公司理财第九版课后练习10

罗斯公司理财第九版第十章课后答案对应版第十章：风险与收益：市场历史的启示1. 因为公司的表现具有不可预见性。

2. 投资者很容易看到最坏的投资结果，但是确很难预测到。

3. 不是，股票具有更高的风险，一些投资者属于风险规避者，他们认为这点额外的报酬率还不至于吸引他们付出更高风险的代价。

4. 股票市场与赌博是不同的，它实际是个零和市场，所有人都可能赢。

而且投机者带给市场更高的流动性，有利于市场效率。

5. 在80 年代初是最高的，因为伴随着高通胀和费雪效应。

6. 有可能，当投资风险资产报酬非常低，而无风险资产报酬非常高，或者同时出现这两种现象时就会发生这样的情况。

7. 相同，假设两公司2 年前股票价格都为P0，则两年后G 公司股票价格为1.1*0.9* P0，而S 公司股票价格为0.9*1.1 P0，所以两个公司两年后的股价是一样的。

8. 不相同，Lake Minerals 2年后股票价格= 100(1.10)(1.10) = $121.00 而SmallTown Furniture 2年后股票价格= 100(1.25)(.95) = $118.759. 算数平均收益率仅仅是对所有收益率简单加总平均，它没有考虑到所有收益率组合的效果，而几何平均收益率考虑到了收益率组合的效果，所以后者比较重要。

10. 不管是否考虑通货膨胀因素，其风险溢价没有变化，因为风险溢价是风险资产收益率与无风险资产收益率的差额，若这两者都考虑到通货膨胀的因素，其差额仍然是相互抵消的。

而在考虑税收后收益率就会降低，因为税后收益会降低。

11. R = [($104 – 92) + 1.45] / $92 = .1462 or 14.62%12. Dividend yield = $1.45 / $92 = .0158 or 1.58%Capital gains yield = ($104 – 92) / $92 = .1304 or 13.04%13. R = [($81 – 92) + 1.45] / $92 = –.1038 or –10.38%Dividend yield = $1.45 / $92 = .0158 or 1.58%Capital gains yield = ($81 – 92) / $92 = –.1196 or –11.96%14.15. a. To find the average return, we sum all the returns and divide by the number of returns, so: Arithmetic average return = (.34 +.16 + .19 – .21 + .08)/5 = .1120 or 11.20% b. Using the equation to calculate variance, we find:Variance = 1/4[(.34 – .112)⌒2 + (.16 – .112)⌒2 + (.19 – .112)⌒2 + (–.21 – .112)⌒2 +(.08 – .112)⌒2] = 0.041270So, the standard deviation is:Standard deviation = (0.041270)⌒1/2 = 0.2032 or 20.32%16. a. To calculate the average real return, we can use the average return of the asset and the average inflation rate in the Fisher equation. Doing so, we find:(1 + R) = (1 + r)(1 + h)则r = (1.1120/1.042) – 1=.0672 or 6.72%b. The average risk premium is simply the average return of the asset, minus the average real riskfree rate, so, the average risk premium for this asset would be:RP = R –f R= .1120 – .0510= .0610 or 6.10%17. We can find the average real risk-free rate using the Fisher equation. The average realrisk-free rate was: (1 + R) = (1 + r)(1 + h)r f = (1.051/1.042) – 1= .0086 or 0.86%And to calculate the average real risk premium, we can subtract the average risk-free rate from the average real return. So, the average real risk premium was:rp = r – r f = 6.72% – 0.86%= 5.85%18. Apply the five-year holding-period return formula to calculate the total return of the stock over the five-year period, we find:5-year holding-period return = [(1 + R1)(1 + R2)(1 +R3)(1 +R4)(1 +R5)] – 1= [(1 + .1843)(1 + .1682)(1 + .0683)(1 + .3219)(1 – .1987)] – 1= 0.5655 or 56.55%19. To find the return on the zero coupon bond, we first need to find the price of the bond today. Since one year has elapsed, the bond now has 29 years to maturity, so the price today is: P1 = $1,000/1.0929 = $82.15There are no intermediate cash flows on a zero coupon bond, so the return is the capital gains, or: R = ($82.15 – 77.81) / $77.81 = .0558 or 5.58%20. The return of any asset is the increase in price, plus any dividends or cash flows, all divided by the initial price. This stock paid no dividend, so the return was:R = ($82.01 – 75.15) / $75.15 = .0913 or 9.13%This is the return for three months, so the APR is:APR = 4(9.13%) = 36.51%And the EAR is:EAR = (1 + .0913)⌒4 – 1 = .4182 or 41.82%21.22. To calculate the arithmetic and geometric average returns, we must first calculate the return for each year. The return for each year is:R1 = ($55.83 – 49.62 + 0.68) / $49.62 = .1389 or 13.89%R2 = ($57.03 – 55.83 + 0.73) / $55.83 = .0346 or 3.46%R3 = ($50.25 – 57.03 + 0.84) / $57.03 = –.1042 or –10.42%R4 = ($53.82 – 50.25 + 0.91)/ $50.25 = .0892 or 8.92%R5 = ($64.18 – 53.82 + 1.02) / $53.82 = .2114 or 21.14%The arithmetic average return was:R A = (0.1389 + 0.0346 – 0.1042 + 0.0892 + 0.2114)/5 = 0.0740 or 7.40%And the geometric average return was:R G = [(1 + .1389)(1 + .0346)(1 – .1042)(1 + .0892)(1 + .2114)]1/5 – 1 = 0.0685 or 6.85% 23. To find the return on the coupon bond, we first need to find the price of the bond today. Since one year has elapsed, the bond now has six years to maturity, so the price today is:P1 = $70(PVIFA8%,6) + $1,000/1.086 = $953.77You received the coupon payments on the bond, so the nominal return was:R = ($953.77 – 943.82 + 70) / $943.82 = .0847 or 8.47%And using the Fisher equation to find the real return, we get:r = (1.0847 / 1.048) – 1 = .0350 or 3.50%24. Looking at the long-term government bond return history in Table 10.2, we see that the mean return was 6.1 percent, with a standard deviation of 9.4 percent. Inthe normal probability distribution, approximately 2/3 of the observations are within one standard deviation of the mean. This means that 1/3 of the observations are outside one standard deviation away from the mean. Or:Pr(R15.5)≈1/3But we are only interested in one tail here, that is, returns less than –3.3 percent, so: Pr(RYou can use the z-statistic and the cumulative normal distribution table to findthe answer as well. Doing so, we find:z = (–3.3% – 6.1)/9.4% = –1.00Looking at the z-table, this gives a probability of 15.87%, or:Pr(RThe range of returns you would expect to see 95 percent of the time is the mean plus or minus 2 standard deviations, or:The range of returns you would expect to see 99 percent of the time is the mean plus or minus 3 standard deviations, or:99% level: R ± 3 = 6.1% ± 3(9.4%) = –22.10% to 34.30%。

to abandon, and timing options.4. Decision trees represent an approach for valuing projects with these hidden, or real, options.Concept Questions1. Forecasting Risk What is forecasting risk? In general, would the degree of forecasting risk begreater for a new product or a cost-cutting proposal? Why?2. Sensitivity Analysis and Scenario Analysis What is the essential difference betweensensitivity analysis and scenario analysis?3. Marginal Cash Flows A coworker claims that looking at all this marginal this and incrementalthat is just a bunch of nonsense, and states, “Listen, if our average revenue doesn’t exceed our average cost, then we will have a negative cash flow, and we will go broke!” How do you respond?4. Break-Even Point As a shareholder of a firm that is contemplating a new project, would yoube more concerned with the accounting break-even point, the cash break-even point (the point at which operating cash flow is zero), or the financial break-even point? Why?5. Break-Even Point Assume a firm is considering a new project that requires an initialinvestment and has equal sales and costs over its life. Will the project reach the accounting, cash, or financial break-even point first? Which will it reach next? Last? Will this order always apply?6. Real Options Why does traditional NPV analysis tend to underestimate the true value of acapital budgeting project?7. Real Options The Mango Republic has just liberalized its markets and is now permittingforeign investors. Tesla Manufacturing has analyzed starting a project in the country and has determined that the project has a negative NPV. Why might the company go ahead with the project? What type of option is most likely to add value to this project?8. Sensitivity Analysis and Breakeven How does sensitivity analysis interact with break-evenanalysis?9. Option to Wait An option can often have more than one source of value. Consider a loggingcompany. The company can log the timber today or wait another year (or more) to log the timber.What advantages would waiting one year potentially have?10. Project Analysis You are discussing a project analysis with a coworker. The project involvesreal options, such as expanding the project if successful, or abandoning the project if it fails. Your coworker makes the following statement: “This analysis is ridiculous. We looked at expanding or abandoning the project in two years, but there are many other options we should consider. For example, we could expand in one year, and expand further in two years. Or we could expand in one year, and abandon the project in two years. There are too many options for us to examine.Because of this, anything this analysis would give us is worthless.” How would you evaluate this statement? Considering that with any capital budgeting project there are an infinite number of real options, when do you stop the option analysis on an individual project?Questions and Problems: connect™BASIC (Questions 1–10)1. Sensitivity Analysis and Break-Even Point We are evaluating a project that costs$724,000, has an eight-year life, and has no salvage value. Assume that depreciation is straight-line to zero over the life of the project. Sales are projected at 75,000 units per year. Price per unit is $39, variable cost per unit is $23, and fixed costs are $850,000 per year. The tax rate is 35 percent, and we require a 15 percent return on this project.1. Calculate the accounting break-even point.2. Calculate the base-case cash flow and NPV. What is the sensitivity of NPV to changes inthe sales figure? Explain what your answer tells you about a 500-unit decrease in projected sales.3. What is the sensitivity of OCF to changes in the variable cost figure? Explain what youranswer tells you about a $1 decrease in estimated variable costs.2. Scenario Analysis In the previous problem, suppose the projections given for price, quantity,variable costs, and fixed costs are all accurate to within ±10 percent. Calculate the best-case and worst-case NPV figures.3. Calculating Breakeven In each of the following cases, find the unknown variable. Ignoretaxes.4. Financial Breakeven L.J.’s Toys Inc. just purchased a $250,000 machine to produce toy cars.The machine will be fully depreciated by the straight-line method over its five-year economic life.Each toy sells for $25. The variable cost per toy is $6, and the firm incurs fixed costs of $360,000 each year. The corporate tax rate for the company is 34 percent. The appropriate discount rate is12 percent. What is the financial break-even point for the project?5. Option to Wait Your company is deciding whether to invest in a new machine. The newmachine will increase cash flow by $340,000 per year. You believe the technology used in the machine has a 10-year life; in other words, no matter when you purchase the machine, it will be obsolete 10 years from today. The machine is currently priced at $1,800,000. The cost of the machine will decline by $130,000 per year until it reaches $1,150,000, where it will remain. If your required return is 12 percent, should you purchase the machine? If so, when should you purchase it?6. Decision Trees Ang Electronics, Inc., has developed a new DVDR. If the DVDR is successful,the present value of the payoff (when the product is brought to market) is $22 million. If the DVDR fails, the present value of the payoff is $9 million. If the product goes directly to market, there is a50 percent chance of success. Alternatively, Ang can delay the launch by one year and spend $1.5million to test market the DVDR. Test marketing would allow the firm to improve the product and increase the probability of success to 80 percent. The appropriate discount rate is 11 percent.Should the firm conduct test marketing?7. Decision Trees The manager for a growing firm is considering the launch of a new product. Ifthe product goes directly to market, there is a 50 percent chance of success. For $135,000 the manager can conduct a focus group that will increase the product’s chance of success to 65 percent. Alternatively, the manager has the option to pay a consulting firm $400,000 to research the market and refine the product. The consulting firm successfully launches new products 85 percent of the time. If the firm successfully launches the product, the payoff will be $1.5 million. If the product is a failure, the NPV is zero. Which action will result in the highest expected payoff to the firm?8. Decision Trees B&B has a new baby powder ready to market. If the firm goes directly to themarket with the product, there is only a 55 percent chance of success. However, the firm can conduct customer segment research, which will take a year and cost $1.8 million. By going through research, B&B will be able to better target potential customers and will increase the probability of success to 70 percent. If successful, the baby powder will bring a present value profit (at time of initial selling) of $28 million. If unsuccessful, the present value payoff is only $4 million. Should the firm conduct customer segment research or go directly to market? The appropriate discount rate is15 percent.9. Financial Break-Even Analysis You are considering investing in a company that cultivatesabalone for sale to local restaurants. Use the following information:The discount rate for the company is 15 percent, the initial investment in equipment is $360,000, and the project’s economic life is seven years. Assume the equipment is depreciated on a straight-line basis over the project’s life.1. What is the accounting break-even level for the project?2. What is the financial break-even level for the project?10. Financial Breakeven Niko has purchased a brand new machine to produce its High Flight lineof shoes. The machine has an economic life of five years. The depreciation schedule for the machine is straight-line with no salvage value. The machine costs $390,000. The sales price per pair of shoes is $60, while the variable cost is $14. $185,000 of fixed costs per year are attributed to the machine. Assume that the corporate tax rate is 34 percent and the appropriate discount rate is 8 percent. What is the financial break-even point?INTERMEDIATE (Questions 11–25)11. Break-Even Intuition Consider a project with a required return of R percent that costs $I andwill last for N years. The project uses straight-line depreciation to zero over the N-year life; there are neither salvage value nor net working capital requirements.1. At the accounting break-even level of output, what is the IRR of this project? The paybackperiod? The NPV?2. At the cash break-even level of output, what is the IRR of this project? The paybackperiod? The NPV?3. At the financial break-even level of output, what is the IRR of this project? The paybackperiod? The NPV?12. Sensitivity Analysis Consider a four-year project with the following information: Initial fixedasset investment = $380,000; straight-line depreciation to zero over the four-year life; zero salvage value; price = $54; variable costs = $42; fixed costs = $185,000; quantity sold = 90,000 units; tax rate = 34 percent. How sensitive is OCF to changes in quantity sold?13. Project Analysis You are considering a new product launch. The project will cost $960,000,have a four-year life, and have no salvage value; depreciation is straight-line to zero. Sales are projected at 240 units per year; price per unit will be $25,000; variable cost per unit will be $19,500; and fixed costs will be $830,000 per year. The required return on the project is 15 percent, and the relevant tax rate is 35 percent.1. Based on your experience, you think the unit sales, variable cost, and fixed costprojections given here are probably accurate to within ±10 percent. What are the upper and lower bounds for these projections? What is the base-case NPV? What are the best-case and worst-case scenarios?2. Evaluate the sensitivity of your base-case NPV to changes in fixed costs.3. What is the accounting break-even level of output for this project?14. Project Analysis McGilla Golf has decided to sell a new line of golf clubs. The clubs will sell for$750 per set and have a variable cost of $390 per set. The company has spent $150,000 for a marketing study that determined the company will sell 55,000 sets per year for seven years. The marketing study also determined that the company will lose sales of 12,000 sets of its high-priced clubs. The high-priced clubs sell at $1,100 and have variable costs of $620. The company will also increase sales of its cheap clubs by 15,000 sets. The cheap clubs sell for $400 and have variable costs of $210 per set. The fixed costs each year will be $8,100,000. The company has also spent $1,000,000 on research and development for the new clubs. The plant and equipment required will cost $18,900,000 and will be depreciated on a straight-line basis. The new clubs will also require an increase in net working capital of $1,400,000 that will be returned at the end of the project. The tax rate is 40 percent, and the cost of capital is 14 percent. Calculate the payback period, the NPV, and the IRR.15. Scenario Analysis In the previous problem, you feel that the values are accurate to withinonly ±10 percent. What are the best-case and worst-case NPVs? (Hint: The price and variable costs for the two existing sets of clubs are known with certainty; only the sales gained or lost are uncertain.)16. Sensitivity Analysis McGilla Golf would like to know the sensitivity of NPV to changes in theprice of the new clubs and the quantity of new clubs sold. What is the sensitivity of the NPV to each of these variables?17. Abandonment Value We are examining a new project. We expect to sell 9,000 units per yearat $50 net cash flow apiece for the next 10 years. In other words, the annual operating cash flow is projected to be $50 × 9,000 = $450,000. The relevant discount rate is 16 percent, and the initial investment required is $1,900,000.1. What is the base-case NPV?2. After the first year, the project can be dismantled and sold for $1,300,000. If expectedsales are revised based on the first year’s performance, when would it make sense to abandon the investment? In other words, at what level of expected sales would it make sense to abandon the project?3. Explain how the $1,300,000 abandonment value can be viewed as the opportunity cost ofkeeping the project in one year.18. Abandonment In the previous problem, suppose you think it is likely that expected sales willbe revised upward to 11,000 units if the first year is a success and revised downward to 4,000 units if the first year is not a success.1. If success and failure are equally likely, what is the NPV of the project? Consider thepossibility of abandonment in answering.2. What is the value of the option to abandon?19. Abandonment and Expansion In the previous problem, suppose the scale of the project canbe doubled in one year in the sense that twice as many units can be produced and sold. Naturally, expansion would be desirable only if the project were a success. This implies that if the project is a success, projected sales after expansion will be 22,000. Again assuming that success and failure are equally likely, what is the NPV of the project? Note that abandonment is still an option if the project is a failure. What is the value of the option to expand?20. Break-Even Analysis Your buddy comes to you with a sure-fire way to make some quickmoney and help pay off your student loans. His idea is to sell T-shirts with the words “I get” on them. “You get it?” He says, “You see all those bumper stickers and T-shirts that say ‘got milk’ or ‘got surf.’ So this says, ‘I get.’ It’s funny! All we have to do is buy a used silk screen press for $3,200 and we are in business!” Assume there are no fixed costs, and you depreciate the $3,200 in the first period. Taxes are 30 percent.1. What is the accounting break-even point if each shirt costs $7 to make and you can sellthem for $10 apiece?Now assume one year has passed and you have sold 5,000 shirts! You find out that the Dairy Farmers of America have copyrighted the “got milk” slogan and are requiring you to pay $12,000 to continue operations. You expect this craze will last for another three years and that your discount rate is 12 percent.2. What is the financial break-even point for your enterprise now?21. Decision Trees Young screenwriter Carl Draper has just finished his first script. It has action,drama, and humor, and he thinks it will be a blockbuster. He takes the script to every motion picture studio in town and tries to sell it but to no avail. Finally, ACME studios offers to buy the script for either (a) $12,000 or (b) 1 percent of the movie’s profits. There are two decisions the studio will have to make. First is to decide if the script is good or bad, and second if the movie is good or bad. First, there is a 90 percent chance that the script is bad. If it is bad, the studio does nothing more and throws the script out. If the script is good, they will shoot the movie. After the movie is shot, the studio will review it, and there is a 70 percent chance that the movie is bad. If the movie is bad, the movie will not be promoted and will not turn a profit. If the movie is good, the studio will promote heavily; the average profit for this type of movie is $20 million. Carl rejects the $12,000 and says he wants the 1 percent of profits. Was this a good decision by Carl?22. Option to Wait Hickock Mining is evaluating when to open a gold mine. The mine has 60,000ounces of gold left that can be mined, and mining operations will produce 7,500 ounces per year.The required return on the gold mine is 12 percent, and it will cost $14 million to open the mine.When the mine is opened, the company will sign a contract that will guarantee the price of gold for the remaining life of the mine. If the mine is opened today, each ounce of gold will generate an aftertax cash flow of $450 per ounce. If the company waits one year, there is a 60 percent probability that the contract price will generate an aftertax cash flow of $500 per ounce and a 40 percent probability that the aftertax cash flow will be $410 per ounce. What is the value of the option to wait?23. Abandonment Decisions Allied Products, Inc., is considering a new product launch. The firmexpects to have an annual operating cash flow of $22 million for the next 10 years. Allied Products uses a discount rate of 19 percent for new product launches. The initial investment is $84 million.Assume that the project has no salvage value at the end of its economic life.1. What is the NPV of the new product?2. After the first year, the project can be dismantled and sold for $30 million. If theestimates of remaining cash flows are revised based on the first year’s experience, at what level of expected cash flows does it make sense to abandon the project?24. Expansion Decisions Applied Nanotech is thinking about introducing a new surface cleaningmachine. The marketing department has come up with the estimate that Applied Nanotech can sell15 units per year at $410,000 net cash flow per unit for the next five years. The engineeringdepartment has come up with the estimate that developing the machine will take a $17 million initial investment. The finance department has estimated that a 25 percent discount rate should beused.1. What is the base-case NPV?2. If unsuccessful, after the first year the project can be dismantled and will have an aftertaxsalvage value of $11 million. Also, after the first year, expected cash flows will be revised up to 20 units per year or to 0 units, with equal probability. What is the revised NPV?25. Scenario Analysis You are the financial analyst for a tennis racket manufacturer. Thecompany is considering using a graphitelike material in its tennis rackets. The company has estimated the information in the following table about the market for a racket with the new material. The company expects to sell the racket for six years. The equipment required for the project has no salvage value. The required return for projects of this type is 13 percent, and the company has a 40 percent tax rate. Should you recommend the project?CHALLENGE (Questions 26–30)26. Scenario Analysis Consider a project to supply Detroit with 55,000 tons of machine screwsannually for automobile production. You will need an initial $1,700,000 investment in threading equipment to get the project started; the project will last for five years. The accounting department estimates that annual fixed costs will be $520,000 and that variable costs should be $220 per ton;accounting will depreciate the initial fixed asset investment straight-line to zero over the five-year project life. It also estimates a salvage value of $300,000 after dismantling costs. The marketing department estimates that the automakers will let the contract at a selling price of $245 per ton.The engineering department estimates you will need an initial net working capital investment of $600,000. You require a 13 percent return and face a marginal tax rate of 38 percent on this project.1. What is the estimated OCF for this project? The NPV? Should you pursue this project?2. Suppose you believe that the accounting department’s initial cost and salvage valueprojections are accurate only to within ±15 percent; the marketing department’s price estimate is accurate only to within ±10 percent; and the engineering department’s net working capital estimate is accurate only to within ±5 percent. What is your worst-case scenario for this project? Your best-case scenario? Do you still want to pursue the project? 27. Sensitivity Analysis In Problem 26, suppose you’re confident about your own projections, butyou’re a little unsure about Detroit’s actual machine screw requirements. What is the sensitivity of the project OCF to changes in the quantity supplied? What about the sensitivity of NPV to changes in quantity supplied? Given the sensitivity number you calculated, is there some minimum level of output below which you wouldn’t want to operate? Why?28. Abandonment Decisions Consider the following project for Hand Clapper, Inc. The companyis considering a four-year project to manufacture clap-command garage door openers. This project requires an initial investment of $10 million that will be depreciated straight-line to zero over the project’s life. An initial investment in net working capital of $1.3 million is required to support spare parts inventory; this cost is fully recoverable whenever the project ends. The company believes it can generate $7.35 million in pretax revenues with $2.4 million in total pretax operating costs. The tax rate is 38 percent, and the discount rate is 16 percent. The market value of the equipment over the life of the project is as follows:Lumber is sold by the company for its “pond value.” Pond value is the amount a mill will pay for a log delivered to the mill location. The price paid for logs delivered to a mill is quoted in dollars per thousands of board feet (MBF), and the price depends on the grade of the logs. The forest Bunyan Lumber is evaluating was planted by the company 20 years ago and is made up entirely of Douglas fir trees. The table here shows the current price per MBF for the three grades of timber the company feels will come from the stand:Steve believes that the pond value of lumber will increase at the inflation rate. The company is planning to thin the forest today, and it expects to realize a positive cash flow of $1,000 per acre from thinning. The thinning is done to increase the growth rate of the remaining trees, and it is always done 20 years following a planting.The major decision the company faces is when to log the forest. When the company logs the forest, it will immediately replant saplings, which will allow for a future harvest. The longer the forest is allowed to grow, the larger the harvest becomes per acre. Additionally, an older forest has a higher grade of timber. Steve has compiled the following table with the expected harvest per acre in thousands of board feet, along with the breakdown of the timber grades:The company expects to lose 5 percent of the timber it cuts due to defects and breakage.The forest will be clear-cut when the company harvests the timber. This method of harvesting allows for faster growth of replanted trees. All of the harvesting, processing, replanting, and transportation are to be handled by subcontractors hired by Bunyan Lumber. The cost of the logging is expected to be $140 per MBF. A road system has to be constructed and is expected to cost $50 per MBF on average. Sales preparation and administrative costs, excluding office overhead costs, are expected to be $18 per MBF.As soon as the harvesting is complete, the company will reforest the land. Reforesting costs include the following:All costs are expected to increase at the inflation rate.Assume all cash flows occur at the year of harvest. For example, if the company begins harvesting the timber 20 years from today, the cash flow from the harvest will be received 20 years from today. When the company logs the land, it will immediately replant the land with new saplings. The harvest period chosen will be repeated for the foreseeable future. The company’s nominal required return is 10 percent, and the inflation rate is expected to be 3.7 percent per year. Bunyan Lumber has a 35 percent tax rate.Clear-cutting is a controversial method of forest management. To obtain the necessary permits, Bunyan Lumber has agreed to contribute to a conservation fund every time it harvests the lumber. If the company harvested the forest today, the required contribution would be $250,000. The company has agreed that the required contribution will grow by 3.2 percent per year. When should the company harvest the forest?。

Earlier in the chapter, we saw how bonds were rated based on their credit risk. What you will find if you start looking at bonds of different ratings is that lower-rated bonds have higher yields.We stated earlier in this chapter that a bond’s yield is calculated assuming that all the promised payments will be made. As a result, it is really a promised yield, and it may or may not be what you will earn. In particular, if the issuer defaults, your actual yield will be lower, probably much lower. This fact is particularly important when it comes to junk bonds. Thanks to a clever bit of marketing, such bonds are now commonly called high-yield bonds, which has a much nicer ring to it; but now you recognize that these are really high promised yield bonds.Next, recall that we discussed earlier how municipal bonds are free from most taxes and, as a result, have much lower yields than taxable bonds. Investors demand the extra yield on a taxable bond as compensation for the unfavorable tax treatment. This extra compensation is the taxability premium.Finally, bonds have varying degrees of liquidity. As we discussed earlier, there are an enormous number of bond issues, most of which do not trade on a regular basis. As a result, if you wanted to sell quickly, you would probably not get as good a price as you could otherwise. Investors prefer liquid assets to illiquid ones, so they demand a liquidity premium on top of all the other premiums we have discussed. As a result, all else being the same, less liquid bonds will have higher yields than more liquid bonds.ConclusionIf we combine everything we have discussed, we find that bond yields represent the combined effect of no fewer than six factors. The first is the real rate of interest. On top of the real rate are five premiums representing compensation for (1) expected future inflation, (2) interest rate risk, (3) default risk, (4) taxability, and (5) lack of liquidity. As a result, determining the appropriate yield on a bond requires careful analysis of each of these factors.Summary and ConclusionsThis chapter has explored bonds, bond yields, and interest rates. We saw that:1. Determining bond prices and yields is an application of basic discounted cash flow principles.2. Bond values move in the direction opposite that of interest rates, leading to potential gains orlosses for bond investors.3. Bonds are rated based on their default risk. Some bonds, such as Treasury bonds, have no riskof default, whereas so-called junk bonds have substantial default risk.4. Almost all bond trading is OTC, with little or no market transparency in many cases. As a result,bond price and volume information can be difficult to find for some types of bonds.5. Bond yields and interest rates reflect six different factors: the real interest rate and fivepremiums that investors demand as compensation for inflation, interest rate risk, default risk, taxability, and lack of liquidity.In closing, we note that bonds are a vital source of financing to governments and corporations of all types. Bond prices and yields are a rich subject, and our one chapter, necessarily, touches on only the most important concepts and ideas. There is a great deal more we could say, but, instead, we will move on to stocks in our next chapter.Concept Questions1. Treasury Bonds Is it true that a U.S. Treasury security is risk-free?2. Interest Rate Risk Which has greater interest rate risk, a 30-year Treasury bond or a 30-year21. Using Bond Quotes Suppose the following bond quote for IOU Corporation appears in thefinancial page of today’s newspaper. Assume the bond has a face value of $1,000 and the current date is April 15, 2010. What is the yield to maturity of the bond? What is the current yield?22. Finding the Maturity You’ve just found a 10 percent coupon bond on the market that sells forpar value. What is the maturity on this bond?CHALLENGE (Questions 23–30)23. Components of Bond Returns Bond P is a premium bond with a 9 percent coupon. Bond D isa 5 percent coupon bond currently selling at a discount. Both bonds make annual payments, havea YTM of 7 percent, and have five years to maturity. What is the current yield for Bond P? For BondD? If interest rates remain unchanged, what is the expected capital gains yield over the next year for Bond P? For Bond D? Explain your answers and the interrelationship among the various types of yields.24. Holding Period Yield The YTM on a bond is the interest rate you earn on your investment ifinterest rates don’t change. If you actually sell the bond before it matures, your realized return is known as the holding period yield (HPY).1. Suppose that today you buy a 9 percent annual coupon bond for $1,140. The bond has 10years to maturity. What rate of return do you expect to earn on your investment?2. Two years from now, the YTM on your bond has declined by 1 percent, and you decide tosell. What price will your bond sell for? What is the HPY on your investment? Compare this yield to the YTM when you first bought the bond. Why are they different?25. Valuing Bonds The Morgan Corporation has two different bonds currently outstanding. Bond Mhas a face value of $20,000 and matures in 20 years. The bond makes no payments for the first six years, then pays $800 every six months over the subsequent eight years, and finally pays $1,000 every six months over the last six years. Bond N also has a face value of $20,000 and a maturity of20 years; it makes no coupon payments over the life of the bond. If the required return on boththese bonds is 8 percent compounded semiannually, what is the current price of Bond M? Of Bond N?26. R eal Cash Flows When Marilyn Monroe died, ex-husband Joe DiMaggio vowed to place freshflowers on her grave every Sunday as long as he lived. The week after she died in 1962, a bunch of fresh flowers that the former baseball player thought appropriate for the star cost about $8.Based on actuarial tables, “Joltin’ Joe” could expect to live for 30 years after the actress died.Assume that the EAR is 10.7 percent. Also, assume that the price of the flowers will increase at 3.5 percent per year, when expressed as an EAR. Assuming that each year has exactly 52 weeks, what is the present value of this commitment? Joe began purchasing flowers the week after Marilyn died.27. Real Cash Flows You are planning to save for retirement over the next 30 years. To save forretirement, you will invest $800 a month in a stock account in real dollars and $400 a month in a bond account in real dollars. The effective annual return of the stock account is expected to be 12 percent, and the bond account will earn 7 percent. When you retire, you will combine your money into an account with an 8 percent effective return. The inflation rate over this period is expected to be 4 percent. How much can you withdraw each month from your account in real terms assuminga 25-year withdrawal period? What is the nominal dollar amount of your last withdrawal?28. Real Cash Flows Paul Adams owns a health club in downtown Los Angeles. He charges hiscustomers an annual fee of $500 and has an existing customer base of 500. Paul plans to raise the annual fee by 6 percent every year and expects the club membership to grow at a constant rate of3 percent for the next five years. The overall expenses of running the health club are $75,000 ayear and are expected to grow at the inflation rate of 2 percent annually. After five years, Paul2. How many of the coupon bonds must East Coast Yachts issue to raise the $40 million? Howmany of the zeroes must it issue?3. In 20 years, what will be the principal repayment due if East Coast Yachts issues the couponbonds? What if it issues the zeroes?4. What are the company’s considerations in issuing a coupon bond compared to a zero couponbond?5. Suppose East Coast Yachts issues the coupon bonds with a make-whole call provision. Themake-whole call rate is the Treasury rate plus .40 percent. If East Coast calls the bonds in 7 years when the Treasury rate is 5.6 percent, what is the call price of the bond? What if it is 9.1 percent?6. Are investors really made whole with a make-whole call provision?7. After considering all the relevant factors, would you recommend a zero coupon issue or aregular coupon issue? Why? Would you recommend an ordinary call feature or a make-whole call feature? Why?。

罗斯公司理财第九版课后习题答案中文版(总95页)本页仅作为文档封面，使用时可以删除This document is for reference only-rar21year.March申明：转载自第一章1.在所有权形式的公司中,股东是公司的所有者。

股东选举公司的董事会,董事会任命该公司的管理层。

企业的所有权和控制权分离的组织形式是导致的代理关系存在的主要原因。

管理者可能追求自身或别人的利益最大化,而不是股东的利益最大化。

在这种环境下,他们可能因为目标不一致而存在代理问题。

2.非营利公司经常追求社会或政治任务等各种目标。

非营利公司财务管理的目标是获取并有效使用资金以最大限度地实现组织的社会使命。

3.这句话是不正确的。

管理者实施财务管理的目标就是最大化现有股票的每股价值，当前的股票价值反映了短期和长期的风险、时间以及未来现金流量。

4.有两种结论。

一种极端,在市场经济中所有的东西都被定价。

因此所有目标都有一个最优水平，包括避免不道德或非法的行为，股票价值最大化。

另一种极端,我们可以认为这是非经济现象,最好的处理方式是通过政治手段。

一个经典的思考问题给出了这种争论的答案:公司估计提高某种产品安全性的成本是30美元万。

然而,该公司认为提高产品的安全性只会节省20美元万。

请问公司应该怎么做呢”5.财务管理的目标都是相同的,但实现目标的最好方式可能是不同的,因为不同的国家有不同的社会、政治环境和经济制度。

6.管理层的目标是最大化股东现有股票的每股价值。

如果管理层认为能提高公司利润，使股价超过35美元,那么他们应该展开对恶意收购的斗争。

如果管理层认为该投标人或其它未知的投标人将支付超过每股35美元的价格收购公司,那么他们也应该展开斗争。

然而,如果管理层不能增加企业的价值,并且没有其他更高的投标价格,那么管理层不是在为股东的最大化权益行事。

现在的管理层经常在公司面临这些恶意收购的情况时迷失自己的方向。

7.其他国家的代理问题并不严重,主要取决于其他国家的私人投资者占比重较小。

第一章公司理财导论1.代理么问题谁拥有公司?描述所有者控制公司管理层的过程。

代理关系在公司的组织形式中存在的主要原因是什?在这种环境下，可能会出现什么样的问题?2.非营利企业的目标假设你是一家非营利企业（或许是非营利医院）的财务经理，你认为什么样的财务管理目标将会是恰当的?3.公司的目标评价下面这句话：管理者不应该只关注现在的股票价值，因为这么做将会导致过分强调短期利润而牺牲长期利润。

4.道德规范和公司目标股票价值最大化的目标可能和其他目标，比如避免不道德或者非法的行为相冲突吗?特别是，你认为顾客和员工的安全、环境和社会的总体利益是否在这个框架之内，或者他们完全被忽略了?考虑一些具体的情形来阐明你的回答。

5.跨国公司目标股票价值最大化的财务管理目标在外国会有不同吗?为什么?6.代理问题假设你拥有一家公司的股票，每股股票现在的价格是25 美元。

另外一家公司刚刚宣布它想要购买这个公司，愿意以每股35 美元的价格收购发行在外的所有股票。

你公司的管理层立即展开对这次恶意收购的斗争。

管理层是为股东的最大利益行事吗?为什么?7.代理问题和公司所有权公司所有权在世界各地都不相同。

历史上，美国个人投资者占了上市公司股份的大多数，但是在德国和日本，银行和其他金融机构拥有上市公司股份的大部分。

你认为代理问题在德国和日本会比在美国更严重吗?8.代理问题和公司所有权近年来，大型金融机构比如共同基金和养老基金已经成为美国股票的主要持有者。

这些机构越来越积极地参与公司事务。

这一趋势对代理问题和公司控制有什么样的启示?9.高管薪酬批评家指责美国公司高级管理人员的薪酬过高，应该削减。

比如在大型公司中，甲骨文的LarryEllison 是美国薪酬最高的首席执行官之一，2004～2008 年收入高达4.29 亿美元，仅2008 年就有1.93 亿美元之多。

这样的金额算多吗?如果承认超级运动员比如老虎·伍兹，演艺界的知名人士比如汤姆·汉克斯和奥普拉·温弗瑞，还有其他在他们各自领域非常出色的人赚的都不比这少或许有助于回答这个问题。

罗斯《公司理财》第9版精要版英文原书课后部分章节答案详细»1 / 17 CH5 11，13，18，19，20 11. To find the PV of a lump sum, we use: PV = FV / (1 + r) t PV = $1,000,000 / (1.10) 80 = $488.19 13. To answer this question, we can use either the FV or the PV formula. Both will give the same answer since they are the inverse of each other. We will use the FV formula, that is: FV = PV(1 + r) t Solving for r, we get: r = (FV / PV) 1 / t –1 r = ($1,260,000 / $150) 1/112 – 1 = .0840 or 8.40% To find the FV of the first prize, we use: FV = PV(1 + r) t FV = $1,260,000(1.0840) 33 = $18,056,409.94 18. To find the FV of a lump sum, we use: FV = PV(1 + r) t FV = $4,000(1.11) 45 = $438,120.97 FV = $4,000(1.11) 35 = $154,299.40 Better start early! 19. We need to find the FV of a lump sum. However, the money will only be invested for six years, so the number of periods is six. FV = PV(1 + r) t FV = $20,000(1.084)6 = $32,449.33 20. To answer this question, we can use either the FV or the PV formula. Both will give the same answer since they are the inverse of each other. We will use the FV formula, that is: FV = PV(1 + r) t Solving for t, we get: t = ln(FV / PV) / ln(1 + r) t = ln($75,000 / $10,000) / ln(1.11) = 19.31 So, the money must be invested for 19.31 years. However, you will not receive the money for another two years. From now, you’ll wait: 2 years + 19.31 years = 21.31 years CH6 16，24，27，42，58 16. For this problem, we simply need to find the FV of a lump sum using the equation: FV = PV(1 + r) t 2 / 17 It is important to note that compounding occurs semiannually. To account for this, we will divide the interest rate by two (the number of compounding periods in a year), and multiply the number of periods by two. Doing so, we get: FV = $2,100[1 + (.084/2)] 34 = $8,505.93 24. This problem requires us to find the FV A. The equation to find the FV A is: FV A = C{[(1 + r) t – 1] / r} FV A = $300[{[1 + (.10/12) ] 360 – 1} / (.10/12)] = $678,146.38 27. The cash flows are annual and the compounding period is quarterly, so we need to calculate the EAR to make the interest rate comparable with the timing of the cash flows. Using the equation for the EAR, we get: EAR = [1 + (APR / m)] m – 1 EAR = [1 + (.11/4)] 4 – 1 = .1146 or 11.46% And now we use the EAR to find the PV of each cash flow as a lump sum and add them together: PV = $725 / 1.1146 + $980 / 1.1146 2 + $1,360 / 1.1146 4 = $2,320.36 42. The amount of principal paid on the loan is the PV of the monthly payments you make. So, the present value of the $1,150 monthly payments is: PV A = $1,150[(1 – {1 / [1 + (.0635/12)]} 360 ) / (.0635/12)] = $184,817.42 The monthly payments of $1,150 will amount to a principal payment of $184,817.42. The amount of principal you will still owe is: $240,000 – 184,817.42 = $55,182.58 This remaining principal amount will increase at the interest rate on the loan until the end of the loan period. So the balloon payment in 30 years, which is the FV of the remaining principal will be: Balloon payment = $55,182.58[1 + (.0635/12)] 360 = $368,936.54 58. To answer this question, we should find the PV of both options, and compare them. Since we are purchasing the car, the lowest PV is the best option. The PV of the leasing is simply the PV of the lease payments, plus the $99. The interest rate we would use for the leasing option is the same as the interest rate of the loan. The PV of leasing is: PV = $99 + $450{1 –[1 / (1 + .07/12) 12(3) ]} / (.07/12) = $14,672.91 The PV of purchasing the car is the current price of the car minus the PV of the resale price. The PV of the resale price is: PV = $23,000 / [1 + (.07/12)] 12(3) = $18,654.82 The PV of the decision to purchase is: $32,000 – 18,654.82 = $13,345.18 3 / 17 In this case, it is cheaper to buy the car than leasing it since the PV of the purchase cash flows is lower. To find the breakeven resale price, we need to find the resale price that makes the PV of the two options the same. In other words, the PV of the decision to buy should be: $32,000 – PV of resale price = $14,672.91 PV of resale price = $17,327.09 The resale price that would make the PV of the lease versus buy decision is the FV ofthis value, so: Breakeven resale price = $17,327.09[1 + (.07/12)] 12(3) = $21,363.01 CH7 3，18，21，22，31 3. The price of any bond is the PV of the interest payment, plus the PV of the par value. Notice this problem assumes an annual coupon. The price of the bond will be: P = $75({1 – [1/(1 + .0875)] 10 } / .0875) + $1,000[1 / (1 + .0875) 10 ] = $918.89 We would like to introduce shorthand notation here. Rather than write (or type, as the case may be) the entire equation for the PV of a lump sum, or the PV A equation, it is common to abbreviate the equations as: PVIF R,t = 1 / (1 + r) t which stands for Present V alue Interest Factor PVIFA R,t = ({1 – [1/(1 + r)] t } / r ) which stands for Present V alue Interest Factor of an Annuity These abbreviations are short hand notation for the equations in which the interest rate and the number of periods are substituted into the equation and solved. We will use this shorthand notation in remainder of the solutions key. 18. The bond price equation for this bond is: P 0 = $1,068 = $46(PVIFA R%,18 ) + $1,000(PVIF R%,18 ) Using a spreadsheet, financial calculator, or trial and error we find: R = 4.06% This is thesemiannual interest rate, so the YTM is: YTM = 2 4.06% = 8.12% The current yield is:Current yield = Annual coupon payment / Price = $92 / $1,068 = .0861 or 8.61% The effective annual yield is the same as the EAR, so using the EAR equation from the previous chapter: Effective annual yield = (1 + 0.0406) 2 – 1 = .0829 or 8.29% 20. Accrued interest is the coupon payment for the period times the fraction of the period that has passed since the last coupon payment. Since we have a semiannual coupon bond, the coupon payment per six months is one-half of the annual coupon payment. There are four months until the next coupon payment, so two months have passed since the last coupon payment. The accrued interest for the bond is: Accrued interest = $74/2 × 2/6 = $12.33 And we calculate the clean price as: 4 / 17 Clean price = Dirty price –Accrued interest = $968 –12.33 = $955.67 21. Accrued interest is the coupon payment for the period times the fraction of the period that has passed since the last coupon payment. Since we have a semiannual coupon bond, the coupon payment per six months is one-half of the annual coupon payment. There are two months until the next coupon payment, so four months have passed since the last coupon payment. The accrued interest for the bond is: Accrued interest = $68/2 × 4/6 = $22.67 And we calculate the dirty price as: Dirty price = Clean price + Accrued interest = $1,073 + 22.67 = $1,095.67 22. To find the number of years to maturity for the bond, we need to find the price of the bond. Since we already have the coupon rate, we can use the bond price equation, and solve for the number of years to maturity. We are given the current yield of the bond, so we can calculate the price as: Current yield = .0755 = $80/P 0 P 0 = $80/.0755 = $1,059.60 Now that we have the price of the bond, the bond price equation is: P = $1,059.60 = $80[(1 – (1/1.072) t ) / .072 ] + $1,000/1.072 t We can solve this equation for t as follows: $1,059.60(1.072) t = $1,111.11(1.072) t –1,111.11 + 1,000 111.11 = 51.51(1.072) t2.1570 = 1.072 t t = log 2.1570 / log 1.072 = 11.06 11 years The bond has 11 years to maturity.31. The price of any bond (or financial instrument) is the PV of the future cash flows. Even though Bond M makes different coupons payments, to find the price of the bond, we just find the PV of the cash flows. The PV of the cash flows for Bond M is: P M = $1,100(PVIFA 3.5%,16 )(PVIF 3.5%,12 ) + $1,400(PVIFA3.5%,12 )(PVIF 3.5%,28 ) + $20,000(PVIF 3.5%,40 ) P M = $19,018.78 Notice that for the coupon payments of $1,400, we found the PV A for the coupon payments, and then discounted the lump sum back to today. Bond N is a zero coupon bond with a $20,000 par value, therefore, the price of the bond is the PV of the par, or: P N = $20,000(PVIF3.5%,40 ) = $5,051.45 CH8 4，18，20，22，244. Using the constant growth model, we find the price of the stock today is: P 0 = D 1 / (R – g) = $3.04 / (.11 – .038) = $42.22 5 / 17 18. The price of a share of preferred stock is the dividend payment divided by the required return. We know the dividend payment in Year 20, so we can find the price of the stock in Y ear 19, one year before the first dividend payment. Doing so, we get: P 19 = $20.00 / .064 P 19 = $312.50 The price of the stock today is the PV of the stock price in the future, so the price today will be: P 0 = $312.50 / (1.064) 19 P 0 = $96.15 20. We can use the two-stage dividend growth model for this problem, which is: P 0 = [D 0 (1 + g 1 )/(R – g 1 )]{1 – [(1 + g 1 )/(1 + R)] T }+ [(1 + g 1 )/(1 + R)] T [D 0 (1 + g 2 )/(R –g 2 )] P0 = [$1.25(1.28)/(.13 –.28)][1 –(1.28/1.13) 8 ] + [(1.28)/(1.13)] 8 [$1.25(1.06)/(.13 – .06)] P 0 = $69.55 22. We are asked to find the dividend yield and capital gains yield for each of the stocks. All of the stocks have a 15 percent required return, which is the sum of the dividend yield and the capital gains yield. To find the components of the total return, we need to find the stock price for each stock. Using this stock price and the dividend, we can calculate the dividend yield. The capital gains yield for the stock will be the total return (required return) minus the dividend yield. W: P 0 = D 0 (1 + g) / (R – g) = $4.50(1.10)/(.19 – .10) = $55.00 Dividend yield = D 1 /P 0 = $4.50(1.10)/$55.00 = .09 or 9% Capital gains yield = .19 – .09 = .10 or 10% X: P 0 = D 0 (1 + g) / (R – g) = $4.50/(.19 – 0) = $23.68 Dividend yield = D 1 /P 0 = $4.50/$23.68 = .19 or 19% Capital gains yield = .19 – .19 = 0% Y: P 0 = D 0 (1 + g) / (R – g) = $4.50(1 – .05)/(.19 + .05) = $17.81 Dividend yield = D 1 /P 0 = $4.50(0.95)/$17.81 = .24 or 24% Capital gains yield = .19 – .24 = –.05 or –5% Z: P 2 = D 2 (1 + g) / (R – g) = D 0 (1 + g 1 ) 2 (1 +g 2 )/(R – g 2 ) = $4.50(1.20) 2 (1.12)/(.19 – .12) = $103.68 P 0 = $4.50 (1.20) / (1.19) + $4.50(1.20) 2 / (1.19) 2 + $103.68 / (1.19) 2 = $82.33 Dividend yield = D 1 /P 0 = $4.50(1.20)/$82.33 = .066 or 6.6% Capital gains yield = .19 – .066 = .124 or 12.4% In all cases, the required return is 19%, but the return is distributed differently between current income and capital gains. High growth stocks have an appreciable capital gains component but a relatively small current income yield; conversely, mature, negative-growth stocks provide a high current income but also price depreciation over time. 24. Here we have a stock with supernormal growth, but the dividend growth changes every year for the first four years. We can find the price of the stock in Y ear 3 since the dividend growth rate is constant after the third dividend. The price of the stock in Y ear 3 will be the dividend in Y ear 4, divided by the required return minus the constant dividend growth rate. So, the price in Y ear 3 will be: 6 / 17 P3 = $2.45(1.20)(1.15)(1.10)(1.05) / (.11 – .05) = $65.08 The price of the stock today will be the PV of the first three dividends, plus the PV of the stock price in Y ear 3, so: P 0 = $2.45(1.20)/(1.11) + $2.45(1.20)(1.15)/1.11 2 + $2.45(1.20)(1.15)(1.10)/1.11 3 + $65.08/1.11 3 P 0 = $55.70 CH9 3，4，6，9，15 3. Project A has cash flows of $19,000 in Y ear 1, so the cash flows are short by $21,000 of recapturing the initial investment, so the payback for Project A is: Payback = 1 + ($21,000 / $25,000) = 1.84 years Project B has cash flows of: Cash flows = $14,000 + 17,000 + 24,000 = $55,000 during this first three years. The cash flows are still short by $5,000 of recapturing the initial investment, so the payback for Project B is: B: Payback = 3 + ($5,000 / $270,000) = 3.019 years Using the payback criterion and a cutoff of 3 years, accept project A and reject project B. 4. When we use discounted payback, we need to find the value of all cash flows today. The value today of the project cash flows for the first four years is: V alue today of Y ear 1 cash flow = $4,200/1.14 = $3,684.21 V alue today of Y ear 2 cash flow = $5,300/1.14 2 = $4,078.18 V alue today of Y ear 3 cash flow = $6,100/1.14 3 = $4,117.33 V alue today of Y ear 4 cash flow = $7,400/1.14 4 = $4,381.39 To findthe discounted payback, we use these values to find the payback period. The discounted first year cash flow is $3,684.21, so the discounted payback for a $7,000 initial cost is: Discounted payback = 1 + ($7,000 – 3,684.21)/$4,078.18 = 1.81 years For an initial cost of $10,000, the discounted payback is: Discounted payback = 2 + ($10,000 –3,684.21 –4,078.18)/$4,117.33 = 2.54 years Notice the calculation of discounted payback. We know the payback period is between two and three years, so we subtract the discounted values of the Y ear 1 and Y ear 2 cash flows from the initial cost. This is the numerator, which is the discounted amount we still need to make to recover our initial investment. We divide this amount by the discounted amount we will earn in Y ear 3 to get the fractional portion of the discounted payback. If the initial cost is $13,000, the discounted payback is: Discounted payback = 3 + ($13,000 – 3,684.21 – 4,078.18 – 4,117.33) / $4,381.39 = 3.26 years 7 / 17 6. Our definition of AAR is the average net income divided by the average book value. The average net income for this project is: A verage net income = ($1,938,200 + 2,201,600 + 1,876,000 + 1,329,500) / 4 = $1,836,325 And the average book value is: A verage book value = ($15,000,000 + 0) / 2 = $7,500,000 So, the AAR for this project is: AAR = A verage net income / A verage book value = $1,836,325 / $7,500,000 = .2448 or 24.48% 9. The NPV of a project is the PV of the outflows minus the PV of the inflows. Since the cash inflows are an annuity, the equation for the NPV of this project at an 8 percent required return is: NPV = –$138,000 + $28,500(PVIFA 8%, 9 ) = $40,036.31 At an 8 percent required return, the NPV is positive, so we would accept the project. The equation for the NPV of the project at a 20 percent required return is: NPV = –$138,000 + $28,500(PVIFA 20%, 9 ) = –$23,117.45 At a 20 percent required return, the NPV is negative, so we would reject the project. We would be indifferent to the project if the required return was equal to the IRR of the project, since at that required return the NPV is zero. The IRR of the project is: 0 = –$138,000 + $28,500(PVIFA IRR, 9 ) IRR = 14.59% 15. The profitability index is defined as the PV of the cash inflows divided by the PV of the cash outflows. The equation for the profitability index at a required return of 10 percent is: PI = [$7,300/1.1 + $6,900/1.1 2 + $5,700/1.1 3 ] / $14,000 = 1.187 The equation for the profitability index at a required return of 15 percent is: PI = [$7,300/1.15 + $6,900/1.15 2 + $5,700/1.15 3 ] / $14,000 = 1.094 The equation for the profitability index at a required return of 22 percent is: PI = [$7,300/1.22 + $6,900/1.22 2 + $5,700/1.22 3 ] / $14,000 = 0.983 8 / 17 We would accept the project if the required return were 10 percent or 15 percent since the PI is greater than one. We would reject the project if the required return were 22 percent since the PI。

罗斯《公司理财》第9版笔记和课后习题（含考研真题）详解[视频详解]（股票估值）【圣才出品】罗斯《公司理财》第9版笔记和课后习题（含考研真题）详解[视频详解]第9章股票估值9.1复习笔记1．不同类型股票的估值（1）零增长股利股利不变时，一股股票的价格由下式给出：在这里假定Div1=Div2=…=Div。

（2）固定增长率股利如果股利以恒定的速率增长，那么一股股票的价格就为：式中，g是增长率；Div是第一期期末的股利。

（3）变动增长率股利2．股利折现模型中的参数估计（1）对增长率g的估计有效估计增长率的方法是：g=留存收益比率×留存收益收益率（ROE）只要公司保持其股利支付率不变，g就可以表示公司的股利增长率以及盈利增长率。

（2）对折现率R的估计对于折现率R的估计为：R=Div/P0+g该式表明总收益率R由两部分组成。

其中，第一部分被称为股利收益率，是预期的现金股利与当前的价格之比。

3．增长机会每股股价可以写做：该式表明，每股股价可以看做两部分的加和。

第一部分（EPS/R）是当公司满足于现状，而将其盈利全部发放给投资者时的价值；第二部分是当公司将盈利留存并用于投资新项目时的新增价值。

当公司投资于正NPVGO的增长机会时，公司价值增加。

反之，当公司选择负NPVGO 的投资机会时，公司价值降低。

但是，不管项目的NPV是正的还是负的，盈利和股利都是增长的。

不应该折现利润来获得每股价格，因为有部分盈利被用于再投资了。

只有股利被分到股东手中，也只有股利可以加以折现以获得股票价格。

4．市盈率即股票的市盈率是三个因素的函数：（1）增长机会。

拥有强劲增长机会的公司具有高市盈率。

（2）风险。

低风险股票具有高市盈率。

（3）会计方法。

采用保守会计方法的公司具有高市盈率。

5．股票市场交易商：持有一项存货，然后准备在任何时点进行买卖。

经纪人：将买者和卖者撮合在一起，但并不持有存货。

9.2课后习题详解一、概念题1．股利支付率（payout ratio）答：股利支付率一般指公司发放给普通股股东的现金股利占总利润的比例。

Company Stock One option in the 401(k) plan is stock in East Coast Yachts. The company is currently privately held. However, when you interviewed with the owner, Larissa Warren, she informed you the company was expected to go public in the next three to four years. Until then, a company stock price is simply set each year by the board of directors.Bledsoe S&P 500 Index Fund This mutual fund tracks the S&P 500. Stocks in the fund are weighted exactly the same as the S&P 500. This means the fund return is approximately the return on the S&P 500, minus expenses. Because an index fund purchases assets based on the composition of the index it is following, the fund manager is not required to research stocks and make investment decisions. The result is that the fund expenses are usually low. The Bledsoe S&P 500 Index Fund charges expenses of .15 percent of assets per year.Bledsoe Small-Cap Fund This fund primarily invests in small-capitalization stocks. As such, the returns of the fund are more volatile. The fund can also invest 10 percent of its assets in companies based outside the United States. This fund charges 1.70 percent in expenses.Bledsoe Large-Company Stock Fund This fund invests primarily in large-capitalization stocks of companies based in the United States. The fund is managed by Evan Bledsoe and has outperformed the market in six of the last eight years. The fund charges 1.50 percent in expenses.Bledsoe Bond Fund This fund invests in long-term corporate bonds issued by U.S.–domiciled companies. The fund is restricted to investments in bonds with an investment-grade credit rating. This fund charges 1.40 percent in expenses.Bledsoe Money Market Fund This fund invests in short-term, high–credit quality debt instruments, which include Treasury bills. As such, the return on the money market fund is only slightly higher than the return on Treasury bills. Because of the credit quality and short-term nature of the investments, there is only a very slight risk of negative return. The fund charges .60 percent in expenses.1. What advantages do the mutual funds offer compared to the company stock?2. Assume that you invest 5 percent of your salary and receive the full 5 percent match from EastCoast Yachts. What EAR do you earn from the match? What conclusions do you draw about matching plans?3. Assume you decide you should invest at least part of your money in large-capitalization stocksof companies based in the United States. What are the advantages and disadvantages of choosing the Bledsoe Large-Company Stock Fund compared to the Bledsoe S&P 500 Index Fund?4. The returns on the Bledsoe Small-Cap Fund are the most volatile of all the mutual funds offeredin the 401(k) plan. Why would you ever want to invest in this fund? When you examine the expenses of the mutual funds, you will notice that this fund also has the highest expenses. Does this affect your decision to invest in this fund?5. A measure of risk-adjusted performance that is often used is the Sharpe ratio. The Sharpe ratiois calculated as the risk premium of an asset divided by its standard deviation. The standard deviations and returns of the funds over the past 10 years are listed here. Calculate the Sharpe ratio for each of these funds. Assume that the expected return and standard deviation of the company stock will be 16 percent and 70 percent, respectively. Calculate the Sharpe ratio for the company stock. How appropriate is the Sharpe ratio for these assets? When would you use the Sharpe ratio?6. What portfolio allocation would you choose? Why? Explain your thinking carefully.。

罗斯《公司理财》第9版笔记和课后习题（含考研真题）详解[视频详解]第1章公司理财导论[视频讲解]1.1复习笔记公司的首要目标——股东财富最大化决定了公司理财的目标。

公司理财研究的是稀缺资金如何在企业和市场内进行有效配置，它是在股份有限公司已成为现代企业制度最主要组织形式的时代背景下，就公司经营过程中的资金运动进行预测、组织、协调、分析和控制的一种决策与管理活动。

从决策角度来讲，公司理财的决策内容包括投资决策、筹资决策、股利决策和净流动资金决策；从管理角度来讲，公司理财的管理职能主要是指对资金筹集和资金投放的管理。

公司理财的基本内容包括：投资决策（资本预算）、融资决策（资本结构）、短期财务管理（营运资本）。

1．资产负债表资产负债表是总括反映企业某一特定日期财务状况的会计报表，它是根据资产、负债和所有者权益之间的相互关系，按照一定的分类标准和一定的顺序，把企业一定日期的资产、负债和所有者权益各项目予以适当排列，并对日常工作中形成的大量数据进行高度浓缩整理后编制而成的。

资产负债表可以反映资本预算、资本支出、资本结构以及经营中的现金流量管理等方面的内容。

2．资本结构资本结构是指企业各种资本的构成及其比例关系，它有广义和狭义之分。

广义资本结构，亦称财务结构，指企业全部资本的构成，既包括长期资本，也包括短期资本（主要指短期债务资本）。

狭义资本结构，主要指企业长期资本的构成，而不包括短期资本。

通常人们将资本结构表示为债务资本与权益资本的比例关系（D/E）或债务资本在总资本的构成（D/A）。

准确地讲，企业的资本结构应定义为有偿负债与所有者权益的比例。

资本结构是由企业采用各种筹资方式筹集资本形成的。

筹资方式的选择及组合决定着企业资本结构及其变化。

资本结构是企业筹资决策的核心问题。

企业应综合考虑影响资本结构的因素，运用适当方法优化资本结构，从而实现最佳资本结构。

资本结构优化有利于降低资本成本，获取财务杠杆利益。

3．财务经理财务经理是公司管理团队中的重要成员，其主要职责是通过资本预算、融资和资产流动性管理为公司创造价值。

CH5 11，13，18，19，2011.To find the PV of a lump sum, we use:PV = FV / (1 + r)tPV = $1,000,000 / (1.10)80 = $488.1913.To answer this question, we can use either the FV or the PV formula. Both will give the sameanswer since they are the inverse of each other. We will use the FV formula, that is:FV = PV(1 + r)tSolving for r, we get:r = (FV / PV)1 / t– 1r = ($1,260,000 / $150)1/112– 1 = .0840 or 8.40%To find the FV of the first prize, we use:FV = PV(1 + r)tFV = $1,260,000(1.0840)33 = $18,056,409.9418.To find the FV of a lump sum, we use:FV = PV(1 + r)tFV = $4,000(1.11)45 = $438,120.97FV = $4,000(1.11)35 = $154,299.40Better start early!19. We need to find the FV of a lump sum. However, the money will only be invested for six years,so the number of periods is six.FV = PV(1 + r)tFV = $20,000(1.084)6 = $32,449.3320.To answer this question, we can use either the FV or the PV formula. Both will give the sameanswer since they are the inverse of each other. We will use the FV formula, that is:FV = PV(1 + r)tSolving for t, we get:t = ln(FV / PV) / ln(1 + r)t = ln($75,000 / $10,000) / ln(1.11) = 19.31So, the money must be invested for 19.31 years. However, you will not receive the money for another two years. Fro m now, you’ll wait:2 years + 19.31 years = 21.31 yearsCH6 16，24，27，42，5816.For this problem, we simply need to find the FV of a lump sum using the equation:FV = PV(1 + r)tIt is important to note that compounding occurs semiannually. To account for this, we will divide the interest rate by two (the number of compounding periods in a year), and multiply the number of periods by two. Doing so, we get:FV = $2,100[1 + (.084/2)]34 = $8,505.9324.This problem requires us to find the FVA. The equation to find the FVA is:FVA = C{[(1 + r)t– 1] / r}FVA = $300[{[1 + (.10/12) ]360 – 1} / (.10/12)] = $678,146.3827.The cash flows are annual and the compounding period is quarterly, so we need to calculate theEAR to make the interest rate comparable with the timing of the cash flows. Using the equation for the EAR, we get:EAR = [1 + (APR / m)]m– 1EAR = [1 + (.11/4)]4– 1 = .1146 or 11.46%And now we use the EAR to find the PV of each cash flow as a lump sum and add them together: PV = $725 / 1.1146 + $980 / 1.11462 + $1,360 / 1.11464 = $2,320.3642.The amount of principal paid on the loan is the PV of the monthly payments you make. So, thepresent value of the $1,150 monthly payments is:PVA = $1,150[(1 – {1 / [1 + (.0635/12)]}360) / (.0635/12)] = $184,817.42The monthly payments of $1,150 will amount to a principal payment of $184,817.42. The amount of principal you will still owe is:$240,000 – 184,817.42 = $55,182.58This remaining principal amount will increase at the interest rate on the loan until the end of the loan period. So the balloon payment in 30 years, which is the FV of the remaining principal will be:Balloon payment = $55,182.58[1 + (.0635/12)]360 = $368,936.5458.To answer this question, we should find the PV of both options, and compare them. Since we arepurchasing the car, the lowest PV is the best option. The PV of the leasing is simply the PV of the lease payments, plus the $99. The interest rate we would use for the leasing option is thesame as the interest rate of the loan. The PV of leasing is:PV = $99 + $450{1 – [1 / (1 + .07/12)12(3)]} / (.07/12) = $14,672.91The PV of purchasing the car is the current price of the car minus the PV of the resale price. The PV of the resale price is:PV = $23,000 / [1 + (.07/12)]12(3) = $18,654.82The PV of the decision to purchase is:$32,000 – 18,654.82 = $13,345.18In this case, it is cheaper to buy the car than leasing it since the PV of the purchase cash flows is lower. To find the breakeven resale price, we need to find the resale price that makes the PV of the two options the same. In other words, the PV of the decision to buy should be:$32,000 – PV of resale price = $14,672.91PV of resale price = $17,327.09The resale price that would make the PV of the lease versus buy decision is the FV of this value, so:Breakeven resale price = $17,327.09[1 + (.07/12)]12(3) = $21,363.01CH7 3，18，21，22，313.The price of any bond is the PV of the interest payment, plus the PV of the par value. Notice thisproblem assumes an annual coupon. The price of the bond will be:P = $75({1 – [1/(1 + .0875)]10 } / .0875) + $1,000[1 / (1 + .0875)10] = $918.89We would like to introduce shorthand notation here. Rather than write (or type, as the case may be) the entire equation for the PV of a lump sum, or the PVA equation, it is common to abbreviate the equations as:PVIF R,t = 1 / (1 + r)twhich stands for Present Value Interest FactorPVIFA R,t= ({1 – [1/(1 + r)]t } / r )which stands for Present Value Interest Factor of an AnnuityThese abbreviations are short hand notation for the equations in which the interest rate and the number of periods are substituted into the equation and solved. We will use this shorthand notation in remainder of the solutions key.18.The bond price equation for this bond is:P0 = $1,068 = $46(PVIFA R%,18) + $1,000(PVIF R%,18)Using a spreadsheet, financial calculator, or trial and error we find:R = 4.06%This is the semiannual interest rate, so the YTM is:YTM = 2 4.06% = 8.12%The current yield is:Current yield = Annual coupon payment / Price = $92 / $1,068 = .0861 or 8.61%The effective annual yield is the same as the EAR, so using the EAR equation from the previous chapter:Effective annual yield = (1 + 0.0406)2– 1 = .0829 or 8.29%20. Accrued interest is the coupon payment for the period times the fraction of the period that haspassed since the last coupon payment. Since we have a semiannual coupon bond, the coupon payment per six months is one-half of the annual coupon payment. There are four months until the next coupon payment, so two months have passed since the last coupon payment. The accrued interest for the bond is:Accrued interest = $74/2 × 2/6 = $12.33And we calculate the clean price as:Clean price = Dirty price – Accrued interest = $968 – 12.33 = $955.6721. Accrued interest is the coupon payment for the period times the fraction of the period that haspassed since the last coupon payment. Since we have a semiannual coupon bond, the coupon payment per six months is one-half of the annual coupon payment. There are two months until the next coupon payment, so four months have passed since the last coupon payment. The accrued interest for the bond is:Accrued interest = $68/2 × 4/6 = $22.67And we calculate the dirty price as:Dirty price = Clean price + Accrued interest = $1,073 + 22.67 = $1,095.6722.To find the number of years to maturity for the bond, we need to find the price of the bond. Sincewe already have the coupon rate, we can use the bond price equation, and solve for the number of years to maturity. We are given the current yield of the bond, so we can calculate the price as: Current yield = .0755 = $80/P0P0 = $80/.0755 = $1,059.60Now that we have the price of the bond, the bond price equation is:P = $1,059.60 = $80[(1 – (1/1.072)t ) / .072 ] + $1,000/1.072tWe can solve this equation for t as follows:$1,059.60(1.072)t = $1,111.11(1.072)t– 1,111.11 + 1,000111.11 = 51.51(1.072)t2.1570 = 1.072tt = log 2.1570 / log 1.072 = 11.06 11 yearsThe bond has 11 years to maturity.31.The price of any bond (or financial instrument) is the PV of the future cash flows. Even thoughBond M makes different coupons payments, to find the price of the bond, we just find the PV of the cash flows. The PV of the cash flows for Bond M is:P M= $1,100(PVIFA3.5%,16)(PVIF3.5%,12) + $1,400(PVIFA3.5%,12)(PVIF3.5%,28) + $20,000(PVIF3.5%,40)P M= $19,018.78Notice that for the coupon payments of $1,400, we found the PVA for the coupon payments, and then discounted the lump sum back to today.Bond N is a zero coupon bond with a $20,000 par value, therefore, the price of the bond is the PV of the par, or:P N= $20,000(PVIF3.5%,40) = $5,051.45CH8 4，18，20，22，24ing the constant growth model, we find the price of the stock today is:P0 = D1 / (R– g) = $3.04 / (.11 – .038) = $42.2218.The price of a share of preferred stock is the dividend payment divided by the required return.We know the dividend payment in Year 20, so we can find the price of the stock in Year 19, one year before the first dividend payment. Doing so, we get:P19 = $20.00 / .064P19 = $312.50The price of the stock today is the PV of the stock price in the future, so the price today will be: P0 = $312.50 / (1.064)19P0 = $96.1520.We can use the two-stage dividend growth model for this problem, which is:P0 = [D0(1 + g1)/(R –g1)]{1 – [(1 + g1)/(1 + R)]T}+ [(1 + g1)/(1 + R)]T[D0(1 + g2)/(R –g2)]P0= [$1.25(1.28)/(.13 – .28)][1 – (1.28/1.13)8] + [(1.28)/(1.13)]8[$1.25(1.06)/(.13 – .06)]P0= $69.5522.We are asked to find the dividend yield and capital gains yield for each of the stocks. All of thestocks have a 15 percent required return, which is the sum of the dividend yield and the capital gains yield. To find the components of the total return, we need to find the stock price for each stock. Using this stock price and the dividend, we can calculate the dividend yield. The capital gains yield for the stock will be the total return (required return) minus the dividend yield.W: P0 = D0(1 + g) / (R–g) = $4.50(1.10)/(.19 – .10) = $55.00Dividend yield = D1/P0 = $4.50(1.10)/$55.00 = .09 or 9%Capital gains yield = .19 – .09 = .10 or 10%X: P0 = D0(1 + g) / (R–g) = $4.50/(.19 – 0) = $23.68Dividend yield = D1/P0 = $4.50/$23.68 = .19 or 19%Capital gains yield = .19 – .19 = 0%Y: P0 = D0(1 + g) / (R–g) = $4.50(1 – .05)/(.19 + .05) = $17.81Dividend yield = D1/P0 = $4.50(0.95)/$17.81 = .24 or 24%Capital gains yield = .19 – .24 = –.05 or –5%Z: P2 = D2(1 + g) / (R–g) = D0(1 + g1)2(1 + g2)/(R–g2) = $4.50(1.20)2(1.12)/(.19 – .12) = $103.68P0 = $4.50 (1.20) / (1.19) + $4.50 (1.20)2/ (1.19)2 + $103.68 / (1.19)2 = $82.33Dividend yield = D1/P0 = $4.50(1.20)/$82.33 = .066 or 6.6%Capital gains yield = .19 – .066 = .124 or 12.4%In all cases, the required return is 19%, but the return is distributed differently between current income and capital gains. High growth stocks have an appreciable capital gains component but a relatively small current income yield; conversely, mature, negative-growth stocks provide a high current income but also price depreciation over time.24.Here we have a stock with supernormal growth, but the dividend growth changes every year forthe first four years. We can find the price of the stock in Year 3 since the dividend growth rate is constant after the third dividend. The price of the stock in Year 3 will be the dividend in Year 4, divided by the required return minus the constant dividend growth rate. So, the price in Year 3 will be:P3 = $2.45(1.20)(1.15)(1.10)(1.05) / (.11 – .05) = $65.08The price of the stock today will be the PV of the first three dividends, plus the PV of the stock price in Year 3, so:P0 = $2.45(1.20)/(1.11) + $2.45(1.20)(1.15)/1.112 + $2.45(1.20)(1.15)(1.10)/1.113 + $65.08/1.113 P0 = $55.70CH9 3，4，6，9，153.Project A has cash flows of $19,000 in Year 1, so the cash flows are short by $21,000 ofrecapturing the initial investment, so the payback for Project A is:Payback = 1 + ($21,000 / $25,000) = 1.84 yearsProject B has cash flows of:Cash flows = $14,000 + 17,000 + 24,000 = $55,000during this first three years. The cash flows are still short by $5,000 of recapturing the initial investment, so the payback for Project B is:B: Payback = 3 + ($5,000 / $270,000) = 3.019 yearsUsing the payback criterion and a cutoff of 3 years, accept project A and reject project B.4.When we use discounted payback, we need to find the value of all cash flows today. The valuetoday of the project cash flows for the first four years is:Value today of Year 1 cash flow = $4,200/1.14 = $3,684.21Value today of Year 2 cash flow = $5,300/1.142 = $4,078.18Value today of Year 3 cash flow = $6,100/1.143 = $4,117.33Value today of Year 4 cash flow = $7,400/1.144 = $4,381.39To find the discounted payback, we use these values to find the payback period. The discounted first year cash flow is $3,684.21, so the discounted payback for a $7,000 initial cost is:Discounted payback = 1 + ($7,000 – 3,684.21)/$4,078.18 = 1.81 yearsFor an initial cost of $10,000, the discounted payback is:Discounted payback = 2 + ($10,000 – 3,684.21 – 4,078.18)/$4,117.33 = 2.54 yearsNotice the calculation of discounted payback. We know the payback period is between two and three years, so we subtract the discounted values of the Year 1 and Year 2 cash flows from the initial cost. This is the numerator, which is the discounted amount we still need to make to recover our initial investment. We divide this amount by the discounted amount we will earn in Year 3 to get the fractional portion of the discounted payback.If the initial cost is $13,000, the discounted payback is:Discounted payback = 3 + ($13,000 – 3,684.21 – 4,078.18 – 4,117.33) / $4,381.39 = 3.26 years6.Our definition of AAR is the average net income divided by the average book value. The averagenet income for this project is:Average net income = ($1,938,200 + 2,201,600 + 1,876,000 + 1,329,500) / 4 = $1,836,325And the average book value is:Average book value = ($15,000,000 + 0) / 2 = $7,500,000So, the AAR for this project is:AAR = Average net income / Average book value = $1,836,325 / $7,500,000 = .2448 or 24.48%9.The NPV of a project is the PV of the outflows minus the PV of the inflows. Since the cashinflows are an annuity, the equation for the NPV of this project at an 8 percent required return is: NPV = –$138,000 + $28,500(PVIFA8%, 9) = $40,036.31At an 8 percent required return, the NPV is positive, so we would accept the project.The equation for the NPV of the project at a 20 percent required return is:NPV = –$138,000 + $28,500(PVIFA20%, 9) = –$23,117.45At a 20 percent required return, the NPV is negative, so we would reject the project.We would be indifferent to the project if the required return was equal to the IRR of the project, since at that required return the NPV is zero. The IRR of the project is:0 = –$138,000 + $28,500(PVIFA IRR, 9)IRR = 14.59%15.The profitability index is defined as the PV of the cash inflows divided by the PV of the cashoutflows. The equation for the profitability index at a required return of 10 percent is:PI = [$7,300/1.1 + $6,900/1.12 + $5,700/1.13] / $14,000 = 1.187The equation for the profitability index at a required return of 15 percent is:PI = [$7,300/1.15 + $6,900/1.152 + $5,700/1.153] / $14,000 = 1.094The equation for the profitability index at a required return of 22 percent is:PI = [$7,300/1.22 + $6,900/1.222 + $5,700/1.223] / $14,000 = 0.983We would accept the project if the required return were 10 percent or 15 percent since the PI is greater than one. We would reject the project if the required return were 22 percent since the PI is less than one.CH10 9，13，14，17，18ing the tax shield approach to calculating OCF (Remember the approach is irrelevant; the finalanswer will be the same no matter which of the four methods you use.), we get:OCF = (Sales – Costs)(1 – t C) + t C DepreciationOCF = ($2,650,000 – 840,000)(1 – 0.35) + 0.35($3,900,000/3)OCF = $1,631,50013.First we will calculate the annual depreciation of the new equipment. It will be:Annual depreciation = $560,000/5Annual depreciation = $112,000Now, we calculate the aftertax salvage value. The aftertax salvage value is the market price minus (or plus) the taxes on the sale of the equipment, so:Aftertax salvage value = MV + (BV – MV)t cVery often the book value of the equipment is zero as it is in this case. If the book value is zero, the equation for the aftertax salvage value becomes:Aftertax salvage value = MV + (0 – MV)t cAftertax salvage value = MV(1 – t c)We will use this equation to find the aftertax salvage value since we know the book value is zero.So, the aftertax salvage value is:Aftertax salvage value = $85,000(1 – 0.34)Aftertax salvage value = $56,100Using the tax shield approach, we find the OCF for the project is:OCF = $165,000(1 – 0.34) + 0.34($112,000)OCF = $146,980Now we can find the project NPV. Notice we include the NWC in the initial cash outlay. The recovery of the NWC occurs in Year 5, along with the aftertax salvage value.NPV = –$560,000 – 29,000 + $146,980(PVIFA10%,5) + [($56,100 + 29,000) / 1.105]NPV = $21,010.2414.First we will calculate the annual depreciation of the new equipment. It will be:Annual depreciation charge = $720,000/5Annual depreciation charge = $144,000The aftertax salvage value of the equipment is:Aftertax salvage value = $75,000(1 – 0.35)Aftertax salvage value = $48,750Using the tax shield approach, the OCF is:OCF = $260,000(1 – 0.35) + 0.35($144,000)OCF = $219,400Now we can find the project IRR. There is an unusual feature that is a part of this project.Accepting this project means that we will reduce NWC. This reduction in NWC is a cash inflow at Year 0. This reduction in NWC implies that when the project ends, we will have to increase NWC. So, at the end of the project, we will have a cash outflow to restore the NWC to its level before the project. We also must include the aftertax salvage value at the end of the project. The IRR of the project is:NPV = 0 = –$720,000 + 110,000 + $219,400(PVIFA IRR%,5) + [($48,750 – 110,000) / (1+IRR)5]IRR = 21.65%17.We will need the aftertax salvage value of the equipment to compute the EAC. Even though theequipment for each product has a different initial cost, both have the same salvage value. The aftertax salvage value for both is:Both cases: aftertax salvage value = $40,000(1 – 0.35) = $26,000To calculate the EAC, we first need the OCF and NPV of each option. The OCF and NPV for Techron I is:OCF = –$67,000(1 – 0.35) + 0.35($290,000/3) = –9,716.67NPV = –$290,000 – $9,716.67(PVIFA10%,3) + ($26,000/1.103) = –$294,629.73EAC = –$294,629.73 / (PVIFA10%,3) = –$118,474.97And the OCF and NPV for Techron II is:OCF = –$35,000(1 – 0.35) + 0.35($510,000/5) = $12,950NPV = –$510,000 + $12,950(PVIFA10%,5) + ($26,000/1.105) = –$444,765.36EAC = –$444,765.36 / (PVIFA10%,5) = –$117,327.98The two milling machines have unequal lives, so they can only be compared by expressing both on an equivalent annual basis, which is what the EAC method does. Thus, you prefer the Techron II because it has the lower (less negative) annual cost.18.To find the bid price, we need to calculate all other cash flows for the project, and then solve forthe bid price. The aftertax salvage value of the equipment is:Aftertax salvage value = $70,000(1 – 0.35) = $45,500Now we can solve for the necessary OCF that will give the project a zero NPV. The equation for the NPV of the project is:NPV = 0 = –$940,000 – 75,000 + OCF(PVIFA12%,5) + [($75,000 + 45,500) / 1.125]Solving for the OCF, we find the OCF that makes the project NPV equal to zero is:OCF = $946,625.06 / PVIFA12%,5 = $262,603.01The easiest way to calculate the bid price is the tax shield approach, so:OCF = $262,603.01 = [(P – v)Q – FC ](1 – t c) + t c D$262,603.01 = [(P – $9.25)(185,000) – $305,000 ](1 – 0.35) + 0.35($940,000/5)P = $12.54CH14 6、9、20、23、246. The pretax cost of debt is the YTM of the company’s bonds, so:P0 = $1,070 = $35(PVIFA R%,30) + $1,000(PVIF R%,30)R = 3.137%YTM = 2 × 3.137% = 6.27%And the aftertax cost of debt is:R D = .0627(1 – .35) = .0408 or 4.08%9. ing the equation to calculate the WACC, we find:WACC = .60(.14) + .05(.06) + .35(.08)(1 – .35) = .1052 or 10.52%b.Since interest is tax deductible and dividends are not, we must look at the after-tax cost ofdebt, which is:.08(1 – .35) = .0520 or 5.20%Hence, on an after-tax basis, debt is cheaper than the preferred stock.ing the debt-equity ratio to calculate the WACC, we find:WACC = (.90/1.90)(.048) + (1/1.90)(.13) = .0912 or 9.12%Since the project is riskier than the company, we need to adjust the project discount rate for the additional risk. Using the subjective risk factor given, we find:Project discount rate = 9.12% + 2.00% = 11.12%We would accept the project if the NPV is positive. The NPV is the PV of the cash outflows plus the PV of the cash inflows. Since we have the costs, we just need to find the PV of inflows. The cash inflows are a growing perpetuity. If you remember, the equation for the PV of a growing perpetuity is the same as the dividend growth equation, so:PV of future CF = $2,700,000/(.1112 – .04) = $37,943,787The project should only be undertaken if its cost is less than $37,943,787 since costs less than this amount will result in a positive NPV.23. ing the dividend discount model, the cost of equity is:R E = [(0.80)(1.05)/$61] + .05R E = .0638 or 6.38%ing the CAPM, the cost of equity is:R E = .055 + 1.50(.1200 – .0550)R E = .1525 or 15.25%c.When using the dividend growth model or the CAPM, you must remember that both areestimates for the cost of equity. Additionally, and perhaps more importantly, each methodof estimating the cost of equity depends upon different assumptions.Challenge24.We can use the debt-equity ratio to calculate the weights of equity and debt. The debt of thecompany has a weight for long-term debt and a weight for accounts payable. We can use the weight given for accounts payable to calculate the weight of accounts payable and the weight of long-term debt. The weight of each will be:Accounts payable weight = .20/1.20 = .17Long-term debt weight = 1/1.20 = .83Since the accounts payable has the same cost as the overall WACC, we can write the equation for the WACC as:WACC = (1/1.7)(.14) + (0.7/1.7)[(.20/1.2)WACC + (1/1.2)(.08)(1 – .35)]Solving for WACC, we find:WACC = .0824 + .4118[(.20/1.2)WACC + .0433]WACC = .0824 + (.0686)WACC + .0178(.9314)WACC = .1002WACC = .1076 or 10.76%We will use basically the same equation to calculate the weighted average flotation cost, except we will use the flotation cost for each form of financing. Doing so, we get:Flotation costs = (1/1.7)(.08) + (0.7/1.7)[(.20/1.2)(0) + (1/1.2)(.04)] = .0608 or 6.08%The total amount we need to raise to fund the new equipment will be:Amount raised cost = $45,000,000/(1 – .0608)Amount raised = $47,912,317Since the cash flows go to perpetuity, we can calculate the present value using the equation for the PV of a perpetuity. The NPV is:NPV = –$47,912,317 + ($6,200,000/.1076)NPV = $9,719,777CH16 1，4，12，14，171. a. A table outlining the income statement for the three possible states of the economy isshown below. The EPS is the net income divided by the 5,000 shares outstanding. The lastrow shows the percentage change in EPS the company will experience in a recession or anexpansion economy.Recession Normal ExpansionEBIT $14,000 $28,000 $36,400Interest 0 0 0NI $14,000 $28,000 $36,400EPS $ 2.80 $ 5.60 $ 7.28%∆EPS –50 –––+30b.If the company undergoes the proposed recapitalization, it will repurchase:Share price = Equity / Shares outstandingShare price = $250,000/5,000Share price = $50Shares repurchased = Debt issued / Share priceShares repurchased =$90,000/$50Shares repurchased = 1,800The interest payment each year under all three scenarios will be:Interest payment = $90,000(.07) = $6,300The last row shows the percentage change in EPS the company will experience in arecession or an expansion economy under the proposed recapitalization.Recession Normal ExpansionEBIT $14,000 $28,000 $36,400Interest 6,300 6,300 6,300NI $7,700 $21,700 $30,100EPS $2.41 $ 6.78 $9.41%∆EPS –64.52 –––+38.714. a.Under Plan I, the unlevered company, net income is the same as EBIT with no corporate tax.The EPS under this capitalization will be:EPS = $350,000/160,000 sharesEPS = $2.19Under Plan II, the levered company, EBIT will be reduced by the interest payment. The interest payment is the amount of debt times the interest rate, so:NI = $500,000 – .08($2,800,000)NI = $126,000And the EPS will be:EPS = $126,000/80,000 sharesEPS = $1.58Plan I has the higher EPS when EBIT is $350,000.b.Under Plan I, the net income is $500,000 and the EPS is:EPS = $500,000/160,000 sharesEPS = $3.13Under Plan II, the net income is:NI = $500,000 – .08($2,800,000)NI = $276,000And the EPS is:EPS = $276,000/80,000 sharesEPS = $3.45Plan II has the higher EPS when EBIT is $500,000.c.To find the breakeven EBIT for two different capital structures, we simply set the equationsfor EPS equal to each other and solve for EBIT. The breakeven EBIT is:EBIT/160,000 = [EBIT – .08($2,800,000)]/80,000EBIT = $448,00012. a.With the information provided, we can use the equation for calculating WACC to find thecost of equity. The equation for WACC is:WACC = (E/V)R E + (D/V)R D(1 – t C)The company has a debt-equity ratio of 1.5, which implies the weight of debt is 1.5/2.5, and the weight of equity is 1/2.5, soWACC = .10 = (1/2.5)R E + (1.5/2.5)(.07)(1 – .35)R E = .1818 or 18.18%b.To find the unlevered cost of equity we need to use M&M Proposition II with taxes, so:R E = R U + (R U– R D)(D/E)(1 – t C).1818 = R U + (R U– .07)(1.5)(1 – .35)R U = .1266 or 12.66%c.To find the cost of equity under different capital structures, we can again use M&MProposition II with taxes. With a debt-equity ratio of 2, the cost of equity is:R E = R U + (R U– R D)(D/E)(1 – t C)R E = .1266 + (.1266 – .07)(2)(1 – .35)R E = .2001 or 20.01%With a debt-equity ratio of 1.0, the cost of equity is:R E = .1266 + (.1266 – .07)(1)(1 – .35)R E = .1634 or 16.34%And with a debt-equity ratio of 0, the cost of equity is:R E = .1266 + (.1266 – .07)(0)(1 – .35)R E = R U = .1266 or 12.66%14. a.The value of the unlevered firm is:V U = EBIT(1 – t C)/R UV U = $92,000(1 – .35)/.15V U = $398,666.67b.The value of the levered firm is:V U = V U + t C DV U = $398,666.67 + .35($60,000)V U = $419,666.6717.With no debt, we are finding the value of an unlevered firm, so:V U = EBIT(1 – t C)/R UV U = $14,000(1 – .35)/.16V U = $56,875With debt, we simply need to use the equation for the value of a levered firm. With 50 percent debt, one-half of the firm value is debt, so the value of the levered firm is:V L = V U + t C(D/V)V UV L = $56,875 + .35(.50)($56,875)V L = $66,828.13And with 100 percent debt, the value of the firm is:V L = V U + t C(D/V)V UV L = $56,875 + .35(1.0)($56,875)V L = $76,781.25c.The net cash flows is the present value of the average daily collections times the daily interest rate, minus the transaction cost per day, so:Net cash flow per day = $1,276,275(.0002) – $0.50(385)Net cash flow per day = $62.76The net cash flow per check is the net cash flow per day divided by the number of checksreceived per day, or:Net cash flow per check = $62.76/385Net cash flow per check = $0.16Alternatively, we could find the net cash flow per check as the number of days the system reduces collection time times the average check amount times the daily interest rate, minusthe transaction cost per check. Doing so, we confirm our previous answer as:Net cash flow per check = 3($1,105)(.0002) – $0.50Net cash flow per check = $0.16 per checkThis makes the total costs:Total costs = $18,900,000 + 56,320,000 = $75,220,000The flotation costs as a percentage of the amount raised is the total cost divided by the amount raised, so:Flotation cost percentage = $75,220,000/$180,780,000 = .4161 or 41.61%8.The number of rights needed per new share is:Number of rights needed = 120,000 old shares/25,000 new shares = 4.8 rights per new share.Using P RO as the rights-on price, and P S as the subscription price, we can express the price per share of the stock ex-rights as:P X = [NP RO + P S]/(N + 1)a.P X = [4.8($94) + $94]/(4.80 + 1) = $94.00; No change.b. P X = [4.8($94) + $90]/(4.80 + 1) = $93.31; Price drops by $0.69 per share.。

罗斯《公司理财》（第9版）笔记和课后习题详解第1章公司理财导论1.1复习笔记公司的首要目标——股东财富最大化决定了公司理财的目标。

公司理财研究的是稀缺资金如何在企业和市场内进行有效配置，它是在股份有限公司已成为现代企业制度最主要组织形式的时代背景下，就公司经营过程中的资金运动进行预测、组织、协调、分析和控制的一种决策与管理活动。

从决策角度来讲，公司理财的决策内容包括投资决策、筹资决策、股利决策和净流动资金决策；从管理角度来讲，公司理财的管理职能主要是指对资金筹集和资金投放的管理。

公司理财的基本内容包括：投资决策（资本预算）、融资决策（资本结构）、短期财务管理（营运资本）。

1．资产负债表资产负债表是总括反映企业某一特定日期财务状况的会计报表，它是根据资产、负债和所有者权益之间的相互关系，按照一定的分类标准和一定的顺序，把企业一定日期的资产、负债和所有者权益各项目予以适当排列，并对日常工作中形成的大量数据进行高度浓缩整理后编制而成的。

资产负债表可以反映资本预算、资本支出、资本结构以及经营中的现金流量管理等方面的内容。

2．资本结构资本结构是指企业各种资本的构成及其比例关系，它有广义和狭义之分。

广义资本结构，亦称财务结构，指企业全部资本的构成，既包括长期资本，也包括短期资本（主要指短期债务资本）。

狭义资本结构，主要指企业长期资本的构成，而不包括短期资本。

通常人们将资本结构表示为债务资本与权益资本的比例关系（D/E）或债务资本在总资本的构成（D/A）。

准确地讲，企业的资本结构应定义为有偿负债与所有者权益的比例。

资本结构是由企业采用各种筹资方式筹集资本形成的。

筹资方式的选择及组合决定着企业资本结构及其变化。

资本结构是企业筹资决策的核心问题。

企业应综合考虑影响资本结构的因素，运用适当方法优化资本结构，从而实现最佳资本结构。

资本结构优化有利于降低资本成本，获取财务杠杆利益。

3．财务经理财务经理是公司管理团队中的重要成员，其主要职责是通过资本预算、融资和资产流动性管理为公司创造价值。

公司理财第九版课后习题答案【公司理财第九版课后习题答案】在公司理财的学习过程中，课后习题是巩固知识、检验理解的重要环节。

本文将针对《公司理财第九版》的课后习题进行解答，帮助读者更好地掌握相关知识。

第一章：公司理财概述1. 什么是公司理财？它的目标是什么？公司理财是指公司在经营过程中，通过合理配置资金和资源，实现财务目标的过程。

其目标是最大化股东财富，即通过提高公司的市场价值和股东权益来实现。

2. 公司理财的主要职能有哪些？公司理财的主要职能包括资金筹集、资金配置、资金运营和风险管理。

资金筹集指的是公司通过各种途径获取资金；资金配置是指公司将资金投入到不同的项目和资产中；资金运营是指公司对资金进行有效管理和运用；风险管理是指公司对各种风险进行识别、评估和控制。

第二章：财务报表与财务分析1. 财务报表包括哪些内容？它们的作用是什么？财务报表包括资产负债表、利润表、现金流量表和所有者权益变动表。

资产负债表反映了公司在特定日期的资产、负债和所有者权益的状况；利润表反映了公司在一定期间内的收入、成本和利润的情况；现金流量表反映了公司在一定期间内的现金流入和流出情况；所有者权益变动表反映了公司在一定期间内所有者权益的变动情况。

财务报表的作用是提供给内外部利益相关者对公司财务状况和经营情况进行评估和决策的依据。

2. 财务分析的方法有哪些？它们的应用场景分别是什么？财务分析的方法包括比率分析、趋势分析和财务比较分析。

比率分析通过计算各种财务比率，评估公司的经营状况和财务健康度；趋势分析通过比较公司在不同期间的财务数据，分析其发展趋势和变化情况；财务比较分析通过比较不同公司或同一行业内公司的财务数据，评估其相对优劣和竞争力。

比率分析适用于评估公司的财务状况和经营能力；趋势分析适用于分析公司的发展趋势和变化情况；财务比较分析适用于评估公司的相对竞争力和行业地位。

第三章：资本预算和投资决策1. 什么是资本预算？它的意义是什么？资本预算是指公司在一定时期内，对于可供选择的投资项目进行评估和选择的过程。

答案大部分是计算题，参考英文答案翻译，便于理解就好，每章前面几个小题和第八版一样的（附上第八版答案）我自己翻译的，我上传到我的新浪微博上了，你自己去看，我的新浪微博ID：一直在奋斗的大洪这是部分翻译习题答案：第1、2、3、4、5、6、7、8、9、10、14、15、16、17、18、26、27、28章案例答案：第2、3、4、5、15、18章第1章1、在所有权形式的公司中，股东是公司的所有者。

股东选举公司的董事会,董事会任命该公司的管理层。

企业的所有权和控制权分离的组织形式是导致的代理关系存在的主要原因。

管理者可能追求自身或别人的利益最大化，而不是股东的利益最大化。

在这种环境下，他们可能因为目标不一致而存在代理问题。

2、非营利公司经常追求社会或政治任务等各种目标。

非营利公司财务管理的目标是获取并有效使用资金以最大限度地实现组织的社会使命。

3、这句话是不正确的。

管理者实施财务管理的目标就是最大化现有股票的每股价值，当前的股票价值反映了短期和长期的风险、时间以及未来现金流量。

4、有两种结论。

一种极端，在市场经济中所有的东西都被定价。

因此所有目标都有一个最优水平，包括避免不道德或非法的行为，股票价值最大化。

另一种极端，我们可以认为这是非经济现象,最好的处理方式是通过政治手段。

一个经典的思考问题给出了这种争论的答案：公司估计提高某种产品安全性的成本是30美元万。

然而,该公司认为提高产品的安全性只会节省20美元万。

请问公司应该怎么做呢?”5、财务管理的目标都是相同的，但实现目标的最好方式可能是不同的，因为不同的国家有不同的社会、政治环境和经济制度。

6、管理层的目标是最大化股东现有股票的每股价值。

如果管理层认为能提高公司利润，使股价超过35美元,那么他们应该展开对恶意收购的斗争。

如果管理层认为该投标人或其它未知的投标人将支付超过每股35美元的价格收购公司,那么他们也应该展开斗争。

然而,如果管理层不能增加企业的价值并且没有其他更高的投标价格,那么管理层不是在为股东的最大化权益行事。

====Word行业资料分享--可编辑版本--双击可删====附录B各章习题及部分习题答案APPENDIX B目录Contents第一部分公司理财概览第三部分未来现金流量估价第1章公司理财导论3 第5章估价导论：货币的时间价值39 概念复习和重要的思考题 4 本章复习与自测题40微型案例麦吉糕点公司 5 本章复习与自测题解答40第2章财务报表、税和现金流量6 概念复习和重要的思考题40 本章复习与自测题7 思考和练习题41本章复习与自测题解答7 第6章贴现现金流量估价43概念复习和重要的思考题8 本章复习与自测题44思考和练习题9 本章复习与自测题解答44微型案例Sunset Boards公司的现金流量和概念复习和重要的思考题46财务报表13 思考和练习题4652第二部分财务报表与长期财务计划微型案例读MBA的决策第7章利率和债券估价54第3章利用财务报表17 本章复习与自测题55本章复习与自测题18 本章复习与自测题解答55本章复习与自测题解答19 概念复习和重要的思考题55概念复习和重要的思考题20 思考和练习题56思考和练习题21 微型案例基于债券发行的S&S飞机公司的微型案例针对S&S飞机公司的财务比率扩张计划59分析24 第8章股票估价60第4章长期财务计划与增长27 本章复习与自测题61本章复习与自测题28 本章复习与自测题解答61本章复习与自测题解答28 概念复习和重要的思考题61概念复习和重要的思考题29 思考和练习题62思考和练习题30 微型案例Ragan公司的股票估价64微型案例S&S飞机公司的比率与财务计划35III第四部分资本预算第9章净现值与其他投资准绳69 第六部分资本成本与长期财务政策第14章资本成本111本章复习与自测题70 本章复习与自测题112本章复习与自测题解答概念复习和重要的思考题7071本章复习与自测题解答概念复习和重要的思考题112112思考和练习题73 思考和练习题113第10章资本性投资决策77 第15章筹集资本117 本章复习与自测题78 本章复习与自测题118本章复习与自测题解答概念复习和重要的思考题7880本章复习与自测题解答概念复习和重要的思考题118118思考和练习题80 思考和练习题120微型案例贝壳共和电子公司（一）85 微型案例S&S飞机公司的上市121 第11章项目分析与评估86 第16章财务杠杆和资本结构政策123 本章复习与自测题87 本章复习与自测题124本章复习与自测题解答概念复习和重要的思考题8787本章复习与自测题解答概念复习和重要的思考题124124思考和练习题88 思考和练习题125微型案例贝壳共和电子公司（二）第五部分风险与报酬第12章资本市场历史的一些启示95 91 微型案例斯蒂芬森房地产公司的资本重组127第17章股利和股利政策129概念复习和重要的思考题130本章复习与自测题96 思考和练习题130本章复习与自测题解答概念复习和重要的思考题思考和练习题97 9696微型案例电子计时公司133第七部分短期财务计划与管理微型案例S&S飞机公司的职位99 第18章短期财务与计划137第13章报酬、风险与证券市场线101 本章复习与自测题138 本章复习与自测题102 本章复习与自测题解答138本章复习与自测题解答概念复习和重要的思考题102103概念复习和重要的思考题139思考和练习题140思考和练习题104 微型案例Piepkorn制造公司的营运成本管微型案例高露洁棕榄公司的 值108 理145IV第19章现金和流动性管理147本章复习与自测题148本章复习与自测题解答148概念复习和重要的思考题148思考和练习题149微型案例Webb公司的现金管理150 第20章信用和存货管理151本章复习与自测题152本章复习与自测题解答152概念复习和重要的思考题152思考和练习题153微型案例豪利特实业公司的信用政策155第八部分公司理财专题第21章国际公司理财159本章复习与自测题160本章复习与自测题解答160概念复习和重要的思考题160思考和练习题161微型案例S&S飞机公司的国际化经营163 部分习题答案165PART 1第一部分公司理财概览====Word行业资料分享--可编辑版本--双击可删====第1章公司理财导论CHAPTER 14附录概念复习和重要的思考题1.财务管理决策过程财务管理决策有哪三种类型？就每一种类型，举出一个相关的企业交易实例。

第10章5、因为投资组合F的β=0，所以其预期收益等于无风险利率对于投资组合A，风险溢价与β的比率为（12-6）/1.2=5对于投资组合E，风险溢价与β的比率为（8-6）/0.6=3.33对比表明，这里有套现机会存在。

例如，我们能创建一个投资组合G，其包含投资组合A和投资组合F，并且两者有相等的权重，使它满足β等于0.6；这样投资组合F的期望收益和β为：E(rG ) = (0.5 × 12%) + (0.5 × 6%) = 9%βG = (0.5 × 1.2) + (0.5 × 0%) = 0.6对比投资组合G和投资组合E，投资组合G跟E具有相同的β值，但具有更高的期望收益。

因此通过买入投资组合G，并卖出相同数量投资组合E资产就可以实现套现机会。

这种套现利润：rG – rE =[9% + (0.6 × F)] [8% + (0.6 × F)] = 1%6、设无风险利率为rf，风险溢价因素RP，则：12% = rf + (1.2 × RP)9% = rf + (0.8 × RP)解之得：rf=3%，RP=7.5%7、a 、由题目知，买进100万美元等权重的正α值的股票并同时卖出100万美元的等权重的负α值的股票；假定市场风险为0；则预期收益为：$1,000,000*0.02-$1,000,000*(-0.02)=$40,000b 、对于分析师分析的20只股票，每只股票持有时都分别为$100,000，市场风险为0，公司持有的收益标准差为30%，所以20只股票的方差为20 × [($100,000 × 0.30)* ($100,000 × 0.30)] = $18,000,000,000故标准差为$134,164a 、 如果分析师分析的是50只股票，那么每只股票持有时都分别为$40,000，计算收益方差：50 × [(40,000 × 0.30)* (40,000 × 0.30)] = 7,200,000,000故标准差为$84,853；由于总投入资金不变，α值不变，故其期望收益也不变，为$40,0008、a 、)e (22M22σ+σβ=σ 88125)208.0(2222=+⨯=A σ50010)200.1(2222B =+⨯=σ97620)202.1(2222C =+⨯=σb 、如果资产种类很多，并且具有相同的收益特征，每一个种类的充分分散投资组合将存在唯一的系统风险，因为非系统性风险随着n 的无穷大会趋近于0，因此充分分散的投资组合的超额收益方差的均值为：2562=A σ4002=B σ5762=C σC 、市场中不存在套现机会第11章9、答案：C。

CH5 11，13，18，19，2011.To find the PV of a lump sum, we use:PV = FV / (1 + r)tPV = $1,000,000 / (1.10)80 = $488.1913.To answer this question, we can use either the FV or the PV formula. Both will give the sameanswer since they are the inverse of each other. We will use the FV formula, that is:FV = PV(1 + r)tSolving for r, we get:r = (FV / PV)1 / t– 1r = ($1,260,000 / $150)1/112– 1 = .0840 or 8.40%To find the FV of the first prize, we use:FV = PV(1 + r)tFV = $1,260,000(1.0840)33 = $18,056,409.9418.To find the FV of a lump sum, we use:FV = PV(1 + r)tFV = $4,000(1.11)45 = $438,120.97FV = $4,000(1.11)35 = $154,299.40Better start early!19. We need to find the FV of a lump sum. However, the money will only be invested for six years,so the number of periods is six.FV = PV(1 + r)tFV = $20,000(1.084)6 = $32,449.3320.To answer this question, we can use either the FV or the PV formula. Both will give the sameanswer since they are the inverse of each other. We will use the FV formula, that is:FV = PV(1 + r)tSolving for t, we get:t = ln(FV / PV) / ln(1 + r)t = ln($75,000 / $10,000) / ln(1.11) = 19.31So, the money must be invested for 19.31 years. However, you will not receive the money for another two years. Fro m now, you’ll wait:2 years + 19.31 years = 21.31 yearsCH6 16，24，27，42，5816.For this problem, we simply need to find the FV of a lump sum using the equation:FV = PV(1 + r)tIt is important to note that compounding occurs semiannually. To account for this, we will divide the interest rate by two (the number of compounding periods in a year), and multiply the number of periods by two. Doing so, we get:FV = $2,100[1 + (.084/2)]34 = $8,505.9324.This problem requires us to find the FVA. The equation to find the FVA is:FVA = C{[(1 + r)t– 1] / r}FVA = $300[{[1 + (.10/12) ]360 – 1} / (.10/12)] = $678,146.3827.The cash flows are annual and the compounding period is quarterly, so we need to calculate theEAR to make the interest rate comparable with the timing of the cash flows. Using the equation for the EAR, we get:EAR = [1 + (APR / m)]m– 1EAR = [1 + (.11/4)]4– 1 = .1146 or 11.46%And now we use the EAR to find the PV of each cash flow as a lump sum and add them together: PV = $725 / 1.1146 + $980 / 1.11462 + $1,360 / 1.11464 = $2,320.3642.The amount of principal paid on the loan is the PV of the monthly payments you make. So, thepresent value of the $1,150 monthly payments is:PVA = $1,150[(1 – {1 / [1 + (.0635/12)]}360) / (.0635/12)] = $184,817.42The monthly payments of $1,150 will amount to a principal payment of $184,817.42. The amount of principal you will still owe is:$240,000 – 184,817.42 = $55,182.58This remaining principal amount will increase at the interest rate on the loan until the end of the loan period. So the balloon payment in 30 years, which is the FV of the remaining principal will be:Balloon payment = $55,182.58[1 + (.0635/12)]360 = $368,936.5458.To answer this question, we should find the PV of both options, and compare them. Since we arepurchasing the car, the lowest PV is the best option. The PV of the leasing is simply the PV of the lease payments, plus the $99. The interest rate we would use for the leasing option is thesame as the interest rate of the loan. The PV of leasing is:PV = $99 + $450{1 – [1 / (1 + .07/12)12(3)]} / (.07/12) = $14,672.91The PV of purchasing the car is the current price of the car minus the PV of the resale price. The PV of the resale price is:PV = $23,000 / [1 + (.07/12)]12(3) = $18,654.82The PV of the decision to purchase is:$32,000 – 18,654.82 = $13,345.18In this case, it is cheaper to buy the car than leasing it since the PV of the purchase cash flows is lower. To find the breakeven resale price, we need to find the resale price that makes the PV of the two options the same. In other words, the PV of the decision to buy should be:$32,000 – PV of resale price = $14,672.91PV of resale price = $17,327.09The resale price that would make the PV of the lease versus buy decision is the FV of this value, so:Breakeven resale price = $17,327.09[1 + (.07/12)]12(3) = $21,363.01CH7 3，18，21，22，313.The price of any bond is the PV of the interest payment, plus the PV of the par value. Notice thisproblem assumes an annual coupon. The price of the bond will be:P = $75({1 – [1/(1 + .0875)]10 } / .0875) + $1,000[1 / (1 + .0875)10] = $918.89We would like to introduce shorthand notation here. Rather than write (or type, as the case may be) the entire equation for the PV of a lump sum, or the PVA equation, it is common to abbreviate the equations as:PVIF R,t = 1 / (1 + r)twhich stands for Present Value Interest FactorPVIFA R,t= ({1 – [1/(1 + r)]t } / r )which stands for Present Value Interest Factor of an AnnuityThese abbreviations are short hand notation for the equations in which the interest rate and the number of periods are substituted into the equation and solved. We will use this shorthand notation in remainder of the solutions key.18.The bond price equation for this bond is:P0 = $1,068 = $46(PVIFA R%,18) + $1,000(PVIF R%,18)Using a spreadsheet, financial calculator, or trial and error we find:R = 4.06%This is the semiannual interest rate, so the YTM is:YTM = 2 4.06% = 8.12%The current yield is:Current yield = Annual coupon payment / Price = $92 / $1,068 = .0861 or 8.61%The effective annual yield is the same as the EAR, so using the EAR equation from the previous chapter:Effective annual yield = (1 + 0.0406)2– 1 = .0829 or 8.29%20. Accrued interest is the coupon payment for the period times the fraction of the period that haspassed since the last coupon payment. Since we have a semiannual coupon bond, the coupon payment per six months is one-half of the annual coupon payment. There are four months until the next coupon payment, so two months have passed since the last coupon payment. The accrued interest for the bond is:Accrued interest = $74/2 × 2/6 = $12.33And we calculate the clean price as:Clean price = Dirty price – Accrued interest = $968 – 12.33 = $955.6721. Accrued interest is the coupon payment for the period times the fraction of the period that haspassed since the last coupon payment. Since we have a semiannual coupon bond, the coupon payment per six months is one-half of the annual coupon payment. There are two months until the next coupon payment, so four months have passed since the last coupon payment. The accrued interest for the bond is:Accrued interest = $68/2 × 4/6 = $22.67And we calculate the dirty price as:Dirty price = Clean price + Accrued interest = $1,073 + 22.67 = $1,095.6722.To find the number of years to maturity for the bond, we need to find the price of the bond. Sincewe already have the coupon rate, we can use the bond price equation, and solve for the number of years to maturity. We are given the current yield of the bond, so we can calculate the price as: Current yield = .0755 = $80/P0P0 = $80/.0755 = $1,059.60Now that we have the price of the bond, the bond price equation is:P = $1,059.60 = $80[(1 – (1/1.072)t ) / .072 ] + $1,000/1.072tWe can solve this equation for t as follows:$1,059.60(1.072)t = $1,111.11(1.072)t– 1,111.11 + 1,000111.11 = 51.51(1.072)t2.1570 = 1.072tt = log 2.1570 / log 1.072 = 11.06 11 yearsThe bond has 11 years to maturity.31.The price of any bond (or financial instrument) is the PV of the future cash flows. Even thoughBond M makes different coupons payments, to find the price of the bond, we just find the PV of the cash flows. The PV of the cash flows for Bond M is:P M= $1,100(PVIFA3.5%,16)(PVIF3.5%,12) + $1,400(PVIFA3.5%,12)(PVIF3.5%,28) + $20,000(PVIF3.5%,40)P M= $19,018.78Notice that for the coupon payments of $1,400, we found the PVA for the coupon payments, and then discounted the lump sum back to today.Bond N is a zero coupon bond with a $20,000 par value, therefore, the price of the bond is the PV of the par, or:P N= $20,000(PVIF3.5%,40) = $5,051.45CH8 4，18，20，22，24ing the constant growth model, we find the price of the stock today is:P0 = D1 / (R– g) = $3.04 / (.11 – .038) = $42.2218.The price of a share of preferred stock is the dividend payment divided by the required return.We know the dividend payment in Year 20, so we can find the price of the stock in Year 19, one year before the first dividend payment. Doing so, we get:P19 = $20.00 / .064P19 = $312.50The price of the stock today is the PV of the stock price in the future, so the price today will be: P0 = $312.50 / (1.064)19P0 = $96.1520.We can use the two-stage dividend growth model for this problem, which is:P0 = [D0(1 + g1)/(R –g1)]{1 – [(1 + g1)/(1 + R)]T}+ [(1 + g1)/(1 + R)]T[D0(1 + g2)/(R –g2)]P0= [$1.25(1.28)/(.13 – .28)][1 – (1.28/1.13)8] + [(1.28)/(1.13)]8[$1.25(1.06)/(.13 – .06)]P0= $69.5522.We are asked to find the dividend yield and capital gains yield for each of the stocks. All of thestocks have a 15 percent required return, which is the sum of the dividend yield and the capital gains yield. To find the components of the total return, we need to find the stock price for each stock. Using this stock price and the dividend, we can calculate the dividend yield. The capital gains yield for the stock will be the total return (required return) minus the dividend yield.W: P0 = D0(1 + g) / (R–g) = $4.50(1.10)/(.19 – .10) = $55.00Dividend yield = D1/P0 = $4.50(1.10)/$55.00 = .09 or 9%Capital gains yield = .19 – .09 = .10 or 10%X: P0 = D0(1 + g) / (R–g) = $4.50/(.19 – 0) = $23.68Dividend yield = D1/P0 = $4.50/$23.68 = .19 or 19%Capital gains yield = .19 – .19 = 0%Y: P0 = D0(1 + g) / (R–g) = $4.50(1 – .05)/(.19 + .05) = $17.81Dividend yield = D1/P0 = $4.50(0.95)/$17.81 = .24 or 24%Capital gains yield = .19 – .24 = –.05 or –5%Z: P2 = D2(1 + g) / (R–g) = D0(1 + g1)2(1 + g2)/(R–g2) = $4.50(1.20)2(1.12)/(.19 – .12) = $103.68P0 = $4.50 (1.20) / (1.19) + $4.50 (1.20)2/ (1.19)2 + $103.68 / (1.19)2 = $82.33Dividend yield = D1/P0 = $4.50(1.20)/$82.33 = .066 or 6.6%Capital gains yield = .19 – .066 = .124 or 12.4%In all cases, the required return is 19%, but the return is distributed differently between current income and capital gains. High growth stocks have an appreciable capital gains component but a relatively small current income yield; conversely, mature, negative-growth stocks provide a high current income but also price depreciation over time.24.Here we have a stock with supernormal growth, but the dividend growth changes every year forthe first four years. We can find the price of the stock in Year 3 since the dividend growth rate is constant after the third dividend. The price of the stock in Year 3 will be the dividend in Year 4, divided by the required return minus the constant dividend growth rate. So, the price in Year 3 will be:P3 = $2.45(1.20)(1.15)(1.10)(1.05) / (.11 – .05) = $65.08The price of the stock today will be the PV of the first three dividends, plus the PV of the stock price in Year 3, so:P0 = $2.45(1.20)/(1.11) + $2.45(1.20)(1.15)/1.112 + $2.45(1.20)(1.15)(1.10)/1.113 + $65.08/1.113 P0 = $55.70CH9 3，4，6，9，153.Project A has cash flows of $19,000 in Year 1, so the cash flows are short by $21,000 ofrecapturing the initial investment, so the payback for Project A is:Payback = 1 + ($21,000 / $25,000) = 1.84 yearsProject B has cash flows of:Cash flows = $14,000 + 17,000 + 24,000 = $55,000during this first three years. The cash flows are still short by $5,000 of recapturing the initial investment, so the payback for Project B is:B: Payback = 3 + ($5,000 / $270,000) = 3.019 yearsUsing the payback criterion and a cutoff of 3 years, accept project A and reject project B.4.When we use discounted payback, we need to find the value of all cash flows today. The valuetoday of the project cash flows for the first four years is:Value today of Year 1 cash flow = $4,200/1.14 = $3,684.21Value today of Year 2 cash flow = $5,300/1.142 = $4,078.18Value today of Year 3 cash flow = $6,100/1.143 = $4,117.33Value today of Year 4 cash flow = $7,400/1.144 = $4,381.39To find the discounted payback, we use these values to find the payback period. The discounted first year cash flow is $3,684.21, so the discounted payback for a $7,000 initial cost is:Discounted payback = 1 + ($7,000 – 3,684.21)/$4,078.18 = 1.81 yearsFor an initial cost of $10,000, the discounted payback is:Discounted payback = 2 + ($10,000 – 3,684.21 – 4,078.18)/$4,117.33 = 2.54 yearsNotice the calculation of discounted payback. We know the payback period is between two and three years, so we subtract the discounted values of the Year 1 and Year 2 cash flows from the initial cost. This is the numerator, which is the discounted amount we still need to make to recover our initial investment. We divide this amount by the discounted amount we will earn in Year 3 to get the fractional portion of the discounted payback.If the initial cost is $13,000, the discounted payback is:Discounted payback = 3 + ($13,000 – 3,684.21 – 4,078.18 – 4,117.33) / $4,381.39 = 3.26 years6.Our definition of AAR is the average net income divided by the average book value. The averagenet income for this project is:Average net income = ($1,938,200 + 2,201,600 + 1,876,000 + 1,329,500) / 4 = $1,836,325And the average book value is:Average book value = ($15,000,000 + 0) / 2 = $7,500,000So, the AAR for this project is:AAR = Average net income / Average book value = $1,836,325 / $7,500,000 = .2448 or 24.48%9.The NPV of a project is the PV of the outflows minus the PV of the inflows. Since the cashinflows are an annuity, the equation for the NPV of this project at an 8 percent required return is: NPV = –$138,000 + $28,500(PVIFA8%, 9) = $40,036.31At an 8 percent required return, the NPV is positive, so we would accept the project.The equation for the NPV of the project at a 20 percent required return is:NPV = –$138,000 + $28,500(PVIFA20%, 9) = –$23,117.45At a 20 percent required return, the NPV is negative, so we would reject the project.We would be indifferent to the project if the required return was equal to the IRR of the project, since at that required return the NPV is zero. The IRR of the project is:0 = –$138,000 + $28,500(PVIFA IRR, 9)IRR = 14.59%15.The profitability index is defined as the PV of the cash inflows divided by the PV of the cashoutflows. The equation for the profitability index at a required return of 10 percent is:PI = [$7,300/1.1 + $6,900/1.12 + $5,700/1.13] / $14,000 = 1.187The equation for the profitability index at a required return of 15 percent is:PI = [$7,300/1.15 + $6,900/1.152 + $5,700/1.153] / $14,000 = 1.094The equation for the profitability index at a required return of 22 percent is:PI = [$7,300/1.22 + $6,900/1.222 + $5,700/1.223] / $14,000 = 0.983We would accept the project if the required return were 10 percent or 15 percent since the PI is greater than one. We would reject the project if the required return were 22 percent since the PI is less than one.CH10 9，13，14，17，18ing the tax shield approach to calculating OCF (Remember the approach is irrelevant; the finalanswer will be the same no matter which of the four methods you use.), we get:OCF = (Sales – Costs)(1 – t C) + t C DepreciationOCF = ($2,650,000 – 840,000)(1 – 0.35) + 0.35($3,900,000/3)OCF = $1,631,50013.First we will calculate the annual depreciation of the new equipment. It will be:Annual depreciation = $560,000/5Annual depreciation = $112,000Now, we calculate the aftertax salvage value. The aftertax salvage value is the market price minus (or plus) the taxes on the sale of the equipment, so:Aftertax salvage value = MV + (BV – MV)t cVery often the book value of the equipment is zero as it is in this case. If the book value is zero, the equation for the aftertax salvage value becomes:Aftertax salvage value = MV + (0 – MV)t cAftertax salvage value = MV(1 – t c)We will use this equation to find the aftertax salvage value since we know the book value is zero.So, the aftertax salvage value is:Aftertax salvage value = $85,000(1 – 0.34)Aftertax salvage value = $56,100Using the tax shield approach, we find the OCF for the project is:OCF = $165,000(1 – 0.34) + 0.34($112,000)OCF = $146,980Now we can find the project NPV. Notice we include the NWC in the initial cash outlay. The recovery of the NWC occurs in Year 5, along with the aftertax salvage value.NPV = –$560,000 – 29,000 + $146,980(PVIFA10%,5) + [($56,100 + 29,000) / 1.105]NPV = $21,010.2414.First we will calculate the annual depreciation of the new equipment. It will be:Annual depreciation charge = $720,000/5Annual depreciation charge = $144,000The aftertax salvage value of the equipment is:Aftertax salvage value = $75,000(1 – 0.35)Aftertax salvage value = $48,750Using the tax shield approach, the OCF is:OCF = $260,000(1 – 0.35) + 0.35($144,000)OCF = $219,400Now we can find the project IRR. There is an unusual feature that is a part of this project.Accepting this project means that we will reduce NWC. This reduction in NWC is a cash inflow at Year 0. This reduction in NWC implies that when the project ends, we will have to increase NWC. So, at the end of the project, we will have a cash outflow to restore the NWC to its level before the project. We also must include the aftertax salvage value at the end of the project. The IRR of the project is:NPV = 0 = –$720,000 + 110,000 + $219,400(PVIFA IRR%,5) + [($48,750 – 110,000) / (1+IRR)5]IRR = 21.65%17.We will need the aftertax salvage value of the equipment to compute the EAC. Even though theequipment for each product has a different initial cost, both have the same salvage value. The aftertax salvage value for both is:Both cases: aftertax salvage value = $40,000(1 – 0.35) = $26,000To calculate the EAC, we first need the OCF and NPV of each option. The OCF and NPV for Techron I is:OCF = –$67,000(1 – 0.35) + 0.35($290,000/3) = –9,716.67NPV = –$290,000 – $9,716.67(PVIFA10%,3) + ($26,000/1.103) = –$294,629.73EAC = –$294,629.73 / (PVIFA10%,3) = –$118,474.97And the OCF and NPV for Techron II is:OCF = –$35,000(1 – 0.35) + 0.35($510,000/5) = $12,950NPV = –$510,000 + $12,950(PVIFA10%,5) + ($26,000/1.105) = –$444,765.36EAC = –$444,765.36 / (PVIFA10%,5) = –$117,327.98The two milling machines have unequal lives, so they can only be compared by expressing both on an equivalent annual basis, which is what the EAC method does. Thus, you prefer the Techron II because it has the lower (less negative) annual cost.18.To find the bid price, we need to calculate all other cash flows for the project, and then solve forthe bid price. The aftertax salvage value of the equipment is:Aftertax salvage value = $70,000(1 – 0.35) = $45,500Now we can solve for the necessary OCF that will give the project a zero NPV. The equation for the NPV of the project is:NPV = 0 = –$940,000 – 75,000 + OCF(PVIFA12%,5) + [($75,000 + 45,500) / 1.125]Solving for the OCF, we find the OCF that makes the project NPV equal to zero is:OCF = $946,625.06 / PVIFA12%,5 = $262,603.01The easiest way to calculate the bid price is the tax shield approach, so:OCF = $262,603.01 = [(P – v)Q – FC ](1 – t c) + t c D$262,603.01 = [(P – $9.25)(185,000) – $305,000 ](1 – 0.35) + 0.35($940,000/5)P = $12.54CH14 6、9、20、23、246. The pretax cost of debt is the YTM of the company’s bonds, so:P0 = $1,070 = $35(PVIFA R%,30) + $1,000(PVIF R%,30)R = 3.137%YTM = 2 × 3.137% = 6.27%And the aftertax cost of debt is:R D = .0627(1 – .35) = .0408 or 4.08%9. ing the equation to calculate the WACC, we find:WACC = .60(.14) + .05(.06) + .35(.08)(1 – .35) = .1052 or 10.52%b.Since interest is tax deductible and dividends are not, we must look at the after-tax cost ofdebt, which is:.08(1 – .35) = .0520 or 5.20%Hence, on an after-tax basis, debt is cheaper than the preferred stock.ing the debt-equity ratio to calculate the WACC, we find:WACC = (.90/1.90)(.048) + (1/1.90)(.13) = .0912 or 9.12%Since the project is riskier than the company, we need to adjust the project discount rate for the additional risk. Using the subjective risk factor given, we find:Project discount rate = 9.12% + 2.00% = 11.12%We would accept the project if the NPV is positive. The NPV is the PV of the cash outflows plus the PV of the cash inflows. Since we have the costs, we just need to find the PV of inflows. The cash inflows are a growing perpetuity. If you remember, the equation for the PV of a growing perpetuity is the same as the dividend growth equation, so:PV of future CF = $2,700,000/(.1112 – .04) = $37,943,787The project should only be undertaken if its cost is less than $37,943,787 since costs less than this amount will result in a positive NPV.23. ing the dividend discount model, the cost of equity is:R E = [(0.80)(1.05)/$61] + .05R E = .0638 or 6.38%ing the CAPM, the cost of equity is:R E = .055 + 1.50(.1200 – .0550)R E = .1525 or 15.25%c.When using the dividend growth model or the CAPM, you must remember that both areestimates for the cost of equity. Additionally, and perhaps more importantly, each methodof estimating the cost of equity depends upon different assumptions.Challenge24.We can use the debt-equity ratio to calculate the weights of equity and debt. The debt of thecompany has a weight for long-term debt and a weight for accounts payable. We can use the weight given for accounts payable to calculate the weight of accounts payable and the weight of long-term debt. The weight of each will be:Accounts payable weight = .20/1.20 = .17Long-term debt weight = 1/1.20 = .83Since the accounts payable has the same cost as the overall WACC, we can write the equation for the WACC as:WACC = (1/1.7)(.14) + (0.7/1.7)[(.20/1.2)WACC + (1/1.2)(.08)(1 – .35)]Solving for WACC, we find:WACC = .0824 + .4118[(.20/1.2)WACC + .0433]WACC = .0824 + (.0686)WACC + .0178(.9314)WACC = .1002WACC = .1076 or 10.76%We will use basically the same equation to calculate the weighted average flotation cost, except we will use the flotation cost for each form of financing. Doing so, we get:Flotation costs = (1/1.7)(.08) + (0.7/1.7)[(.20/1.2)(0) + (1/1.2)(.04)] = .0608 or 6.08%The total amount we need to raise to fund the new equipment will be:Amount raised cost = $45,000,000/(1 – .0608)Amount raised = $47,912,317Since the cash flows go to perpetuity, we can calculate the present value using the equation for the PV of a perpetuity. The NPV is:NPV = –$47,912,317 + ($6,200,000/.1076)NPV = $9,719,777CH16 1，4，12，14，171. a. A table outlining the income statement for the three possible states of the economy isshown below. The EPS is the net income divided by the 5,000 shares outstanding. The lastrow shows the percentage change in EPS the company will experience in a recession or anexpansion economy.Recession Normal ExpansionEBIT $14,000 $28,000 $36,400Interest 0 0 0NI $14,000 $28,000 $36,400EPS $ 2.80 $ 5.60 $ 7.28%∆EPS –50 –––+30b.If the company undergoes the proposed recapitalization, it will repurchase:Share price = Equity / Shares outstandingShare price = $250,000/5,000Share price = $50Shares repurchased = Debt issued / Share priceShares repurchased =$90,000/$50Shares repurchased = 1,800The interest payment each year under all three scenarios will be:Interest payment = $90,000(.07) = $6,300The last row shows the percentage change in EPS the company will experience in arecession or an expansion economy under the proposed recapitalization.Recession Normal ExpansionEBIT $14,000 $28,000 $36,400Interest 6,300 6,300 6,300NI $7,700 $21,700 $30,100EPS $2.41 $ 6.78 $9.41%∆EPS –64.52 –––+38.714. a.Under Plan I, the unlevered company, net income is the same as EBIT with no corporate tax.The EPS under this capitalization will be:EPS = $350,000/160,000 sharesEPS = $2.19Under Plan II, the levered company, EBIT will be reduced by the interest payment. The interest payment is the amount of debt times the interest rate, so:NI = $500,000 – .08($2,800,000)NI = $126,000And the EPS will be:EPS = $126,000/80,000 sharesEPS = $1.58Plan I has the higher EPS when EBIT is $350,000.b.Under Plan I, the net income is $500,000 and the EPS is:EPS = $500,000/160,000 sharesEPS = $3.13Under Plan II, the net income is:NI = $500,000 – .08($2,800,000)NI = $276,000And the EPS is:EPS = $276,000/80,000 sharesEPS = $3.45Plan II has the higher EPS when EBIT is $500,000.c.To find the breakeven EBIT for two different capital structures, we simply set the equationsfor EPS equal to each other and solve for EBIT. The breakeven EBIT is:EBIT/160,000 = [EBIT – .08($2,800,000)]/80,000EBIT = $448,00012. a.With the information provided, we can use the equation for calculating WACC to find thecost of equity. The equation for WACC is:WACC = (E/V)R E + (D/V)R D(1 – t C)The company has a debt-equity ratio of 1.5, which implies the weight of debt is 1.5/2.5, and the weight of equity is 1/2.5, soWACC = .10 = (1/2.5)R E + (1.5/2.5)(.07)(1 – .35)R E = .1818 or 18.18%b.To find the unlevered cost of equity we need to use M&M Proposition II with taxes, so:R E = R U + (R U– R D)(D/E)(1 – t C).1818 = R U + (R U– .07)(1.5)(1 – .35)R U = .1266 or 12.66%c.To find the cost of equity under different capital structures, we can again use M&MProposition II with taxes. With a debt-equity ratio of 2, the cost of equity is:R E = R U + (R U– R D)(D/E)(1 – t C)R E = .1266 + (.1266 – .07)(2)(1 – .35)R E = .2001 or 20.01%With a debt-equity ratio of 1.0, the cost of equity is:R E = .1266 + (.1266 – .07)(1)(1 – .35)R E = .1634 or 16.34%And with a debt-equity ratio of 0, the cost of equity is:R E = .1266 + (.1266 – .07)(0)(1 – .35)R E = R U = .1266 or 12.66%14. a.The value of the unlevered firm is:V U = EBIT(1 – t C)/R UV U = $92,000(1 – .35)/.15V U = $398,666.67b.The value of the levered firm is:V U = V U + t C DV U = $398,666.67 + .35($60,000)V U = $419,666.6717.With no debt, we are finding the value of an unlevered firm, so:V U = EBIT(1 – t C)/R UV U = $14,000(1 – .35)/.16V U = $56,875With debt, we simply need to use the equation for the value of a levered firm. With 50 percent debt, one-half of the firm value is debt, so the value of the levered firm is:V L = V U + t C(D/V)V UV L = $56,875 + .35(.50)($56,875)V L = $66,828.13And with 100 percent debt, the value of the firm is:V L = V U + t C(D/V)V UV L = $56,875 + .35(1.0)($56,875)V L = $76,781.25c.The net cash flows is the present value of the average daily collections times the daily interest rate, minus the transaction cost per day, so:Net cash flow per day = $1,276,275(.0002) – $0.50(385)Net cash flow per day = $62.76The net cash flow per check is the net cash flow per day divided by the number of checksreceived per day, or:Net cash flow per check = $62.76/385Net cash flow per check = $0.16Alternatively, we could find the net cash flow per check as the number of days the system reduces collection time times the average check amount times the daily interest rate, minusthe transaction cost per check. Doing so, we confirm our previous answer as:Net cash flow per check = 3($1,105)(.0002) – $0.50Net cash flow per check = $0.16 per checkThis makes the total costs:Total costs = $18,900,000 + 56,320,000 = $75,220,000The flotation costs as a percentage of the amount raised is the total cost divided by the amount raised, so:Flotation cost percentage = $75,220,000/$180,780,000 = .4161 or 41.61%8.The number of rights needed per new share is:Number of rights needed = 120,000 old shares/25,000 new shares = 4.8 rights per new share.Using P RO as the rights-on price, and P S as the subscription price, we can express the price per share of the stock ex-rights as:P X = [NP RO + P S]/(N + 1)a.P X = [4.8($94) + $94]/(4.80 + 1) = $94.00; No change.b. P X = [4.8($94) + $90]/(4.80 + 1) = $93.31; Price drops by $0.69 per share.。

公司理财原书第九版中文版课后答案第1章1、在所有权形式的公司中，股东是公司的所有者。

股东选举公司的董事会,董事会任命该公司的管理层。

企业的所有权和控制权分离的组织形式是导致的代理关系存在的主要原因。

管理者可能追求自身或别人的利益最大化，而不是股东的利益最大化。

在这种环境下，他们可能因为目标不一致而存在代理问题。

2、非营利公司经常追求社会或政治任务等各种目标。

非营利公司财务管理的目标是获取并有效使用资金以最大限度地实现组织的社会使命。

3、这句话是不正确的。

管理者实施财务管理的目标就是最大化现有股票的每股价值，当前的股票价值反映了短期和长期的风险、时间以及未来现金流量。

4、有两种结论。

一种极端，在市场经济中所有的东西都被定价。

因此所有目标都有一个最优水平，包括避免不道德或非法的行为，股票价值最大化。

另一种极端，我们可以认为这是非经济现象,最好的处理方式是通过政治手段。

一个经典的思考问题给出了这种争论的答案：公司估计提高某种产品安全性的成本是30美元万。

然而,该公司认为提高产品的安全性只会节省20美元万。

请问公司应该怎么做呢?”5、财务管理的目标都是相同的，但实现目标的最好方式可能是不同的，因为不同的国家有不同的社会、政治环境和经济制度。

6、管理层的目标是最大化股东现有股票的每股价值。

如果管理层认为能提高公司利润，使股价超过35美元,那么他们应该展开对恶意收购的斗争。

如果管理层认为该投标人或其它未知的投标人将支付超过每股35美元的价格收购公司,那么他们也应该展开斗争。

然而,如果管理层不能增加企业的价值并且没有其他更高的投标价格,那么管理层不是在为股东的最大化权益行事。

现在的管理层经常在公司面临这些恶意收购的情况时迷失自己的方向。

7、其他国家的代理问题并不严重,主要取决于其他国家的私人投资者占比重较小。

较少的私人投资者能减少不同的企业目标。

高比重的机构所有权导致高学历的股东和管理层讨论决策风险项目。

此外,机构投资者比私人投资者可以根据自己的资源和经验更好地对管理层实施有效的监督机制。