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江西省2020年中考英语试题

江西省2020年中考英语试题
江西省2020年中考英语试题

机密★

江西省2020年中等学校招生考试

英语试题卷

说明:1.全卷满分120分,考试时间120分钟。

2.请将答案写在答题卡上,否则不给分。

一、听力测试(27分)

现在是试听时间。请听一段对话,然后回答问题。

What is the boy going to buy?

A. Some juice.

B. Some oranges.

C. Some apples.

答案是C。

A)请听下面8段对话。每段对话后有一小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。听完每段对话后,你都将有10秒钟的时间回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。(每小题1分)

1. What is the man doing?

A. He is having dinner.

B. He is having a class.

C. He is planning his vacation.

2. How is the weather today?

A. Cool.

B. Hot.

C. Cold.

3. When did the woman go to the new restaurant?

A. Last night.

B. Last week.

C. Two days ago.

4. Where are Tom’s parents going for the Mid-Autumn Festival?

A. To his brother’s home.

B. To his home.

C. To his sister’s home.

5. What's wrong with the man?

A. He has a fever.

B. He has a sore throat.

C. He has a toothache.

6. Why will Bill go to the party later?

A. Because he walks to the party.

B. Because he needs to pick up Gina.

C. Because he has to wait for Jenny.

7. How much money will the woman give away?

A. $50.

B. $950.

C. $1,000.

8. What does the girl mean?

A. The book is expensive.

B. The book is heavy.

C. The book is interesting.

B)请听下面5段材料。每段材料后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。听每段材料前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段材料读两遍。(每小题1分)

请听第1段材料,回答第9、10小题。

9. When will Nancy go to the movies?

A. On Friday.

B. On Saturday.

C. On Sunday.

10. How will Nancy go there?

A. On foot.

B. By bike.

C. By car.

请听第2段材料,回答第11、12小题。

11. What does Mike think of the sofa?

A. Its colours are too bright.

B. It looks good with the bed.

C. Its shape is perfect for the bedroom.

12. Which of the following is true?

A. The walls are light yellow.

B. Lucy likes brown.

C. They have bought the sofa.

请听第3段材料,回答第13至第15小题。

13. What is Linda doing?

A. She is singing.

B. She is listening to music.

C. She is watching TV.

14. How is the first song they talk about?

A. Soft.

B. Loud.

C. Sad.

15. What can we know about the band The Sky?

A. They are very famous.

B. They have made a few records.

C. They will have a concert in August.

请听第4段材料,回答第16至第18小题。

16. Where does Kate want to work?

A. On a plane.

B. At school.

C. On a ship.

17. What language can Kate speak?

A. French and English.

B. French and Chinese.

C. Chinese and English.

18. What can we get from the conversation?

A. Kate often goes for a vacation.

B. Eric loves taking care of people.

C. Eric wants to be a travel writer.

请听第5段材料,回答第19至第22小题。

19. When is the Art Festival?

A. On June 15th.

B. On July 5th.

C. On July 25th.

20. Where will the Art Festival be held?

A. At Art Center.

B. At Center Park.

C. At Hill City.

21. Who will be invited to the Art Festival?

A. Young pianists.

B. Young dancers.

C. Young painters.

22. What can we get from the monologue?

A. The festival lasts three hours.

B. You can paint pictures at the festival.

C. The bus can take you directly to the festival.

C)请听下面一段独白,根据独白内容完成下列句子,每个空格不超过3个单词。将答案填写到答题卡的相应位置。听独白前你将有50秒钟的时间阅读句子内容。独白读两遍。(每小题1分)

23. Mark grew up in in the north of England.

24. In England, he could not do much but in the countryside.

25. When he was , he moved to Singapore.

26. In , he moved to Hangzhou, China.

27. He has got to move again in the future.

二、单项填空(8分)

请阅读下面各小题,从题中所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。(每小题1分)

28. Tina drives to work. But today she drives because of the rain.

A. always

B. often

C. sometimes

D. hardly

29. -The coffee’s finished!

-Oh, sorry! I to the shop to get some.

A.am going

B. was going

C. went

D. have gone

30. It was great in the end we had a terrible time at the beginning.

A. if

B. unless

C. when

D. although

31. I’m pretty good at tennis. Actually, I’m probably in the club.

A. worse

B. good

C. better

D. the best

32. When you go rock climbing, you need to be careful so that you don’t have a(n) .

A. chance

B. accident

C. secret

D. action

33. The performer because there was too much noise coming from the crowd.

A. continued

B. relaxed

C. stopped

D. won

34. I don’t know the words to a lot of songs, but I do know some folk songs that my grandma me at an early age.

A. teaches

B. taught

C. will teach

D. has taught

35. You lunch at school. So you don’t have to bring your own food.

A. give

B. will give

C. are given

D. have given

二、完形填空(25分)

A)请先阅读下面短文,掌握其大意,然后从各小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入相应空白处的最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。(每小题1分)

Cowboys have lived and worked in the west and south-west of the United States for over three centuries and they are a famous symbol of the USA. When you watch those old Hollywood cowboy films from the fifties and sixties, you see a job. You see a 36 of freedom and adventure (冒险). However, the real job of an American cowboy has always been 37 and sometimes dangerous. It is physical with long hours and low pay.

Life hasn’t 38 much for cowboys since the early days. Cows walk across huge plains (草原) to 39 the grass and the cowboy rides on his horse to bring 40 home. Like the cowboys of the past, a 21st century cowboy 41 gets up early on freezing cold mornings and makes breakfast over a fire.

So why does a man—because it is usually a man—become a cowboy? For some, it isn't a 42 , because

they are born into the life. They have worked with 43 since they were children. They 44 the traditional cowboy culture: “It’s a real life about you, your horse and the open 45 .”

Some people choose the job 46 in life. Pat had an office job with the US government with high pay, 47 he didn’t like city life and spending all day inside. So one day, he 48 his job and moved to a ranch (牧场) in Texas, making much less money 49 a cowboy. He wanted job satisfaction. And for a cowboy, job satisfaction doesn’t come from the money or a comfortable office. It comes from being 50 to wake up under the sky and being your own boss.

36. A. life B. place C. way D. day

37. A. interesting B. boring C. hard D. easy

38. A. got B. paid C. done D. changed

39. A. catch B. eat C. touch D. take

40. A. it B. him C. her D. them

41. A. just B. still C. even D. never

42. A. problem B. choice C. plan D. dream

43. A. parents B. brothers C. cows D. sheep

44. A. create B. miss C. love D. refuse

45. A. country B. culture C. mind D. cowboy

46. A. later B. early C. quickly D. suddenly

47. A. so B. and C. since D. but

48. A. looked for B. took up C. gave up D. cared about

49. A. for B. as C. with D. like

50. A. relaxed B. slow C. late D. free

B)请先阅读下面短文,掌握其大意,然后用方框中所给的词的适当形式填空,并将答案填写到答题卡的相应位置。一空一词,每个词限用一次。(每小题1分)

Chile (智利) is a long and beautiful country with ocean to the west and mountains to the east. Some of the villages are a very long way from 51 and some of the schools are very small.

It is difficult for small schools to teach science 52 they don’t have enough teachers or equipment (设备). This is where the Science Bus Project can help. The bus 53 special science teachers, new ideas and equipment to schools in different parts of the country. Sometimes the children go inside the bus for 54

science lessons or clubs. Sometimes the teachers 55 bring the equipment inside the classroom. The children do experiments (实验). The materials used in the experiments are 56 to find, for example recycled plastic bottles, so that the class teacher can 57 the experiments with the class when the bus has gone.

The 58 of the Science Bus Project is to bring science to children all over Chile. Since 2012, the bus has visited lots of schools in Chile, and hundreds of teachers have learned how 59 their science classes fun and exciting.

Science is 60 for all of us, as it helps us understand our world and we can learn about it inside or outside of the classroom.

四、阅读理解(40分)

A)请阅读下面短文,根据短文内容从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。(每小题2分)

A

61. What can we do for more information about the running groups?

A. Visit Mike.

B. Give Mike a call.

C. Write to Mike.

D. Send Mike an email.

62. How much does it cost to join the photography club?

A, £15. B. £8. C. £3. D. Free.

63. Which of the following is true according to the ads above?

A. You are sure to get a camera to join the photography club.

B. Talent is the most important for actors in the theatre group.

C. The running groups have running competitions every Wednesday.

D. Actors must take part in the theatre group’s activities twice a week.

B

In 2007, Barrington Irving became the youngest person to fly alone around the world. He was just 23 years old—and he built the plane himself. How did he achieve this?

Irving's interest in flying started when he was 15. He was working in his parents’ bookstore in Miami, Florida. One of the customers was a pilot, Gary Robinson. One day, Robinson asked Irving if he was interested in flying. Irving didn't think he was smart enough. But the next day, Robinson took Irving to an airport. He showed Irving inside the cockpit (驾驶舱) of a Boeing 777. That experience changed Irving’s life.

Irving really wanted to fly, but flight school was expensive. To achieve his dream, he worked different jobs. He washed airplanes and cleaned swimming pools. At home, he practiced flying on a video game. In the end, he got enough money for flight school.

At flight school, Irving achieved his dream of learning how to fly. But he wasn’t finished. Next, he planned to build his own plane and fly alone around the world.

Building the plane was difficult. Irving asked more than 50 companies for airplane parts. Most said no, but he persisted (顽强地坚持) in asking. Three years later, he had parts worth $300,000. Columbia, an airplane company, agreed to build a plane using the parts. Soon, his airplane was ready to fly.

On March 23, 2007, Irving began his round-the-world trip. After 97 days—with 145 hours in the air—he landed back in Miami. A cheering crowd of people was there to welcome him.

Irving saw many young people in the crowd, and this had a powerful effect (影响) on him. He wanted to use his experience to help other young people achieve their own dreams.

“Everyone told me what I couldn’t do,” says Irving. “They said I was too young, that I didn’t have enough money. But even if no one believes in your dream,” he says, “you have to pursue (追求) it.”

64. Why was Gary Robinson important in Irving's life?

A. He got Irving interested in flying.

B. He sent Irving to a flight school.

C. He helped Irving build a plane.

D. He taught Irving how to fly.

65. Put the events about Irving in the correct order.

a. Irving got the parts for his plane.

b. Irving flew around the world,

c. Irving met Gary Robinson.

d. Irving learned to fly.

A. c-d-a-b

B. c-a-d-b

C. b-c-a-d

D. b-c-d-a

66. What can we know about Irving personality according to the passage?

A. Clever and honest.

B. Humorous and responsible.

C. Polite and powerful.

D. Hard-working and persistent.

67. What would be the best title for the passage?

A, Becoming a Pilot. B. Life in Flight School.

C. Achieving a Dream.

D. Building Your Own Plane.

C

Some people ski (滑雪) down mountains. Others climb huge rocks or photograph dangerous animals. Why do people enjoy risky activities like these?

Some people take risks simply because it makes them feel good. Psychologist (心理学家) Marvin says that this kind of explorers (探险者) are always looking for change and excitement. When people do something new or risky, a chemical (化学物质) in the brain creates a pleasant feeling. They love this feeling and want to experience it as often as possible.

Other people don't take risks for the feeling of excitement but to achieve a goal. For example, Mike Fay went on a dangerous 2,000-mile special journey in central Africa. He worked to help save the wildlife there. Fay’s expeditions helped create 13 national parks.

For other people, such as extreme athletes (极限运动员), taking risks is part of their job. Sports psychologist Shane says extreme athletes see the world differently. In a dangerous activity, most people probably do not feel in control. Extreme athletes are different: they feel in control in dangerous situations. The danger can even help them. For example, skier Daron Rahlves says that being afraid makes him try harder to succeed.

Most of us are not extreme athletes or explorers. However, we still take risks in our lives. Some of us take social risks, such as speaking in front of a large group of people. Sometimes, we take financial risks, such as buying a house. And sometimes we take career risks, such as leaving a job or starting a business. Most people take risks in some areas

of life, but not in others. What kind of risk-taker are you?

68. What does the underlined word “it” in Paragraph 2 refer to?

A. The brain.

B. Something new.

C. A chemical.

D. A pleasant feeling.

69. What does the underlined word “expedition” in Paragraph 3 mean?

A. Much money.

B. A journey with a special goal.

C. A great idea.

D. A plan for a dangerous journey.

70. How many kinds of extreme athletes or explorers are mentioned in the passage?

A. Three.

B. Four.

C. Five.

D. Six.

71. Which of the following is true according to the passage?

A. Mike Fay is a professional risk-taker.

B. Most people don’t take risks in their daily life.

C. Extreme athletes deal with danger better than others.

D. Daron Rahlves takes risks mainly for change and excitement.

D

How do you feel about nature? After spending hours indoors, do you feel better when you visit your local park? Most people think that nature is good for our bodies and brains. However, humans are spending more time inside and less time outside. For example, the number of visitors to Canada’s national parks is getting lower every year. And in countries such as the USA, only 10% of teenagers spend time outside every day. Many doctors feel that this is a problem in the twenty-first century.

As a result, some doctors are studying the connection between nature and health: one example of this is the work of Dr Matilda in Sweden. The doctor gave people a maths test. During the test, their heart rates (心率) were fast. After the test, one group of people sat in a 3D-virtual-reality (虚拟现实) room for fifteen minutes with pictures and sounds of nature. Their heart rates were slower than people's in the other group.

The virtual touch with nature helped them feel more relaxed. Another good example of how nature is good for health comes from Canada. In Toronto, researchers studied 31,000 people living in the city. In general, they found that healthier people lived near parks.

Because of studies like these, some countries and cities want nature to be part of people’s everyday life. In Dubai (迪拜), for example, there are plans for a new shopping mall with a large garden so shoppers can relax outside with trees, plants and water. In Switzerland, “forest schools” are popular. Schoolchildren study their subjects in the forests

and do lots of exercise outside. And South Korea (韩国) is another good example: it has new forests near its cities and around 13 million people visit these forests every year. So after building cities for so long, perhaps it’s now time to start rebuilding nature.

72. What does Paragraph 1 mainly talk about?

A. Teenagers’ problem in the 21st century.

B. How much time we spend outdoors.

C. Visiting your local park.

D. Feeling about nature.

73. Match the countries or cities with the information and choose the right answer.

①the USA a. Children study in the forests and do lots of activities outside.

②Dubai b. About 13 million people visit new forests near its cities every year.

③Switzerland c. A new shopping mall with a large garden will be built.

④South Korea d. 10% of teenagers spend time outside every day.

A. ①-a ②-d ③-b ④-c

B. ①-d ②-c ③-a ④-b

C. ①-a ②-c ③-d ④-b

D. ①-d ②-c ③-b ④-a

74. What do the results of the studies show?

A. More and more Canadians will live near parks.

B. The maths test is difficult and makes people nervous.

C. Nature can help people feel more relaxed and be healthier.

D. People's heart rates get slower in a 3D—virtual—reality room.

75. What can we infer from the last sentence of the passage?

A. Nature is more important than cities.

B. Country life is healthier than city life.

C. People have lived in the cities for so long.

D. Nature should be part of people’s daily life.

B)请先阅读下面短文,掌握其大意,然后根据短文内容从下面方框内的七个选项中选择五个还原到文中,使短文意思通顺、结构完整,并在答题卡上将其序号涂黑。一空一句。(每小题2分)

Do you know what your friends watched on TV last night? Do your friends know what you had for breakfast today? Do you think you are using social media (社交媒体) too much?

76 It is reported that around 2,800 million people often use social media. That’s almost 40 percent of

the world’s population. But how much time do we really spend on social media? And what exactly do we spend that time doing?

Research shows that, worldwide, the average (普通的) person spends two hours and 19 minutes on social media each day. 77 An average person there spends four hours and 17 minutes a day on social media. Research also shows that women use social media more than men. In the United States, for example, women spend around two hours more a week than men on social media.

78 In general, it seems we spend more time looking at other people’s pages than adding to our own. According to one survey, the most common social media activities are visiting friends’ pages, reading their news, and commenting (评论) on their posts.

79 It has over 2,000 million users. In second place, however, is the Chinese site Qzone. In 2017, Qzone was China's most popular social media site, with around 600 million users worldwide. That's more than Twitter and Instagram.

Social media continues to grow. 80 And as Internet access (通道) becomes available to even more people around the world, this growth won't stop anytime soon.

A. What do most people do on social media?

B. Why do people communicate on social media?

C. People in Philippines are the most active users.

D. The most popular social media site is Facebook.

E. On Facebook, people post their news and photos.

F. Right now, there are 5 new Facebook users every second.

G. Social media is now a part of many people’ s everyday lives.

五、补全对话(5分)

请阅读下面对话,根据对话内容从下面方框内的七个选项中选择五个填入空白处,使对话通顺、合理,意思完整,并在答题卡上将其序号涂黑。一空一句。(每小题1分)

(Mei and Jian are talking in the school. Mei=M Jian-J)

M: Help me, Jian. I have got to organize the school clean-up day, but I don't know what to do.

J: 81

M: I don’t know.

J: Well, Mei. 82 . It's a good idea to learn what that person did.

M: OK, I will ask Ms. Robert. But I need to get started today. How should I tell other students about the event?

J: 83 Everyone sees that.

M: Great idea!

J: 84 Put signs on the rubbish bins (垃圾桶) to remind students not to drop litter. I can help you with that. M: That's clever. If we start keeping the school clean, there'll be less work to do on clean-up day.

J: That’s right! And one more thing, you might try talking to teachers. 85

M: Good advice, Jian. Thank you!

六、书面表达(15分)

为了帮助学生迎接中考,在中考前几个月,老师一般都会进行复习教学。一家英语教学研究中心(English Teaching Research Center)正在对中考英语复习教学现状进行调查。请你根据下面提示,写一篇英语短文,向他们介绍你们班的英语复习课的情况,谈谈你对英语复习课的感受及看法,并提出建议。

写作要点:

1. Your feelings about your English revision classes.

2. Class activities: a. What did your English teacher usually do in class?

b. What did you usually do in class?

3. Your advice on English revision classes to your English teacher.

要求:

1.短问应包括提示中所有的写作要点,条理清楚,行文连贯,可适当发挥;

2.短文中不能出现真实的人名和地名;

3.词数不少于80,短文开头已给出,不计入总词数。

I think my English revision classes were

机密★

江西省2020年中等学校招生考试

英语听力材料

现在是试听时间。请听一段对话,然后回答问题。

M: I’m going shopping, Mum. Do you need anything?

W: Yes, get some apples and some oranges to make juice with.

M: Well, we already have lots of oranges.

W: OK, just some apples then.

答案是C。

A)请听下面8段对话。每段对话后有一小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。听完每段对话后,你都将有10秒钟的时间回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。

1. W: Do you want to have dinner now?

M: No, I’m planning my vacation.

2. W: It’s cool today, isn’t it?

M: Yes! The weather is different from yesterday.

W: Yes. Yesterday was so hot!

M: I know. Very strange!

3. M: We had some delicious food at the new restaurant last night.

W: Really? We went there last week.

4. W: Are your parents going to your home for the Mid-Autumn Festival, Tom?

M: Oh, no. They and my family are all going to my brother's home. My home is too small.

5. W: Hello, how can I help you?

M: Hello. I’ve got a sore throat. I feel terrible.

W: Have you taken your temperature?

M: Yes, it’s normal.

6. M: Hi, Lisa. Are you going to the party with Bill tonight?

W: No, I’m not. I’m going with Jenny. Bill is going later. He has to pick up Gina from the station.

7. M: I’m raising money for poor children.

W: Cool. Can I give away some money? How much have you raised so far?

M: Well, so far it’s $950. So, if you give away $50, I’ll reach $1,000.

W: Oh, well done! $50 is no problem.

M: Great! Thanks.

8. W: The book is about a group of people who are stuck on an island together.

M: It sounds cool. Is it any good?

W: Yeah, I can’t put it down.

B)请听下面5段材料。每段材料后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。听每段材料前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段材料读两遍。

请听第1段材料,回答第9、10小题。

W: Dad, can I go to the movies after school on Friday?

M: Sure, Nancy. But who are you going with? And how are you getting there?

W: I am going with Lily. Is it OK if we walk?

M: I’m afraid not. But I can drive you there.

W: OK, Dad.

请听第2段材料,回答第11、12小题。

W: What do you think of this sofa, Mike?

M: This one? Don’t you think the colours are too bright?

W: No, I love the colours. And the shape is perfect for our bedroom.

M: I don’t think so, and I don’t think it will look good with the bed in our bedroom.

W: Why not?

M: Well, Lucy, our bed is brown.

W: But the walls are yellow,

M: Yeah, but it’s a very light yellow.

请听第3段材料,回答第13至第15小题。

M: Hi Linda. What are you listening to?

W: Hi John. It's a band called The Sky. Here, listen.

M: Hey, they're pretty good. I’ve never heard of them before.

W: Yeah, they’re not very famous. But they’ve made a lot of records.

M: This song’s great. I love this kind of loud music.

W: Me too. But they have a few really soft songs, too. Here, listen to this one.

M: Wow! I like it. Do you have many of their records?

W: I have them all. They're having a concert here in August. I can’t wait.

请听第4段材料,回答第16至第18小题。

W: I’d love to work on a plane and travel around the world. What about you, Eric?

M: Not me. The travelling would be fun, but I think it's really hard work. What do you think, Kate?

W: You're right, it might be hard work. But I like visiting new places. Do you?

M: I do, but remember, you have to take care of people. It's not a vacation!

W: That’s true. But I love people, so it’s OK. And I speak English and French. So I can talk to people from lots of different places. Can you speak French?

M: No, I can only speak English. You know, I think I’ll be a travel writer. In that way, I can travel without taking care of other people!

请听第5段材料,回答第19至第22小题。

Hi, everyone. The Art Festival is coming. It is from 9 o’clock to 11 o’clock on July 25th. It will be held at Center Park.

The Art Festival is a lot of fun! The topic this year is People You Like. So you can enjoy many beautiful paintings about different people like doctors, pianists and dancers there. You can also try to create your own paintings. And we will invite some famous young painters. The best way to get there is to go by car. But you can get to the festival by other kinds of transportation, too. First, get on the No.9 bus to Hill City. It takes about 45 minutes. Then, walk half a mile and you will get to the park.

C)请听下面一段独白,根据独白内容完成下列句子,每个空格不超过3个单词。将答案填写到答题卡的相应位置。听独白前你将有50秒钟的时间阅读句子内容。独白读两遍。

Hello, I am Mark. Let me tell you something about the three different countries I have lived in.

I grew up in a small town in the north of England. Only about 8,000 people live there, so it’s a very quiet place.

I can go walking in the countryside. But I could not do much except that.

When I was 22, I moved to Singapore, which was a huge change. Singapore is a modem and great place to live

in. I met people from so many different countries and I had a really great time.

I lived in Singapore for ten years, and then in 2016, I moved to Hangzhou, China, which is where I live now.

Hangzhou is a wonderful place. I live in a quiet neighbourhood not too far from the city. There are a lot of parks near where I live, and it's a pretty peaceful place. There's so much to do in Hangzhou, so I never get bored.

I’ve got no plans to move again in the future. I’m really happy where I am now.

江西省2020年中等学校招生考试

英语试题参考答案

一、听力测试(共27小题,每小题1分,共27分)

1?5 CABAB 6?10 BACAC 11?15 AABBC 16?22 AACCBCB

23. a small town

24. go walking/ walk/take a walk/ have a walk

25. 22 (years old)/ twenty-two (years old)

26. 2016

27. no plans/ no plan

二、单项填空(共8小题,每小题1分,共8分)

28?31 DADD 32?35 BCBC

三、完形填空(共25小题,每小题1分,共25分)

A)36?40 ACDBD 41?45 BBCCA 46?50 ADCBD

B) 51. cities52. because53. brings54. their55. even

56. easy57. repeat58. goal59. to make60. important

四、阅读理解(共20小题,每小题2分,共40分)

61?63 BAD 64?67 AADC 68?71 DBAC 72?75 BBCD

76?80 GCADF

五、补全对话(共5小题,每小题1分,共5分)

81?85 CAEGF

六、书面表达(15分)

Possible Version One:

I think my English revision classes were boring and tiring. In class, my English teacher kept talking from the beginning to the end, which made me bored and sleepy. She explained the rules of words and grammar. We did

nothing but listen and take notes. She always asked us to memorize all the words we had learned. There were so many exercises to do and exams to take, which made me stressed out.

I hope English revision classes can be more interesting and useful. Teachers should organize different kinds of activities to help us practice English, such as playing games, role-playing conversations, watching English videos and so on. What’s more, I don't like serious teachers. I hope they can be more friendly to us.

Possible Version Two:

I think my English revision classes were useful but tiring. In class, my English teacher organized different kinds of activities to help us review what we had learnt. Sometimes she explained how to use the key words and sentence patterns. We took notes and made sentences. With the teacher's help, we practiced listening, reading and writing in class. But we often did exercises and had exams, which made me stressed out.

I hope English revision classes can be more enjoyable. We can play games and role-play conversations. It’s a good idea to have discussions with my partners in English. What’s more, I like teachers who are always with a smile.

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