AD EXCHANGE DisasterRecovery

• ■ 从 Backup Exec 中，以数据库管理员 (DBA) 身份从 IBM DB2 控制 中心或命令行处理程序启动。
Agent for Microsoft Exchange Server
• 利用 Exchange Agent，无需单独管理或专用硬件即可将 Microsoft Exchange Server数据库备份与网络备份相集成。
Agent for Microsoft SQL Server
• 借助 Symantec Backup Exec Agent for Microsoft SQL Server (SQL Agent)，网络管理员可以对连接到网络的 SQL 安装执行备份和还原操 作。SQL 数据库备份能够与网络备份集成在一起，而不必单独进行管 理或使用专门的硬件。 • SQL Agent 提供对以下项的支持： • ■ 数据库、事务处理日志、差异、文件组备份以及数据库恢复和替换
• Symantec Backup Exec 2010 Active Directory Recovery Agent (ADRA) 作为 BackupExec 2010 的独立附加组件进行安装。通过 ADRA，您可以使用粒度恢复技术 (GRT) 还原单个 Active Directory 对象和属性，而无需执行授权或非授权完全还原。也可以还原单个 Active Directory Application Mode (ADAM) 与 Active Directory Lightweight Directory Services(AD LDS) 对象和属性。
Backup Exec要求配置
• Internet 浏览器： Internet Explorer 6.0 或更高版本。对于 SQL Server 2005 Express，需要 Service Pack 1。 • 处理器：Intel Pentium、Xeon、AMD 或兼容的处理器。 • 内存要求：512 MB RAM 建议：1 GB RAM（更多内存可以获得更好的性 能）

Backup Exec是用于Windows NT/2000或NetWare操作系统的高性能数据管理解决方案，具有关键性业务系统的计算机中心作集中式备份，如证券、网站、医院以及中小型企业的计算中心。

Backup Exec 通过真正的32位客户机/服务器设计，为整个网络中的服务器和工作站提供高速、可靠的备份和恢复能力。

Backup Exec 附加选件您可以将下列选件添加到Backup Exec 配置中:1、Backup Exec Library Expansion Option (LEO) 能支持多驱动器磁带或光盘机械臂库及库存储系统。

当利用“高级设备及介质管理系统”(ADAMM) 功能时，Library Expansion Option 提供了全面的配置及管理能力，包括:自动备份及恢复操作、条形码读出器及入口支持。

设备分区允许为备份目标指定具体的自动化介质库插槽。

2、Backup Exec Intelligent Disaster Recovery Option 为本地和远程WindowsNT/2000系统提供了唯一的" 特定时点" 恢复方法。

有了该选件，系统崩溃后无需手动重新安装整个操作系统。

使用磁盘、CD-R/CD-RW 或可引导磁带( 仅限于HP OBDR，或Compaq DR 的磁带驱动器);IDR使系统快速返回联机状态，并允许从上一个完整的备份集—包括完全、增量、差别和工作集备份进行恢复。

IDR 是唯一允许用户指定新硬盘信息、RAID 配置以及网络配置卡的灾难修复方法。

3、Backup Exec Network Storage Executive TM (BENSE) 集中了大型Backup Exec for Windows NT/2000环境的管理。

BENSE 利用备份策略、介质服务器负载平衡、增强的容错能力及Microsoft SQL Server 的功能，通过简单易用的MMC 控制台来管理多个Backup Exec 服务器。

1 Q: The number one priority of disaster planning should always be:A Preservation of capitalB Personnel evacuation and safetyC Resumption of core business functionsrelationsInvestorD2 Q: Which of the following is NOT a goal of a Business Impact Assessment (BIA)?A To inventory mutual aid agreementsB To identify and prioritize business critical functionsC To determine how much downtime the business can tolerateD To identify resources required by critical processes3 Q: In the context of Data Processing Continuity Planning, “Subscription Services” refers to:A Contracts to have replacement computer hardware within 72 hoursB Contracts to have replacement computer hardware within 24 hoursC Commercial services providing hot sites, warm sites, and cold sitesD The quarterly journal “Continuity Planning”4 Q: The primary difference between a hot site and a warm site is:A A hot site is closer to the organization’s data centers than is the warm site.B The warm site’s systems don’t have the organization software or data installed.C The warm site doesn’t have computer systems in it.D The warm site is powered down, but the hot site is powered up and ready to go.5 Q: Which of the following is NOT a concern for a hot site?A Programs and data at the hot site must be protected.B A widespread disaster will strain the hot site’s resources.C A hot site is expensive because of the controls and patches required.D Computer equipment must be shipped quickly to the hot site for it to be effective.6 Q: The disaster recovery plan needs to be continuously maintained because:A The organization’s software versions are constantly changing.B The organization’s business processes are constantly changing.C The available software patches are constantly changing.D The organization’s data is constantly changing.7 Q: How is the organization’s DRP best kept up-to-date?A With regular audits to ensure that changes in business processes are knownB By maintaining lists of current software versions, patches, and configurationsC By maintaining personnel contact listsD By regularly testing the DRP8 Q: Multiple versions of a DRP available in the organization will:A Allow older pass-along versions of the plan to circulated to some personnelB Give involved personnel a choice of response proceduresC Cause confusion during a disasterD Give critical personnel the best composite view of response procedures9 Q: BCP stands for:A Basic Continuity PlanningB Basic Continuity ProcedureC Business Continuity ProcedureD Business Continuity Planning10 Q: “Remote journaling” refers to:A A mechanism that transmits transactions to an alternate processing siteB A procedure for maintaining multiple copies of change control recordsC A procedure for maintaining multiple copies of configuration management recordsD A mechanism that ensures the survivability of written records11 Q: Backing up data by sending it through a communications line to a remote location is known as:journalingATransactionB Off-site storageC Electronic vaultingD Electronic journaling12 Q: Which of the following is NOT a method used to create an online redundant data set?A Remote journalingB Off-site storageC Electronic vaultingmirroringDDatabase13 Q: One of the chief disadvantages of a Mutual Aid Agreement is:A There is no guarantee that the other organization will agree to help.B A large disaster affecting both organizations renders the agreement worthless.C It’s the most expensive way to acquire a warm site.D The DRP isn’t tested until a disaster strikes.14 Q: A hot site is the most expensive because:A Travel costs can be high.B Duplicate staff salaries are high.C HVAC systems are expensive to operate.D It requires constant maintenance to keep systems in sync.15 Q: The types of DRP tests are:A Checklist, walkthrough, simulation, parallel, and full interruptionB Checklist, simulation, parallel, and full interruptionC Checklist, walkthrough, simulation, and full interruptionD Walkthrough, simulation, and parallel16 Q: A parallel DRP test:A Is resource intensive and rarely usedB Tests the full responsiveness by shutting down production systemsC Runs in parallel with production processingD Is a paper exercise to test theoretical response to a disaster17 Q: A DRP checklist test:A Is really only a review of the disaster recovery proceduresB Is a test of back-up system business resumption proceduresC Is a test of production system recovery proceduresD Is a test of business process failover procedures18 Q: What is the purpose of a Salvage Team?A To resume critical business operations at the alternate processing siteB To retrieve any needed items from off-site storageC To return the primary processing site to normal business operationsD To salvage any usable or marketable assets after a disaster19 Q: What is the purpose of a Recovery Team?A To resume critical business operations at the alternate processing siteB To retrieve any needed items from off-site storageC To return the primary processing site to normal business operationsD To salvage any usable or marketable assets after a disaster20 Q: Why is communications with the media important during a disaster?A Emergency communications with personnel occur through the media.B The media can report official status instead of relying upon rumors.C It’s required by the Securities and Exchange Commission.D It’s recommended by the Business Contingency Planning Association.21 Q: When is a disaster defined to be over?A One year after it beganB When the Recovery phase has begunC When all business operations have resumed at alternate operations site(s)D When all business operations have resumed at the primary operations site(s)22 Q: What new scenario did the 2001 World Trade Center disaster bring to business contingencyplanning?A The sudden loss of a significant portion of an organization’s workforceB Airplanes being deliberately crashed into buildingsC The unprecedented cessation of securities trading for several consecutive daysD The restrictions of long-distance travel by air23 Q: A data processing facility on truck trailers or mobile homes is known as:A A Frozen Back-up SiteB A Migrant Back-up SiteC A Rolling Back-up SiteD In Itinerant Back-up Site24 Q: What is the purpose of a Criticality Survey?A It identifies the funding paths required during a disaster.B It identifies the critical personnel in the organization.C It identifies the critical path to full disaster recovery.D It identifies the processes and functions that are critical to business operations.25 Q: Which is NOT a factor in Business Contingency Planning?A Making sure there are sufficient personnel to recover business operations.B Identifying critical business processes and planning for their resumptionC Filing the Business Contingency Plan with local government authoritiesD Identifying funding necessary during a disaster and for recovery of operations.26 Q: What is the purpose of a Business Impact Assessment?A To identify critical processes and the resources required to resume themB To identify the impact of a disaster on the organization’s value chainC To identify the financial cost of any particular disaster scenarioD To identify a disaster’s impact on company market share27 Q: Typically the first step in the BCP process is:A To inventory all business critical processesB Scope and Plan InitiationC Business Impact AnalysisD Business Continuity Plan28 Q: Civil and criminal penalties can be imposed upon public companies that fail to maintain adequatecontrols according to:HIPAAAGraham-Leach-Bliley Act of 1999TheBC The Information Controls and Practices Act of 1997D The Foreign Corrupt Practices Act of 197729 Q: The loss of competitive advantage and market share is known as:A A critical support areaB A qualitative lossC A quantitative lossD A nonproductive loss30 Q: Acting with excellence, competence, and diligence is known as:careDueAdiligenceBDueC Due ignoranceD The Golden Principles31 Q: An access control system that grants access to information based upon its classification and theclearance of the individual is known as:A Identity-based access controlB Mandatory access controlC Role-based access controlD Identity-based access control32 Q: An access control system that grants access to information based upon the identity of the user isknown as:A Identity-based access controlB Mandatory access controlC Role-based access controlD Clearance-based access control33 Q: An access control system that gives the user some control over who has access to information isknown as:A Identity-based access controlB User-directed access controlC Role-based access controlD Clearance-based access control34 Q: Encryption, tokens, access control lists, and smart cards are known as:A Discretionary access controlsB Physical controlsC Technical controlscontrolsDAdministrative35 Q: Supervision, audits, procedures, and assessments are known as:A Discretionary access controlsSafeguardsBC Physical controlsDcontrolsAdministrative36 Q: Security guards, locked doors, and surveillance cameras are known as:A Site-access controlsSafeguardsBC Physical access controlscontrolsDAdministrative37 Q: Role-based access control and task-based access control are examples of:A Mandatory access controlsB Administrative controlsC Discretionary access controlsD Non-discretionary access controls38 Q: Audits, background checks, video cameras, and listening devices are known as:controlsDiscretionaryAB Physical controlsC Preventive controlsDetectivecontrolsD39 Q: Smart cards, fences, guard dogs, and card key access are known as:A Mandatory controlsB Physical controlsC Preventive controlscontrolsDetectiveD40 Q: Is identification weaker than authentication?A Yes: Identity is based only on the assertion of identity without providing proof.B Yes: Identification uses ASCII data, whereas authentication uses binary data.C No: Identification and authentication provide the same level of identity.D No: They are used in different contexts and have nothing to do with each other.41 Q: Two-factor authentication is so-called because:A It requires two of the three authentication types.B Tokens use two-factor encryption to hide their secret algorithms.C Authentication difficulty is increased by a factor of two.D It uses a factor of two prime numbers algorithm for added strength.42 Q: “Something you are” refers to:A A user’s security clearanceB A user’s roleC Type 2 authenticationD Type 3 authentication43 Q: Two-factor authentication is stronger than single-factor authentication because:A It uses a factor of two prime numbers algorithm for added strength.B It relies upon two factors, such as a password and a smart card.C Authentication difficulty is increased by a factor of two.D The user must be physically present to authenticate.44 Q: Finger print, retina scan, and facial scans are examples of:A Biometric authenticationB Physical controlsC Type 2 authenticationD Three-factor authentication45 Q: Tokens, smart cards, and ATM cards are examples of:A Logical controlsIdentifiersBC Something you haveD Type 3 authentication46 Q: Single sign-on performs which of the following:A Stores the password locally using a “Save my password” feature.B Permits authentication to applications without having to log in one by one.C Stores the password and uses a cookie for subsequent authentication.D Is no longer used because it is not secure.47 Q: Which of the following is NOT a weakness in Kerberos?A The user’s secret key is transmitted over the network.B Kerberos is vulnerable to replay attacks.C The TGS and AS servers are vulnerable to physical attack.D The user’s secret key is temporarily stored on the client system.48 Q: The definition of TACACS is:A Technical Authentication Center Access Control ServiceB Terminal Access Controller Authentication Control ServiceC Technical Assistance Center Access Control SystemD Terminal Access Controller Access Control System49 Q: RADIUS is an example of:A Remote Authentication and Dial-In User ServiceB Centralized access controlC Distributed access controlcontrolDDetective50 Q: CHAP is used for:A Centralized access controlB Encrypting RADIUS authenticationC Ciphering RADIUS authenticationD Creating one-time passwords51 Q: RACF is used for:A Providing Kerberos authenticationB Providing biometric authenticationC Providing access control in UNIX environmentsD Providing access control services in IBM mainframe environments52 Q: A system used to identify anomalies on a network is known as a:A Signature-based intrusion detection systemB Network-based intrusion detection systemC Signature-based intrusion detection systemD Network-based intrusion control system53 Q: One disadvantage of host-based intrusion detection is that:A Event correlation is not possible.B It cannot detect broadcast packets.C It consumes resources on the host.D It can only perform signature-based detection.54 Q: One disadvantage of signature-based intrusion detection is that:A It cannot recognize attacks that are not in the signature file.B It detects intrusions only on hosts but not on networks.C It detects intrusions only on networks but not on hosts.D It can only detect mechanized attacks but not hacker attacks.55 Q: The most common relational database manipulation and definition language in use is:DBMLAB SQL ServerSQLCOracleD56 Q: What is the value of a database view?A It gives the DBA a top-down view of the schema.B It defines which tables, records, and fields that a person may view.C It is used to gather database security statistics.D It gives the security administrator a graphic view of the permission tree.databases:Object-oriented57 Q:A Are well suited to the storage and manipulation of complex data types.B Use fewer system resources than relational databases.C Are easier to learn than relational databases.D Have severe restrictions on the types and sizes of data elements.58 Q: Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of biometrics?A It can experience high false negatives.B It can experience high false positives.C Throughput rates are not an issue.D Biometric databases can become very large.59 Q: One of the difficulties associated with network-based intrusion detection systems is:A Synchronizing the signature file with the firewall.B The steep learning curve associated with IDS.C The high number of false negatives that must be eliminated.D The high number of false positives that must be eliminated.60 Q: Which of the following is NOT an obstacle to implementing two-factor authentication?A The need to integrate two-factor authentication into systems and applications.B The high cost of implementation.C Integrating two-factor authentication into the building’s badge entry system.D The increased TCO over single-factor authentication.61 Q: A database containing the data structures used by an application is known as:A A data encyclopediaB A data dictionaryCMetadataAschemaD62 Q: The purpose of a Service Level Agreement is:A To guarantee a minimum quality of service for an application or functionB To guarantee the maximum quality of service for an application or functionC To identify gaps in availability of an applicationD To correct issues identified in a security audit63 Q: CRCs, parity checks, and checksums are examples of:A Corrective application controlsMessagedigestsBC Preventive application controlsD Detective application controls64 Q: Data mining:A Can be performed by privileged users onlyB Is generally performed after hours because it’s resource intensiveC Refers to searches for correlations in a data warehouseD Is the term used to describe a hacker who has broken into a databas65 Q: “Object-oriented” and “relational” are examples of:A Types of database tablesB Types of database recordsC Types of database queriesD Types of databases66 Q: Neural networking gets its name from:A The make and model of equipment in a networkB Patterns thought to exist in the brainC Its inventor, Sigor NeuraD Observed patterns in neural telepathy67 Q: The verification activity associated with coding is called:AtestingUnitDesignreviewBC System testingreviewDArchitecture68 Q: What is the primary input of a high-level product design?A Feasibility studyrulesIntegrationBC Unit testingRequirementsD69 Q: The main improvement of the Waterfall software lifecycle model over earlier models was:A System and software requirements are combined into one step.B Developers can back up one step in the process for rework.C Coding and testing is combined into one step.D The need for rework was eliminated.70 Q: The primary feature of the Spiral software development model is that:A It shows cumulative project cost over several development iterations.B It includes Risk Analysis as a milestone.C It includes Security Assessment as a milestone.D It is only suitable for software integration, not software development.71 Q: Which of the following is NOT a value of change control in the software development lifecycle?A Changes are documented and subject to approval.B Scope creep is controlled.C It gives the customer veto power over proposed changes.D The cost of changes is considered.72 Q: How does the Waterfall software development lifecycle help to assure that applications will besecure?A Security requirements can be included early on and verified later in testing.B The testing phase includes penetration testing.C The Risk Analysis phase will uncover flaws in the feasibility model.D A list of valid users must be approved prior to production.73 Q: The main purpose of configuration management is to:A Require cost justification for any change in a software productB Require approval for any desired change in a software productC Maintain a detailed record of changes for the lifetime of a software product.D Provide the customer with a process for requesting configuration changes.74 Q: Configuration management can include an approval-based check-in/check-out mechanism toensure that:A Developers won’t make unapproved changes to software.B All changes have been tested.C All changes have been approved.D All changes have been verified.75 Q: The Software Capability Maturity Model is a measure of:A Advancements in software capabilitiesB The technical capabilities of softwareC The maturity of an organization’s software development processesD The ability of a software product to remain accurate even after many years76 Q: The components of the SEI Process Improvement IDEAL Model are:A Initiate, Diagnose, Establish, Action, and LeverageB Identify, Document, Establish, Annotate, and LearnC Influence, Diagnose, Establish, Annotate, and LearnD Identify, Document, Elucidate, Annotate, and Launch77 Q: Which of the following is NOT a goal of the Software Capability Maturity Model?A Reduced development timeB Improved development toolsC Improved software qualityplanningDImproved78 Q: The top-most level in the Software Capability Maturity Model has to do with:A Continuous and institutionalized process improvementB Complete lack of processes and controlsC Fully normalized and optimized softwareD Fully tested and validated software79 Q: The purpose of a Build List is:A To obtain approval at the Detailed Design step of the software lifecycleB To ensure that the compiler includes all necessary components during a buildC To ensure that all the necessary components are present during a buildD A record of the versions of all components of each copy of a product80 Q: In which steps are Security Specifications used in the software lifecycle?A Coding onlyB Product Design onlyC Product Design and Detailed DesignD Product Design, Detailed Design, and Coding81 Q: What is the purpose of a Software Library?A It’s an official software source code repository.B It’s a location where developers can store tools, code fragments, and utilities.C It’s the location where unit test plans are developed.D It’s the local copy of the Software Vault.82 Q: Objects in object-oriented systems communicate with other objects via:ApipesNamedQueuesBPipesCMessagesD83 Q: The software code in an object-oriented environment is known as the:CodeAMethodBInstanceCBehaviorD84 Q: The maturity levels in the Software CMM areA Reactive, Proactive, Managed, and OptimizingB Reactive, Responsive, Defined, Managed, and OptimizingC Initiating, Defined, Repeatable, Managed, and OptimizingD Initiating, Repeatable, Defined, Managed, and Optimizing85 Q: Software products are the most secure when:A They’re run in B2 environments.B They’re run in C2 environments.C Security requirements and architectures are known as early as possible.D Security is layered in as the last step of development.86 Q: The platform-independent mechanism developed by the OMG is:ACORBACOBRABVIPERCDDCOM87 Q: Fuzzification is most often used in:networksASynapticB Magnetic media degaussersC Expert systemsD Database caching algorithms88 Q: The term “sandbox” is used to describe:A The portion of virtual memory that maps to physical memoryB The closed environment in which a Java applet runsC The location where temporary compilation files are storedD The location where developers write and test code89 Q: Which of the following is NOT a security concern about ActiveX?A ActiveX has a robust sandbox that protects the rest of the system.B There is no way to prevent malicious ActiveX code from damaging a client.C An ActiveX control has complete access to the entire client system.D The digital signature on an ActiveX control only tells it is genuine.90 Q: RAID is also known as:A Recoverable Array of Independent DisksB Risk Analysis Initiation DetailC Redundant Array of Independent DisksD Robust Array of Inexpensive Disks91 Q: The process of breaking the key and/or plaintext from an enciphered message is known as:DecryptionASteganographyBCryptanalysisCExtractionD92 Q: The method of encryption in which both sender and recipient possess a common encryption keyis known as:digestMessageAB Hash functionC Public key cryptographyD Secret key cryptography93 Q: Why would a user’s public encryption key be widely distributed?A So that cryptographers can attempt to break it.B Because it’s encrypted.C Because the user’s private key can’t be derived from their private key.D So that the user can decrypt messages from any location.94 Q: Reading down the columns of a message that has been written across is known as:A A columnar transposition cipherB Calculating the hashC Calculating the checksumD Calculating the modulo95 Q: An asymmetric cryptosystem is also known as:digestMessageAB Hash functionC Public key cryptosystemD Secret key cryptosystem96 Q: The process of hiding a message inside of a larger dataset is known as:DecryptionASteganographyBCCryptanalysisExtractionD97 Q: Steganography is not easily noticed because:A Monitor and picture quality are so good these days.B Most PCs’ speakers are turned off or disabled.C The human eye often can’t sense the noise that steganography introduces.D Checksums can’t detect most steganographed images.98 Q: What historic event was the backdrop for breakthroughs in strategic cryptography?A The Gulf WarB World War IC World War IID The Six Day War99 Q: Non-repudiation refers to:A The technology that shoots down the “I didn’t send that message” excuseB Re-verification of all CA certificate serversC The annual competency review of system and network authentication mechanismsD The annual competency review of system and network authentication mechanisms100 Q: The amount of effort required to break a given ciphertext is known as the:functionWorkAB Effort functionCryptanalysisCExtractionD101 Q: What is one disadvantage of an organization signing its own certificates?A The certificate signing function is labor intensive.B Anyone outside the organization will receive warning messages.C The user identification process is labor intensive.D It is much more expensive than having certificates signed by a CA.102 Q: The ability for a government agency to wiretap a data connection is implemented in the:A Skipjack chipB Magic lanternC Cutty chipD Clipper chip103 Q: The cipher device used by Germany in World War II is known as:AM-922M-902BCEnigmaTuringD104 Q: The problem of WTLS-to-SSL transactions existing temporarily “in the clear” is called the:A GATT GAPproblemBKnapsackGAPCWEPD WAP GAP105 Q: Why would a user’s public encryption key be widely distributed?A So that cryptographers can attempt to break it.B Because it’s encrypted.C So that any person can send an encrypted message to the user.D So that the user can decrypt messages from any location.106 Q: Which of the following is NOT a solution for securing e-mail?A MIME Object Security Services (MOSS)BS/MIMESETCPGPD107 Q: An algorithm that is easy to compute in the “forward” direction but difficult to compute “backwards” is known as:A A block grantB A stream cipherC A public key functionD A one-way function108 Q: What technology advancement led to the breaking of DES?VLSIchipsAB Decrease in cost of computersnetworksNeuralCD Expert systems109 Q: Why does PGP not scale well in larger environments?A Users certify each other, which can result in too large a web of trust.B The system or security administrator must manually sign every new key.C Storing the public keys will take more space than previously believed.D Not enough computing power exists to encrypt and decrypt all the e-mail traffic.110 Q: What party in an organization signs a subscriber’s digital certificate?RepositoryAB Subscriber’s supervisorSubscriberCAuthorityDCertificate。

非授权还原和授权还原） ■ 关于远程 Windows 计算机的灾难恢复操作（包括域控制器的 Active Directory
非授权还原和授权还原）
关于灾难准备
灾难准备计划是一些策略和步骤的实施，它们可以使破坏数据的灾难事件所造成的 损害减到最小程度。尽管准备措施可以使这类事件的影响减到最小（UPS 设备、密 码保护等），但没有任何办法可以百分之百地保护您的数据。 灾难准备计划 (Disaster Preparation Plan, DPP) 的目的是尽可能快地恢复可运行状 态。Backup Exec 是 DPP 的关键组件，本章讨论如何将这个功能强大的数据管理工 具应用到您的灾难准备计划中。 下列基本方法可用于灾难恢复： ■ 手动恢复。您可以手动恢复本地和远程 Windows 计算机。 ■ 自动恢复。Backup Exec 的 Intelligent Disaster Recovery (IDR) 选件可自动对
灾难期间维护业务操作的能力 请确保每个人都采取了适当的预防措施以实施针对网络中断 的计划。例如，由于服务器关机使得销售部的电话不断，以 致在服务器重新启动之前只能手写订单。每个部门都应当制 定这种情况下的工作策略。如果采取了适当的预防措施，服 务器可以很快恢复并继续运行。
可靠的备份策略。
一种包括强大的介质循环方案的设计精良的备份策略，它在 快速还原文件服务器方面具有重要作用。
9 单击“确定”。
关于创建紧急修复磁盘（仅限 Windows 2000 计算机）
在安装 Windows 2000 Server 时，安装程序会提示您创建一张紧急修复磁盘 (ERD)。 这张磁盘包含系统信息，可以帮助在灾难事件时恢复系统运行。每次改变系统时更 新 ERD 是一项很重要的工作，ERD 只有保持最新时才有用处。只有将 ERD 保持为 最新的，它才有用处。 对系统作出重大更改之前和之后都要制作 ERD 的最新副本。重大更改包括添加、删 除或修改硬件驱动器或分区、文件系统、配置等。一般原则是，更改硬盘驱动器配 置之前和之后都要更新 ERD。服务器添加新组件，如 Microsoft Exchange Server 或 Microsoft SQL Server，以及在控制面板中进行更改时，都需要在更改之前和之 后更新 ERD。 同时记住制作 ERD 的备份，总是保持 ERD 至少有一代备份。创建全新的 ERD 时， 使用一张可重新格式化的软盘，因为创建 ERD 的程序 RDISK.EXE 每次都要格式化 软盘。