说明:1.全卷满分120分,考试时间120分钟。
2.请将答案写在答题卡上,否则不给分。
一、听力测试(27分)
现在是试听时间。请听一段对话,然后回答问题。
What is the boy going to buy?
A. Some juice.
B. Some oranges.
C. Some apples.
答案是C
A)请听下面8段对话。每段对话后有一小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。听完每段对话后,你都将有10秒钟的时间回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。(每小题1分)
1. What would the girl like to buy?
A. A phone.
B. A camera.
C. A watch.
2. Where is Linda?
A. In the laboratory.
B. In the library.
C. In the bookstore.
3. How's the weather today?
A. Cold.
B. Warm.
C. Cool.
4. Who is playing a video game with Jack?
A. His brother.
B. His sister.
C. His cousin.
5. What's the doctor's advice?
A. Talking more exercise.
B. Taking some medicine.
C. Drinking some milk.
6. Why is Jane crying?
A. Because she is hungry.
B. Because she needs sleep.
C. Because her toy is lost.
7. When does the movie finish?
A. At 8:30
B. At 9:30
C. At10:30
8. What does Mr. Smith mean?
A. Kate works hard at football training.
B. Kate should not stop football training.
C. Kate gives a good reason for her decision.
B)请听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。(每小题1分)
请听第1段材料,回答第9、10小题。
9. How does the girl feel now?
A. Relaxed.
B. Stressed.
C. Excited.
10. What does the girl do before an exam?
A. She does more homework.
B. She asks teachers for help.
C She listens to music.
请听第2段材料,回答第11、12小题。
11. When did the man move to a new place?
A. Last week.
B. Last month.
C. Last year.
12. Which of the following is true?
A. The streets are dirty in the new area.
B. There are few cars around the new area.
C. The man may think about buying a bike.
请听第3段材料,回答第13至第15小题。
13. What kind of movies does Mary like?
A. Action movies.
B. Comedies.
C. Scary movies.
14. What might they do tonight?
A. Go shopping.
B. Go for a drink.
C. Stay at home.
15. What do we know about Peter and Mary?
A. Peter is interested in action movies.
B. Mary asks Peter to see a movie tonight.
C. They often eat out near their home.
请听第4段材料,回答第16至第18小题
16. What time is the man going to get up tomorrow morning?
A. At 6:00.
B. At 7:00.
C. At 8:00.
17. Where would the man like to have a meal this evening?
A. In the street.
B. In his room.
C. In the dining hall.
18. What can we get from the conversation?
A. There is a post office next to the hotel.
B. The man can get a free dinner in the hotel.
C. The man can use the Internet in the hotel.
请听第5段材料,回答第19至第22小题
19. Why is Tuesday a problem for Mr. Clark?
A. Because he has classes on that day.
B. Because he has a business trip on that day.
C. Because he has a teachers' meeting on that day.
20. How will the students go to the museum?
A. By train.
B. By bus.
C. By subway.
21. How much do they pay for a ticket in a student group?
A. $12
B. S20
C. $15
22. What can we learn from the monologue?
A. The museum is closed on weekends.
B. They’re going on the school tmp on Thursday.
C. Students have to get to the school at 1: 55.
C)请听下面一段独白,根据独白内容完成下列句子,每个空格不超过3个单词。将答案填写到答题卡的相应位置。听独白前你将有50秒钟的时间阅读句子内容。独白读两遍。(每小题1分)
23. The school opens _______.
24. There are three ______ for their lessons.
25. The students go to ______ to do their test
26. The students can buy ______ and snacks at break.
27. The English test only takes _____.
二、单项填空(8分)
请阅读下面各题,从题中所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。(每小题1分)
28. The food is very delicious in that restaurant. We could go and ______ it?
A. sell
B. help
C. produce
D. try
29. Susan never gets upset when she has to wait in line. She is very ______ .
A. shy
B. honest
C. funny
D. patient
I speak to Paul? I phoned _____.
--Sorry he is still in his meeting.
A. late
B. earlier
C. earliest
D. later
31. Sorry I'm late. I _______ with a friend and I completely forgot the time.
A. talk
B. am talking
C. was talking
D. will talk
32. I live near a big _______. It gets very noisy on match days.
A. hospital
B. store
C. bank
D. playground
33. -- Can students go online during lessons?
-- They can ________ it is for that lesson.
A. if
B. or
C. so
D. but
34. Kids have to take many after school classes. They _______ hard to study for good grades.
A. push
B. are pushed
C. are pushing
D. have pushed
35. We ________ a party for Kate It's supposed to be a surprise.
A. were having
B. had
C. will have
D. have had
三、完型填空(25分)
A)请先阅读下面短文,掌握其大意,然后从各小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入相应空白处的最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。(每小题1分)
There are purple clothes, purple handbags, purple bicycles, purple furniture, even purple computers! So purple is one of the most 36 colors today. But in the past, purple was a very expensive and unusual color. Let’s take a look at the rich 37 of the color purple.
Some scientists believe that the first plants to appear on Earth over 500 million years ago 38 looked purple, not green. Plants today are green because 39 use green chlorophyll (叶绿素) to produce energy. 40 these early plants probably used something called retinal, which is a dark purple color.
During the time of the roman Empire (37 BC-476 AD), it was very 41 to make purple dye (染料). The dye came from sea snails (海螺) . dead sea snails 42 you just one gram (克)of purple dye…as well as a very bad smell! This 43 purple dye
was called Tyrian purple, and it was the preferred 44 of emperors.
In 16th--century England, purple was 45 for the kings family members. Queen Elizabeth Is clothes were purple, but ordinary people were not allowed to 46 the color.
In 1856. William Perkin, an 18-year-old 47 student, noticed something strange while doing an experiment (实验). The chemicals (化学药品) he used to clean his instruments 48 with the chemicals he used in his experiment and produced a bright purple color. This 49 Perkin to start a company using this chemical mixture to make purple dye. The dye was much 50 than sea snail dye. Thanks to Perkin, now anyone can afford to wear purple clothes.
36. A. peaceful B. popular C. exciting D. serious
37. A. history B. style C. research D. product
38. A. gradually B. especially C. exactly D. probably
39. A. others B. they C. we D. some
40. A. And B. So C. But D. Until
41. A. dangerous B. common C. difficult D. strange
42. A. got B. passed C. wasted D. cost
43. A. basic B. harmful C. special D. perfect
44. A. color B. smell C. plant D. animal
45. A. even B. never C. seldom D. only
46. A. wear B. sell C. change D. make
47. A. geography B. science C. art D. math
48. A. compared B. mixed C. collected D. kept
49. A. survey B. suggestion C. discovery D. exam
50. A. healthier B. thicker C. cheaper D. darker
B)请先阅读下面短文,掌握其大意,然后用方框中所给词的适当形式填空,并将答案填写到答题卡的相应位置。每个词限用一次。(每小题1分)
The planet Mars is the closest and most similar planet to Earth. It is very 51 to scientists. For example, Mars has seasons with 52 weather, but other planets have the same temperatures all year round. Was there 53 on Mars?
To find out, scientists need 54 if Mars ever had water. In 2004. two robot explores (探测器), or 'rovers', called Spirit and Opportunity were sent to look for 55 of water. These rovers can drive over rocks 56 all kind of rough ground. They can also use cameras and send photos 57 to Earth. First, the two rovers found chemicals and patterns (图文) in the rocks that were probably made by water. Then, they moved to another area and 58 other rocks which may have been created by water. Now scientists think there was probably water on the planet long ago. Today 59 are still not sure if there was life on the mars. They 60 need more information to decide. The discoveries of the two rovers answered some old questions, but they also brought up many new ones.
四、阅读理解（40分）
A)请阅读下面短文,根据短文内容从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项,并在答题卡上将选项涂黑。(每小题2分)
A
Science museum
(The Science of Survival, IMAX&SIMEX)
The Science Museum has something for everyone. Entry to the museum is free. Offer applies to IMAX 3D Cinema, SIMEX and The Science of Survival exhibition only.
IMAX ￡
SIMEX ￡
The Science of Survival ￡
Opening Times: Daily 10: 00-18: 00 Visit Time: 2 hours
National Gallery
Opening Times:
Daily 10am-7pm Wednesday until 9 pm
Admission:
￡8 adults. ￡4 students, under 12s free
Tickets:
Available daily from 10 am
Telephone: 020 7747 2885
London Z
There are over 12, 000 amazing animals for you to see. These are just a few things which make a visit to ZSL London Zoo a great day.
Ticket Price: ￡
Opening Times: Daily 10: 00-17: 30
Visit Time: 4 hours
61. How much does the ticket to ZSL London Zoo cost?
A.￡.
B.￡.
C.￡.
D.￡.
62. Where is the Science of Survival exhibition held?
A. At the National gallery
B. At the Science Museum
C. At ZSL London zoo
D. At IMAX 3D Cinema
63. How long is the National Gallery open on Wednesday?
A. 4 hours
B. 8 hours
C. 7 hours
D. 11 hours
B
A young woman turns around and around quickly, and jumps high. In the background, a young girl reads a rejection (拒绝) letter from a ballet school. You have the wrong body for ballet, 'it says,' and at thirteen, you are too old. This was one of the most popular advertisements (广告) of 2014 and it describes American ballet Theatre's principal (主要的) dancer Misty Copeland.
This was not a real letter. But Copeland says it is very similar to letters from her childhood. While many dancers start at the age of three. Copeland only began to study ballet in 1995 as a thirteen-year-old. People often told her that she was too old, or that she didn't have the perfect body type (She is only 157 cm tall). Her family moved a lot, and it was sometimes difficult for her to attend ballet classes. But Copeland loved dancing and did not want to give up. She stayed with her ballet teacher during the week and spent time with her family only at the weekend. This was a difficult life, but she worked hard and won her first national competition when she was fourteen years old. Copeland joined the American Ballet Theatre in 2000 and performed in many ballets over the next few years. In 2007, she became a solo (单独的) performer, and in 2015 she became its principal dancer.
Copeland is now a dancer, author and Broadway performer. She also stars in the 2015 film A Ballerina's Tale. So what's next? According to Copeland, anything is possible: "My career (职业) really is just now beginning.'
64. How old was Copeland when she became the principal dancer?
A. 13
B. 14
C. 25
D. 33
65. Why was it difficult for Copeland to attend ballet classes?
A. Because her family moved a lot.
B. Because she was not a good dancer.
C. Because she had no invitation letter.
D. Because she had the wrong body type.
66. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
A. Copeland became successful because of the advertisement.
B. Copeland had to spend a lot of time away from her parents.
C. Copeland won her first national competition as a solo performer.
D. Copeland has ended up her career as an actress on Broadway.
67 What's the writer’s opinion of Copeland?
A. Copeland sets an example who never gives up.
B. Copeland was too old to start ballet at thirteen.
C. Copeland has made her achievements by accident.
D. Copeland was lucky to get support from the ballet school.
C
Many people say dolphins are intelligent. They seem to be able to think, understand and learn things quickly. But are they as smart as humans, or are they more like cats and dogs? Dolphins use their brains quite differently from the way humans do. But scientists say dolphins and humans are very similar in some ways. How?
Like humans, every dolphin has its own "name". The name is a special whistle (哨声). Each dolphin chooses a specific (特有的) whistle for itself, usually by its first birthday Dolphins are like people in other ways, too. They "talk" to each other about a lot of things-such as their age, their feelings, and finding food. They also use a system of sounds and body language to communicate. Understanding dolphin conversation is not easy for humans. No one "speaks dolphin" yet, but some scientists are trying to learn.
Dolphins are also social animals. They live in groups called pods, and they often join others from different pods to play games and have fun--just like people. Scientists believe playing together is something only intelligent animals do.
Dolphins and humans are similar in another way: both species make plans for getting things they want. In the seas of southern Brazil, for example, dolphins use an intelligent plan to get food. When there are fish near a boat, dolphins signal (发信号) to the fishermen to put their nets in the water. Using this method, the men can catch a lot of fish. Why do dolphins help the men? There is an advantage for them they get to eat some of the fish that escape (逃脱) from the net.
68. What is a dolphin's “name”?
A. It is a kind of game.
B. It is a body sign.
C. It is a dolphin’s age.
D. It is a specific sound.
69. What does the underlined word "others" refer to?
A. Other fishes.
B. Other people
C. Other dolphins
D. Other games
70. What can we infer from the passage?
A. Some scientists can understand dolphins system of sounds.
B. Dolphins probably help fishermen by using their body language.
C Humans join dolphins' groups to get things we want.
D Dolphins can talk to humans about their age and their feelings.
71. What's the main idea of the passage?
A. Dolphins can communicate with each other at birth.
B. Dolphins are social animals because they play together.
C. Dolphins are smart and are like humans in some ways.
D. Dolphins help humans do many things like catching fish.
D
Every year on 15th October, over 200 million people around the world take part in Global Handwashing Day. But why do we have a day for something we do all the time? Well, research shows that not enough people often wash their hands with soap. Experts believe that this leads to the deaths of millions of people every year.
Sidibe, a public health expert says soap is the most beautiful invention in public health'. Washing your hands with soap can have a huge impact on reducing (减少) the spread of diseases. Handwashing with soap prevents babies from getting ill and keeps children healthy and in school.
However, washing hands with soap does not happen as often as you might think. This is partly because there aren't enough resources (资源) in poorer countries, but it's also because for many people, handwashing is simply not part of their everyday life. It's not easy to get people to change habits they learned in early childhood -- but this is what Global Handwashing Day wants to do.
In 2008, the Indian cricket team joined around 100 million Indian schoolchildren in washing their hands to promote (促进) the first ever Global Handwashing Day. Every year since then, many different events have been held around the world. In 2014. Global Handwashing Day was used in the fight against Ebola, a very serious disease, with events held in affected (受感染的) African countries.
Today, local and national leaders continue to use the day to spread the message about the importance of clean hands. The hope is that handwashing becomes a necessary part of people's lives and improves the health of millions around the world.
72. Who started Global Handwashing Day?
A. Public health experts.
B. The Indians.
C. African schoolchildren.
D. Government leaders.
73. What does the underlined word "impact" mean?
A. Danger.
B. Influence.
C. Background.
D. Problem.
74. What's the main idea of the last paragraph?
A. Washing hands with soap is good for public health.
B. Washing hands with soap doesn't become part of people's lives.
C. People are holding many different events to fight against diseases.
D. People all over the world are encouraged to wash hands with soap.
75. What would be the best title for the passage?
A. Learning to Use Soap.
B. Fighting Against Diseases.
C. Living a Healthy Life.
D. Changing Your Habits.
B)请先阅读下面短文,掌握其大意然后根据短文内容从下面方框内的七个选项中选择五个还原到文中,使短文意思通顺、结构完整,并在答题卡上将其序号涂黑。(每小题2分)
Is there a connection between music and language? According to recent studies, the answer is yes: 76 Here, we look at two examples
A recent study by researcher Kraus shows that playing a musical instrument can improve a person's hearing ability. 77 The people in the first group were musicians, while those in the second group had no musical training. The musicians were able to hear the talking person more clearly.
78 Think about violinists in an orchestra (管弦乐团). When the violinists play with the group, they hear their own instrument and many others, too. But the violinists must listen closely to what they are playing, and pay no attention to the other sounds. In this way, musicians are able to focus on certain sounds, even in a room with lots of noise.
Schlaug, a doctor at Harvard Medical School, works with stroke (中风) patients. Because of their illness, these people cannot say their names, addresses, or other information normally. However, they can still sing. 79 Why does this work? Schlaug isn't sure. Music seems to make different parts of the brain work, including the damaged (损坏的) parts. This might help patients to use that part of the brain again.
Music improves concentration (注意力), memory, listening skills, and our overall language abilities. 80 Playing an instrument or singing can help us do better in school and keep our brain sharp (敏锐的) as we get older. Music is not only enjoyable, it's also good for us in many other ways.
五、补全对话(5分)
请阅读下面对话,根据对话内容从方框中选择恰当的句子填入空白处,使对话通顺、合理，意思完整,并在答题卡上将其序号涂黑。(每空一句,每小题1分)
(Sandra and Luke plan their trip to Cape Town. S=Sandra L=Luke)
S:OK,that' s the flight(航班).Let’s look for a hotel now. 81
L: Three nights--Friday, Saturday and Sunday. Are there any hotels near the airport?
S: Yes, there are. But they are expensive. Just a minute…no, there aren't any cheap hotels near the airport. They are all expensive. 82
L: Wow! Well, what about a youth hostel(青年旅社)? Is there a youth hostel near the airport?
S: OK, let's see. I don't think so no, there isn't. I don't like youth hostels.
83
L: OK. Let’s look in the city centre. Are there any cheap hotels there?
S: Yes, of course there are
L: Well, that's good. And is there a bus to the city centre?
S: A bus from the airport? Yes, there is. 84 There isn't a train, but that's OK.
L: And there are taxis, too.
S: 85 OK, so let's look at these hotels.
六、书面表达(15分)
假如国外中学生来你校进行为期一周的交流学习,期间计划参加一项中国传统文化的主
题活动,为此向你们征求活动方案(plan)请你根据下面表格中的信息提示,写一篇英语短文,
介绍你提供的活动方案,内容包括:茶或者民乐介绍,活动安排以及与之相关的理由。
要求:1.从表格中任选一个主题,合理安排活动;
2.短文条理清楚,行文连贯,内容可适当发挥;
3.短文中不能出现真实的人名和地名;
4.词数不少于80,开头和结尾已给出,不计入总词数。
Hello, friends. I've got a plan for you which may help you learn about Chinese culture. First of all, I'd like to introduce _________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________________ Hope you will have a good time.
2018年江西中考英语试题及答案
参考答案
一、听力测试(共27小题,每小题1分,共27分
1-5 ABACA 6-10 CBBAC 11-15 BCABB 16-22 ABCCBAB
23. on Monday 24. levels 25 Room 16/ room 16 26. coffee
27. an hour/ one hour/1 hour
二、单项填空(共8小题,每小题1分,共8分)
28-31 DDBC 32-35 DABC
三、完形填空(共25小题,每小题1分,共25分)
A) 36-40 BADBC 41-45 CACAD 46-50 ABBCC
B) 51. interesting 52. different 53. life 54. to know
55. signs 56. and 57. back 58. found
59. they 60. really
四、阅读理解(共20小题,每小题2分,共40分)
61-63 CBD 64-67 DABA 68-71 DCBC 72-75 BBDA
76-80 CGEFA
五、补全对话(共5小题,每小题1分,共5分)
81-85 DGEFA
六、书面表达(15分)
Possible Version One:
Hello, friends. I've got a plan for you which may help you learn about Chinese culture. First of all, I'd like to introduce tea. It has a long history. It is said that Shen Nong discovered it as a drink. Tea is one of the most popular drinks in China. So we will have some interesting activities about it for you.
On Saturday morning, you are going to visit a big farm where you can learn about tea processing. On Saturday afternoon, you are going to a tea house after dinner where you can watch a tea art performance.
Why do we plan a visit to a tea house for you? Because you can lean a lot more about tea culture there. You will see a young lady in a Chinese traditional dress who shows you how a cup of tea is made with tea sets, You can enjoy it and relax yourselves while listening to pieces of traditional folk music.
Hope you will have a good time.
Possible Version Two:
Hello, friends. I've got a plan for you which may help you learn about Chinese
culture. First of all, I'd like to introduce Chinese folk music. We have many famous pieces of music such as Jasmine Flowers and Gaoshan Liushui. We have erhu, dizi and many other different musical instruments. So we will have some interesting activities about it for you.
You are going to talk musical instrument classes on Friday afternoon and our music teachers are going to teach you how to play musical instruments in the music rooms. On Saturday night, you are going to attend a folk music concert in the school hall.
Why will we hold a concert for you? There are talented students from our school who can play very well. It's a good chance for you to enjoy the beauty of some famous pieces of folk music and you will surely lose yourselves in them.
Hope you will have a good time.
1. （重庆A卷）I had egg and some milk for breakfast this morning. A. a B. an C. the D. / 2. （重庆B卷）I believe that apple a day keeps the doctor away. A. a B. an C. the D. / 3. （四川成都）—Who is boy playing soccer over there? —He is my classmate, Li Ping. A. a B. 不填 C. the 4. （天津）There is old piano in corner of the living room. A. an; the B. an; 不填 C. a; the D. a; a 5. （上海）Hurry up! The concert will begin in minute. A. a B. an C. the D. / 6. （山东临沂）The bed piano allows a music lover to play piano while he is lying in bed. A. a B. an C. / D. the 7. （山东青岛）We should have breakfast every day to keep healthy. A. a B. an C. / D. the 8. （江苏连云港）Zanco, American tech company, made tiniest phone in the world —the Tiny 11. A. the; a B. an; / C. /; a D. an; the 9. （宜宾）Every morning he spends hour doing exercise, then he goes to work. A. an; / B. a; a C. a; / 10. （随州）May is fifth month of the year. It’s very pleasant month. A. the; the B. the; a C. a; a D. the; / 11.（浙江温州）—Will you go to school-leavers’ party tomorrow? —Certainly. I’m going with my parents. A. a B. an C. the D. / 12. （甘肃白银）The man is driving at 40 kilometers hour. A. a B. an C. the D. / 13. （湖南郴州）—My daughter seldom has breakfast. —It’s unhealthy habit. Breakfast is very important to health. A. a B. an C. the 14. （山东东营）According to rule made in 2017, some kinds of dogs mustn’t be kept since May 1st, 2018 in Dongying. A. a B. an C. the D. / 15. （江苏宿迁）There will be talk on good manners at the school hall this afternoon. A. the B. an C. a D. / 16. （四川内江）—What time is it now, Mike? —It’s quarter past five. Let’s go to play basketball. A. 不填;不填 B. a; a C. the; a D. a; 不填 17. （哈尔滨）—What are you going to do next month? —I am going to travel to Germany, which is European country. A. a B. an C. the 18. （黑龙江绥化）I spend hour playing drums every day. A. a; the B. an; / C. an; the 19. （海南）Ann is my best friend. She can play piano very well.
江西省 2018 年地理中考试题解析 一、选择题（本大题共 15题，每小题 1 分，共 15分。在每小题列出的四个选项中，只有 项是符合题目要求的，多选、错选、不选均不得分） 读甲、乙两个国家部分区域图（图 1、图 2），完成 1～4 题。 解析】两图显示的都是某图局部图，从图中的城市名可以判断甲为澳大利亚，乙为美国， 都是发达国家， 两个国家都临太平洋。 根据图中经线可判断东西半球， 凡东经 >160°的在西 半球，凡西经< 20 °的在东半球。图 1 都为东经且< 160°，故为东半球；图 2 都为西经且 >20°，所以为西半球。两国均以白色人种为主。 2. 甲、乙两国出口量都较大的农产品是 【解析】咖啡、天然橡胶属于热带作物，美国大部分在温带，所以应排除。在美国的中部和 北部有小麦区，澳大利亚的小麦 - 绵羊混合农业区都盛产小麦。 3. 世界微电子工业中心——硅谷位于 A. 悉尼 B. 堪培拉 C.圣弗朗西斯科 D. 洛杉矶 【解析】旧金山，即圣弗朗西斯科，是世界高科技产业中心。 4. 以下动物（图 3），甲国特有的是 1. 甲、乙两国 A.同在东半球 B. 都为发展中国家 C. 同临太平洋 D. 都以黄色人种为主 A.小麦 B. 稻谷 C. 咖啡 D. 天然橡胶
【解析】企鹅是南极代表动物， 大象生活在热带雨林地区，长颈鹿生活在热带草原，袋鼠是 澳大利亚的代表动物。 澳大利亚因远离其他大陆， 没有大型的食肉动物， 所以澳大利亚的动 物具有古老性和独特性，澳大利亚被称为“世界活化石博物馆” 读埃及略图（图 4），完成 5～8 题。 5. 关于埃及位置和范围的叙述，正确的是 6. 图中运河沟通了 7. 影响埃及聚落分布的主要因素是 8. 由图可推知，埃及自然环境的显著特征是 部分地区属于热带沙漠气候，气候炎热干燥。受水源的制约，城市、人口、农业都分布在河 流沿岸或河口三角洲地区。 埃及是地跨亚、 非的国家， 埃及境内的苏伊士运河是亚非的分界 线，连接了地中海和红海。 剪纸是我国传统的民间艺术，其表现的内容多反映人们的生活环境、习俗和风情，寄托 人们对美好生活的向往。读反映我国某区域景观的剪纸作品（图 A.北临红海 B.位于尼罗河的上游 C.跨非、亚两大洲 D. 主要位于热带地区 A.大西洋和印度洋 B. 大西洋和太平洋 C. 印度洋和太平洋 D. 太平洋和北冰洋 A.地形 B. 气候 C.土壤 D. 水源 A.湿热 B. C.高寒 D. 暖湿 解析】从图中可见，北回归线穿过埃及南部， 所以埃及大部分位于北温带。但是，埃及大 5），完成 9～10 题。
2018年广州市初中毕业生学业考试 英语 本试卷共四大题，12页，满分110分。考试时间120分钟。 注意事项： 1.答卷前，考生务必在答题卡上用黑色字迹的钢笔或签字笔填写自己的考生号、姓名、考点考场号、座位号，再用2B铅笔把对应这两个号码的标号涂黑。 2.选择题每小題选出答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需要改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案。不能答在试卷上。 3.非选择题必须用黑色字迹的钢笔或签字笔作答，答案必须写在答题卡各题目指定区域的相应位置上；如需要改动，先划掉原来的答案，然后再写上新的答案，改动的答案也不能超出指定的区域；不准使用铅笔、圆珠笔和涂改液。不按以上要求作答的答案无效。 4.考生必须保持答题卡的整洁，考试结東，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。 一、语法选择(共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分) 阅读下面短文，按照句子结构的语法性和上下文连贯的要求，从1~15各题所给的A、B、C和D项中选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。 Xian Xinghai was a very famous musician in China. He wrote one of the greatest pieces of music of the 20th century. In his short life he wrote-1 300 songs and an opera. Xian was bom in Panyu, Guangdong, China in 1905. Because his father died before he was born, Xian moved from place to place with-2 mother. He began learning to play_ 3 violin when he was 20 years old. In the beginning, his violin was cheap and badly made that he_ 5 not play it well. His friends laughed at him. Xian did not stop 6 and soon showed his talent. In 1934, he was one of the first Chinese students_7 studied in a special music school in Paris. Before he 8 , Xian became the schools best student 9 won several prizes for his talents. In 1935, he returned to China and helped fight against the Japanese army. Later, he came to Yan'an 10 music at a college. 11 there were no pianos in Yan'an at that time Xian still wrote 12 of his most important music there, including The Yellow River, his most famous work. In May 1940, Xian 13 to the Soviet Union by the Chinese Communist Party to
江西省2018年中等学校招生考试语文试题卷 一、语言知识及其运用（每小题2分，共10分） 1．下列字形和加点字注音全部正确的一项是 A．脸颊（xiá）讪笑锐不可当（dāng）持之以衡 B．怂恿（sǒng）瓦砾万恶不赦（shè）长吁短叹 C．孱水（chàｎ）羁伴相形见绌（zhuó）寻章摘句 D．牟取（móｕ）啜泣踉踉跄跄（liàng）遮天敝日 2．下列句子加点词语使用不正确的一项是 A．姑妈是宽宏大量的人，难道还在我们小孩子身上计较不成？ B．同学们喜欢在课余阅读一些经典作品，每次都会觉得开卷有益。 C．春天到了，花香鸟语，草长莺飞，都是大自然的语言。 D．双方代表经过几轮艰难谈判，一拍即合，签署了合作协议。 3．下列句子没有语病的一项是 A．民俗是民间流传的习俗、风尚，是由民众创造并世代传承的民间文化。 B．中餐的推广使豆腐日益受到各国的欢迎是可以预期的。 C．不仅议论要提出观点，还要有能证明观点的材料。 D．《水浒传》记述了梁山好汉们从起义到兴盛再到最终失败。 4．下列句子组成语段顺序排列正确的一项是 ①“好书不厌百回读，熟读深思子自知”，这两句诗值得每个读书人悬为座右铭。 ②与其读十部无关轻重的书，不如以读十部书的时间和精力去读一部真正值得读的书。 ③少读如果彻底，必能养成深思熟虑的习惯，涵泳优游，以至于变化气质。 ④读书并不在多，最重要的是选得精，读得彻底。 ⑤读书原为自己受用，多读不能算是荣誉，少读也不能算是羞耻。 A．①②⑤③④ B．①②③⑤④ C．④②①⑤③ D．④②①③⑤ 5．给空缺处选填语句，最恰当的一项是 元阳的哈尼梯田依山顺势，层层叠叠，连绵向上，直通云海。无论登上哪座山顶，绕着 山路转一圈，每个角度都能见到不一样的梯田。春季，微风过处，梯田波光粼粼，像极了木刻年画；夏季，禾苗生长，梯田青翠欲滴，自是清新水彩画…… A．然而，哈尼梯田的模样，却受到季节因素的影响。
2018陕西中考英语试卷 听力部分（略） 笔试部分 I. 完形填空(共20小题，计20分) 第一节: 阅读下面短文，按照句子结构的语法性和上下文连贯的要求，从各小题的四个选项中选出一个最佳答案，使短文连贯完整。 One day, David and his friends talked about who their closest 21 were. When it was his turn, he said, “My best friend is Amy, 22 81-year-old woman living in Florida.” Their friendship came 23 a game. In the game, David and Amy were on the same team. After this game, they became good friends. David even told her about his dream of music. However, life was hard for David at that time. He hardly 24 time or money to play music. Most of the time, he had to work in a restaurant. He felt that his dream was hopeless(无望的). 25 he almost lost heart, Amy gave him lots of help and supported his dream. Two years later, he decided 26 to New York for his dream. There he held his first concert successfully. After the concert, a famous reporter in New York heard of their story. He wanted to know what 27 . So he flew to Florida to interview her. To his surprise, the friendship between Amy and David was 28 than he could imagine. Later, many people 29 by this story. But Amy thought it was nothing. She said, “As friends, we 30 give a hand when they need.” 21. A. friend B. friends C. classmate D. classmates[B] 22. A. the B. / C. a D. an[D] 23. A. from B. below C. to D. at[A] 24. A. have B. had C. has had D. will have[B] 25. A. Before B. When C. Unless D. If [B] 26. A. go B. going C. to go D. gone[C] 27. A. Amy was like B. was Amy like C. is Amy like D. Amy is like [A] 28. A. beautiful B. beautifully C. more beautiful D. the most beautiful[C] 29. A. is moved B. are moved C.was moved D. were moved[D] 30. A. should B. would C. mustn’t D. can’t[A] 第二节: 阅读下面一篇短文,理解大意, 然后从各小题的四个选项中选出一个最佳答案，使短文连贯完整。 Since my mother moved to live with us in the city, she has been much heavier than before. As time went by, her health got 31 . So I had to take her to see a 32 . My mother was told to lose weight by doing exercise every day. She had no choice but to follow 33 the doctor said. I told her that I would exercise with her every morning. On the first morning, she got up very early 34 ran with me in our neighborhood. I tried to run slowly so that she could follow me. After 35 for some minutes, I told her the proper ways of exercise and the importance of eating healthy food. She listened to me carefully. It made me 36 that she told me everything very patiently when I was a kid. On the second morning, I praised her for keeping running with me. But after two weeks, she wanted to 37 running because she thought the two-week exercise didn’t work at all. To encourage her, I taught her how to use the facilities( 设施) for exercise in our 38 . She began to exercise again. With my help, it 39 her one month to develop a good habit of daily exercise. “Thank
江西省2018年中等学校招生考试 英语试题卷 说明： 1. 全卷满分120分，考试时间120分钟。 2. 请将答案写在答题卡上，否则不给分。 一、听力测试（27分） A）请听下面8段对话。每段对话后有以小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。听完每段对话后，你都将有10秒钟的时间回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。（每小题1分） (2018·江西)1. What would the girl like to buy? A. A phone. B. A camera C. A watch. (2018·江西)2. Where is Linda? A. In the laboratory. B. In the library. C. In the bookstore. (2018·江西)3. How's the weather today? A. Cold B. Warm C. Cool. (2018·江西)4. Who is playing a video game with Jack? A. His brother B. His sister C. His cousin. (2018·江西)5. What's the doctor's advice? A. Taking more exercise. B. Taking some medicine. C. Drinking some milk. (2018·江西)6. Why is Jane crying? A. Because she is hungry. B. Because she needs sleep. C. Because her toy is lost. (2018·江西)7. When does the movie finish? A. At 8:30 B. At 9:30 C. At 10:30. (2018·江西)8. What does Mr. Smith mean? A. Kate works hard at football training. B. Kate should not stop football training. C. Kate gives a good reason for her decision. B）请听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。（每小题1分） 请听第1段材料，回答第9、10题。 (2018·江西)9. How does the girl feel now? A. Relaxed. B. Stressed C. Excited. (2018·江西)10. What does the girl do before an exam? A. She does more homework. B. She asks teachers for help. C. She listens to music. 请听第2段材料，回答第11、12小题。 (2018·江西)11. When did the man move to a new place? A. Last week. B. Last month. C. Last year. (2018·江西)12. Which of the following is true? A. The streets are dirty in the new area.
2018广东中考英语全真试题 编辑整理： 尊敬的读者朋友们： 这里是精品文档编辑中心，本文档内容是由我和我的同事精心编辑整理后发布的，发布之前我们对文中内容进行仔细校对，但是难免会有疏漏的地方，但是任然希望（2018广东中考英语全真试题）的内容能够给您的工作和学习带来便利。同时也真诚的希望收到您的建议和反馈，这将是我们进步的源泉，前进的动力。 本文可编辑可修改，如果觉得对您有帮助请收藏以便随时查阅，最后祝您生活愉快业绩进步，以下为2018广东中考英语全真试题的全部内容。
2018年广东省中考英语试题 (全卷满分120分，考试时间100分钟） 一、听力理解（本大题分为A、B、C、D四部分，共30小题，每小题1分，共30分）A．听单句（本题有5小题,每小题1分，共5分） 根据所听句子的内容和所提的问题,选择符合题意的图画回答问题,每小题听一遍. 1．How did Susan do in the 100-meter race？ 2．Where did the old man live? 3．Why did they punish Peter yesterday？ 4．Which is the man the speaker is talking about？ 5．What do people eat with in this country？
B．听对话（本题有10小题，每小题1分，共10分） 根据所听内容，回答每段对话后面的内容，在每小题所给的三个选项中选出一个最佳答案，每段对话听两遍. 6．What is the weather like？ A． Rainy． B．Windy． C． Sunny． 7．What is Lily's dress made of？ A． Silk． B．Cotton． C． Paper． 8．Which robot does the woman like better？ A． The one with a square head． B． The one with a round face． C． The one with green eyes． 9．Where does the conversation probably take place? A． On a bus． B． On a train． C． On a plane． 10．How long did it take the woman to get home from France？ A． 3 hours． B． 11 hours C． 14 hours． 11．（1)What does the man think of Tina？ A． A shy girl． B． A confident girl． C． An unfriendly girl． 12．How can Tina start a conversation according to the man？ A． By making small talk． B． By singing a song． C． By keeping smiling．13．What's the possible relationship between the two speakers？ A． Husband and wife． B． Father and daughter． C． Mother and son．
2018年上海市初中毕业统一学业考试 英语试卷 考生注意 本卷有7大题,共94小题 2.试卷满分150分。考试时间100分钟。 全部试题均采用连续编号。请将所有答案做在答题纸的指定位置上,做在试卷上一律不给分。 Part I Listening(第一部分听力) 1. Listening comprehension(听力理解)(共30分) A. Listen and choose the right picture(根据你听到的内容,选出相应的图片)(6分) 1、________ 2、_________ 3、__________ 4、__________ 5、__________ 6、__________ 上海市教育考试院保留版权 初中学业考试(2018)英语试卷第1页(共10页)
B. Listen to the dialogue and choose the best answer to the question you hear(根据你听到的对话和问题,选出最恰当的答案)(8分) 7. A)Apple. B)Banana. C) Orange . D)Pear. 8.A)At8:45. B)At 9:00. C)At9:15. D)At 9:00. 9. A)By bus. B)By bike. C) By car. D)By underground. 10. A)Rainy. B) Cloudy. C)Sunny. D )Windy. 11. A)Visit his uncle. B)Visit his classmates. C) Go to London. D) Go to a language camp. 12. A)In a store. B)At home. C) At the cinema. D)In a restaurant. 13.A) Husband and wife. B) Doctor and patient. C)Shop assistant and customer. D)Teacher and student. 14. A) Talk to Lucy. B)Go to the supermarket. C) Eat more. D)Lose some weight. C. Listen to the dialogue and tell whether the following statements are true or false TF 列句子是否符合你听到的对话内容,符合的用“T”表示,不符合的用“F”表示)(6分) 15. Mary has just become a college student. 16. Simon doesnt enjoy classroom discussions. 17. Mary has nothing interesting to do after class. 18. Simon will volunteer for an international exhibition in Shanghai. 19. Mary and Simon will go to Shanghai together in five months. 20. Simon gives Mary some suggestions about how to choose a job in China. D. Listen to the passage and complete the following sentences(听短文,完成下列内容。每空格限填一词)(10分) 21. Kitty wanted to plant a _____ ______with beautiful flowers for Mum's birthday. 22. Dad found that the flowers were _______ ______. They were plastic. 23. Dad went to Mr. White _______ _______some flower seeds. 24. Kitty and Dad worked for _______ ______ before Mum came back. 25. After Mum heard the ________ ________ she was moved to tears. 初中学业考试(2018)英语试卷第2页(共10页)
2018年江西省中考真题政治 一、选择题（每小题2分） 1.2018年2月4日，新华社受权发布《中共中央国务院关于______________的意见》，这是改革开放以来第20个指导“三农”工作的中央一号文件。（） A.实施乡村振兴战略 B.加大改革创新力度加快农业现代化建设 C.推进社会主义新农村建设 D.全面深化农村改革加快推进农业现代化 解析：时事题。2018年2月4日，新华社受权发布《中共中央国务院关于实施乡村振兴战略的意见》，这是改革开放以来第20个指导“三农”工作的中央一号文件。 答案：A 2.2017年12月5日，在肯尼亚内罗毕举行的第三届联合国环境大会上，联合国环境规划署宣布，中国塞罕坝林场建设者获得2017年联合国环保最高荣誉（） A.“人居环境奖” B.“环境卫士奖” C.“生态环保奖” D.“地球卫士奖” 解析：时事题。2017年12月5日，在肯尼亚内罗毕举行的第三届联合国环境大会上，联合国环境规划署宣布，中国塞罕坝林场建设者获得2017年联合国环保最高荣誉“地球卫士奖”。答案：D 3.“千人同心，则得千人之力；万人异心，则无一人之用。”这句古语告诉我们（） A.要放弃个人利益来维护集体利益 B.集体应充分尊重和保护个人利益 C.团结的集体才有凝聚力和战斗力 D.集体的力量取决于成员数量的多少 解析：此题旨在考查学生对集体的认识。根据所学知识，A选项观点本错误，维护集体利益并不意味着要放弃个人利益；B选项观点虽然正确，但与材料无关；D选项观点本身错误，集体的力量不仅取决于成员数量的多少，更取决于成员之间的配合。千人同心，则得千人之力”表明团结的集体才有凝聚力和战斗力。 答案：C 4.江西“新时代好少年”段岚玉，从小喜欢看父亲维修电机，逐渐对发明创造产生了兴趣。上初中后，段岚玉开始琢磨和记录平时想到的一些小创意。目前，她已获得一项实用新型发明专利。段岚玉的发明创造主要源于（） A.父母的支持和协助 B.学校的援助和老师的指导 C.她的自尊与自爱 D.她的好奇心和独立思考能力 解析：此题旨在考查学生对好奇心和独立思考能力的认识。A选项“父母的支持和协助”、B 选项学校的援助和老师的指导、C选项她的自尊和自爱材料中没有体现出来。段岚玉的发明
2018年深圳市中考英语真题－回忆版 I．词汇（15分） 1．-More than 400 street gardens will be built in Shenzhen. -Good news! Our city becomes more and more beautiful. A. Over B. Around C. Nearly 2．-Tim, you spent too much time on computers. It’s harmful to your eyes. -I see. Thank you. I will do more sports instead. A. is good for B. is bad for C. is helpful to 3．-Hi, John! Would you like to go hiking with me tomorrow? -Sounds great! It’s a good way to keep fit. A. lively B. active C. healthy 4．-Mr. Li, I feel a little nervous before the coming exam. -You’d better take a break from studies and relax yourself. A. rest B. breath C. walk 5．-I dream to be a great dancer when I grow up. -That’s great. But it requires confidence and practice. A. gets B. has C. needs 6．-Where is Shenzhen Concert Hall? How can we get there? -It is close to the bookshop. A. behind B. opposite C. near 7．-Tony, have you got a plan for the summer vacation? -Not yet. Perhaps I’ll go to my hometown with my family. A. Maybe B. Actually C. Generally 8．-Our English club will put on a famous play during the School Art Week. -Really? I can’t wait to watch it. A. work on B. act out C. make up 前八题都是不看题干就能选出答案来。考了3个动词（含一个动词短语），2个形容词(含一个短语)，1个副词，两个介词相关短语 9．-Simon always reads for half an hour before bedtime every day. -That’s a good ________. Reading makes a full man. A. dream B. wish C. habit 10．-Do you still remember our primary school teacher, Mrs. Liu? -Yes, she always encouraged us and gave us support _____ we met difficulties. A. whenever B. whatever C. however 11．-I’m looking forward to the final of the 2018 World Cup. -Me, too. I hope the German team will be the _______. It’s my favorite. A. player B. winner C. loser 12．-The piano lessons are too hard for me. I nearly give up. -You should be ________. I believe you’ll make it. A. careful B. helpful C. patient 13．-Have you heard about Shenzhen International Magic Festival? -________, it is a big event for Magic lovers like me.
说明:1.全卷满分120分,考试时间120分钟。 2.请将答案写在答题卡上,否则不给分。 一、听力测试(27分) 现在是试听时间。请听一段对话,然后回答问题。 What is the boy going to buy? A. Some juice. B. Some oranges. C. Some apples. 答案是C A)请听下面8段对话。每段对话后有一小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。听完每段对话后,你都将有10秒钟的时间回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。(每小题1分) 1. What would the girl like to buy? A. A phone. B. A camera. C. A watch. 2. Where is Linda? A. In the laboratory. B. In the library. C. In the bookstore. 3. How's the weather today? A. Cold. B. Warm. C. Cool. 4. Who is playing a video game with Jack? A. His brother. B. His sister.
C. His cousin. 5. What's the doctor's advice? A. Talking more exercise. B. Taking some medicine. C. Drinking some milk. 6. Why is Jane crying? A. Because she is hungry. B. Because she needs sleep. C. Because her toy is lost. 7. When does the movie finish? A. At 8:30 B. At 9:30 C. At10:30 8. What does Mr. Smith mean? A. Kate works hard at football training. B. Kate should not stop football training. C. Kate gives a good reason for her decision. B)请听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。(每小题1分) 请听第1段材料,回答第9、10小题。 9. How does the girl feel now? A. Relaxed. B. Stressed. C. Excited. 10. What does the girl do before an exam? A. She does more homework. B. She asks teachers for help. C She listens to music.
2018 年英语中考试题及答案 第I卷 I．听力测试。（共30分） 第一节（每小题1.5分，共9分） 听一遍。根据你所听到的句子，从A、B、C三个选项中选出最恰当的答语，并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。 1、A.Nice to meet you, too. B. Thank you. C. Goodbye. 2、A.Don’t worry! B. Good idea! C.Hurry up! 3、A. You’re welcome. B. It doesn’t matter. C. Take your time. 4、A.That’s right. B.Take it easy. C. With pleasure. 5、A.Sorry, I won’t. B. Well done. C. Here you are. 6、A.Never mind! B. What a pity! C. Have a good time! 第二节（每小题1.5分，共9分） 听一遍。根据你所听到的对话和问题，从A、B、C三个选项中选出正确答案，并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。 7、A. By bike. B. By bus. C. On foot. 8、A. Grace. B. Alice. C. Paul. 9、A.In the library. B. In the museum. C. In the classroom. 10、A. Math. B. Chinese. C. Science. 11、A. Clever and lovely. B. Friendly and lovely. C. Friendly and clever. 12、A. At 8:00. B. At 9:00. C. At 10:00. 第三节（每小题1.5分，共6分）
2018年江西省中考真题地理 一、选择题（本大题共15小题，每小题1分，共15分。） 读甲、乙两个国家部分区域图（图1、图2），完成下列问题。 1.甲、乙两国（） A.同在东半球 B.都为发展中国家 C.同临太平洋 D.都以黄种人为主 解析：本题考查美国和澳大利亚的相关知识点。读图可知，甲、乙两国分别是澳大利亚和美国，澳大利亚和美国居民都以白色人种为主，都为发达国家；两国共同濒临的大洋是太平洋；美国主要位于西半球。 答案：C 2.甲、乙两国出口量都较大的农产品是（） A.小麦 B.稻谷 C.咖啡 D.天然橡胶 解析：本题考查美国和澳大利亚的相关知识点。据图示可知，甲、乙两国分别是澳大利亚和美国；美国和澳大利亚农业生产的共同特点是都实行专门化生产，两国出口量都较大的农产品是小麦。 答案：A 3.世界微电子工业中心——硅谷位于（） A.悉尼 B.堪培拉 C.圣弗朗西斯科 D.洛杉矶 解析：本题考查美国高新技术产业的分布。世界微电子工业中心——硅谷位于圣弗朗西斯科（旧金山）的东南部，该地区科技力量雄厚。 答案：C 4.以下动物（如图），甲国特有的是（）
解析：本题考查澳大利亚的动物。读图可得，甲国为澳大利亚，选项中的袋鼠是澳大利亚 的特有动物，该动物很善于奔跑。 答案：D 读埃及略图（如图），完成下列问题。 5.关于埃及位置和范围的叙述，正确的是（） A.北临红海 B.位于尼罗河上游 C.跨非、亚两大洲 D.主要位于热带地区 解析：考查了埃及的位置。A、埃及北临地中海。故不符合题意。B、埃及位于尼罗河下游，故不符合题意。C、埃及地跨亚、非两洲，以苏伊士运河为界在陆地上与亚洲为邻，是亚非在陆地上的交通要冲，故符合题意。D、埃及主要位于北温带地区。故不符合题意。 答案：C 6.图中运河沟通了（） A.大西洋和印度洋 B.大西洋和太平洋 C.印度洋和太平洋 D.太平洋和北冰洋 解析：本题考查各大洲之间的界线。大洲之间往往以山脉、河流、湖泊、运河、海峡等地 理事物为分界线。读图可知，图中埃及境内的运河是苏伊士运河；苏伊士运河是亚洲与非 洲的分界线，该运河沟通了红海和地中海，缩短了印度洋与大西洋之间的航程。 答案：A 7.影响埃及聚落分布的主要因素是（） A.地形 B.气候 C.土壤 D.水源