best be described as(A) a chronology of the events that have led up to present-day crisis(B) a legal inquiry into the abuse of existing laws and the likelihood of reform(C) a political analysis of the problems inherent in directing national attention to an international issue(D) a historical analysis of a problem that requires international attention(E) a proposal for adopting and implementing international standards to solve an ecological problem参考答案:1-6 BCACCDThe human species came into being at the time of the greatest biological diversity in the history of the Earth. Today, as human populations expand and alter the natural environment, they are reducing biological diversity to its lowest level since the end of the Mesozoic era, 65 million years ago. The ultimate consequences of this biological collision are beyond calculation,but they are certain to be harmful. That, in essence, is the biodiversity crisis.The history of global diversity can be summarized as follows: after the initial flowering of multicellular animals, there was a swift rise in the number of species in early Paleozoic times (between 600 and 430 million years ago), thenplateaulike stagnation for the remaining 200 million years of the Paleozoic era, and finally a slow but steady climb through the Mesozoic and Cenozoic era s to di versity’s all-time high. This history suggests that biological diversity was hard won and a long time in coming. Furthermore, this pattern of increase was set back by five massive extinction episodes. The most recent of these, during the Cretaceous period, is by far the most famous, because it ended the age of the dinosaurs, conferred hegemony on the mammals, and ultimately made possible the ascendancy of the human species. But the cretaceous crisis was minor compared with the Permian extinctions 240 million years ago, during which between 77 and 96 percent of marine animal species perished. It took 5 million years, well into Mesozoic times, for species diversity to begin a significant recovery.Within the past 10,000 years biological diversity has entered a wholly new era. Human activity has had a devastating effect on species diversity, and the rate of human-induced extinctions is accelerating. Half of the bird species of Polynesia have been eliminated through hunting and the destruction of native forests. Hundreds of fish species endemic to Lake Victoria are now threatened with extinction following the careless introduction of one species of fish, the Nile perch. The list of such biogeographic disasters is extensive.Because every species is unique and irreplaceable, the loss ofbiodiversity is the most profound process of environmental change. Its consequences are also the least predictable because the value of Earth’s biota (the fauna and flora collectively) remains largely unstudied and unappreciated; unlike material and cultural wealth, which we understand because they are the substance of our everyday lives, biological wealth is usually taken for granted. This is a serious strategic error, one that will be increasingly regretted as time passes. The biota is not only part of a country’s heritage, the product of millions of years of evolution centered on that place; it is also a potential source for immense untapped material wealth in the form of food, medicine, and other commercially important substance.7. Which one of the following best expresses the main idea of the passage?(A) The reduction in biodiversity is an irreversible process that represents a setback both for science and for society as a whole.(B) The material and cultural wealth of a nation are insignificant when compared with the country’s biological wealth.(C) The enormous diversity of life on Earth could not have come about without periodic extinctions that have conferred preeminence on one species at the expense of another.(D) The human species is in the process of initiating a massive extinction episode that may make past episodes look minor by comparison.(E) The current decline in species diversity is human-induced tragedy of incalculable proportions that has potentially grave consequences for the humanspecies.8. Which one of the following situations is most analogous to the history of global diversity summarized in lines 10-18 of the passage?(A) The number of fish in a lake declines abruptly as a result of water pollution, then makes a slow comeback after cleanup efforts and the passage of ordinances against dumping.(B) The concentration of chlorine in the water supply of large city fluctuates widely before stabilizing at a constant and safe level.(C) An old-fashioned article of clothing goes in and out of style periodically as a result of features in fashion magazines and the popularity of certain period films.(D) After valuable mineral deposits are discovered, the population of a geographic region booms then levels off and begins to decrease at a slow and steady pace.(E) The variety of styles stocked by a shoe store increases rapidly after the store opens, holds constant for many months, and then gradually creeps upward.9. The author suggests which one of the following about the Cretaceous crisis?(A) It was the second most devastating extinction episode in history.(B) It was the most devastating extinction episode up until that time.(C) It was less devastating to species diversity than is the current biodiversity crisis.(D) The rate of extinction among marine animal species as a result of the crisis did not approach 77 percent.(E) The dinosaurs comprised the great majority of species that perished during the crisis.10. The author mentions the Nile perch in order to provide an example of(A) a species that has become extinct through human activity(B) the typical lack of foresight that has led to biogeographic disaster(C) a marine animal species that survived the Permian extinctions(D) a species that is a potential source of material wealth(E) the kind of action that is necessary to reverse the decline in species diversity11. All of the following are explicitly mentioned in the passage as contributing to the extinction of species EXCEPT(A) hunting(B) pollution(C) deforestation(D) the growth of human populations(E) human-engineered changes in the environment12. The passage suggests which one of the following about material and cultural wealth?(A) Because we can readily assess the value of material and cultural wealth, we tend not to take them for granted.(B) Just as the biota is a source of potential material wealth, it is an untapped source of cultural wealth as well.(C) Some degree of material and cultural wealth may have to be sacrificed if we are to protect our biological heritage.(D) Material and cultural wealth are of less value than biological wealth because they have evolved over a shorter period of time.(E) Material wealth and biological wealth are interdependent in a way that material wealth and cultural wealth are not.13. The author would be most likely to agree with which one of the following statements about the consequences of the biodiversity crisis?(A) The loss of species diversity will have as immediate an impact on the material of nations as on their biological wealth.(B) The crisis will likely end the hegemony of the human race and bring about the ascendancy of another species.(C) The effects of the loss of species diversity will be dire, but we cannot yet tell how dire.(D) It is more fruitful to discuss the consequences of the crisis in terms of the potential loss to humanity than in strictly biological loss to humanity than in strictly biological terms.(E) The consequences of the crisis can be minimized, but the pace of extinctions can not be reversed.参考答案:7-13 EEDBBACWomen’s participation in the revolutionary events in France between 1789 and 1795 has only recently been given nuanced treatment. Early twentieth century historians of the French Revolution are typified by Jaures, who, though sympathetic to the women’s movement of his own time, never even mentions its antecedents in revolutionary France. Even today most general histories treat only cursorily a few individual women, like Marie Antoinette. The recent studies by Landes, Badinter, Godineau, and Roudinesco, however, should signal a much-needed reassessment of women’s participation.Godineau and Roudinesco point to three significant phases in that participation. The first, up to mid-1792, involved those women who wrote political tracts. Typical of their orientation to theoretical issues—in Godineaus’s。
美国法学院入学考试LSAT介绍美国法学院入学考试LSAT介绍本文分为三大部分,第一部分为LSAT概况,主要介绍其考察内容、考试时间、考点及费用;第二部分为LSAT题型简介;第三部分为店铺从网上搜集的经验分享,包括备考资料的推荐以及备考方法的整理,希望能助大家一臂之力。
一、LSAT概况LSAT是Law School Admission Test的简称,即法学院入学考试,是由位于美国宾西法尼亚州的法学院入学委员会(Law School Admission Council,简称LSAC)负责主办的法学院入学资格考试。
几乎所有的美国法学院都要求JD(Juris Doctor)学位申请人参加LSAT考试。
作为申请的必备条件之一,法学院利用这一标准化考试评估申请人的阅读和文字推理能力。
(一)LSAT考查内容LSAT主要测试考生准确阅读并理解复杂文章的能力、组织有关信息并得出合理结论的能力、批判性地推理的能力、以及对他人的推理进行分析和评价的能力。
LSAT考试包括六个部分:(1)2个部分的逻辑推理(Logical Reasoning: short arguments, 24-26 questions each)(2)1个部分的阅读理解(Reading Comprehension: 4 reading passages, 26-28 total questions)(3)1个部分的分析推理(Analytical Reasoning: 4 logic games, 22-24 total questions)(4)1个不计分的评测部分,题型可能是以上三种中的任一种,供入学委员会测试未来可能的考题。
(5)1个不计分的写作部分,会被作为writing sample的参考寄到所有申请学校。
每部分考试时间为35分钟,在第3个和第4个部分之间有10至15分钟的休息时间,除了写作部分为最后一步,其他4个部分顺序不定。
(二)LSAT考试时间LSAT每年举办四次,分别在2月、6月、10月及12月。
LSAT考试分析推理题:无法削弱大家都知道想进入美国的法学院就读并不是一件容易的事情,必须参加法学院入学考试LSAT,而这项考试并不是那么容易,每一门都需要投入时间和精力。
本文为大家搜集了LSAT考试分析推理题,大家快来看看吧~LSAT考试分析推理题:无法削弱24. Between 1951 and 1963, it was illegal in the country of Geronia to manufacture, sell, or transport any alcoholic beverages. Despite this prohibition, however, the death rate form diseases during the first five years of the period than it was during the five years prior to 1951. Therefore, the attempt to prevent alcohol use merely make people want and use alcohol more than they would have it had not been forbidden.Each of the following, if true, weakens the argument EXCEPT:(A) Death form an alcohol-related disease generally does not occur until five to ten years after the onset of excessive alcohol consumption.(B) The diseases that can be caused by excessive alcohol consumption can also be caused by other kinds of behavior that increased between 1951 and 1963.(C) The death rate resulting from alcohol-related diseases increase just as sharply during the ten years before and the ten years after the prohibition of alcohol as it did during the years of prohibition.(D) Many who died of alcohol-related diseases between 1951 and 1963 consumed illegally imported alcoholic beverages produced by the same methods as those used within Geronia.(E) Between 1951 and 1963, among the people with preexisting alcohol-related diseases, the percentage who obtained lifesaving medical attention declined because of a social stigma attached to excessive alcohol consumption.答案:D原文:因为戒酒法律执行期间,因为VIRUS而引起的DEATH上升。
LSAT考试全真题四参考答案section 1:bacde bdcba cbcdb eaada cddec edsection2:bdbcd cabce ecdaa abeeb adaeasection 3:beded deced bdbce aaadb acbdd bsection 4:daabc abcea badbe adeee edcsection 1:bacde bdcba cbcdb eaada cddec edsection2:bdbcd cabce ecdaa abeeb adaeasection 3:beded deced bdbce aaadb acbdd bsection 4:daabc abcea badbe adeee edcsection 1:bacde bdcba cbcdb eaada cddec edsection2:bdbcd cabce ecdaa abeeb adaeasection 3:beded deced bdbce aaadb acbdd bsection 4:daabc abcea badbe adeee edcsection 1:bacde bdcba cbcdb eaada cddec edsection2:bdbcd cabce ecdaa abeeb adaeasection 3:beded deced bdbce aaadb acbdd bsection 4:daabc abcea badbe adeee edcsection 1:bacde bdcba cbcdb eaada cddec edsection2:bdbcd cabce ecdaa abeeb adaeasection 3:beded deced bdbce aaadb acbdd bsection 4:daabc abcea badbe adeee edcsection 1:bacde bdcba cbcdb eaada cddec edsection2:bdbcd cabce ecdaa abeeb adaeasection 3:beded deced bdbce aaadb acbdd bsection 4:daabc abcea badbe adeee edcsection 1:bacde bdcba cbcdb eaada cddec edsection2:bdbcd cabce ecdaa abeeb adaeasection 3:beded deced bdbce aaadb acbdd bsection 4:daabc abcea badbe adeee edcsection 1:bacde bdcba cbcdb eaada cddec edsection2:bdbcd cabce ecdaa abeeb adaeasection 3:beded deced bdbce aaadb acbdd bsection 4:daabc abcea badbe adeee edcsection 1:bacde bdcba cbcdb eaada cddec edsection2:bdbcd cabce ecdaa abeeb adaeasection 3:beded deced bdbce aaadb acbdd bsection 4:daabc abcea badbe adeee edcsection 1:bacde bdcba cbcdb eaada cddec edsection2:bdbcd cabce ecdaa abeeb adaeasection 3:beded deced bdbce aaadb acbdd bsection 4:daabc abcea badbe adeee edc。
LSAT 逻辑游戏题On Wednesday, a legislator remembers that she must vote on seven bills-defense, environment, free trade, gun control, health care, immigration, and judicial activism-by the end of the week. Because the legislator wants to align herself with a major political party, she will vote on the seven bills in accordance with the following conditions:She votes for the gun control bill only if she votes against the environment bill.Unless she votes against the judicial activism bill, she will vote for the immigration bill.She will vote for either the environment bill, the judicial activism bill, or both.She votes for the gun control bill if she votes for both the health care bill and the defense bill.1. Which one of the following could be a complete and accurate list of the bills the legislator votes against?(A) free trade, gun control, immigration, judicial activism(B) defense, free trade, gun control, health care, immigration(C) free trade, health care, immigration, judicial activism(D) environment, gun control, health care, judicial activism(E) defense, environment, gun control, health care2. If the legislator votes against the judicial activism bill, then which one of the following CANNOT be true?(A) She votes against both the defense bill and the gun control bill.(B) She votes against both the gun control bill and the health care bill.(C) She votes for both the health care bill and the defense bill.(D) She votes for both the health care bill and the environment bill.(E) She votes for both the environment bill and the free trade bill.3. Which one of the following CANNOT be true?(A) The legislator votes for neither the gun control bill nor the immigration bill.(B) The legislator votes for neither the environment bill nor the immigration bill.(C) The legislator votes for neither the gun control bill nor the health care bill.(D) The legislator votes for neither the health care bill nor the free trade bill.(E) The legislator votes for neither the free trade bill nor the immigration bill.4. If the legislator votes against the immigration bill, then which one of the following is the minimum number of the seven bills she must also vote against?(A) one(B) two(C) three(D) four(E) five5. If the legislator votes for the gun control bill, then which one of the following must be true?(A) She votes for the health care bill or the defense bill.(B) She votes against the health care bill or the defense bill.(C) She votes against the judicial activism bill.(D) She votes for the immigration bill.(E) She votes against the immigration bill.6. If the legislator votes against the judicial activism bill, then each of the following could be true EXCEPT:(A) She votes against the health care bill and the defense bill.(B) She votes for the health care bill and the defense bill.(C) She votes against the health care bill and the gun control bill.(D) She votes against the free trade bill and the gun control bill.(E) She votes for the environment bill and the free trade bill.7. Suppose the condition is added that if the legislator votes for the free trade bill, then she will vote against the judicial activism bill. If allother conditions remain in effect, then each of the following must be true EXCEPT:(A) If she votes for the free trade bill, then she votes against the gun control bill.(B) If she votes against the environment bill, then she also votes against the free trade bill.(C) If she votes against the immigration bill, then she votes for the free trade bill.(D) If she votes against the judicial activism bill, then she also votes against the gun control bill.(E) If she votes against the immigration bill, then she also votes against at least three other bills.。
LSAT第01套SECTION IIITime 35 minutes 26 QuestionsDirections: Each passage in this section is followed by a group of questions to be answered on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. For some of the questions, more than oneof the choices could conceivably answer the question. However, you are to choose the best answer, that is, the response that most accurately and completely answers the question, and blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet.Immigrants’ adoption of English as their primary language is one measure of assimilation into the larger United States society. Generally languages define social groups and provide justification for social structures. Hence, a distinctive language sets a cultural group off from the dominant language group. Throughout United States history this pattern has resulted in one consistent, unhappy consequence, discrimination against members of the cultural minority. Language differences provide both a way to rationalize subordination and a ready means for achieving it.Traditionally, English has replaced the native language of immigrant groups by the second or third generation. Some characteristics of today’s Spanish-speaking population, however, suggest the possibility of a departure from this historical pattern. Many families retain ties in Latin America and move back and forth between their present and former communities. This “revolving door” phenomenon, along with the high probability of additional immigrants from the south, means that large Spanish-speaking communities are likely to exist in the United States for the indefinite future.This expectation underlies the call for national support for bilingual education in Spanish-speaking communities’ public schools. Bilingual education can serve different purposes, however. In the 1960s, such programs were established to facilitate the learning of English so as to avoid disadvantaging children in their other subjects because of their limited English. More recently, many advocates have viewed bilingual education as a means to maintain children’s native languages and cultures. The issue is important for people with different political agendas, from absorption at one pole to separatism at the other.To date, the evaluations of bilingual education’s impact on learning have been inconclusive. The issue of bilingual education has, nevertheless, served to unite the leadership of the nation’s Hispanic communities. Grounded in concerns about status that are directly traceable to the United States history of discrimination against Hispanics, the demand for maintenance of the Spanish language in the schools is an assertion of the worth of a people and their culture. If the United States is truly a multicultural nation—that is, if it is one culture reflecting the contributions of many—this demand should be seen as a demand not for separation but for inclusion.More direct efforts to force inclusion can be misguided. For example, movements to declare English the official language do not truly advance the cohesion of a multicultural nation. They alienate the twenty million people who do not speak English as their mother tongue. They are unnecessary since the public’s business is already conducted largely in English. Further, given the present state of understanding about the effects of bilingual education on learning, itwould be unwise to require the universal use of English. Finally, it is for parents and local communities to choose the path they will follow, including how much of their culture they want to maintain for their children.1. It can be inferred from the passage that one of the characteristics of immigrantgroups to the United States has traditionally been that, after immigration,relatively few members of the group(A) became politically active in their new communities(B) moved back and forth repeatedly between the United States and their formercommunities(C) used their native languages in their new communities(D) suffered discrimination in their new communities at the hands of the culturalmajority(E) sought assimilation into the dominant culture of the new communities theywere entering2. The passage suggests that one of the effects of the debate over bilingualeducation is that it has(A) given the Hispanic community a new-found pride in its culture(B) hampered the education of Spanish-speaking students(C) demonstrated the negative impact on imposing English as the official UnitedStates language(D) provided a common banner under which the Spanish-speaking communitiescould rally(E) polarized the opinions of local Spanish-speaking community leaders3. In lines 38-39, the phrase “different political agendas” refers specifically toconflicting opinions regarding the(A) means of legislating the assimilation of minorities into United States society(B) methods of inducing Hispanics to adopt English as their primary language(C) means of achieving nondiscriminatory education for Hispanics(D) official given responsibility for decisions regarding bilingual education(E) extent to which Hispanics should blend into the larger United States society4. In lines 64-65 the author says that “It would be unwise to require the universaluse of English.” One reason for this, according to the author, is that(A) it is not clear yet whether requiring the universal use of English wouldpromote or hinder the education of children whose English is limited(B) the nation’s Hispanic leaders have shown that bilingual education is mosteffective when it includes the maintenance of the Spanish language in theschools(C) requiring the universal use of English would reduce the cohesion of thenation’s Hispanic communities and leadership(D) the question of language in the schools should be answered by those whoevaluate bilingual education, not by people with specific political agendas(E) it has been shown that bilingual education is necessary to avoiddisadvantaging in their general learning children whose English is limited 5. In the last paragraph, the author of the passage is primarily concerned withdiscussing(A) reasons against enacting a measure that would mandate the forced inclusionof immigrant groups within the dominant United culture(B) the virtues and limitations of declaring English the official language of theUnited States(C) the history of attitudes within the Hispanic community toward bilingualeducation in the United States(D) the importance for immigrant groups of maintaining large segments of theirculture to pass on to their children(E) the difference in cultures between Hispanics and other immigrant groups inthe United StatesThe refusal of some countries to extradite persons accused or convicted of terrorist act has focused attention on the problems caused by the political offense exception to extradition. Extradition is the process by which one country returns an accused or convicted person found within its borders to another country for trial or punishment. Under the political offense exception, the requested state may, if it considers the crime to be a “political offense,” deny extradition to the requesting state.Protection of political offenses is a recent addition to the ancient practice of extradition. It is the result of two fundamental changes that occurred as European monarchies were replaced by representative governments. First, these governments began to reject what had been a primary intent of extradition, to expedite the return of political offenders, and instead sought to protect dissidents fleeing despotic regimes. Second, countries began to contend that they had no legal or moral duty to extradite offenders without specific agreements creating such obligations. As extradition laws subsequently developed through international treaties, the political offense exception gradually became an accepted principle among Western nations.There is no international consensus, however, as to what constitutes a political offense. For analytical purposes illegal political conduct has traditionally been divided into two categories. “Pure” political offenses are acts perpetrated directly against the government, such as treason and espionage. These crimes are generally recognized as nonextraditable, even if not expressly excluded from extradition by the applicable treaty. In contrast, common crimes, such as murder, assault, and robbery, are generally extraditable. However, there are some common crimes that are so inseparable from a political act that the entire offense is regarded as political. These crimes, which are called “relative” political offenses, are generally nonextraditable. Despite the widespread acceptance of these analytic constructs, the distinctions are more academic than meaningful. When it comes to real cases, there is no agreement about what transforms a common crime into a political offense and about whether terrorist acts fall within the protection of the exception. Most terrorists claim that their acts do fall under this protection.Nations of the world must now balance the competing needs of political freedom and international public order. It is time to reexamine the political offense exception, as international terrorism eradicates the critical distinctions between political offenses and nonpolitical crimes. The only rational and attainable objective of the exception is to protect the requested person against unfair treatment by the requesting country. The international community needs to find an alternative to the political offense exception that would protect the rights of requested persons and yet not offer terrorists immunity from criminal liability.6. In the passage, the author primarily seeks to(A) define a set of terms(B) outline a new approach(C) describe a current problem(D) expose an illegal practice(E) present historical information7. According to the passage, when did countries begin to except political offendersfrom extradition?(A) when the principle of extraditing accused or convicted persons originated(B) when some nations began refusing to extradite persons accused or convictedof terrorist acts(C) when representative governments began to replace European monarchies(D) when countries began to refuse to extradite persons accused or convicted ofcommon crimes(E) when governments began to use extradition to expedite the return of politicaloffenders8. Given the discussion in the passage, which one of the following distinctions doesthe author consider particularly problematic?(A) between common crimes and “relative” political offense(B) between “pure” political offenses and common crimes(C) between “pure” political offenses and “relative” political offenses(D) between terrorist acts and acts of espionage(E) between the political offense exception and other exceptions to extradition9. According to the author, the primary purpose of the political offense exceptionshould be to(A) ensure that terrorists are tried for their acts(B) ensure that individuals accused of political crimes are not treated unfairly(C) distinguish between political and nonpolitical offenses(D) limit extradition to those accused of “pure” political offenses(E) limit extradition to those accused of “relative” political offenses10. It can be inferred from the passage that the author would agree with which one ofthe following statements about the political offense exception?(A) The exception is very unpopular.(B) The exception is probably illegal.(C) The exception is used too little.(D) The exception needs rethinking.(E) The exception is too limited.11. When referring to a balance between “the competing needs of political freedomand international public order” (lines 54-55) the author means that nations must strike a balance between(A) allowing persons to protest political injustice and preventing them fromcommitting political offenses(B) protecting the rights of persons requested for extradition and holdingterrorists criminally liable(C) maintaining the political offense exception to extradition and clearing up theconfusion over what is a political offense(D) allowing nations to establish their own extradition policies and establishingan agreed-upon international approach to extradition(E) protecting from extradition persons accused of “pure” political offenses andensuring the trial of persons accused of “relative” political offenses12. The author would most likely agree that the political offense exception(A) has, in some cases, been stretched beyond intended use(B) has been used too infrequently to be evaluated(C) has been a modestly useful weapon again terrorism(D) has never met the objective for which it was originally established(E) has been of more academic than practical value to political dissidents13. Which one of the following, if true, would give the author most cause toreconsider her recommendation regarding the political offence exception (lines 62-66)?(A) More nations started refusing to extradite persons accused or convicted ofterrorist acts.(B) More nations started extraditing persons accused or convicted of treason,espionage, and other similar crimes.(C) The nations of the world sharply decreased their use of the political offenseexception protect persons accused of each of the various types of “pure”political offenses.(D) The nations of the world sharply decreased their use of the political offenseexception to protect persons accused of each of the various types of“relative” political offenses.(E) The nations of the world started to disagree over the analytical distinctionbetween “pure” political offenses and “relative” political offenses.As is well known and has often been described, the machine industry of recent times took its rise by a gradual emergence out of handicraft in England in the eighteenth century. Since then the mechanical industry has progressively been getting the upper hand in all the civilized nations, in much the same degree in which these nations have come to be counted as civilized. This mechanical industry now stands dominant at the apex of the industrial system.The state of the industrial arts, as it runs on the lines of the mechanical industry, is a technology of physics and chemistry. That is to say, it is governed by the same logic as the scientific laboratories. The procedure, the principles, habits of thought, preconceptions, units of measurement and of valuation, are the same in both cases.The technology of physics and chemistry is not derived from established law and custom, and it goes on its way with as nearly complete a disregard of the spiritual truths of law and custom as the circumstances will permit. The realities with which this technology is occupied are of another order of actuality, lying altogether within the three dimensions that contain the material universe, and running altogether on the logic of material fact. In effect it is the logic of inanimate facts.The mechanical industry makes use of the same range of facts handled in the same impersonal way and directed to the same manner of objective results. In both cases alike it is of the first importance to eliminate the “personal equation,” to let the work go forward and let the forces at work take effect quite objectively, without hindrance or deflection for any personal end, interest, or gain. It is the technician’s place in industry, as it is the scientist’s place in the laboratory, to serve as an intellectual embodiment of the forces at work, isolate the forces engaged from all extraneous disturbances, and let them take full effect along the lines of designed work. The technician is an active or creative factor in the case only in the sense that he is the keeper of the logic which governs the forces at work.These forces that so are brought to bear in mechanical industry are of an objective, impersonal, unconventional nature, of course. They are of the nature of opaque fact. Pecuniary gain is not one of these impersonal facts. Any consideration of pecuniary gain that may be injected into the technician’s working plans will come into the case as an intrusive and alien factor, whose sole effect is to deflect, retard, derange and curtail the work in hand. At the same time considerations of pecuniary gain are the only agency brought into the case by the businessmen, and the only ground on which they exercise a control of production.14. The author of the passage is primarily concerned with discussing(A) industrial organization in the eighteenth century(B) the motives for pecuniary gain(C) the technician’s place in mechanical industry(D) the impersonal organization of industry(E) the material contribution of physics in industrial society15. The author of the passage suggests that businessmen in the mechanical industryare responsible mainly for(A) keeping the logic governing the forces at work(B) managing the profits(C) directing the activities of the technicians(D) employing the technological procedures of physics and chemistry(E) treating material gain as a spiritual truth16. Which one of the following, if true, would contradict the author’s belief that therole of technician is to be “the keeper of the logic” (lines 45-46)?(A) All technicians are human beings with feelings and emotions.(B) An interest in pecuniary gain is the technician’s sole motive for participationin industry.(C) The technician’s working plans do not coincide with the technician’specuniary interests.(D) Technicians are employed by businessmen to oversee the forces at work.(E) Technicians refuse to carry out the instructions of the businessmen.17. The author would probably most strongly agree with which one of the followingstatements about the evolution of the industrial system?(A) The handicraft system of industry emerged in eighteenth-century England andwas subsequently replaced by the machine industry.(B) The handicraft system of industrial production has gradually given rise to amechanistic technology that dominates contemporary industry.(C) The handicraft system emerged as the dominant factor of production ineighteenth-century England but was soon replaced by mechanical techniquesof production.(D) The mechanical system of production that preceded the handicraft systemwas the precursor of contemporary means of production.(E) The industrial arts developed as a result of the growth of the mechanicalindustry that followed the decline of the handicraft system of production. 18. Which one of the following best describes the author’s attitude toward scientifictechniques?(A) critical(B) hostile(C) idealistic(D) ironic(E) neutral(This passage was originally published in 1905)The word democracy may stand for a natural social equality in the body politic or for a constitutional form of government in which power lies more or less directly in the people’s hand. The former may be called social democracy and the later democratic government. The two differ widely, both in origin and in moral principle. Genetically considered, social democracy is something primitive, unintended, proper to communities where there is general competenceand no marked personal eminence. There be no will aristocracy, no prestige, but instead an intelligent readiness to lend a hand and to do in unison whatever is done. In other words, there will be that most democratic of governments—no government at all. But when pressure of circumstances, danger, or inward strife makes recognized and prolonged guidance necessary to a social democracy, the form its government takes is that of a rudimentary monarchy established by election or general consent. A natural leader emerges and is instinctively obeyed. That leader may indeed be freely criticized and will not be screened by any pomp or traditional mystery; he or she will be easy to replace and every citizen will feel essentially his or her equal. Yet such a state is at the beginnings of monarchy and aristocracy.Political democracy, on the other hand, is a late and artificial product. It arises by a gradual extension of aristocratic privileges, through rebellion against abuses, and in answer to restlessness on the people’s part. Its principle is not the absence of eminence, but the discovery that existing eminence is no longer genuine and representative. It may retain many vestiges of older and less democratic institutions. For under democratic governments the people have not created the state; they merely control it. Their suspicions and jealousies are quieted by assigning to them a voice, perhaps only a veto, in the administration. The people’s liberty consists not in their original responsibility for what exists, but merely in the faculty they have acquired of abolishing any detail that may distress or wound them, and of imposing any new measure, which, seen against the background of existing laws, may commend itself from time to time to their instinct and mind.If we turn from origins to ideals, the contrast between social and political democracy is no less marked. Social democracy is a general ethical ideal, looking to human equality and brotherhood, and inconsistent, in its radical form, with such institutions as the family and hereditary property. Democratic government, on the contrary, is merely a means to an end, an expedient for the better and smoother government of certain states at certain junctures. It involves no special ideals of life; it is a question of policy, namely, whether the general interest will be better served by granting all people an equal voice in elections. For political democracy must necessarily be a government by deputy, and the questions actually submitted to the people can be only very large rough matters of general policy or of confidence in party leaders.19. The author suggests that the lack of “marked personal eminence” (line 11) is animportant feature of a social democracy because(A) such a society is also likely to contain the seeds of monarchy and aristocracy(B) the absence of visible social leaders in such a society will probably impedethe development of a political democracy(C) social democracy represents a more sophisticated form of government thanpolitical democracy(D) a society that lacks recognized leadership will be unable to accomplish itscultural objectives(E) the absence of visible social leaders in such a community is likely to beaccompanied by a spirit of cooperation20. Which one of the following forms of government does the author say is mostlikely to evolve from a social democracy?(A) monarchy(B) government by deputy(C) political democracy(D) representative democracy(E) constitutional democracy21. The author of the passage suggests that a political democracy is likely to havebeen immediately preceded by which one of the following forms of socialorganization?(A) a social democracy in which the spirit of participation has been diminished bythe need to maintain internal security(B) an aristocratic society in which government leaders have grown insensitive topeople’s interests(C) a primitive society that stresses the radical equality of all its members(D) a state of utopian brotherhood in which no government exists(E) a government based on general ethical ideals22. According to the passage, “the people’s liberty” (line 42) in a political democracyis best defined as(A) a willingness to accept responsibility for existing governmental forms(B) a myth perpetrated by aristocratic leaders who refuse to grant political powerto their subjects(C) the ability to impose radically new measures when existing governmentalforms are found to be inadequate(D) the ability to secure concessions from a government that may retain manyaristocratic characteristics(E) the ability to elect leaders whom the people consider socially equal tothemselves23. According to the author of this passage, a social democracy would most likelyadopt a formal system of government when(A) recognized leadership becomes necessary to deal with social problems(B) people lose the instinctive ability to cooperate in solving social problems(C) a ruling monarch decides that it is necessary to grant political concessions tothe people(D) citizens no longer consider their social leaders essentially equal to themselves(E) the human instinct to obey social leaders has been weakened by suspicion andjealousy24. According to the passage, which one of the following is likely to occur as a resultof the discovery that “existing eminence is no longer genuine and representative”(lines 35-36)?(A) Aristocratic privileges will be strengthened, which will result in a further lossof the people’s liberty.(B) The government will be forced to admit its responsibility for the inadequacyof existing political institutions.(C) The remaining vestiges of less democratic institutions will be banished fromgovernment.(D) People will gain political concessions from the government and a voice in theaffairs of state.(E) People will demand that political democracy conform to the ethical ideals ofsocial democracy.25. It can be inferred from the passage that the practice of “government by deputy”(line 64) in a political democracy probably has its origins in(A) aristocratic ideals(B) human instincts(C) a commitment to human equality(D) a general ethical ideal(E) a policy decision26. Which one of the following statements, if true, would contradict the author’snotion of the characteristics of social democracy?(A) Organized governmental systems tend to arise spontaneously, rather than inresponse to specific problem situations.(B) The presence of an organized system of government stifles the expression ofhuman equality and brotherhood.(C) Social democracy represents a more primitive form of communalorganization than political democracy.(D) Prolonged and formal leadership may become necessary in a socialdemocracy when problems arise that cannot be resolved by recourse to thegeneral competence of the people.(E) Although political democracy and social democracy are radically differentforms of communal organization, it is possible for both to contain elementsof monarchy.LSAT第02套SECTION ITime 35 minutes 28 QuestionsDirections: Each passage in this section is followed by a group of questions to be answered on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. For some of the questions, more than one of the choices could conceivably answer the question. However, you are to choose the best answer, that is, the response that most accurately and completely answers the question, and blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet.There is substantial evidence that by 1926, with the publication of The Weary Blues, Langston Hughes had broken with two well-established traditions in African American literature. In The Weary Blues, Hughes chose to modify the traditions that decreed that African American literature must promote racial acceptance and integration, and that, in order to do so, it must reflect an understanding and mastery of Western European literary techniques and styles. Necessarily excluded by this decree, linguistically and thematically, was the vast amount of secular folk material in the oral tradition that had been created by Black people in the years of slavery and after. It might be pointed out that even the spirituals or “sorrow songs” of the slaves—as distinct from their secular songs and stories—had been Europeanized to make them acceptable within these African American traditions after the Civil War. In 1862 northern White writers had commented favorably on the unique and provocative melodies of these “sorrow songs” when they first heard them sung by slaves in the Carolina sea islands. But by 1916, ten years before the publication of The Weary Blues, Hurry T. Burleigh, the Black baritone soloist at New York’s ultrafashionable Saint George’s Episcopal Church, had published Jubilee Songs of the United States, with every spiritual arranged so that a concert singer could sing it “in the manner of an art song.” Clearly, the artistic work of Black people could be used to promote racial acceptance and integration only on the condition that it became Europeanized.Even more than his rebellion against this restrictive tradition in African American art, Hughes’s expression of the vibrant folk culture of Black people established his writing as a landmark in the history of African American literature. Most of his folk poems have the distinctive marks of this folk culture’s oral tradition: they contain many instances of naming and enumeration, considerable hyperbole and understatement, and a strong infusion of street-talk rhyming. There is a deceptive veil of artlessness in these poems. Hughes prided himself on being an impromptu and impressionistic writer of poetry. His, he insisted, was not an artfully constructed poetry. Yet an analysis of his dramatic monologues and other poems reveals that his poetry was carefully and artfully crafted. In his folk poetry we find features common to all folk literature, such as dramatic ellipsis, narrative compression, rhythmic repetition, and monosyllabic emphasis. The peculiar mixture of irony and humor we find in his writing is a distinguishing feature of his folk poetry. Together, these aspects of Hughes’s writing helped to modify the previous restrictions on the techniques and subject matter of Black writers and consequently to broaden the linguistic and thematic range of African American literature.1. The author mentions which one of the following as an example of the influenceof Black folk culture on Hughes’s poetry?(A) his exploitation of ambiguous and deceptive meanings(B) his care and craft in composing poems(C) his use of naming and enumeration(D) his use of first-person narrative(E) his strong religious beliefs2. The author suggests that the “deceptive veil” (line 42) in Hughes’s poetryobscures(A) evidence of his use of oral techniques in his poetry(B) evidence of his thoughtful deliberation in composing his poems。
LSAT题型LSAT(Law School Admission Test)是美国法学院入学考试。
作为申请者进入美国法学院的必备考试之一,LSAT考试主要用于评估申请者的逻辑推理、阅读理解和分析问题的能力。
一、LSAT题型概述LSAT考试涵盖了多个题型,包括逻辑推理、阅读理解和分析问题。
每个题型都测试不同的能力和技巧,考生需要针对不同题型制定相应的解题策略。
以下是LSAT 常见的题型:1. 逻辑推理题逻辑推理题主要考察考生的逻辑思维和分析能力。
题干通常会给出一段逻辑论证的论据和结论,考生需要根据所给信息判断论证的有效性、推理的合理性等。
2. 阅读理解题阅读理解题考察考生的阅读理解和理解能力。
考生需要在规定的时间内阅读文章,并回答与文章内容相关的问题。
文章内容涉及法律、哲学、社会科学等多个领域。
3. 分析问题题分析问题题主要考察考生分析问题和解决问题的能力。
题干通常给出一个问题和相关信息,考生需要根据所给信息作出推理、分析和判断。
二、LSAT题型分析接下来将分别对LSAT的三个常见题型进行详细分析。
1. 逻辑推理题分析逻辑推理题是LSAT考试中最常见的题型,占据了考试的很大比例。
逻辑推理题要求考生根据所给的事实和推理进行逻辑推理,判断陈述的真伪、条件的充分性等。
解答这类题目的关键是理解论据和结论,并进行合理的推理。
逻辑推理题可以分为几个常见的类型,包括:•假设题:要求考生根据所给的假设条件判断结论的合理性。
•推理题:要求考生根据所给的事实和条件推理结论。
•强弱化题:要求考生根据所给的信息判断某一论证的论据或结论的强弱。
•概括题:要求考生根据所给的论证内容判断最适合的概括。
在解答逻辑推理题时,考生需要注意判断过程的逻辑合理性,善于分析论证的结构和推理方式,避免被干扰选项所迷惑。
2. 阅读理解题分析阅读理解题在LSAT考试中是必不可少的一部分,考察考生的阅读理解和分析能力。
阅读理解题通常要求考生在规定时间内阅读一篇文章,并回答与文章内容相关的问题。
最全LSAT考试详解最全LSAT考试详解所有法学专业渴望留学的学子都要面对“LAST”这座大山,俗话说知己知彼才能百战不殆,下面就和店铺一起来了解一下这个独具特色的考试吧!LSAT(Law School Admission Test),即法学院入学考试。
它是由位于美国宾西法尼亚州的法学院入学委员会负责主办的法学院入学资格考试。
几乎所有的美国、加拿大法学院、澳大利亚墨尔本大学都要求申请人参加LSAT考试。
LSAT考试共有五个部分(包含一个不记分的供入学委员会评估用的评测部分),包括三个方面的内容,每部分时间为35分钟,另加30分钟的写作。
这三个方面的内容分别是阅读理解、逻辑推理及分析推理,主要测试考生下列几方面的能力:1.准确阅读并理解复杂文章的能力2.组织有关信息并得出合理结论的能力3.批判性地推理的能力4.对他人的推理进行分析和评价的能力考试自1948年起就以某种形式出现,它之所以被创立是在学校平均分GPA之外给予法学院考察申请人水平的标准。
目前的考试是1991年版。
考试分六个部分:4个选择题部分,不计分的写作部分,不计分的实验部分。
原始分值被转化为量表分数,最高180、最低120,平均数为150。
在申请法学院时,过去五年内的所有成绩都将被递交。
LSAT考试满分为180分,最低分为120分,其计算方法是根据选择的正确的答案的数目来确定。
选对25个左右,分数大概为130分;选对39个左右,分数大概为140分;选对55个,分数大致为150分;选对72个,分数为160;选对87个,分数为170分;选对98个以上,分数为满分180分。
一般来说,排名前14的法学院要求成绩都在170分以上;排名前25的法学要求成绩在160分以上。
考试成绩一般在考后五周左右由主办机构寄出,LSAT成绩在5年内有效。
LSAT考试每年举办四次,分别在2月、6月、10月及12月,考生不得在两年内参加超过3次LSAT的考试。
中国大陆地区6月和12月在北京大学有固定考试。
LSAT真题详解(官方解释)Section 1Section 1Time—35 minutes25 Questions1. Sea turtle hatchlings leaving their hatching grounds onFloridabeaches reach ocean currents by swimming to the northeast, as defined by the north of the Earth’s magnetic field.Floridahatchlings placed in a large indoor tank also swim toward the northeast. But when the tank is surrounded by an artificial magnetic field twice as strong as the Earth’s field and opposite in direction, the hatchlings swim in the direction opposite to that in which they swim without the artificial magnetic field.The information in the statements above most strongly supports which one of the following?(A) Once baby sea turtles reach the open sea, they join groups of adults in theNorth Atlantic.(B) The direction in which ocean currents flow is determined by the magnetic field of the Earth.(C) Baby sea turtles are able to sense the magnetic field of the Earth.(D) No sea turtle ever returns to the beach where it hatched.(E) If a sea turtle hatches on the coast ofAfrica, it will swim toward the southwest.General Description: This question asks you to draw an inference based on the information presented. It is not enough that a response be true, if the information in that response is irrelevant to the information presented. Nor is it sufficient that a response present information that is merely consistent with the information presented in the passage; the best answer must present information that is supported by the information in the passage.A. Incorrect. Since the passage does not say anything about adult sea turtles, or about the location of the adults, this claim is not supported by information in the passage.B. Incorrect. The passage does not provide any information about the relation between ocean currents and the magnetic field of the Earth, and so this response is not correct.C. Correct. Though the passage does not draw the conclusion that baby sea turtles can sense the magnetic field, the fact that the hatchling change their direction certainly suggests that the hatchlings are responding to changes in the magnetic field. And if the hatchlings respond to the changes, then on reasonable inference is that they are able to sense the magnetic field. So, this is the best answer.D. Incorrect. The information in the passage about the behavior of sea turtle hatchlings in the wild deals only with their behavior as they leave their hatching grounds. It provides no support for a claim about the sea turtles’ behavior after they have left their hatching rounds.E. Incorrect. The passage does not provide any information that would justify an inference about the behavior of hatchlings on the coast ofAfrica.Difficulty Level: EasyTips and Pitfalls: Read questions carefully. If a question asks which statement is supported by the passage, do not choose a response just because it seems on independent grounds to be plausible or likely--you must pick a response based on the information given in the passage. Question 2-3Twenty percent of the population of Springhill has been toItalyat least once in the last fiveyears, and thirty percent of the population of Springhill has been toFranceat least once in the last five years. Therefore, half of the population of Springhill has been toEuropeat least once in the last five years.2. The argument is faulty because it ignores the possibility that(A) some of the population of Springhill has been neither toItalynor toFrancein the last five years.(B) some of the population of Springhill has been both toItalyand toFrancein the last five years.(C) some of the population of Springhill has been either toItalyor toFrancein the last five years, but not to both.(D) none of the population of Springhill has been to any country inEuropeother thanItalyorFrancein the last five years.(E) none of the population of Springhill has been either toItalyor toFrancemore than once in the last five years.General Description: This question asks you to identify the logical problem in an argument caused by failure to consider a logically relevant possibility. The best answer, then, will not merely present some possibility the argument fails to consider. Rather, it will be something the argument should have considered: a possibility that, if it turned out to be true, would tend to undermine the reasoning leading to the argument’s conclusion.A. Incorrect. It would not make the argument flawed to have ignored this possibility: the argument’s conclusion is consistent with the possibility that the other half of Springhill’s population has never been toEuropeat all. Because the conclusion is consistent with this possibility, the argument does not need to address it.B. Correct. If there were no overlap between the travelers to Italy and the Travelers to France, then the argument’s premises would provide good evidence for its conclusion: 20%+30%=50%. But the argument has presented no reason to suppose that there is no such overlap, and to the extent that there is, the argument is undermined. That is, if some people are counted both in theItalygroup and in theFrancegroup, then the two groups together do not add up to 50%. (B) describes just this problem and is the best answer.C. Incorrect. Far from ignoring this possibility, the argument seems to be assuming that it is actual. In fact, the greater the number of people from Springhill who have been toItalyor toFrancein the last five years, but not to both, the stronger the argument.D. Far from ignoring this possibility, the argument seems to be assuming that it is actual. For if there were people FORM Springhill who had been to other European countries in the last five years, the argument would be stronger for mentioning them.E. Incorrect. The argument is not faulty in ignoring this possibility, because it is irrelevant: The argument is about numbers of people who have been toItalyand/orFrance(and thusEurope) at least once in the last five years.Difficulty Level: EasyTips and Pitfalls: Though answering LSAT questions does not require perFORMing any mathematical calculations, the questions do assume a college-level understanding of concepts that may be termed “mathematical,” including “percent.”3. McBride’s and Leggett’s statements commit them to disagreeing about the truth of which one of the following?(A) The manufacture of full-size cars should be discouraged.(B) Fuel conservation is less important than safety in case of a collision.(C) When a full-size car and a subcompact car collide, the occupants of the full-size car are less likely than the occupants of the subcompact car to be seriously injured.(D) Reducing the number of full-size cars on the highway will reduce the frequency of collisions between automobiles.(E) The new fuel-efficiency standards will encourage automobile manufacturers to build more subcompact cars.General Description: Since the question asks you to determine a point of disagreement between McBride and Leggett, the best answer will be the on describing a point that McBride accepts and Leggett rejects—or vice versa.A. Correct. McBride opposes the introduction of fuel-efficiency standards precisely because these standards will discourage the manufacture of full-size cars, calling that prospect “troubling.” So McBride would disagree with (A). Leggett, on the other hand, explicitly disagrees with McBride’s position, arguing that the standards ought to be supported precis ely because they discourage the manufacture of full-size cars and thus agreeing with (A). Thus, (A) is the best answer.B. Incorrect. Though McBride and Leggett disagree about whether the standards should be implemented, both clearly are interested in the issue of safety, and it is quite plausible that one or both believe that fuel conservation is less important than is safety. However, this can be the best answer only if there is evidence that either Leggett or McBride believes that fuel conservation is not less important than is safety; the passage, however, provides no grounds for such an inference.C. Incorrect. The passage does not provide enough information to judge whether McBride and Leggett disagree on this point. McBride’s comments suggest ag reement with it, but it is not clear where Leggett stands on the claim in question. Leggett says only that it is more likely that someone will be seriously injured in a collision if one of the cars is full-size, without specifying the location of the injured person.D. Incorrect. Neither Leggett nor McBride mentions anything about the frequency of accidents; both are more concerned with the likelihood of harm should be accident occur.E. Incorrect. Both Leggett and McBride agree that the new fuel-efficiency standards will discourage automobile manufacturers from building full-size cars. However, it is not clear that either believes that the standards will encourage the manufacture of more subcompact cars (as opposed to some third kind of car). Further, even if it is true that the reduction in full-size cars causes an increase in the manufacture of subcompact cars, this is a point of agreement, not disagreement, between Leggett and McBride. Of those who answered this question incorrectly, the majority chose (E), perhaps confusing the issue of whether manufacturers should be encouraged to build more subcompact cars with the issue of whether they will be encouraged to do so.Difficulty Level: DifficultTips and Pitfalls: When asked to determine a point on which two speakers are committed to agreement or disagreement, be sure to narrow your focus to explicit assertions by the speaker; avoid the temptation to speculate about what (elst) either speaker might believe.4. Which one of the following argumentative strategies does Leggett use in attempting to refuteMcBride’s position?(A) demonstrating that McBride’s claims are contradictory(B) challenging the unstated assumption that all cars are either full-size or subcompact(C) shifting the perspective from which the issue of automobile safety is considered(D) raising doubts about the accuracy of a generalization made by McBride(E) demonstrating that it is impossible to follow the course of action advocated by McBrideGeneral Description: This question asks you to find the description of strategy used by Leggett in arguing against McBride.A. Incorrect. McBride’s and Leggett’s conclusions contradict one another, but there is no suggestion that McBride’s statements themselves contradi ct one another.B. Incorrect. Though the discussion focuses only on full-size and subcompact cars, neither party is presuming that all cars are either full-size or subcompact.C. Correct. From McBride’s perspective, discouraging the manufacture of fu ll-size cars is a bad thing, because McBride is considering the relative safety of a collision of two full-size cars and a “mixed” collision involving one full-size and one subcompact car. Leggett is shifting the perspective: Instead of comparing a mixed collision to a collision of two full-size cars, Leggett compares a two-car collision involving a full-size car to a collision of two subcompact cars. From that perspective, discouraging the manufacture of full-size cars is a good thing, because a collision of two subcompact cars is sager than a collision involving a full-size car. The two agree that the new fuel-efficiency standards will discourage the manufacture of full-size cars, but take different perspectives on the implication of that for automobile safety—and so reach opposite conclusions about whether the new standards should be supported.D. Incorrect. Leggett is raising doubts only about the conclusion McBride draws from the evidence, and that conclusion is “The new fuel-efficiency standards shou ld therefore be opposed,” which is not a generalization. This was the most popular incorrect answer.E. The “course of action advocated by McBride” is to oppose the new fuel-efficiency standards. Leggett is simply arguing in favor of supporting them, not claiming that is impossible take McBride’s course.Difficulty Level: DifficultTips and Pitfalls: In answering questions about “argumentative strategy,” it is imperative that you understand the structure of the argument in question. You also need to be able to compare the strategies described in the responses to the argument structure in the passage: If the response’s strategy cannot be mapped exactly onto the argument structure, that response is not the best answer.5. Concerns for the environment have led chemists to develop plastics that are degradable. All degradable plastics, which are potentially useful packaging materials, need just the right conditions to break down. Some need exposure to sunlight, some need to be buried in soil and some need to be submerged in water. It should be cautioned that some degradable plastics leave residues of unknown toxicity.If all of the statements above are true, which one of the following must also be true?(A) Some materials that are potentially useful for packaging leave residues of unknown toxicity.(B) Some degradable plastics need both sunlight and submersion in order to break down.(C) Some materials that need sunlight in order to break down are not potentially usefulpackaging materials.(D) Some materials that leave residues of unknown toxicity are not degradable plastics.(E) Some materials that need to be buried in soil to break down leave residues of unknown toxicity.General Description: This question asks you to determine which one of the responses must be true, given the info in the passage. This is a very strong requirement. It may be easier to think of the task at determining which choice cannot be false, if the statements in the passage are true. Then you can rule out any choice that could be false.A. Correct. Since the passage tells us that all degradable plastics are potentially useful packaging materials, and also that some degradable plastics leave residues of unknown toxicity, it is necessarily true that some potentially useful packaging materials (namely, those degradable plastics) leave residues of unknown toxicity. This is the best answer.B. Incorrect. Thought it is possible that some plastics would need both sunlight and submersion in order to decompose, the passage merely states that at least one is necessary. So, contrary to (B) it is quite possible that only sunlight or submersion is needed, and thus it is quite possible that (B) is false.C. Incorrect. The passage focuses solely on the status of degradable plastics. However, it is quite possible that there are some other materials--that is, nonplastic materials--that need sunlight to break down. If there are no such materials, of course, the response need not be true. But even if there are, the passage gives no info about the status of these materials--they might or might not be potentially useful packaging materials. So in any case, (C) need not be true.D. Incorrect. The passage says that some degradable plastics leave residues of unknown toxicity, but it does not say whether any substances other than degradable plastics leave such residues. For all we know from the passage, those degradable plastics are the only materials that leave such residues. Consequently, it is quite possible that all materials that leave residues of unknown toxicity are degradable plastics, and thus it is possible for this statement to be false.E. Incorrect. This choice certainly is perfectly consistent with the info in the passage, and thus it certainly may be true. But it may be instead that these residues are left not by plastics that need to be buried in soil to break down, but rather only by the plastics that require submersion in water or exposure to sunlight to break down. Thus, it is possible for this statement to be false.Difficulty Level: Relatively easyTips and Pitfalls: Keep in mind that what "must be true" cannot be false and vice versa; in different questions and with different responses, conceiving of the question in one of these ways or the other may be easier for you. It is also worth repeating that "must be true" (as well as "cannot be false") is a very strong requirement: nothing that merely might be true, could be true, or even is quite likely to be true will be the best answer.。