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2015年英语会考明说

2015年英语会考明说
2015年英语会考明说

2015年英语会考明说

一、听力理解题难易度说明

第一节:听力理解共16小题,16分,每小题1分。本节包括七至八段对话或独白,考生从每小题A、B、C三个选项中,造出能回答问题的最佳答案。

本节的考查层级参见“会考内容标准”的语言知识中的语音部分(P5);语言技能中的听力理解部分(P6)。

本节为较易题和中等题。

听下面的对话或独白,从每题A、B、C三个选项中,造出能回答问题的最佳答案。每段对话或独白你将听两遍。

听下面材料,回答第1题。

1. What will the man have for breakfast?

A. Eggs.

B. Milk.

C. Coffee.

听力录音材料

听下面材料,回答第2题和第3题。

2. W hat’s the man going to do?

A. Meet a friend.

B. Take a flight.

C. Have an interview.

3. How does the man feel now?

A. Satisfied.

B. Worried.

C. Proud.

听力录音材料

第二节:听并记录共4小题,4分,每小题1分。

本节包括一至两段对话或独白,考生根据题目要求记录主要信息。

本节的考查层级参见“会考内容标准”的语言知识中的语音部分(P5);语言技能中的听力理解部分(P6)。

本题含较易题、中等题和较难题。

听下面材料,根据题目要求在答题卡相应题号后的横线上写下第4题和第5题的关键信息。

听力录音材料

二、单项填空题难易度说明

单项填空:共15小题,15分,每小题1分。每小题留有空白处,考生

从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中,造出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。

本题的考查层级参见“会考内容标准”的语言知识中的词汇和语法部分(P5)。

本题含较易题和中等题。

从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中,造出可以填入空白处的最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。

6. This project requires close teamwork.will be achieved unless we work well together.

A. Nothing

B. Anything

C. Something

D. Everything

7. A great amount of help from the government made possible for us to recover from the disaster.

A. that

B. this

C. it

D. one

8. —What are you two whispering over there?

—Oh, . Just small talk.

A. nothing

B. everything

C. anything

D. something

9. —How’s your new babysitter?

—We couldn’t ask for one. All our kids love her so much.

A. a good

B. a best

C. the best

D. a better

10. I think watching TV every day is a waste of time—there are

meaningful things to do.

A. less

B. more

C. the least

D. the most

11. This is by far movie that I’ve ever seen.

A. an inspiring

B. a much inspiring

C. the most inspiring

D. the more inspiring

12. —How was your interview?

—Oh, I couldn’t feel any . I hardly understood most of the questions they asked.

A. worse

B. bad

C. better

D. good

13. The Smiths were worried by news that their son needed

operation on his knee.

A. a; 不填

B. the; 不填

C. the; an

D. a; an

14. It was cool summer night and the moon was shining brightly across night sky.

A. a; a

B. a; the

C. 不填; a

D. 不填; the

15. —Which of the two films do you like better?

—French one, of course. I think it’s really most moving one.

A. The; a

B. The; the

C. A; the

D. A; a

16. big fire happened yesterday, which was great shock to lots of people.

A. A; a

B. The; a

C. A; the

D. The; the

17. The Smiths were praised the way they brought up their children.

A. by

B. for

C. at

D. from

18. The library will open only in the morning further notice.

A. with

B. until

C. for

D. at

19. the past 12 months the company has managed a 10 percent improvement.

A. Over

B. At

C. For

D. By

20. If we to protect the environment now, we’ll regret it in the future.

A. hadn’t acted

B. haven’t acted

C. don’t act

D. won’t act

21. I felt very tired when I got home, and I straight to bed.

A. go

B. went

C. had gone

D. have gone

22. I didn’t think I’d like the movie, but actually it pretty good.

A. has been

B. was

C. had been

D. would be

23. —What about your self-drive trip last week?

—Tiring! The road was not so flat, and we a rough ride.

A. had

B. have

C. would have

D. have had

24. —Oh no! We’re too late. The train .

—That’s OK. We’ll catch the next train to London.

A. was leaving

B. had left

C. has left

D. would leave

25. Hurry up, kids! The school bus for us!

—Yes. We a great time there.

A. waits

B. was waiting

C. waited

D. is waiting

27. Since the new speed limits ,the number of accidents in the area has fallen sharply.

A. were introduced

B. introduced

C. have been introduced

D. have introduced

28. The museum which will be open to tourists next month. The work is almost finished.

A. is being repaired

B. has been repaired

C. is repairing

D. has repaired

29. There have been productive discussions over the last few days and I think some real progress .

A. has made

B. has been made

C. had made

D. had been made

30. Mary’s nervousness makes it difficult her thoughts and feelings in public.

A. express

B. expressing

C. expressed

D. to express

31. When I was little, my mother used to sit by my bed, me stories till

I fell asleep.

A. having told

B. telling

C. told

D. to tell

32. I stopped the car a short break after three hours’ driving.

A. take

B. taking

C. to take

D. taken

33. There is nothing in the room but a bookshelf in one corner.

A. standing

B. to stand

C. stand

D. stood

34. When Laura got home from her holiday, there was a pile of mail

for her.

A. waited

B. to wait

C. wait ing

D. to have waited

35. The witnesses by the police just now gave very different descriptions of the fight.

A. questioned

B. being questioned

C. to be questioned

D. having questioned

36. When for his views about his current job, Mike told me the company was excellent, and the work was challenging.

A. being asked

B. asked

C. asking

D. to ask

37. —What are you doing this Saturday?

—I’m not sure, but I go to the Black Eyed Peas concert.

A. must

B. need

C. should

D. might

38. I’m going to Europe on vacation together with John if I find the money.

A. can

B. might

C. would

D. need

39. —Shall I inform him of the change of the schedule right now?

—I think you ,in case he comes late for the meeting.

A. need

B. must

C. may

D. can

40. Mary’s house was being painted, we arranged to meet at the parking lot.

A. for

B. or

C. so

D. for

41. —How do you like your new job?

—Well, I don’t earn as much, I like what I’m doing.

A. and

B. but

C. or

D. for

42. Thank you so much for your looking after my dog we were away.

A. while

B. if

C. though

D. where

43. the plans have been approved, the company will be able to begin construction.

A. Now that

B. In case

C. Even if

D. As if

44. We moved the piano there would be room for the Christmas tree.

A. so long as

B. so that

C. as far as

D. now that

45. He won’t get anything he finishes the work properly.

A. until

B. while

C. because

D. if

46. You can cancel the ticket you tell the airline 48 hours in advance.

A. while

B. until

C. if

D. though

47. wants to go camping this weekend, raise your hands.

A. Whoever

B. Whenever.

C. Wherever

D. Whatever

48. Success often comes to those are good at recognizing their own strengths.

A. whom

B. who

C. what

D. which

49. When I arrived, Bryan took me to see the house I would be staying.

A. what

B. when

C. where

D. which

50. John invited about 40 people to his wedding, most of are family members.

A. them

B. that

C. which

D. whom

51. Theater fans love New York, offers a variety of Broadway plays.

A. which

B. where

C. that

D. who

52. It’s good to know the dogs will be well cared for wile we’re away.

A. what

B. whose

C. which

D. that

53. It doesn’t matter you pay by cash or credit card in this store.

A. how

B. whether

C. what

D. why

54. Don’t let any failures discourage you, for you can never tell close you may be to victory.

A. how

B. that

C. which

D. where

55. is that the meeting is put off till Friday.

A. How I want to tell you

B. How do I want to tell you

C. What I want to tell you

D. What do I want to tell you

三、完形填空题难易度说明

完形填空:共15小题,15分,每小题1分。本题为留有空白处的一篇短文,考生从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中,选出最佳选项。

本题的考查层级参见“会考内容标准”的语言知识中的词汇、语法和话题部分(P5、P6);语言技能中年月阅读理解部分(P7)。

本题含较易题、中等题和较难题。

阅读下面短文,从各题A、B、C、D四个选项中,选出可以填入空白处的最佳答案。

I truly learned what a best friend is in my first year in high school. Kate and I were good friends and we were inseparable. We spent every day together and always had a good 56 .

Then basketball started and we were on the 57 team. After a few games, however, Kate got moved up to the Rose Cup full-time. I wouldn’t admit

it then, but actually I envied her. Having58 practice times, we started to see less of each other. Soon I started to hear that she was talking59 my back.

One night, I called Kate to tell her about my new60 . To my surprise, the next day at school she told everyone I 61 her hair style because she had told me she wanted to get hers cut like this. At noon she handed me a letter and walked away 62 talking with me. I couldn’t accept the cruel words on the paper. In great 63 , I wrote right back to her.

Over the next week, we exchanged more64 notes. I cried myself to sleep every night, 65 our friendship was over. One night my mom took me to Kate’s home. Our moms looked at each other nervously. Kate’s mom asked us questions but neither of us 66 . At last I let everything out. The huge burden in my mind was slowly 67 as we each talked about how we were feeling. It was all out. Suddenly Kate rose from her seat, crossed the room and hugged me with tears. I will never forget that.

It has been five months 68 we broke with each other. Last weekend we were out together again. It makes me happy that we are69 to care about each other more. I now know that 70 I am asked about my friends, Kate will be at the top of the list.

56. A. rest B. time C. example D. party

57. A. right B. good C. famous D. same

58. A. regular B. free C. different D. strange

59. A. on B. in C. by D. behind

60. A. haircut B. clothes C. necklace D. shoes

61. A. caught B. gained C. copied D. created

62. A. in spite of B. instead of C. except for D. as well as

63. A. anxiety B. anger C. surprise D. doubt

64. A. serious B. hurtful C. regretful D. hurtful

65. A. meaning B. hoping C. believing D. proving

66. A. responded B. explained C. told D. said

67. A. loaded B. lifted C. placed D. when

68. A. if B. when C. because D. since

69. A. planning B. pretending C. learning D. arranging

70. A. whenever B. whatever C. however D. whoever

四、阅读理解题难易度说明

第一节:阅读理解共12小题,24分,每小题2分。本节为三至四篇阅读材料,考生从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中,选出最佳选项。

本节的考查层级参见“会考内容标准”的语言知识中的词汇、语法和话题部分(P5、P6);语言技能中的阅读理解部分(P7)。

本节含较易题、中等题和较难题。

阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中,造出最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。

(一)较易题文章本身浅显。学生能读懂一般题材和体裁的阅读材料,获取主要信息。

Oh, Those Schools

Most schools are named after famous people. Other schools are named after the streets on which they are located. Some school names are most unusual. How they were chosen is anyone’s guess.

There are schools with names that would make a person think twice before opening the door. The school named Lookout at least warn pupils in advance. You would need the most courage of all to enter the school in Oregon named Tenkiller!

Not all unusual school names are strange in a fearful way. Many of the names are pleasant. Who would not feel at home in the school named Welcome?

What could go wrong in the school called Allgood? The Bright School, located in Montanan, seems to promise that much learning will take place.

Other schools have names neither pleasant nor fearful. Their names are simply funny. There are schools with name s such as Telephone, and Ducktown. For names to make us smile, what can match Bushyhead in the state of Georgia?

Do you think you think you can find the Nonesuch School? If you look carefully at the word, you will see that its name says there is no such sc hool, but there is. The Nonesuch School is found in Kentucky.

71. One pleasant school name in the passage is.

A. Telephone

B. Tenkiller

C. Lookout

D. Allgood

72. When you hear of the school name Bushyhead, you will find it .

A. terrible

B. fearful

C. funny

D. familiar

73. The Bright School is found in the state of .

A. Georgia

B. Kentucky

C. Oregon

D. Montana

(二)中等题文章难易适中。学生能运用阅读策略理解文章主旨、人物态度和观点,能推测作者意图等。

Birds Do It! Recycle!

If you collect paper, cloth, or string, your friends might call you a pack rat. But if you’re a bird, you’re just building the coolest house in the neighborhood!

Scientists have no idea exactly why birds choose certain objects to build their nests. But scientists know that the main reason birds build nests is to keep their babies safe, warm and healthy.

Chicks grow faster and are healthier when they are warm. They also learn to fly and leave the nest sooner than those without warm homes.

What a Yarn (纱)

Yarn is big on an oriole’s (黄鹂) shopping list when nest building. Scientists are still trying to figure out why so many birds choose white yarn

over other colors for nest building. Scientists think t hat the white thing reminds birds of cotton they find in the wild.

Do It Naturally

Even though birds can help us recycle some of our junk by using it to build nests, they also need to use lots of natural materials. Long grass, dried bark, and mud are good for nests, too.

You can make a collection box of used things to leave for birds so they can help themselves. Hang a small plastic box with holes on a tree branch. Fill the box loosely with nest building materials. Hang the box on a tree and watch birds climb on board to pick through the junk to find their tre asures.

For the Birds!

Stop! Don’t throw all that rubbish out! Give some to the birds. Look and see how your old junk can help decorate and warm a bird’s new home.

74. The author is comparing an oriole to.

A. a bird that can write

B. a bird that collects paper

C. a person who lives in a house

D. a person who buys things at a store

75. Why did the author write “Birds Do It! Recycle!”?

A. To show how to find a bird nest.

B. To get readers to clean up rubbish.

C. To show how birds use our rubbish.

D. To tell readers how people are like birds.

(三)较难题文章本身较难或含有一定量的生词。学生能运用阅读策略克服生词困难,理解语篇意义;能根据上下文推测词义。

Winter Blues

It’s November. The days are getting shorter and the nights longer. And Mary, in London, is eating more, sleeping more, and feeling depressed (沮丧的). In February, things become worse for her, but by April, Mary is back to normal.

This pattern repeats itself year after year. Mary is not alone. There are others who suffer from the same problem all over the world-anywhere, in fact, where winter days are shorter and nights are longer.

Researchers believe that Mary, and millions like her, suffer from a condition they call “Seasonal Affective Disorder” (SAD for short). This condition is a kind of depression that comes with decrease s in light exposure. They feel tired, depressed and easily get annoyed or angry. Their appetite increases so they gain weight. SAD, say the researchers, can affect anyone but most often affects women.

Fortunately, there are treatments for SAD. People with mild cases may improve just by brightening the rooms in their house and getting exposure to more sunlight. Many people with more serious cases can find relief with a new light treatment. With this treatment, SAD sufferers get between 30 minutes to a few hours a day of extra exposure to a special light (one that is five to twenty times brighter than typical indoor lighting). By increasing their exposure to either natural or man-made light, approximately 75% of people with SAD get better.

Medical researchers tell people not to self-diagnose (自我诊断). SAD, they say, is a serious condition. A person with SAD follows the same pattern each year. He or she has major depressions every winter, and things get back to normal in spring and summer. If you feel sad and easi ly get annoyed once in a while during the winter, you probably don’t have SAD.

The new light treatment is changing the lives of people like Mary. Mary can now enjoy the seasonal changes, just as most of us do.

76. What does “winter blues” mean?

A. Feeling depressed in winter.

B. The gray color of the season.

C. Less exposure to light in winter.

D. The new light treatment for SAD.

77. The passage implies that .

A. whether people feel well or not depends on weather

B. enough exposure to sunlight is necessary to humans

C. SAD sufferers’ weight increases along with the treatment

D. those who have depressions should get the SAD treatment

第二节:阅读与表达共3小题,6分,每小题2分。本节为一篇阅读材料,包括三个开放式问题,考生根据题目要求填写答案。

本节的考查层级参见“会考内容材料”的语言知识中的词汇、语法和话题部分(P5、P6);语言技能中的阅读理解部分(P7)。

本节含中等题和较难题。

阅读下面短文和问题,根据短文内容和每小题后的具体要求,在相应题号后的横线上写下相关信息,完成对该问题的回答。答语要意思清楚,结构正确,书写工整。

Every year in the town of Dalware, a group

of peoplewho enjoy the outdoors have a very interesting

contest(比赛). It’s a pumpkin-throwing contest! The

rules of the competition are easy. First, the pumpkins

must weigh at least eight pounds. Second, no explosives,

or dangerous materials, are allowed.

People come from all over the country to see the competition. Some of them take it very seriously. The people who compete in the event tend to have two things in common: they all love the outdoors, and they all love contraptions.

There are several teams that take part in the contest. Some teams have been coming to the contest for many years. What do they call this strange contest that keeps people coming back year after year? This fun annual contest’s unusual name is the “Punkin’Chunkin’Contest”. The aim of the

contest is simple: to make a machine that can throw a pumpkin through the air. The machine that throws—or chunks—a pumpkin the farthest wins. The teams make these contraptions themselves. They work hard to make original machines that will chunk a pumpkin a long way.

Some women compete in the event, but not many. However, the contest does affect the men’s wives—especially while the men prepare for the Punkin’Chunkin’Contest. One team member explains, “The ladies don’t like to get involved. They know right around September … October, that it’s about time to become a Punkin’ Chunkin’ widow.”

The unusual sport of Punkin’Chunkin’began over 20 years later, this strange contest has really grown. It’s become very popular. Today, the contest attracts more than 80 teams, and more than 20,000 people come to watch it!

按具体要求回答下面问题,在答题卡相应题号后的横线上写下相关信息。

78. Who can take part in the contest?(不多于七个单词)

79. What is the contraption?(不多于六个单词)

80. What title would you give for the passage?(不多于三个单词)

五、书面表达题难易度说明

书面表达:共1小题,20分。

本题的考查层级参见“会考内容标准”的语言知识中的词汇和语法部分(P5);语言技能中的书面表达部分(P7)。

本题含较易、中等和较难部分。

根据题目所提出的具体要求,写出一篇连贯完整的短文。词数不少于60。

81. 假设你是李华,你校将在寒假举办外国人学汉语的短期学习班,并为学员安排周末“北京一日游”活动。作为志愿者,请你根据下表提供的信息,向他们介绍旅游活动安排,并对他们的出行提出建议。讲稿的开头已为你写

好。

you the one-day tour for the coming Saturday.

.

82. 假如你是李华,学校校刊英语园地将在近期举办“如何成为好的英语学习者”的活动。请你根据下表提供的信息,向校刊投稿,介绍如何成为好的英语学习者,并至少举出一个具体例子说明你是如何做的。

83. 假设你正在国外学习,有人向你了解国外生活的情况。请参考以下信息,并进行适当补充,写下你对在国外学习的看法。文章的开头已经为你写好。 meet different people

improve English

Studying Abroad

I have been living abroad for some time. I think studying abroad has both its advantages and disadvantages.

.

参考答案

一至四题:

1. C

2. C

3. B

4. 9532816

5. Sunny

6. A

7. C

8. A

9. D10. B

11. C12. A13. C14. B15. A

16. A17. B18. B19. A20. C

21. B22. B23. A24. C25. D

26. D27. A28. A29. B30. D

31. B32. C33. A34. C35. A

36. B37. D38. A39. B40. C

41. B42. A43. A44. B45. A

46. C47. A48. B49. C50. D

51. A52. D53. B54. A55. C

56. B57. D58. C59. D60. A

61. C62. B63. B64. D65. C

66. A67. B68. D69. C70. A

71. D72. C73. D74. D75. C

76. A77. B

78. Anyone who enjoys the outdoors and contraptions.

79. A machine to throw a pumpkin.

80. Punkin’ Chunkin’ Contest.

五、书面表达

书面表达评分参考:

1. 第一档:(20~18分)(很好)

完全完成试题规定的任务。运用了多样的句式和丰富的词汇,语法或用词方面有个别错误,但为尽可能表达丰富的内容所致;体现了较强的语言运用能力。全文结构紧凑,逻辑清楚、合理。

2. 第二档:(17~15分)(好)

完成试题规定的任务。运用的句式和词汇能满足任务要求,语法和用词

基本准确,少许错误主要为尽可能表达丰富的内容所致。使用了简单的语句间连接成分,内容连贯,逻辑清楚、合理。

3. 第三档:(14~12分)(及格)

基本完成试题规定的任务。运用的句式和词汇基本满足任务要求,语法和用词方面有一些错误,但不影响理解。内容基本连贯,逻辑清楚、合理。

4. 第四档:(11~6分)(较差)

未恰当完成试题规定的任务。所用句式和词汇有限,语法或用词方面的错误影响了对所写内容的理解。信息未能清楚地传达给读者。

5. 第五档:(5~1分)(差)

未完成试题规定的任务。句式单调,词汇贫乏,语法或用词方面错误较多,严重影响了对所写内容的理解。信息未能传达给读者。

6.0分

未能传达任何信息;写的内容与要求无关。

7. 书写或标点符号不规范在4处以上(含4处),或字迹潦草,在得分中再扣除1分(第四、五档文不扣此项分数)。重复错误只扣一次分数。

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