山东省2020届新高考英语第一次模拟考试试题（无答案）
注意事项:
1.答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、考生号等填写在答题卡和试卷指定位置上。
2.回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时,将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。
3.考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
第一部分阅读(共两节，满分50分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题2.5分，满分37.5 分)
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Why go to Madrid?
There may be a slight chill (寒冷) in the air, with temperatures staying around 15℃in March, but Spain's handsome capital is slowly starting to warm up. Even more attractive are the cultural events.
A new exhibition on the living and working spaces of Spain's greatest artist, Picasso, has just opened in the studio at the Fundación Mapfre at Paseo de Recoletos 23. It runs until 11 May with rarely seen pieces borrowed from his family.
Later this summer, the 400th anniversary of the death of the Renaissance (文艺复兴) painter EI Greco will be marked with an exciting exhibition at the Museo del Prado at Paseo del Prado from 24 June to 5 October.
How to go?
The widest range of fights is ofered by EasyJet - from Bristo, Edinburgh, Gatwick, Liverpool and Luton. British Airways and its sister arline Iberia combine fores from Heathrow and London City. Ryanair flies from Manchester and Stansted; Air Europa flies from Gatwick.
Barajas airport is 13km north-east of the city centre and is served by frequent trains on Metro line 8, but the shortest underground journey is a bit complex with at least one change at Nuevos Miniterios station and takes about 30 minutes. The fare to any station in the city entre is €4.50. The airport express bus runs every 15 to 35 minutes around the clock; €5 one way. It takes 40 minutes to reach the city centre.
A taxi takes half the time. A flat rate of €30 covers most of central Madrid.
1. When will the exhibition about Picasso close?
A. On 23 March.
B. On 11 May.
C. On 24 June.
D. On 5 October.
2. Which airline operates flights from Manchester to Madrid?
A. EasyJet.
B. Ryanair.
C. Air Europa.
D. British Airways.
3. What is the fastest way to reach central Madrid from Barajas airport?，
A. Take a taxi.
B. Take a city bus.
C. Take Metro line 8.
D. Take the airport express bus.
B
My school appeared on the news last week because we had made an important change in our local area. Our class had planted a large garden in what was once only a vacant lot. It was a lot of work but it was all worth it. 1 got blisters (水泡) from digging,
and we all got insect bites, too.
I learned a lot about gardening and collaboration (合作), and then I learned about the media. Our teacher telephoned the TV station and informed them of what we had accomplished. She spoke with the producer. The producer checked with the directors, but they said there were plenty of stories similar to ours. They wanted to know what was special about our particular garden, since many schools plant them.
The teacher explained that, after going on the Internet to learn about the prairie (大草原), we had made a prairie garden. We had gone to a prairie and gotten seeds from the plants, and then we planted them. We did not water the garden, but we did weed it We decided to let nature water it with rain, since that was how prairies grew in the past. We sent a picture of the garden to the news station. In the picture, the grass was so high that it stood taller than the fourth grade students.
As a result, the producer sent a reporter to our school. He interviewed the headmaster and asked him many questions about the garden. After that, they interviewed us, and we explained to them what we had learned through this project.
That night, we watched the news, and there we were. The news reporter told our story. It was only two minutes long, but it was us. We were famous. All that work, all those blisters, it was worth it. We knew that when we saw the garden every day, but now we knew that the whole city thought so, too.
4. What seemed to be the TV directors' initial reaction to the garden?
A. They were excited.
B. They were surprised.
C. They were worried.
D. They were uninterested.
5. What is special about the garden?
A. Weeds were allowed to spread naturally.
B. The grass grew faster than common grass.
C. The seeds came from the plants of a prairie.
D. Underground water was used for the plants.
6. What does the underlined word“that" refer to in the last paragraph?
A. We got blisters on our hands.
B. Our hard work was worthwhile.
C. The garden would be famous.
D. The project would be finished.
7. How did the author feel about the project?
A. Annoyed.
B. Curious.
C. Proud.
D. Regretful.
C
Heads up! Across the country, sports injuries are a safety concern for young athletes. Now, the American Medical Association (AMA) has a new set of guidelines aimed at protecting players from the danger of concussions - serious injuries caused by a blow to the head.
“By raising awareness of the serious risks associated with concussions and ensuring that the appropriate guidelines are in place, we can reduce the number of young athletes who may return to the game too soon, which can. put their health at further risk," said AMA Board Member Jack Resneck Jr, M.D., in a statement.
The policy recommends that young athletes who may have a concussion be taken off the field as soon as possible. Then, they are only to return to their sport with
a doctor's written approval. The policy also sets age-specific rules for health care professionals and athletic organizations in evaluating and caring for concussions. According to the Center for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), a concussion is a type of traumatic (创伤) brain injury caused by a bump, blow, or jolt to the head or hit to the body that causes the head and brain to move rapidly back and forth. This type of movement can cause the brain to bounce around or twist inside the skull (颅骨). It can damage brain cells and create chemical changes in the brain.
The CDC says that between 1.6 million and 3.8 million traumatic brain injuries caused by sports and recreation-related activities occur in the U.S. every year. A study from the Center for Injury Research and Policy showed that as many as 40% of high school athletes return to playing before they should. The AMA'S new guidelines should help to bring those numbers down.
8. Why does the AMA set the new guidelines?
A. To raise safety standards of sports.
B. To protect athletes from concussions.
C. To set rules for health care evaluation.
D. To help players return to the game quickly.
9. What should young athletes who may have a concussion do?
A. Avoid using the head.
B. Leave the field forever.
C. Get treatment in time.
D. Switch to another sport.
10. What is paragraph 4 mainly about?
A. What a concussion is.
B. What causes damage to brain cells.
C. How the CDC works.
D. How a concussion can be prevented.
11. Which of the following is the best title for the text?
A. Rules for Safer Play
B. Sports Injuries in the US
C. Advice to Athletes
D. New Policies for Doctors
D
Organic food is very popular. It is also expensive. Some organic food costs twice as much as non-organic food, but new parents and pet owners are willing to pay up to 200% more for organic food. However, there are people who think it is a waste of money.
There is one main difference between organic and non-organic food. Organic farms do not use agricultural chemicals, such as pesticides (杀虫剂). In many countries organic foods have special labels. These guarantee that the products are natural. Some people think organic means locally grown. Originally this was true. Over time organic farming became more difficult. The demand for organic food grew larger than the supply. Small companies had to sell out to large companies. There weren't enough organic ingredients (原料), such as grain and cattle. This made it difficult for many organic companies to stay in business. Today, many large companies have an organic line of products.
Is organic food more nutritious? This is part of the debate. Many farmers and consumers believe it is. They think agricultural chemicals cause health problems such as cancer. Many health professionals disagree. Few studies prove that organic foods prevent health problems. Health specialists worry more about bacteria (病
毒), such as E.coli and salmonella. These can get into contact with organic and non- organic food. Doctors recommend washing produce very carefully. Handling meat carefully is important too.
Most people agree that naturally grown food tastes better. Is tastier food worth the extra money? This is a matter of opinion. Whether it is healthier or not may require more research. However, organic consumers argue it is better to be safe than sorry.
12. What is probably the major concern of organic food consumers?
A. Price.
B. Safety.
C. Freshness.
D. Variety.
13. What is the doctors' suggestion?
A. Grow your own food.
B. Reduce the use of pesticides.
C. Make sure the food is clean.
D. Buy large companies' products.
14. Which of the following do most people agree on organic food?
A. It tastes better.
B. It is easier to grow.
C. It contains more fat.
D. It is more nutritious.
15. Where does this text probably come from?
A. A recipe book.
B. A chemistry paper.
C. A medical report.
D. A health magazine.
第二节(共5小题:每小题2.5分，满分12.5分)
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项
为多余选项。
The Hotel Wake-up Call Gets Personal
Here's a wake-up call: The hotel front desk will do one better than ringing your phone in
the morning. They'll send an actual human being to your room. Don't worry. They won't come in and kiss you good morning.__ 16___
Never mind that most travelers nowadays have smart phones with built-in alarm clocks. __17___ Here are some examples. At the Wolcott Hotel, if a wake-up call is unanswered, they will send an employee to your door. At Las Ventanas al Paraiso, an employee shows up at your room to wake you up with tea, coffee and breakfast bread. At the Mandarin Oriental, a person rather than an automated system will call to wake you up. __ 18__
Hotels have always taken the wake-up call seriously. __ 19__If you don't get your call within five minutes of the requested time, you won't have to pay for your room. Travelers, too, still want to have an option of a wake-up call. A study of 285 guests at Crown Plaza found that 53% considered a wake-up call very important.
__20 __In the late 1980s, hotels turned to automated systems. Then all you'd get was a ring and silence. In the ever-competitive race for loyal customers, however, many hotels are now getting creative with the wake-up call. Some hotels even have recordings of celebrity voices. And more hotels will go back to the old in-person system of wake up calls.
A. But they might bring you coffee.
B. If you don't answer, you'll get a wake-up knock.
C. Crown Plaza, for instance, has a wake-up call guarantee.
D. But the wake up call became less personal over the years.
E. The hotel gets 15 to 30 requests for wake-up calls each day.
F. The human wake-up call is a way to personalize a guest's stay.
G Some guests sleep through the call, while others turn their phone ringers off. 第二部分语言运用(共两节，满分30分)
第一节(共15小题:每小题1分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳
选项。
My name is Miranda Gibson. I have been at the top of a tree for five months now. Some people might wonder_ 21_ on earth I would choose to do that.
I have walked through this forest many times. On 12 December 2011,_22_ rolled into the forest and the destruction (摧毁) began. I couldn't_ 23_ the thought that these forests would be_ 24 _forever. So, on 14 December 2011, I packed up my life,_ 25_ of my job plans, and climbed 60 meters to the top of this tree. I have been here ever since.
Life in the tree tops can be_ 26_ at times. I have times when I feel frustrated (沮丧) and wish I could_ 27_ , to anywhere, just have a_ 28_ of scenery for a minute! There are times too, when I feel terribly_ 29_ . I miss my friends and family. _ 30_ these times, I find myself loving the_ 31_.
Living on the tree has been inspiring. I am willing to_ 32_ up here for as long as it takes,_ 33_ I honestly hope it won't be too_ 34_ before I can put my feet on the ground below and stand in a forest that will never be _ 35_.
21.A. why B. When C. How D. where
22.A. water B. Animals C. Machinery D. tourists
23.A. bear B. Help C. Keep D. spare
24.A. sold B. Stolen C. Protected D. lost
25.A. grew out B. fell short C. ran out D. let go
26.A. refreshing B. Risky C. Challenging D. rewarding
27.A. get up B. get away C. give in D. give up
28.A. change B. Look C. Search D. touch
29.A. confused B. Nervous C. Sorry D. lonely
30.A. Beyond B. Without C. Despite D. Unlike
31.A. height B. Experience C. Background D. position
32.A. return B. Stop C. Stay D. hide
33.A. but B. Though C. Because D. so
34.A. soon B. Long C. Near D. bad
35.A. moved B. logge d C. Burned D. missed
第二节(共10小题: 每小题1.5分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
On the morning of her grandson's wedding, Peg McCormack received some bad news. The 91-year-old was in the hospital after a fall when she found out she would be unable to attend the 36 (celebrate) in Madison, New Jersey.
Unknown to McCormack, her grandson Brian_ 37__ his wife Lauren had made a heartfelt plan _ 38_ (include) her in the day's activities._ 39_ (follow) by a wedding
photographer, the couple made a surprise visit_ 40_ the hospital before heading to
the reception.
“She was so excited to watch _ 41_ (we) get married,"" the bride said. “She was
simply living for this wedding. So we brought the wedding to her."
“When we walked into that room, she was _ 42_ (obvious) shocked," the photographer
said.“She just kept_ 43_ (say) ‘I can't believe you're here!' and thanking them
for coming to see her. The way she held their hands,_ 44_ (touch) their faces and
just looked at them, you could tell they had such a special bond. I don't think she
released Brian's hand_ 45_ entire time that we were in the room."
“It meant the world to bring the wedding to her," the groom said.“It was such a
small portion of the day to trade in for such a special moment."
第三部分写作(共两节，满分40分)
第一节(满分15分)
假定你是李华，你的英国朋友John来信询问中国人过春节的风俗习惯。请你结合
自己家乡的实际情况给他回信，内容包括:
1.春节的简介;
2.过节的风俗习惯;
3.邀请他来中国过春节。
注意:
1.词数80左右;
2.可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯;
3.信的开头已为你写好。
Dear John,
I’m glad that you’re interested in the Chinese Spring Festival.
Yours,
Li Hua
第二节(满分25 分)
阅读下面材料,根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。
续写的词数应为150左右。
Though it is one of the faded memories of my life today, there are times when I
remember his face clearly, especially his eyes. As he had yellow spots on his eyes
we called him Spotty. He would have been a stray (流浪) dog, until he came to me.
I was seven years old. My dad had just got a new job in Nasik. We had moved into
a rented house. It was raining very heavily on the day we moved.
It was a cold dark night. We had our meal and went to sleep. Somehow in the midnight
I heard some strange sounds outside the main door. I gathered courage and looked
out through the window and I was really amused with what I saw outside.
There was a small puppy lying on an old doormat which my mother had put outside the
door. It was wet and trembling. At first it was difficult to see the lite one. It
was the yellow spots on its eyes that made me realize its presence.
It was trying to get under the doormat to avoid the cold air outside and it had managed
to
get in as I could see only its head outside the doormat. Was it sick or injured?
I felt pity for the poor soul. 1 went in and came out with an old towel. I went near
the innocent one and held it in my hand and wiped the puppy till he had become dry.
I took him into my room and made a bed for him with a woolen blanket and a small
pillow. He seemed very healthy and comfortable in his new bed as he went to sleep
immediately.
The next morning, everyone in the family came to know about the unusual guest“Shall
we keep him with us?" I questioned my mom.
Like any other parents would, my parents first tally refused my idea but my sister
and I
convinced them to keep Spotty.
Slowly Spotty got on with everyone and became one of the family members.
Para. 1：One day, Spotty returned from his daily walk with a broken leg. Para. 2: Almost a year later, one midnight we heard Spotty barking breathlessly.
2020年山东新高考试卷结构：听力（满分30分）第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分
7.5分）第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）难度相对偏易
（听力单独测试，连续进行两次，每次约20分钟，取得分高的计入最终成绩。）
第一部分阅读（共2节，满分50分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分）第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，
满分12.5分）难度相对适中
第二部分语言运用（共两节，满分30分）第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15
分）第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读量减少，题目难度有所增加，整体难度相对适中
第三部分写作（共两节；满分40分）
第一节（满分15分）
第二节（满分25分）阅读量增加，语言输出增加，整体难度上升
题型变化：1.阅读部分阅读量稳定，题量保持在15道没变，每小题分值由2分增至2.5分，
总分由40分增至50分；
2.语言运用部分第一节完形填空词数由250-300词将至200词左右，题量由20小题减至15
小题，每小题分值由1.5分降至1分，总分由30分降至15分；
3.写作部分删掉第一节短文改错；
4.写作部分第二节书面表达改为第一节，分值由25分降至15分，词数要求由100词左右减
至80词左右；
5.写作部分第二节为新题型——读后续写，分值为25分，要求续写内容为150词左右。
2020 年普通高等学校招生全国统一考试（模拟卷）
英语参考答案（网络版）
听力一卷：
1-5 ACBCB 6-10 ACBCC 11-15 ABABA 16-20 ABBCA
听力二卷：
1-5 BBCCA 6-10 BACCA 11-15 ACABA 16-20 BABCC
阅读
1-3 BBA 4-7 DCBC 8-11 BCCA 12-15 BCAD 16-20 AFBED
完形
21. A 22. C 23. A 24. D 25. C 26. C 27. B 28. B 29. D 30. A
31. D 32. C 33. A 34. B 35. B
语法填空
36. celebration 37. and 38. including 39. Followed 40. to
41. us 42. obviously 43. saying 44. touched 45. the
写作
第一节：
Spring Festival is the most ceremonious traditional festival of the Chinese nation. It is a happy and peaceful festival for family and friends to get together and a bond for people to deepen their feelings. In order to celebrate Spring Festival, we will stick couplets, set off firecrackers, have dinner, watch the Spring Festival Gala, and so on. There was a jubilant atmosphere everywhere.
I’d like to invite you to China for the Spring Festival with us.
第二节：
Days passed on and one evening when Spotty returned from his long walk, he appeared very exhausted. He came to my room and sat near me. It was then that I saw his hind leg was injured and was bleeding. I called out my mother and she quickly tied a bandage around his leg and gave him food to eat. I was very upset. But the next day, Spotty was up to his usual pranks though he limped a bit. After this incident my relation with Spotty became more intense. I really admired him a lot for his courage.
Almost a year later, one midnight we heard Spotty barking breathlessly. We came out and saw that he was barking continuously heading somewhere. After some time Spotty became quiet. I patted him on his back and came inside. The next day morning, my heart skipped a beat when I didn’t see Spotty. I searched for him in each and every corner but he was nowhere. And this time he had gone and would never come back.
I cried and waited for him. We waited for one long week. But there were no signs of him. Then one day my Dad got transferred to Mumbai. We shifted back to Mumbai. What would have happened to Spotty? Would he have died? These were the only questions in my mind, but they all remained unanswered forever.
2018年普通高等学校招生全国统一考试 英语 注意事项: 1.答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、考生号等填写在答题卡和试卷指定位置上。 2.回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上，写在本试卷上无效。 考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。 第一部分听力(共两节，满分30分) 做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。 第一节(共5小题:每小题1.5分，满分7.5分) 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。例: How much is the shirt? A. ￡19.15. B. ￡9.18. C. ￡9.15. 答案是C。 1. What will James do tomorrow? A. Watch a TV program. B. Give a talk. C.Write a report. 2. What can we say about the woman? A. She's generous. B. She's curious C. She's helpful 3. When does the train leave? A. At 6:30. B.At 8:30. C.At 10:30. 4. How docs the woman go to work? A. By car. B. On foot. C.By bike. 5. What is the probable relationship between the speakers? A. Classmates. B. Teacher and student. C. Doctor and patient. 第二节(共15小题:每小题1.5分，满分22.5分) 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟;听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。 6. What does the woman regret? A. Giving up her research.
2018年普通高等学校招生全国统一考试（课标全国卷Ⅲ） 英语 第一部分听力（共两节，满分30分） 第二部分阅读理解（共两节，满分40分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分） 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。 A Welcome to Holker Hall & Garden Visitor Information How to Get to Holker By car: Follow brown signs on A590 from. J36, M6. Approximate travel times: Windermere—20 minutes, Kendal—25 minutes, Lancaster—45 minutes, Manchester—l hour 30minutes By rail: the nearest station is Cark-in-Cartmel with trains to Carnforth. Lancaster and Preston for connections to major cities & airports. Opening times Sunday-Friday(closed on Saturday) 11:00 am-4;00pm, 30 March-2nd November. Admission Charges Hall & Gardens Gardens Adults: ￡12.00 ￡8.00 Gropes: ￡9.00 Special Events
Producers Market 13th April Join us to taste a variety of fresh local food and drinks. Meet the producers and get some excellent recipe ideas. Holker Garden Festival 30th May The event celebrates its 22nd anniversary with a great show of the very best of gardening, making it one of the most popular events in the gardening. National Garden Day 28th August Holker once again opens its gardens in aid of the disadvantaged. For just a small donation you can take a tour with our garden guide. Winter Market 8th November This is an event for all the family! Wander among a variety of shops selling gifts while enjoying a live music show and nice street entertainment. 21. How long does it probably take a tourist to drive to Holker from Manchester? A.20 minutes. B. 25 minutes. C.45 minutes. D. 90 minutes. 22. How much should a member of a tour group pay a visit to Hall & Gardens? A. ￡12.00. B. ￡9.00. C. ￡8.00 D. ￡5.50 23. Which event will you go to if you want to see a live music show? A. Producers Market. B. Holker Garden Festival C. National Garden Day. D. Winter Market B Cities usually have a good reason for being where they are, like a nearby port on river. People settle in these places because they are easy to get to and naturally suited to communications and trade. New
2015年山东省普通高校（春季）考试 英语试题卷一（选择题, 共50分） 一、英语知识运用 （本题30个小题，每小题1分，共计30分） 1. —— Hi, Tom. ? -------------- ——Fine, tha nks. And you? A. How are you B. How do you do C. What are you doing D. Who are you 2. ----What's the you ng lady like at the school gate? A. She is a teacher B. She is 18 C. She is beautiful D. She is a frie nd of mine 3. The more you practice, you will be. -------------------- A. better B. best C. the best D. the better 4. ---- Oh! We've just missed the 7 o'clock bus ? ---- .The n ext bus will come in half an hour. .Here you are. My mother bought it for me last week 13. ——Are you ready to order, sir? A. Excuse me B. Don't worry 5. It's very cold outside. You'd better A. have on B. wear 6. —— May I look at your new camera? C. Have fun D. With pleasure your coat. ------------------ C. put on D. dress A. Of course B. Good idea 7. ——Please send my Christmas C. Thank you D. I'm sorry to your gra ndpare nts. ------------------- ----I will. Thank you. A. greet B. greet ing C. greet ings D. greets 8. ---- Don't too late, or you will feel tired in class tomorrow. -------------- —— I won't, Mom. A. stay up B. put up C. wake up D. pick up 9. ——Can you help me carry the box upstairs? ---- .A. Tha nks a lot B. With pleasure C. You'd better not D. Yes, please 10. ---- First let me in troduce myself. I'm Bill Cart from Can ada. A. I'm very sorry B. Nice to meet you C. It's a pleasure D. Nothi ng special 11. ——Could you tell me the way the post office? ---- Walk straight ahead and turn left at the first crossing. A. for B. on C. at D. to 12. ---- Have you ever been to the Great Wall? ——Yes. I A. went there last year. B. have gone C. have bee n D. go
绝密★使用完毕前 2010年普通高等学校招生全国统一考试(北京卷) 英语试卷 本试卷共15页，共150分。考试时长120分钟。考生务必将答案答在答题卡上，在试卷上作答无效。考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。 第一部分：听力理解(共三节，30分) 第一节(共5小题；每小题1.5分，共7.5分) 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一道小题，从每题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你将有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话你将听一遍。 1. What does the man want to be in the future? A. A soldier. B. A lawyer. C. A teacher. 2. What does the girl want? A. Sweets. B. Books. C. Pencils. 3. When did the two speakers plan to meet Jane? A. At2:00. B. At2:15. C. At2:30. 4. what will the woman do tonight? A. Go to the park. B. Play basketball. C. Work at a bookstore. 5. what is the woman doing? A. Offering help. B. Asking for information. C. Making an introduction. 第二节(共10小题；每小题1.5分，共15分) 听下面4段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几道小题，从每题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有5秒钟的时间阅读每小题。听完后，每小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白你将听两遍。听第6段材料，回答第6至7题。 6. Where do the two speakers work? A. At a store. B. At a hotel. C. At a school. 7. Where does the woman come from?
全国卷高考英语真题 Standardization of sany group #QS8QHH-HHGX8Q8-GNHHJ8-HHMHGN#
绝密★启用前 2017年普通高等学校招生全国统一考试 英语 本试卷共150分，共14页。考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。注意事项： 1.答题前，考生先将自己的姓名、准考证号码填写清楚，将条形码准确粘贴在条形码区域内。 2.选择题必须使用2B铅笔填涂；非选择题必须使用毫米黑字迹的签 字笔书写，字体工整，笔迹清楚。 3.请按照题号顺序在各题目的答题区域内作答，超出答题区域书写的答案无效；在草稿纸、试题卷上答题无效。 4.作图可先用铅笔画出，确定后必须用黑色字迹的签字笔描黑。 5.保持卡面清洁，不要折叠、不要弄破、弄皱，不准使用涂改液、修正带、刮纸刀。 第一部分听力（共两节，满分30分）
做题时，先将答案标在试卷上，录音结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。 第一节（共5小题，每小题分，满分分） 听下面5段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳答案。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 例：How much is the shirt A．￡B．￡C．￡ 答案是C。 1．What will the woman do this afternoon A．Do some exercise. B．Go shopping. C． Wash her clothes. 2．Why does the woman call the man A ．To cancel a flight. B． To make an apology. C． To put off a meeting. 3．How much more does David need for the car A．$ 5,000. B．$20,000. C．$25,000.
山东省2018年普通高校招生（春季）考试 英语试卷 本试卷分一卷（选择题）和二卷（非选择题）两部分，满分80分，考试时间60分钟。考生请在答题卡上答题，考试结束后，请将本试卷和答题卡一并回收。 卷一（选择题，50分） 一、英语知识运用（本题30个小题，每小题1分，共30分。在每小题列出的四个选项中，只有一项符合题目要求，请将符合题目要求的选项字母代号选出，并填涂在答题卡上。） 1.--.He is from Hang Kong. --Nice to meet you. A.Let me introduce myself B.Let me introduce Tom C.This is Tom speaking D.Have a good time,Tom 2.--Could you give me some on how to improve my spoken English？ --I’m so glad to hear that! A.movements B.suggestions C.greetings D.treatments 3.--Nowadays people are encouraged eat fruit and vegetables to keep_______. A.honest B.nervous C.healthy D.proud 4.--Why do you like swimming? --Because I find _______ very relaxing. A.it B.one C.those D.these 5.--_________? __Good idea. A.Why not join us in the game B.How did you know that C.When would you like to come D.What would you like for dinner 6.--_______beautiful the park is !We may have a picnic here this weekend . --Sound great. A.What a B.What C.How a D.How 7.--It’s an impossible task for us to finish the building in half a year. --Yes,it will take _________ one year. A.at least B.at last C.in time D.in order 8.--I think Mary is a successful woman. --I agree with you .She has nearly _______all her dreams. A.realized B.won C.understood D.believed 9.--_________? --Chinese folk music. A.How about going for a walk B.What’s your favorite sports C.How do you like Chinese D.What are you interested in C.At the City Stadium D.At the City Park 11.IF Bob wants to apply for the job, he needs to ________ . A work part-time B work six days a week C call Sandy at 555-778-6356 D have work experience 12.I hope that you can come and celebrate the Spring Festival with my family. A do B did C does D done 13.--? ---I’d like to buy some traditional Chinese souvenirs. A What can I do for you B How much do they cost C What size do you take D What color do you like 14.--What did you do last weekend? ---I Mount Tai with my friends. A climb B climbed C will climb D am climbing 15.--I wonder_________ a film. --Once a month. A.when you see B.where you see C.whether you have seen D.how often you see 16.--Who is the man _________by the window. --He is our English teacher. A.sits B.sat C.sitting D.is sitting 17.--Downing Hotel.Can I help you? --_________. A.I’m looking for a dress for my daughter. B.I’d like to buy a ticket for tonight’s film. C.I’d like to reserve a double room for this Friday. D.I’ve caught a bad cold and I’m feeling terrible. 18.I felt very tired after a day ‘s hard work,________I went to bed early. A.but B. or C.while D.so 19.--I haven’t finished my dinner yet. --Hurry up ! Our friends ________ for us. A.are waiting B.were waiting B.had waiting D.waited 20.--_______I have found somewhere to live, I will send you my address. A.Unless B.Until C.Though D.Once
2010年高考英语全国卷二 https://www.doczj.com/doc/fc13465234.html,/yyzb/wjxz/2010/06/2010-06-1120293.html 2010年普通高等学校招生全国统一考试（全国卷二） 英语 第一卷（选择题） 第一部分英语知识运用 第一节语音知识（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 从A、B、C、D四个选项中，找出其划线部分与所给单词的划线部分读音相同的选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。 1. come A. cold B. cock C. comfort D. improve 2. dead A. eager B. great C. least D. health 3. united A. use B. ugly C. upstairs D. put 4. ours A. outside B. cousins C. nervous D. clocks 5. thirty A. theatre B. thus C. although D. feather 第二节语法和词汇知识（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分） 6. --Is it all right if I keep this photo? --______. A. No, you don't B. No, it shouldn't C. I'm afraid not D. Don't keep it 7. Tom was about to close the window his attention was caught by a bird. A. when B. if C. and D. till 8. My mother opened the drawer to the knives and spoons. A. put away B. put up C. put on D. put together 9. Barbara is easy to recognize as she's the only one of the women who evening dress. A. wear B. wears C. has worn D. have worn 10.--Have you finished the book? --No, I've read up to the children discover the secret cave.
2017年山东高考英语 试题及答案 https://www.doczj.com/doc/fc13465234.html,work Information Technology Company.2020YEAR
绝密★启封前试卷类型A 2017年普通高等学校招生全国统一考试（新课标I） 英语 （考试时间：120分钟试卷满分：150分） 注意事项： 1.本试卷由四个部分组成。其中，第一、二部分和第三部分的第一节为选择题。第三部分的第二节和第四部分为非选择题。2.答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上。3.回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑；回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上，写在本试卷上无效。4.考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。 第一部分听力(共两节，满分30分)做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。例：How much is the shirt? A. ￡ 19. 15. B. ￡ 9. 18. C. ￡ 9. 15. 答案是 C。 1.What does the woman think of the movie? A.It’s amusing B.It’s exciting C.It’s disappointing 2.How will Susan spend most of her time in France? A. Traveling around B.Studying at a school C.Looking after her aunt 3.What are the speakers talking about A. Going out B.Ordering drinks C.Preparing for a party 4.Where are the speakers A.In a classroom B.In a library C.In a bookstore 5.What is the man going to do A.Go on the Internet B.Make a phone call C.Take a train trip 第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分） 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。 6. What is the woman looking for A. An information office B.A police station C.A shoe repair shop 7. What is the Town Guide according to the man A. A brochure B.A newspaper C.A map 听第7段材料，回答第8、9题。 8.What does the man say about the restaurant A.It’s the biggest one around. B.It offers many tasty dishes. C. It’s famous for its seafood. 9.What will the woman probably order?
绝密★启用前 2010年普通高等学校招生全国统一考试 英语 本试卷分第一卷(选择题)和第二卷(非选择题)两部分。第一卷1至l4页。第二 卷15至16页。考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。 第一卷 注意事项： 1. 答题前．考生在答题卡上务必用直径0．5毫米黑色墨水签字笔将自己的姓名、准考证号填写清楚，并贴好条形码。请认真核准条形码上的准考证号、姓名租科目。 2. 每小题选出答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑，如需改动， 用橡皮擦干净后,再选涂其他答案标号，在试题卷上作答无效 ．．．．．．．．．。 第一部分听力(共两节，满分30分) 做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的 答案转涂到答题卡上。 第一节(共5小题；每小题l 5分，满分7．5分) 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、c三个选项中选出 最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有l0秒钟的时间来回答有关 小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 例：How much is the shirt? A￡19.15 8￡9.15 C￡9.18 答案是B。 1 What will Dorothy do on the weekend? A Go out with her friend B Work on l her paper C Make some plans 2. What was the normal price of the T-shirt? A.$15 B.$30. C.$50.
3 What has the woman decided to do On Sunday afternoon? A To attend a wedding B To visit an exhibition C To meet a friend 4 When does the bank close on Sa turday? A At l：00 pm B At 3：00 pm C At 4：00 pm 5 Where are the speakers? A In a store B In a classroom C At a hotel 第二节(共15小题;每小题1 5分，满分22 .5分) 听下面5段对话或独自。每段对话或独自后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独自读两遍。 听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。 6 What do we know about Nora? A She prefers a room of her own B She likes to work with other girls C She lives near the city center． 7 .What is good about the flat? A It has a large sitting room B It has good furniture C It has a big kitchen 听第7段材料，回答第8、9题。 8 Where has Barbara been? A Milan
按秘密级事项管理★启用前 2020年普通高等学校招生全国统一考试(模拟卷) 英语 注意事项: 1.答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、考生号等填写在答题卡和试卷指定位置上。 2.回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。 如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题 卡上。写在本试卷上无效。 3.考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。 第一部分阅读(共两节，满分50分) 第一节(共15小题;每小题2.5分，满分37.5分) 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A, B, C, D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A Why go to Madrid? There may be a slight chill (寒冷) in the air, with temperatures staying around 15℃in March, but Spain's handsome capital is slowly starting to warm up. Even more attractive are the cultural events. A new exhibition on the living and working spaces of Spain's greatest artist, Picasso, has just opened in the studio at the Fundacion Mapfe at Paseo de Recoletos 23. It runs until 11 May with rarely seen pieces borrowed from his family. Later this summer, the 400th anniversary of the death of the Renaissance (文艺复兴) painter EI Greco will be marked with an exciting exhibition at the Museo del Prado at Pasco del Prado from 24 June to 5 October. How to go? The widest range of flights is offered by EasyJet—from Bristol, Edinburgh, Gatwick, Liverpool and Luton. British Airways and its sister airline Iberia combine forces from Heathrow and London City. Ryanair flies from Manchester and Stansted; Air Europa flies from Gatwick. Barajas airport is 13km north-east of the city centre and is served by frequent trains on Metro line 8, but the shortest underground journey is a bit complex with at least one change at Nuevos Ministerios station and takes about 30 minutes. The fare to any station in the city centre is €4.50. The airport express bus runs every 15 to 35 minutes around the clock; €5 one way. It takes 40 minutes to reach the city centre. A taxi takes half the time. A flat rate of €30 covers mast of central Madrid. 1. When will the exhibition about Picasso close? A. On 23 March. B. On 11 May. C. On 24 June. D. On 5 October. 2. Which airline operates flights from Manchester to Madrid? A. EasyJet. B. Ryanair. C. Air Europa. D. British Airways. 3. What is the fastest way to reach central Madrid from Barajas airport? A. Take a taxi. B. Take a city bus.
刷题（二） 第一节完形填空（共20小题；每小题1.5分，满分30分） A man who knows how to write a personal letter has a very powerful tool. A letter can be enjoyed, read and 21 . It can set up a warm conversation between two people far apart (远离的);it can keep a 22 with very little effort. I will give 23 .A few years ago my older brother and l were not getting 24 .We had been close as 25 but had grown apart. Our meetings were not 26 ; our conversation was filled with arguments and quarrels: and every effort to clear the air seemed to only 27 our misunderstanding. Then he 28 a small island in the Caribbean and we 29 touch. One day he wrote me a letter. He described his island and its people, told me what he was doing, said how he felt, and encouraged me to 30 . Rereading the letter, I was 31 by its humor（幽默）and clever expressions. These were all qualities for which I had 32 respected my older brother but 33 he no longer had them. I had never known he could write so 34 . And with that one letter we became friends 35 . It might never have occurred to 36 to write me if he had not been in a place where there were no 37 . For him, writing was a necessity. It also turned out to be the best way for us to get back in touch. Because we live in an age of 38 communication（通讯）, people often 39 that they don’t always have to phone or email. They have a 40 . And that is to write. 21. A. received B. rewritten C. returned D. reread 22. A. record B. promise C. friendship D. secret 23. A. an example B. a lesson C. an experience D. a talk 24. A. through B. together C. along D. away 25.A．brothers B. children C．fellows D．classmates 26. A．normal B. necessary C．pleasant D．possible 27. A．deepen B. start C．express D．settle 28. A．toured B. stopped C．reached D．m 29. A．lost B. kept in C．needed D．got in 30.A. think B. write C．enjoy D．read 31.A．driven B. beaten C．surprised D．honored 32. A．never B. seldom C．sometimes D．once 33. A．realized B. judged C. thought D. expected． 34. A．well B. often C. much D. soon 35. A．later B. anyhow C. too D. again． 36. A．us B. anyone C. someone D. my brother 37. A．mail services B. transport services C. phones D. relative 38. A．poor B. easy C. popular D. busy 39. A．believe B. decide C. argue D. forget 40.A. habit B. choice C. method D. plan 第二部分：阅读理解（共25小题。第一节每小题2分，第二节每小题1分；满分45分） A When I was six, Dad brought home a dog one day, who was called “Brownie”, My brothers and I all loved Brownie and did different things with her. One of us would walk her, another would feed her ,then there were baths, playing catch and many other games .Brownie, in return, loved each and every one of us. One thing that most touched my heart was that she would go to whoever was sick and just be with them. We always felt better when she was around. One days, as I was getting her food, she chewed up(咬破) one of Dad’s shoes, which had to be thrown away in the end. I knew Dad would be mad and I had to let her know what she did was Wrong. When I looked at her and said, “Bad girl.” She looked down at the ground and then went and hid. I saw a tear in her eyes. Brownie turned out to be more than just our family pet. She went everywhere with us. People would stop and ask if they could pet her. Of course she'd let anyone pet her. She was just the most lovable dog. There were many dines when we'd be out walking and a small child would come over and pull on her hair. She never barked (吠) or tried to get away. Funny thing is she would smile. This frightened people because they thought she was showing her teeth. Far from