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2015-2016高考英语全国1试卷分析

2015-2016高考英语全国1试卷分析
2015-2016高考英语全国1试卷分析

2015—2016高考英语全国1试卷分析

1. 2016年试题分值

2510

15

30

10

30

300

10

2030

40

书面表达

短文改错(每题1)

语法填空(每题1.5)完形填空(每题1.5)七选五(每题2)阅读理解(每题2)听力(每题1.5)分值

2. 2015年和2016年试题各类题型的考点分布比较 (1)听力

A. 2016年高考英语听力(新课标1卷)的材料:

本套试卷的听力主播是Kris &Laura ,和去年一致;速度为150~155wpm ;总字数约为871字;设题方面,依然以事实细节题为主;难度方面,整体上有9PASSAGE TOPIC PASSAGE TOPIC Text 1 给Lydia 买生日礼物 Text 6 暑期打工 Text 2 请求对方帮忙拍照 Text 7 学业近况及毕业打算 Text 3 抱怨Kate 工作时间打私

人电话

Text 8 更改酒店订单 Text 4 在餐馆点饮料 Text 9 周末安排

Text 5

是否可以开窗户

Text 10

美国大学生求职就业状况

本套试卷的听力主播是Kris & Laura ,;速度为150-155 wpm ;整套材料的词数约为731个单词,为近5年来最少;设题方面,依然以事实细节题和推理判PASSAGE TOPIC PASSAGE TOPIC Text 1 赶火车 Text 6 旅行 Text 2

天气

Text 7

点餐

Text 3 着急去开会Text 8 同事生病了

Text 4 选课Text 9 找房子

Text 5 关掉录音机Text 10 London Tea Trade Centre

(1)平时多听多练,熟悉常考话题;

(2)选择信息点丰富,选项干扰强的材料;

(3)培养语言灵活转换的能力。

(4)训练并逐步提高对长难句的分析和理解能力。

(2)阅读理解(包含七选五)

年份素材话题

考点分布

(第一节,数字表数量)细节

理解

词义

推测

推断

主旨大

意题

2016年

第一节

说明文:主要介绍了4位著名的女性

和她们所做出的贡献

11 1 2 1

说明文:介绍了社会上很多老年人搬

到离子女近的地方居住的一种趋势。

同时也建议老人们要做出适合自己的

选择。

记叙文:介绍了作者在一次运送造血

干细胞途中的一段经历。

说明文:介绍了沉默在不同文化背景

下的不同内涵。

第二节密码的设置方法和破解方法

2015年第一节

使用文:文章是关于伦敦运河博物馆

每月专题讲座安排的海报。

9 1 5 0

记叙文:作者离开寒冷的纽约去美国

南部度假的感受。

记叙文:本文介绍了在巴黎皮蓬杜艺

术中心举办西班牙著名艺术家萨尔瓦

多?达利艺术展的情况

议论文。法国咖啡馆在现代社会中彰

显心理沟通的社会功能,产生了积极

的意义。

第二节重建人际关系中的信任的意义和措施

对比结果

同:选材地道,贴近学生实际,体裁多样。在选材上保持了知识性、趣味性强,信息量不是很大,语篇长度适中,题材和体裁广泛的特点,彰显文化特色,考查考生快速获取、处理、分析信息的能力。5篇文章按难度渐进排列,阅读总量1800-2000词之间,细节理解题多于推断题试题数量。

异:15年阅读选取了两篇记叙文,一篇使用文和一篇议论文;细节理解题和推断题居多,未考查主旨题。16年阅读选取了三篇说明文和一篇记叙文;细节理解题居多,其余题型略有涉及。

教学建议

1. 学生的词汇量需充足

2. 对于阅读中的长难句,教会学生运用语法知识进行分析

3. 对于文章中涉及到的理解题型,引导学生正确理解,总结思路。

(3)完形填空

完形填空考查考生在阅读理解的基础上对词汇知识的掌握情况。要求考生通读全文,掌握文章大意,运用词汇、语法等知识,选择最佳答案,使文章意思通顺,结构完整。记叙型完形填空是高考和备考的重点。

4

7

5

6

3

2

1

3

3

11名词

动词

形容词

副词

连词介词

代词

短语

2016年和2015年完形填空考点分布

20162015

年份 2016年 2015年 体裁 记叙文

记叙文

短文大意

材料讲述了司机Larry 在路上遇到着火的汽车,积极救人的故事。

材料讲述了作者周末带孩子去超市购物时,为路上碰到的求助者买了很多他需要的东西。

对比结果

同:上表显示,近两年全国课标 I 卷完形填空侧重记叙文体裁。以考查实词为主,虚词考查较少。

异: 2016年卷在语言使用方面比2015年多考查了连词、介词和短语的辨析,体现了对语言基本功扎实的要求。

教学建议

1. 学生的单词量需充足

2. 教会学生活学活用单词和句型

3. 梳理文章的思路,引导学生正确理解文章大意

(4)语法填空

这一题型的出现改变了以往用单项填空来考查语法的形式,代之以在短文或者在以具体生活情境为内容的对话中考查语法的灵活运用,难度显然要高于原来的单项填空。

2016年卷 2015年卷 形式 短文 短文 体裁 记叙文 记叙文 提示词数量 7题 7题 动词时态和语态 62 61、67 非谓语动词

66、67

68、70

连词 65 64 名词和名词的数

61、69 65 形容词 --- --- 副词 63 62、69 介词 64 66 冠词 70 --- 代词

68

63

对比结果

同:上表显示,近两年全国课标 I 卷语法填空都为短文体,提示词都是7个,考点均衡分布,考查全面。

异: 题头变化,明确了无提示词情况下只能填1个单词,但有提示词时不加数量限制,确保了该题型的灵活性,也使得该题型更成熟、完善。

教学建议

1. 巩固学生的单词和语法基础

2. 适当练习,并总结反思

(5)短文改错

短文改错的文章内容浅显,词数为100左右,多采用记叙文文体,偶尔也有说明文和使用文。短文改错试题检测考生在改错和书写的过程中,在语篇和上下文理解中运用语言知识去解决实际的语言问题。具体来说,短文改错主要检测考生发现、判断、纠正文章中错误的能力,以考查考生在语篇中综合运用英语知识的准确性。考点涵盖知识的领会、运用、分析、综合等诸多方面,考查目标既涉及语言知识的多个方面(词法、句法、语篇结构、行文逻辑等),又涵盖理解、分析、运用和整体思维等诸方面能力。

2016年和2015年短文改错考点分布

2

11113

11

212

1111

1234

动词

名词介词连词20152016

年份

项目2016年卷2015年卷体裁记叙文记叙文

对比结果

同:上表显示,近两年全国课标 I卷语法填空高频考点为名词、连词、冠词、介词、形容词和副词、动词时态语态和代词。

异: 2016年卷对连词进行3次考查,出题较2015年卷更灵活。

教学建议1. 巩固学生的单词和语法基础

2. 适当练习,并总结反思

(6)书面表达

书面表达主要考查了学生对语言的综合运用能力。近两年全国卷书面表达都是书信体的时间

项目

2016年2015年命题形式文字文字

体裁使用文-写书信使用文-写书信

写作内容让外教修改一份申请书和个人简历的

文字内容和格式

根据提示信息要求给美国朋友彼得

写信约稿,内容是美国节日风俗和

中学生生活。

写作要点修改文字和格式1. 栏目介绍。

2. 稿件内容;

3. 稿件长度:约400词汇

4. 交稿日期:6月28日前天

对比结果

同:上表显示,近两年全国课标I卷书面表达都为书信体,话题为学生所熟悉,具有开放性。

异:2016年卷文章没有给出开头和结尾,考生需要注意书信的格式。另外,2016年卷没有明确列出写作要点,考生需要根据题目提炼要点,审题难度偏大。

教学建议1. 教会学生使用文的写作格式,并加强各种使用文的练习

2. 巩固学生在英语语言方面准确和流畅的表达能力

2016年高考英语全国卷2及答案

英语试卷 第1页(共24页) 英语试卷 第2页(共24页) 绝密★启用前 2016普通高等学校招生全国统一考试(全国新课标卷2) 英语 使用地区:考听力,海南、宁夏、黑龙江、吉林、辽宁、新疆、内蒙古、青海、重庆、陕西、西藏; 不考听力,甘肃 本试卷分第Ⅰ卷(选择题)和第Ⅱ卷(非选择题)两部分。共150分,共12页。考试时间结束后,将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。 注意事项: 1. 答题前,考生先将自己的姓名、准考证号码填写清楚,将条形码准确粘贴在条形码区域内。 2. 选择题必须使用2B 铅笔填涂;非选择题必须使用0.5毫米黑色字迹的签字笔书写,字体工整、笔迹清楚。 3. 请按照题号顺序在各题目的答题区域内作答,超出答题区域书写的答案无效;在草稿纸、试题卷上答题无效。 4. 保持卡面清洁,不要折叠、不要弄破、弄皱,不准使用涂改液、修正带、刮纸刀。 第Ⅰ卷 第一部分 听力(共两节,满分30分) 做题时,先将答案标在试卷上,录音内容结束后,你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。 第一节 (共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分) 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A 、B 、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 例: How much is the shirt? A. £19.15 B. £9. 18 C. £9.15 答案是C 。 1. What will Lucy do at 11:30 tomorrow? A. Go out for lunch. B. See her dentist. C. Visit a friend. 2. What is the weather like now? A. It’s sunny. B. It’s rainy. C. It’s cloudy. 3. Why does the man talk to Dr. Simpson? A. To make an apology. B. To ask for help. C. To discuss his studies. 4. How will the woman get back from the railway station? A. By train. B. By car C. By bus. 5. What does Jenny decide to do first? A. Look for a job. B. Go on a trip. C. Get an assistant. 第二节 (共15小题;每小题1.5分,满分22.5分) 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A 、B 、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第6段材料,回答第6、7题。 6. What time is it now? A. 1:45. B. 2:10. C. 2:15. 7. What will the man do? A. Work on a project. B. See Linda in the library. C. Meet with Professor Smith. 听第7段材料,回答第8至10题。 8. What are the speakers talking about? A. Having guests this weekend. B. Going out for sightseeing. C. Moving into a new house. 9. What is the relationship between the speakers? A. Neighbors. B. Husband and wife. C. Host and visitor. 10. What will the man do tomorrow? A. Work in his garden. B. Have a barbecue. C. Do some shopping. 听第8段材料,回答第11至13题。 ------------- 在-------------------- 此-------------------- 卷-------------------- 上-------------------- 答-------------------- 题-------------------- 无-------------------- 效 姓名________________ 准考证号_____________

2018年高考英语全国1卷及答案

绝密★启用前 2018年普通高等学校招生全国统一考试 英语(Ⅰ卷) 第一部分听力(共两节,满分30分) 第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分) 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。例:How much is the shirt? A. £19.15. B. £9.18. C. £9.15. 答案是C。 1. What will James do tomorrow? A. Watch a TV program B. Give a talk. C. Write a report. 2. What can we say about the woman? A. She’s generous. B. She’s curious C. She’s helpful. 3. When does the train leave? A. At 6:30. B. At 8:30. C. At 10:30. 4. How does the woman go to work? A. By car. B. On foot. C. By bike. 5. What is the probable relationship between the speakers? A. Classmates. B. Teacher and student C. Doctor and patient. 第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5分,满分22.5分) 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第6段材料,回答第6、7题。 6. What does the woman regret? A. Giving up her research. B. Dropping out of college. C. Changing her major. 7. What is the woman interested in studying now? A. Ecology. B. Education. C. Chemistry. 听第7段材料,回答第8、9题。 8. What is the man? A. A hotel manager. B. A tour guide. C. A taxi driver. 9. What is the man doing for the woman? A. Looking for some local foods. B. Showing her around the seaside. C. Offering information about a hotel. 听第8段材料,回答第10至12题。 10. Where does the conversation probably take place? A. In an office. B. At home. C. At a restaurant. 11. What will the speakers do tomorrow evening? A. Go to a concert. B. Visit a friend. C. Work extra hours. 12. Who is Alice going to call? A. Mike. B. Joan. C. Catherine. 听第9段材料,回答第13至16题。 13. Why does the woman meet the man? A. To look at an apartment. B. To deliver some furniture. C. To have a meal together. 14. What does the woman like about the carpet? A. Its color. B. Its design. C. Its quality. 15. What does the man say about the kitchen? A. It’s a good size. B. It’s newly painted. C.It’s equately equipped. 16. What will the woman probably do next? A. Go downtown. B. Talk with her friend. C. Make payment. 听第10段材料,回答第17至20题。 17. Who is the speaker probably talking to? A. Movie fans. B. News reporters. C. College students. 18. When did the speaker take English classes? A. Before he left his hometown. BAter he came to America C. When he was 15 years old. 19. How does the speaker feel about his teacher? A. He’s proud. B. He’s sympathetic. C. He’s grateful. 20. What does the speaker mainly talk about? A. How education shaped his life. B. How his language skills improved. C. How he managed his business well. 第二部分阅读理解(共两节,满分40分) 第一节(共15小题;每小题2分,满分30分) 阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中,选出最佳选项。 A Washington, D.C. Bicycle Tours Cherry Blossom Bike Tour in Washington, D.C. Duration: 3 hours This small group bike tour is a fantastic way to see the world-famous cherry trees with beautiful flowers of Washington, D.C. Your guide will provide a history lesson about the trees and the famous monuments where they blossom. Reserve your spot before availability – and the cherry blossoms – disappear! Washington Capital Monuments Bicycle Tour Duration: 3 hours (4 miles) Join a guided bike tour and view some of the most popular monuments in Washington, D.C. Explore the monuments and memorials on the National Mall as your guide shares unique facts and history at each stop. Guided tour includes bike, helmet, cookies and bottled water. Capital City Bike Tour in Washington, D.C. Duration: 3 hours Morning or Afternoon, this bike tour is the perfect tour for D.C. newcomers and locals looking to experience Washington, D.C. in a healthy way with minimum effort. Knowledgeable guides will entertain you with the most interesting stories about Presidents, Congress, memorials, and parks. Comfortable bikes and a smooth tour route (路线) make cycling between the sites fun and relaxing. Washington Capital Sites at Night Bicycle Tour Duration: 3 hours (7 miles) Join a small group bike tour for an evening of exploration in the heart of Washington, D.C. Get up close to the monuments and memorials as you bike the sites of Capitol Hill and the National Mall. Frequent stops are made for photo taking as your guide offers unique facts and history. Tour includes bike, helmet, and bottled water. All riders are equipped with reflective vests and safety lights. 21. Which tour do you need to book in advance? A. Cherry Blossom Bike Tour in Washington, D.C. B. Washington Capital Monuments Bicycle Tour. C. Capital City Bike Tour in Washington, D.C. D. Washington Capital Sites at Night Bicycle Tour. 22. What will you do on the Capital City Bike Tour? A. Meet famous people. B. Go to a national park. C. Visit well-known museums. D. Enjoy interesting stories. 23. Which of the following does the bicycle tour at night provide? A. City maps. B. Cameras C. Meals. D. Safety lights. B Good Morning Britain’s Susanna Reid is used to grilling guests on the sofa every morning, but she is cooking up a storm in her latest role – showing families how to prepare delicious and nutritious meals on a tight budget. In Save Money: Good Food, she visits a different home each week and with the help of chef Matt Tebbutt offers top tips on how to reduce food waste, while preparing recipes for under £5 per family a day. And the Good Morning Britain presenter says she’s been able to put a lot of what she’s learnt into practice in her own home, preparing meals for sons, Sam, 14, Finn, 13, and Jack, 11. “We love Mexican churros, so I buy them on my phone from my local Mexican takeaway restaurant,” she explains. “I pay £5 for a p ortion (一份), but Matt makes them for 26p a portion, because they are flour, water, sugar and oil. Everybody can buy takeaway food, but sometimes we’re not aware how cheaply we can make this food ourselves.” The eight-part series (系列节目), Save Money: Good Food, follows in the footsteps of ITV’s Save Money: Good Health, which gave viewers advice on how to get value from the vast range of health products on the market. With food our biggest weekly household expense, Susanna and Matt spend time with a different family each week. In tonight’s Easter special they come to the aid of a family in need of some delicious inspiration on a budget. The team transforms the family’s long weekend of celebration with less expensive but still tasty recipes. 24. What do we know about Susanna Reid? A. She enjoys embarrassing her guests. B. She has started a new programme. C. She dislikes working early in the morning. D. She has had a tight budget for her family. 25. How does Matt Tebbutt help Susanna? A. He buys cooking materials for her. B. He prepares food for her kids. C. He assists her in cooking matters. D. He invites guest families for her. 26. What does the author intend to do in paragraph 4? A. Summarize the previous paragraphs. B. Provide some advice for the readers. C. Add some background information. D. Introduce a new topic for discussion. 27. What can be a suitable title for the text? A. Keeping Fit by Eating Smart B. Balancing Our Daily Diet C. Making Yourself a Perfect Chef D. Cooking Well for Less C Languages have been coming and going for thousands of years, but in recent times there has been less coming and a lot more going. When the world was still populated by hunter-gatherers, small, tightly knit (联系) groups developed their own patterns of speech independent of each other. Some language experts believe that 10,000 years ago, when the world had just five to ten million people, they spoke perhaps 12,000 languages between them. Soon afterwards, many of those people started settling down to become farmers, and their languages too became more settled and fewer in number. In recent centuries, trade, industrialisation, the development of the nation-state and the spread of universal compulsory education, especially globalisation and better communications in the past few decades, all have caused many languages to disappear, and dominant languages such as English, Spanish and Chinese are increasingly taking over. At present, the world has about 6,800 languages. The distribution of these languages is hugely uneven. The general rule is that mild zones have relatively few languages, often spoken by many people, while hot, wet zones have lots, often spoken by small numbers. Europe has only around 200 languages; the Americas about 1,000; Africa 2,400; and Asia and the Pacific perhaps 3,200, of which Papua New Guinea alone accounts for well over 800. The median number (中位数) of speakers is a mere 6,000, which means that half the world’s languages are spoken by fewer people than that. Already well over 400 of the total of 6,800 languages are close to extinction (消亡), with only a few elderly speakers left. Pick, at random, Busuu in Cameroon (eight remaining speakers), Chiapaneco in Mexico (150), Lipan Apache in the United States (two or three) or Wadjigu in Australia (one, with a question-mark): none of these seems to have much chance of survival. 28. What can we infer about languages in hunter-gatherer times? A. They developed very fast. B. They were large in number. 英语试题第1页

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