高考英语真题全国卷1.pdf

2016年全国Ⅰ卷高考英语试题第一部分阅读理解（共两节，满分40分）AYou probably know who Marie Curie was, but you may not have heard of Rachel Carson. Of the outstanding ladies listed below, who do you think was the most important woman of the past 100 years?Jane Addams(1860-1935)Anyone who has ever been helped by a social worker has Jane Addams to thank Addans helpedthe poor and worked for peace. She encouraged a sense of community(社区)by creating shelters and promoting education and services for people in need In 1931,Addams became the first American woman to win the Nobel Peace Prize.Rachel Carson(1907-1964)If it weren’t for Rachel Carson, the environmental movement might not exist today. Her popular 1962 book Silent Spring raised awareness of the dangers of pollution and the harmful effects of chemicals on humans and on the world’s lakes and oceans.Sandra Day O’Connor(1930-present)When Sandra Day O’Connor finished third in her class at Stanford Law School, in 1952, she couldnot find work at a law firm because she was a woman. She became an Arizona state senator(参议员) and ,in 1981, the first woman to join the U.S. Supreme Court. O’Connor gave the deciding vote in many important cases during her 24 years on the top court.Rosa Parks (1913-2005)On December 1,1955, in Montgomery, Alabama, Rosa Parks would not give up her seat on a busto a white passenger. Her simple act landed Parks in prison. But it also set off the Montgomery busboycott. It lasted for more than a year, and kicked off the civil-rights movement. “The only tired I was, was tired of giving in,” said Parks.21. What is Jane Addams noted for in history?A. Her social work.B. Her teaching skills.C. Her efforts to win a prize.D. Her community background.。

学校：____________________ _______年_______班 姓名：____________________ 学号：________- - - - - - - - - 密封线 - - - - - - - - - 密封线 - - - - - - - - -绝密★启用前2019年普通高等学校招生全国统一考试英 语 全国I 卷（全卷共12页）(适用地区：河北、河南、山西、山东、江西、安徽、湖北、湖南、广东、 福建) 注意事项：1．答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、考生号等填写在答题卡和试卷指定位置上。

2． 回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。

如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其它答案标号，回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上，写在本试卷上无效。

3．考试结束后，将本试卷和答案卡一并交回。

第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分）做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。

录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。

第一节 （共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）听下面5段对话。

每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A 、B 、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项。

听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。

每段对话仅读一遍。

例：How much is the shirt?A. £19.15.B. £9.18.C. £9.15.答案是C 。

1. Where does this conversation take place? A. In a classroom. B. In a hospital.C. In a museum.2. What does Jack want to do?A. Take fitness classes.B. Buy a pair of gym shoes.C. Change his work schedule. 3. What are the speakers talking about? A. What to drink.B. Where to meet.C. When to leave.4. What is the relationship between the speakers?A. Colleagues.B. Classmates.C. Strangers.5. Why is Emily mentioned in the conversation? A. She might want a ticket.B. She is looking for the man.C. She has an extra ticket.第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）听下面5段对话或独白。

【高考真题】2024年高考英语真题试卷（全国甲卷）第二部分阅卷人一、阅读(共两节，满分50分)第一节(共15小题;每小题2.5分,满分37.5分)得分阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。

Each ARTS FIRST festival is a unique annual celebration of the Harvard community's artistic creativity.We invite you to join us for the coming ARTS FIRST.We look forward to welcoming you as we showcase the creativity of the Harvard arts community through performances,art exhibitions and art-making activities.The festival is a public event for Harvard and community members of all ages.Light Awash in WatercolorLearn about the materials and qualities of watercolor paint with experts from the Harvard Art Museums Materials Lab.Try your hand at some of the painting tricks used by artists whose works will be in the upcoming exhibition of American Watercolors,1880-1990:Into the Light.Spineless Artists:Invertebrate CreativityFrom webs to cocoons,invertebrates(无脊椎动物)create some of nature's most delicate and beautiful designs. Join Javier Marin from the Harvard Museum of Natural History to learn how insects and other invertebrates dance,inspire fashion and create art,while making your own spineless artists out of craft(手工艺)materials.Wheel ThrowingJoin instructors from the Ceramics Program and great potters from Quincy,Cabot and Mather Houses for demonstrations using the potter's wheel.Then create your own masterpiece!Knitting and Pom-PomMakingJoin the Harvard Undergraduate Knitting Circle to make pom-poms and tassels out of thread,or pick up a pair of needles and learn to knit(编织).1．What do we know about ARTS FIRST?A．It is an exhibition of oil paintings.B．It offers art courses for all ages.C．It presents recreational activities.D．It is a major tourist attraction.2．Which program will you join if you're interested in drawing pictures?A．Light Awash in Watercolor.B．Spineless Artists:Invertebrate Creativity. C．Wheel Throwing.D．Knitting and Pom-Pom Making.3．What can you do together with Javier Marin?A．Practice a traditional dance.B．Make handcrafts.C．Visit a local museum D．Feed invertebrates.阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。

2023年普通高等学校招生全国统一考试(全国乙卷)英语学科第一部分听力(共两节，满分30分)做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。

录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。

第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分，满分1.5分)听下面5段对话。

每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。

听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。

每段对话仅读一遍。

例：How much is the shirt?A. £19.15.B. £9.18.C. £9.15.答案是C。

1. Where does the conversation probably take place?A. In the book store.B. In the register office.C. In the dorm building.2. What is the weather like now?A. Sunny.B. Cloudy.C. Rainy.3. What does the man want to do on the weekend?A. Do some gardening.B. Have a barbecue.C. Go fishing.4. What are the speakers talking about?A. A new office.B. A change of their jobs.C. A former colleague.5. What do we know about Andrew?A. He’s optimistic.B. He’s active.C. He’s shy.第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5分，满分22.5分)听下面5段对话或独白。

每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。

听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟;听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间，每段对话或独白读两遍。

2023年全国高考甲卷英语真题（解析版）第一部分听力(共两节，满分30分)做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。

录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。

第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分，满分1.5分)听下面5段对话。

每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。

听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。

每段对话仅读一遍。

1.Where does the conversation probably take place?A.In the book store.B.In the register office.C.In the dorm building.2.What is the weather like now?A.Sunny.B.Cloudy.C.Rainy.3.What does the man want to do on the weekend?A.Do some gardening.B.Have a barbecue.C.Go fishing.4.What are the speakers talking about?A.A new office.B.A change of their jobs.C.A former colleague.5.What do we know about Andrew?A.He’s optimistic.B.He’s active.C.He’s shy.第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5分，满分22.5分)听下面5段对话或独白。

每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。

听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟;听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间，每段对话或独白读两遍。

听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。

6.Which of the following does the woman dislike?A.The bedroom.B.The sitting room.C.The kitchen.7.What does the woman suggest they do next?A.Go to another agency.B.See some other flats.C.Visit the neighbours.听第7段材料，回答第8、9题。

2022年普通高等学校招生全国统一考试（新高考全国Ⅰ卷）英语本试卷共10页，满分120分。

考试用时120分钟。

注意事项：1. 答卷前，考生务必用黑色字迹钢笔或签字笔将自己的姓名、考生号、考场号和座位号填写在答题卡上。

用2B铅笔将试卷类型（A）填涂在答题卡相应位置上。

将条形码横贴在答题卡右上角“条形码粘贴处”。

因笔试不考听力，选择题从第二部分的“阅读”开始，试题序号从“21”开始。

2. 作答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目选项的答案信息点涂黑；如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案，答案不能答在试卷上。

3. 非选择题必须用黑色字迹钢笔或签字笔作答，答案必须写在答题卡各题目指定区域内相应位置上；如需改动，先划掉原来的答案，然后再写上新的答案；不准使用铅笔和涂改液，不按以上要求作答的答案无效。

4. 考生必须保持答题卡的整洁：考试结束后，将试卷和答题卡一并交回。

第二部分阅读（共两节，满分50分）第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分）阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。

AGrading Policies for Introduction to LiteratureGrading Scale90-100, A; 80-89, B; 70-79, C; 60-69, D; Below 60, E.Essays（60%）Your four major essays will combine to form the main part of the grade for this course: Essay 1 =10%; Essay 2=15%; Essay 3=15%; Essay 4=20%Group Assignments（30%）Students will work in groups to complete four assignments（作业）during the course. All the assignments will be submitted by the assigned date through Blackboard, our online learning and course management system.Daily Work/In-Class Writings and Tests/Group Work/Homework（10%）Class activities will vary from day to day, but students must be ready to complete short in-class writings or tests drawn directly from assigned readings or notes from the previous class' lecture/discussion, so it is important to take careful notes during class. Additionally, from time to time I will assign group work to be completed in class or short assignments to be completed at home, both of which will be graded.Late WorkAn essay not submitted in class on the due date will lose a letter grade for each class period it is late. If it is not turned in by the 4th day after the due date, it will earn a zero. Daily assignments not completed during class will get a zero. Short writings missed as a result of an excused absence will be accepted.21. Where is this text probably taken from?A. A textbook.B. An exam paper.C. A course plan.D. An academic article.22. How many parts is a student's final grade made up of?A. Two.B. Three.C. Four.D. Five.23. What will happen if you submit an essay one week after the due date?A. You will receive a zero.B. You will lose a letter grade.C. You will be given a test.D. You will have to rewrite it.BLike most of us, I try to be mindful of food that goes to waste. The arugula（芝麻菜）was to make a nice green salad, rounding out a roast chicken dinner. But I ended up working late. Then friends called with a dinner invitation. I stuck the chicken in the freezer. But as days passed, the arugula went bad. Even worse, I had unthinkingly bought way too much; I could have made six salads with what I threw out.In a world where nearly 800 million people a year go hungry, "food waste goes against the moral grain," as Elizabeth Royte writes in this month's cover story. It's jaw-dropping how much perfectly good food is thrown away—from “ugly"（but quite eatable）vegetables rejected by grocers to large amounts of uneaten dishes thrown into restaurant garbage cans.Producing food that no one eats wastes the water, fuel, and other resources used to grow it. That makes food waste an environmental problem. In fact, Royte writes, "if food waste were a country, it would be the third largest producer of greenhouse gases in the world."If that's hard to understand, let's keep it as simple as the arugula at the back of my refrigerator. Mike Curtin sees my arugula story all the time —but for him, it's more like 12 bones of donated strawberries nearing their last days. Curtin is CEO of DC Central Kitchen in Washington, D.C., which recovers food and turns it into healthy meals. Last year it recovered more than 807,500 pounds of food by taking donations and collecting blemished（有瑕疵的）produce that otherwise would have rotted in fields. And the strawberries? V olunteers will wash, cut, and freeze or dry them for use in meals down the road.Such methods seem obvious, yet so often we just don't think. "Everyone can play a part in reducing waste, whether by not purchasing more food than necessary in your weekly shopping or by asking restaurants to not include the side dish you won't eat," Curtin says.24. What does the author want to show by telling the arugula story?A. We pay little attention to food waste.B. We waste food unintentionally at times.C. We waste more vegetables than meat.D. We have good reasons for wasting food.25. What is a consequence of food waste according to the text?A. Moral decline.B. Environmental harm.C. Energy shortage.D. Worldwide starvation.26. What does Curtin's company do?A. It produces kitchen equipment.B. It turns rotten arugula into clean fuel.C. It helps local farmers grow fruitsD. It makes meals out of unwanted food.27. What does Curtin suggest people do?A. Buy only what is needed.B. Reduce food consumption.C. Go shopping once a week.D. Eat in restaurants less often.CThe elderly residents（居民）in care homes in London are being given hens to look after to stop them feeling lonely.The project was dreamed up by a local charity（慈善组织）to reduce loneliness and improve elderly people's wellbeing, It is also being used to help patients suffering dementia, a serious illness of the mind. Staff in care homes have reported a reduction in the use of medicine where hens are in use.Among those taking part in the project is 80-year-old Ruth Xavier. She said: “I used to keep hens when I was younger and had to prepare their breakfast each morning before I went to school."I like the project a lot. I am down there in my wheelchair in the morning letting the hens outand down there again at night to see they've gone to bed."It's good to have a different focus. People have been bringing their children in to see the hens and residents come and sit outside to watch them. I'm enjoying the creative activities, and it feels great to have done something useful."There are now 700 elderly people looking after hens in 20 care homes in the North East, and the charity has been given financial support to roll it out countrywide.Wendy Wilson, extra care manager at 60 Penfold Street, one of the first to embark on the project, said: "Residents really welcome the idea of the project and the creative sessions. We are looking forward to the benefits and fun the project can bring to people here."Lynn Lewis, director of Notting Hill Pathways, said: "We are happy to be taking part in the project. It will really help connect our residents through a shared interest and creative activities."28. What is the purpose of the project?A. To ensure harmony in care homes.B. To provide part-time jobs for the aged.C. To raise money for medical research.D. To promote the elderly people's welfare.29. How has the project affected Ruth Xavier?A. She has learned new life skills.B. She has gained a sense of achievement.C. She has recovered her memory.D. She has developed a strong personality.30. What do the underlined words "embark on" mean in paragraph 7?A. Improve.B. Oppose.C. Begin.D. Evaluate.31. What can we learn about the project from the last two paragraphs?A. It is well received.B. It needs to be more creative.C. It is highly profitable.D. It takes ages to see the results.DHuman speech contains more than 2,000 different sounds, from the common "m" and "a" to the rare clicks of some southern African languages. But why are certain sounds more common than others? A ground-breaking, five-year study shows that diet-related changes in human bite led to new speech sounds that are now found in half the world's languages.More than 30 years ago, the scholar Charles Hockett noted that speech sounds called labiodentals, such as "f" and "v", were more common in the languages of societies that ate softer foods. Now a team of researchers led by Damián Blasi at the University of Zurich, Switzerland, has found how and why this trend arose.They discovered that the upper and lower front teeth of ancient human adults were aligned（对齐）, making it hard to produce labiodentals, which are formed by touching the lower lip to the upper teeth. Later, our jaws changed to an overbite structure（结构）, making it easier to produce such sounds.The team showed that this change in bite was connected with the development of agriculture in the Neolithic period. Food became easier to chew at this point. The jawbone didn't have to do as much work and so didn't grow to be so large.Analyses of a language database also confirmed that there was a global change in the sound of world languages after the Neolithic age, with the use of "f" and "v" increasing remarkably during the last few thousand years. These sounds are still not found in the languages of many hunter-gatherer people today.This research overturns the popular view that all human speech sounds were present when human beings evolved around 300,000 years ago. "The set of speech sounds we use has not necessarily remained stable since the appearance of human beings, but rather the huge variety of speech sounds that we find today is the product of a complex interplay of things like biological change and cultural evolution," said Steven Moran, a member of the research team.32. Which aspect of the human speech sound does Damián Blasi's research focus on?A. Its variety.B. Its distribution.C. Its quantity.D. Its development.33. Why was it difficult for ancient human adults to produce labiodentals?A. They had fewer upper teeth than lower teeth.B. They could not open and close their lips easily.C. Their jaws were not conveniently structured.D. Their lower front teeth were not large enough.34. What is paragraph 5 mainly about?A. Supporting evidence for the research results.B. Potential application of the research findings.C. A further explanation of the research methods.D. A reasonable doubt about the research process.35. What does Steven Moran say about the set of human speech sounds?A. It is key to effective communication.B. It contributes much to cultural diversity.C. It is a complex and dynamic system.D. It drives the evolution of human beings.第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。

绝密★启用前2020年普通高等学校招生全国统一考试·全国I 卷（山东）英语注意事项：1．答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上。

2．回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。

如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。

回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上，写在本试卷上无效。

3．考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。

第一部分阅读（共两节，满分50分）第一节（共15小题：每小题2.5分，满分37.5分）阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A 、B 、C 、D 四个选项中选出最佳选项。

APOETRY CHALLENGEWrite a poem about how courage,determination,and strength have helped you face challenges in your life .Prizes3Grand Prizes :Trip to Washington,D .C .for each of three winners,a parent and one other person of the winner’s choice .Trip includes round-trip air tickets,hotel stay for two nights,and tours of the National Air and Space Museum and the office of National Geographic World .6First Prizes :The book Sky Pioneer:APhotobiography of Amelia Earhart signed by author Corinne Szabo and pilot Linda Finch .50Honorable Mentions :Judges will choose up to 50honorable mention winners,who will each receive a T-shirt in memory of Earhart’s final flight .RulesFollow all rules carefully to prevent disqualification .■Write a poem using 100words or fewer .Your poem can be any format ,any number oflines .■Write by hand or type on a single sheet of paper .You may use both the front and back ofthe paper .■On the same sheet of paper,write or type your name,address,telephone number,and birth date .■Mail your entry to us by October 31this year .1.How many people can each grand prize winner take on the free trip?A .Two .B .Three .C .Four .D .Six .2.What will each of the honorable mention winners get?A .A plane ticket .B .A book by Corinne Szabo .C .A special T-shirt .D .A photo of Amelia Earhart .3.Which of the following will result in disqualification?A .Typing your poem out .B .Writing a poem of 120words .C .Using both sides of the paper .D .Mailing your entry on October 30.BJenifer Mauer has needed more willpower than the typical college student to pursue her goal of earning a nursing degree .That willpower bore fruit when Jennifer graduated from University of Wisconsin-Eau Claire and became the first in her large family to earn a bachelor’s degree .Mauer,of Edgar,Wisconsin,grew up on a farm in a family of 10children .Her dad worked at a job away from the farm,and her mother ran the farm with the kids .After high school,Jennifer attended a local technical college,working to pay her tuition （学费）,because there was no extra money set aside for a college education .After graduation,she worked to help her sisters and brothers pay for their schooling .Jennifer now is married and has three children of her own .She decided to go back to college to advance her career and to be able to better support her family while doing something she loves:nursing .She chose the UW-Eau Claire program at Ministry Saint------------在-------------------此-------------------卷-------------------上--------------------答--------------------题--------------------无-------------------效----------------毕业学校_____________姓名________________考生号__________________________________________Joseph’s Hospital in Marshfield because she was able to pursue her four-year degree close to home.She could drive to class and be home in the evening to help with her kids.Jenifer received great support from her family as she worked to earn her degree:Her husband worked two jobs to cover the bills,and her68-year-old mother helped take care of the children at times.Through it all,she remained in good academic standing and graduated with honors. Jennifer sacrificed（牺牲）to achieve her goal,giving up many nights with her kids and missing important events to study.“Some nights my heart was breaking to have to pick between my kids and studying for exams or papers,”she says.However,her children have learned an important lesson witnessing their mother earn her degree.Jennifer is a first-generation graduate and an inspiration to her family-and that’s pretty powerful.4.What did Jennifer do after high school?A.She helped her dad with his work.B.She ran the family farm on her own.C.She supported herself through college.D.She taught her sisters and brothers at home.5.Why did Jennifer choose the program at Ministry Saint Joseph’s Hospital in Marshfield?A.To take care of her kids easily.B.To learn from the best nurses.C.To save money for her parents.D.To find a well-paid job there.6.What did Jennifer sacrifice to achieve her goal?A.Her health.B.Her time with family.C.Her reputation.D.Her chance of promotion.7.What can we learn from Jenifer’s story?A.Time is money.B.Love breaks down barriers.C.Hard work pays off.cation is the key to success.CIn the mid-1990s,Tom Bissell taught English as a volunteer in Uzbekistan.He left after seven months,physically broken and having lost his mind.A few years later,still attracted to the country,he returned to Uzbekistan to write an article about the disappearance of the Aral Sea.His visit,however,ended up involving a lot more than that.Hence this book,Chasing the Sea:Lost Among the Ghosts of Empire in Central Asia,which talks about a road trip from Tashkent to Karakalpakstan,where millions of lives have been destroyed by the slow drying up of the sea.It is the story of an American travelling to a strange land,and of the people he meets on his way:Rustam,his translator,a lovely24-year-old who picked up his colorful English in California,Oleg and Natasha,his hosts in Tashkent,and a string of foreign aid workers.This is a quick look at life in Uzbekistan,made of friendliness and warmth,but also its darker side of society.In Samarkand,Mr Bissell admires the architectural wonders,while on his way to Bukhara he gets a taste of police methods when suspected of drug dealing.In Ferghana,he attends a mountain funeral（葬礼）followed by a strange drinking party.And in Karakalpakstan,he is saddened by the dust storms,diseases and fishing boats stuck miles from the sea.Mr Bissell skillfully organizes historical insights and cultural references,making his tale a well-rounded picture of Uzbekistan,seen from Western eyes.His judgment and references are decidedly American,as well as his delicate stomach.As the author explains,this is neither a travel nor a history book,or even a piece of reportage.Whatever it is,the result is a fine and vivid description of the purest of Central Asian traditions.8.What made Mr Bissell return to Uzbekistan?A.His friends’invitation.B.His interest in the country.C.His love for teaching.D.His desire to regain health.9.What does the underlined word“that”in paragraph2refer to?A.Developing a serious mental disease.B.Taking a guided tour in Central Asia.C.Working as a volunteer in Uzbekistan.D.Writing an article about the Aral Sea.10.Which of the following best describes Mr Bissell’s road trip in Uzbekistan?A .Romantic .B .EventfulC .Pleasant .D .Dangerous .11.What is the purpose of this text?A .To introduce a book .B .To explain a cultural phenomenon .C .To remember a writer .D .Torecommendatraveldestination .DAccording to a recent study in the Journal of Consumer Research ,both the size and consumption habits of our eating companions can influence our food intake .And contrary to existing research that says you should avoid eating with heavier people who order large portions （份）,it’s the beanpoles with big appetites you really need to avoid .To test the effect of social influence on eating habits,the researchers conducted two experiments .In the first,95undergraduate women were individually invited into a lab to ostensibly （表面上）participate in a study about movie viewership .Before the film began,each woman was asked to help herself to a snack .An actor hired by the researchers grabbed her food first .In her natural state,the actor weighed 105pounds .But in half the cases she wore a specially designed fat suit which increased her weight to 180pounds .Both the fat and thin versions of the actor took a large amount of food .The participants followed suit,taking more food than they normally would have .However,they took significantly more when the actor was thin .For the second test,in one case the thin actor took two pieces of candy from the snack bowls .In the other case,she took 30pieces .The results were similar to the first test:the participants followed suit but took significantly more candy when the thin actor took 30pieces .The tests show that the social environment is extremely influential when we’re making decisions .If this fellow participant is going to eat more,so will I .Call it the “I’ll have what she’s having”effect .However,we’ll adjust the influence .If an overweight person is having a large portion,I’ll hold back a bit because I see the results of his eating habits .But if a thin person eats a lot,I’ll follow suit .If he can eat much and keep slim,why can’t I?12.What is the recent study mainly about?A .Food safety .B .Movie viewership .C .Consumer demand .D .Eating behavior .13.What does the underlined word “beanpoles”in paragraph 1refer to?A .Big eaters .B .Overweight persons .C .Picky eaters .D .Tall thin persons .14.Why did the researchers hire the actor?A .To see how she would affect the participants .B .To test if the participants could recognize her .C .To find out what she would do in the two tests .D .To study why she could keep her weight down .15.On what basis do we “adjust the influence”according to the last paragraph?A .How hungry we are .B .How slim we want to be .C .How we perceive others .D .How we feel about the food .第二节（共5小题：每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。

2024年普通高等学校招生全国统一考试（新课标Ⅰ卷）英语学科姓名________________准考证号________________全卷共12页，满分150分，考试时间120分钟。

考生注意：1.答题前，请务必将自己的姓名、准考证号用黑色字迹的签字笔或钢笔分别填写在试题卷和答题纸规定的位置上。

2.答题时，请按照答题纸上“注意事项”的要求，在答题纸相应的位置上规范作答，在本试题卷上的作答一律无效。

第一部分听力（共两节，满分30分）做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。

录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题纸上。

第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）听下面5段对话。

每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。

听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。

每段对话仅读一遍。

例：How much is the shirt?A.£19.15.B.£9.18.C.£9.15.答案是C。

1.【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】What is Kate doing?A.Boarding a flight.B.Arranging a trip.C.Seeing a friend off.2.【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】What are the speakers talking about?A.A pop star.B.An old song.C.A radio program.3.【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】What will the speakers do today?A.Go to an art show.B.Meet the man's aunt.C.Eat out with Mark.4.【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】What does the man want to do?A.Cancel an order.B.Ask for a receipt.C.Reschedule a delivery.5.【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】When will the next train to Bedford leave?A.At9:45.B.At10:15.C.At11:00.第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）听下面5段对话或独白。

2022年普通高等学校招生全国统一考试英语本试题共10页,满分120分。

考试用时120分钟。

注意事项：1. 答卷前,考生务必用黑色字迹钢笔或签字笔将自己地姓名，考生号，考场号和座位号填写在答题卡上。

用2B铅笔将试题类型(A)填涂在答题卡相应位置上。

将款形码横贴在答题卡右上角“款形码粘贴处”。

因笔试不考听力,选择题从第二部分地“阅读”开始,试题序号从“21”开始。

2. 作答选择题时,选出每小题结果后,用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目选项地结果信息点涂黑;如需改动,用橡皮擦干净后,再选涂其他结果,结果不能答在试题上。

3. 非选择题一定用黑色字迹钢笔或签字笔作答,结果一定写在答题卡各题目指定区域内相应位置上;如高改动,先划掉原来地结果,然后再写上新地结果;不准使用铅笔和涂改液,不按以上要求作答地结果无效。

4. 考生一定保持答题卡地整洁：考试结束后,将试题和符题卡一并交回。

第二部分阅读(共两节,满分50分)第一节(共15小题：每小题2.5分,满分37.5分)阅读下面短文,从每题所给地A，B，C，D四个选项中选出最佳选项。

AGrading Policies for Introduction to LiteratureGrading Scale90-100, A; 80-89, B; 70-79, C; 60-69, D; Below 60, E.Essays (60%)Your four major essays will combine to form the main part of the grade for this course: Essay 1 = 10%; Essay 2 = 15%; Essay 3 = 15%; Essay 4 = 20%.Group Assignments (30%)Students will work in groups to complete four assignments (作业) during the course. All the assignments will be submitted by the assigned date through Blackboard, our online learning and course management system.Daily Work/In-Class Writings and Tests/Group Work/Homework (10%)Class activities will vary from day to day, but students must be ready to complete short in-class writings or tests drawn directly from assigned readings or notes from the previous class' lecture/discussion, so it is important to take careful notes during class. Additionally, from time to time I will assign group work to be completed in class or short assignments to be completed at home, both of which will be graded.Late WorkAn essay not submitted in class on the due date will lose a letter grade for each class period it is late. If it is notturned in by the 4th day after the due date, it will earn a zero. Daily assignments not completed during class will geta zero. Short writings missed as a result of an excused absence will be accepted.1. Where is this text probably taken from?A. A textbook.B. An exam paper.C. A course plan.D. An academic article.2. How many parts is a student’s final grade made up of?A. Two.B. Three.C. Four.D. Five.3. What will happen if you submit an essay one week after the due date?A. You will receive a zero.B. You will lose a letter grade.C. You will be given a test.D. You will have to rewrite it.【结果】1. C 2. B 3. A【解析】【导语】本文是一篇说明文。

2023年高考英语真题试卷（全国甲卷）一、语言知识运用第一节阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。

阅读理解Where to Eat in BangkokBangkok is a highly desirable destination for food lovers. It has a seemingly bottomless well of dining options. Here are some suggestions on where to start your Bangkok eating adventure.NahmOffering Thai fine dining. Nahm provides the best of Bangkok culinary(烹饪的) experiences. It's the only their restaurant that ranks among the top 10 of the word's 50 best restaurants list. Head Chef David Thompson. Who received a Michelin star for his Loodon-based Thai restaurant of the same name, opened this branch in the Metropolitan Hotel in 2010.Issays Stamese ClubIssaya Siamese Club is internationally know Thai chef Ian Kittichai's first flagship Bangkok restaurant. The menu in this beautiful colonial house includes traditional Thai cuisine combined with modern cooking methods.Bo. tanBo. tan has been making waves in Bangkok's culinary scene since it opened in 2009. Servinghard-to-find Thai dishes in an elegant atmosphere, the restaurant is true to Thai cuisine's roots, yet still manages to add a special twist. This place is good for a candle-lit dinner or a work meeting with colleagues who appreciate fine food. For those extremely hungry there's a large set menu.GagganEarning first place on the lates "Asia's 50 best restaurants" list, progressive Indian restaurant Gaggan is one of the most exciting venues(场所) to arrive in Bangkok in recent years. The best table in this two-story colonial Thai home offers a window right into the kitchen, where you can see chef Gaggan and his staff in action. Culinary theater at its best.1．What do Nahm and Issaya Siamese Club have in common?A．They adp modern cooking methodsB．They have branches in London.C．They have top -class chefs.D．They are based in hotcls.2．Which restaurant offers a large set menu?A．Gaggan.B．Bo. Lan.C．Issaya Siamese Club.D．Nahm.3．What is special about Gaggan?A．It hires staff from India.B．It puts on a play every day.C．It serves hard-to-find local dishes.D．It shows the cooking process to guests.阅读理解Terri Boltonis a dab hand when it comes to DIY(do-it-yourself). Skillde at putting up shelves and piecing together fumiture, she never pays someone else to do a job she can do herself.She credits these skills to her late grandfather and builder Derek Lloyd. From the age of six, Terri, now 26, accompanied Derek to work during her school holidays. A day's work was rewarded with £5 in pocket money. She says: "I'm sure I wasn't much of a help to start with painting the rooms and putting down the flooring throughout the house. It took weeks and is was backbreaking work, but I know he was proud of my skills."Terri, who now rents abhouse with friends in Wandsworth, South West London, says DIY also saves her from losing any deposit when a tenancy(租期)comes to an end. She adds: "I've moved house many times and I always like to personalise my room and put up pictures. So, it's been useful to know how to cover up holes and repaint a room to avoid any charges when I've moved out"With millions of people likely to take on DIY projects over the coming weeks, new research shows that more than half of people are planning to make the most of the long, warm summer days to get jobs done. The average spend per project will be around £823. Two thirds of people aim to improve their comfort while at home. The fifth wish to increase the value of their house. Though DIY has a traditionally been seen as male hobby, the research shows it is women now leading the charge.4．Which is closest in meaning to "a dab hand" in paragraph 1?A．An artist.B．A winner.C．A specialist.D．A pioneer.5．Why did Terri's grandfather give her £5 a day?A．For a birthday gift.B．As a treat for her work.C．To support her DIY projects.D．To encourage her to take up a hobby.6．How did Terri avoid losing the deposit on the house she rented?A．By making it look like before.B．By finishing it herself.C．By splitting the rent with a roommate.D．By cancelling the rental agreement.7．What trend in DIY does the research show?A．It is becoming more costly.B．It is getting more time-consuming.C．It is turning into a seasonal industry.D．It is gaining popularity among females.阅读理解I was about 13 when an uncle gave me a copy of Jostein Gaarder's Sophie's World. It was full of ideas that were new to me, so I spent the summer with my head in and out of that book. It spoke to me and brought me into a world of philosophy(哲学).That love for philosophy lasted until I got to college. Nothing kills the love for philososphy faster than people who think they understand Foucault, Baudrillard, or Confucius better than you—and then try to explain them.Eric weiner's The Socrates Express: In Search of Life Lessons from Dead Philosophers reawakened my love for philosophy. It is not an explanation, but an invitation to think and experience philosophy.Weiner starts each chapter with a scene on a train ride between cities and then frames each philosopher's work in the centext(背景) of one thing they can help us do better. The end result is a read in which we learn to wonder like Socrates, see like Thoreau, listen like Schopenhauer, and have no regrets like Nietzsche. This, more than a book about understanding philosophy, is a book abour learning touse philosophy to improve a life.He makes philosophical thought an appealing exercise that improves the quality of our experiences, and he does so with plenty of humor. Weiner enters into conversation with some of the most importantphilosophers in history, and he becomes part of that crowd in the process by decoding(解读) their massages and adding his own interpretation.The Socrates Express is a fun, sharp book that draws readers in with its apparent simplicity and gradually pulls them in deeper thoughts on desire, loneliness, and aging. The invitation is clear: Weiner wants you to pick up a coffee or tea and sit down with this book. I encourage you to take his offer. It's worth your time, even if time is something we don't have a lot of.8．Who opened the door to philosophy for the author?A．Foucault.B．Eric Weiner.C．Jostein Gaarder D．A college teacher.9．Why does the author list great philosophers in paragraph 4?A．To compare Weiner with them.B．To give examples of great works.C．To praise their writing skills.D．To help readers understand Weiner's book.10．What does the author like about The Socrates Express?A．Its views on history are well-presented.B．Its ideas can be applied to daily life.C．It includes comments from readers.D．It leaves an open ending.11．What does the author think of Weiner's book?A．Objective and plain.B．Daring and ambitious.C．Serious and hard to follow.D．Humorous and straightforward阅读理解Grizzly bears, which may grow to about 2.5m long and weigh over 400kg, occupy a conflicted corner of the American psyche-we revere(敬畏) them even as they give us frightening dreams. Ask the tourists from around the world that flood into Yellowstone National Park what they most hope to see, and the iranswer is often the same: a grizzly bear."Grizzly bears are re-occupying large areas of their former range," says bear biologist Chris Servheen. As grizzly bears expand their range into places where they haven't been seen in a century or more, they're increasingly being sighted by humans.The western half of the U.S. was full of grizzlies when Europeans came, with a rough number of 50,000or more living alongside Native Americans. By the early 1970s, after centuries of cruel and continuous hunting by settlers, 600 to 800 grizzlies remained on a mere 2 percent of their former range in the Northern Rockies. In 1975, grizzlies were listed under the Endangered Species Act.Today, there are about 2,000 or more grizzly bears in the U.S. Their recovery has been so successful that the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service has twice attempted to de-list grizzlies, which would loosen legal protections and allow them to be hunted. Both efforts were overturned due to lawsuits from conservation groups. For now, grizzlies remain listed.Obviously, if precautions(预防) aren't taken, grizzlies can become troublesome, sometimes killing farm animals or walking through yards in search of food. If people remove food and attractants from their yards and campsites, grizzlies will typically pass by without trouble. Putting electric fencing around chicken houses and other farm animal quarters is also highly effective at getting grizzlies away. "Our hope is to have a clean, attractant-free place where bears can pass through without learning bad habits," says James Jonkel, longtime biologist who manages bears in and around Missoula.12．How do Americans look at grizzlies?A．They cause mixed feelings in people.B．They should be kept in national parks.C．They are of high scientific value.D．They are a symbol of American culture.13．What has helped the increase of the grizzly population?A．The European settlers' behavior.B．The expansion of bears' range.C．The protection by law since 1975.D．The support of Native Americans.14．What has stopped the U. S. Fish and Wildlife Service from de-listing grizzlies?A．The opposition of conservation groups.B．The successful comeback of grizzlies.C．The voice of the biologists.D．The local farmers' advocates.15．What can be ierere from the last paragraph?A．Food should be provided for grizzlies.B．People can live in harmony with grizzlies.C．A special path should be built for grizzlies.D．Technology can be introduced to protect grizzlies.二、阅读理解第二节根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。

全国卷一、听力理解（共25小题，每小题2分，满分50分）Section AIn this section, you will hear 5 short conversations. At the end of each conversation, a question will be asked about what was said. Both the conversation and the question will be spoken only once. After each question there will be a pause. During the pause, you must read the four choices marked A), B), C) and D), and decide which is the best answer. Then mark the corresponding letter on Answer Sheet 1 with a single line through the centre.1. A) The woman doesn't want to go to the party.B) The man is going to the party alone.C) The woman will go to the party with the man.D) The man will invite the woman to the party.2. A) The woman has never eaten at the restaurant.B) The woman thinks the restaurant is expensive.C) The woman will go to the restaurant with the man.D) The man will eat at the restaurant alone.3. A) The man will help the woman find her brother.B) The woman's brother is at the station.C) The woman's brother will arrive at 5:00 p.m.D) The woman will meet her brother at the station.4. A) The woman has a good memory.B) The man is trying to remember the name.C) The woman can't remember the name.D) The man is going to write down the name.5. A) The man is a doctor.B) The woman is a nurse.C) The man is a patient.D) The woman is a doctor.Section BIn this section, you will hear 5 long conversations. At the end of each conversation, there will be some questions. Both the conversation and the questions will be spoken only once. After you hear a question, you must choose the best answer from the four choices marked A), B), C) and D). Then mark the corresponding letter on Answer Sheet 1 with a single line through the centre.6. What is the main topic of the conversation?A) How to improve memory.B) The importance of good memory.C) Different types of memory.D) The woman's memory problem.7. According to the man, what is one way to improve memory?A) Reading more books.B) Practicing meditation.C) Eating healthy food.D) Getting enough sleep.8. What is the woman's suggestion for improving memory?A) Taking memory tests.B) Writing down important information.C) Using flashcards.D) Joining a memory club.9. How does the man feel about the woman's suggestion?A) He agrees with her.B) He doesn't think it will work.C) He is unsure about it.D) He thinks it's too difficult.10. What is the woman's final piece of advice?A) She suggests the man read more.B) She recommends the man take a break.C) She advises the man to get a good night's sleep.D) She tells the man to exercise regularly.二、单项填空（共15小题，每小题2分，满分30分）11. The weather is so hot; ___________ it is difficult to stay outside for long.A) thereforeB) howeverC) otherwiseD) besides12. She has a lot of friends, ___________ she often feels lonely.A) althoughB) becauseC) ifD) unless13. The teacher said that the exam would be ___________ on Friday, but now it's canceled.A) plannedB) expectedC) scheduledD) arranged14. ___________ the hard work, he would have passed the exam.A) If it were not forB) Had it not been forC) Were it not forD) If it had not been for15. The movie was so boring that ___________ I fell asleep.A) almostB) nearlyC) hardlyD) barely16. She ___________ her homework when the phone rang.A) was doingB) has doneC) had doneD) had been doing17. I don't know ___________ he will come to the party.A) whetherB) thatC) ifD) as18. ___________ you can't find your keys, try looking under the sofa.A) In caseB) BecauseC) IfD) Although19. The book is so interesting ___________ I couldn't put it down.A) thatB) whichC) whoD) whom20. He has a good job, ___________ he earns a lot of money.A) butB) becauseC) althoughD) so21. I ___________ you if I had known you were coming.A) would have toldB) had toldC) will tellD) tell22. The plane ___________ in 10 minutes, so we have to hurry.A) is landingB) has landedC) landedD) will land23. I ___________ the book you gave me, but I lost it.A) had readB) readC) have readD) was reading24. The students were ___________ when the teacher came into the classroom.A) speakingB) talkedC) talkingD) spoke25. She ___________ so much that she couldn't walk.A) laughedB) had laughedC) was laughingD) laughed out三、完形填空（共20小题，每小题2分，满分40分）In the small town of Greenfield, there was once a beautiful park thatthe townspeople loved. The park had a lake, a playground, and many trees. However, over time, the park fell into disrepair.One day, a young man named Alex decided to do something about it. He noticed the park every time he passed by and thought, "This place needs help." Alex began to volunteer his time to clean up the park. He removed trash, painted benches, and planted new trees.As Alex worked, he realized that the park needed more than just physical help. It needed people to care for it. He started a community groupcalled "Friends of Greenfield Park." The group met every weekend to work on different projects, such as building a new playground and repairing the bridge over the lake.The people of Greenfield soon noticed the changes. The park looked cleaner, the playground was safer, and the lake was no longer polluted. The community began to take pride in their park again.One day, Alex received a letter from the mayor. It thanked him for his hard work and offered him a job as the park manager. Alex was surprised but happy to accept the position. He knew that he could make a real difference in the lives of the people of Greenfield.As Alex continued to work, he learned that the park was more than just a place to play. It was a place where people could come together and build community. He organized events such as concerts, picnics, and festivals, which brought people of all ages together.The park became a symbol of hope and change for the people of Greenfield. It showed them that even one person could make a difference. Alex'sstory spread throughout the town, and soon people were volunteeringtheir time to help in other ways.In the end, the park was more beautiful than ever. It was a place where people could come together, laugh, and make memories. And it all started with one young man's dream to make a difference.26. What was the problem with the park in the beginning?A) It was too small.B) It was not well-maintained.C) It was not accessible to everyone.D) It had too many trees.27. Why did Alex decide to volunteer his time to clean up the park?A) He wanted to earn money.B) He was looking for a job.C) He wanted to help the community.D) He was bored.28. What did Alex do to improve the park?A) He built a new playground.B) He planted new trees.C) He started a community group.D) He organized events.29. How did the people of Greenfield react to the changes in the park?A) They were angry.B) They were indifferent.C) They were grateful.D) They were disappointed.30. What was the role of the community in improving the park?A) They were responsible for cleaning it.B) They were responsible for maintaining it.C) They were responsible for organizing events.D) They were responsible for making decisions.31. What was Alex's dream for the park?A) To make it the largest park in the town.B) To make it a place where people could come together.C) To make it a place where only children could play.D) To make it a place where only adults could relax.32. What was the most significant change that happened in the park?A) The playground was rebuilt.B) The bridge over the lake was repaired.C) The community became more involved.D) The park became a popular tourist destination.33. Why did the mayor offer Alex a job as the park manager?A) He was looking for a new manager.B) He wanted to thank Alex for his hard work.C) He thought Alex was qualified for the job.D) He wanted to move Alex to a different department.34. What did Alex learn about the park as he continued to work?A) It was only a place to play.B) It was a place where people could come together and build community.C) It was a place where only children could play.D) It was a place where only adults could relax.35. How did Alex's story affect the people of Greenfield?A) They were inspired to help other parks.B) They were inspired to help the community in other ways.C) They were inspired to start their own community groups.D) They were inspired to become park managers.四、阅读理解（共20小题，每小题2分，满分40分）Section ARead the following passage and answer the questions below.The internet has revolutionized the way we live, work, and communicate. It has brought us incredible benefits, such as easy access to information, instant communication, and global connectivity. However, it has also brought challenges, such as cyberbullying, privacy concerns, and information overload.One of the biggest challenges of the internet is cyberbullying. Cyberbullying occurs when someone uses the internet to harass, threaten, or intimidate another person. It can happen on social media platforms, forums, and even through email. Cyberbullying can have severe consequences, including emotional distress, anxiety, and depression.Another challenge is privacy concerns. With the advent of social media, we have become more open about our personal lives. However, this has also made us more vulnerable to data breaches and identity theft. Companies often collect and sell our personal information without our consent, leading to potential risks.Information overload is another problem caused by the internet. With so much information available, it can be difficult to determine what is accurate and reliable. This can lead to confusion and frustration.Despite these challenges, the internet remains a powerful tool that can be used for good. It can be used to educate, entertain, and connect with others. However, it is important to be aware of the potential risks and take steps to protect ourselves.36. What is one of the biggest challenges of the internet?A) Privacy concernsB) CyberbullyingC) Information overloadD) Instant communication37. What is the main cause of cyberbullying?A) Social mediaB) ForumsC) EmailD) All of the above38. What are the potential consequences of cyberbullying?A) Emotional distressB) AnxietyC) DepressionD) All of the above39. What is one of the main challenges of the internet?A) Easy access to informationB) Privacy concernsC) Global connectivityD) Instant communication40. How can the internet be used for good?A) To educateB) To entertainC) To connect with othersD) All of the aboveSection BRead the following passage and answer the questions below.The importance of exercise cannot be overstated. It is essential for maintaining good health and preventing chronic diseases. Regularexercise can improve cardiovascular health, strengthen bones and muscles, and improve mental health.There are many different types of exercise, including aerobic exercise, strength training, and flexibility training. Aerobic exercise, such as running, swimming, and cycling, increases heart rate and improves cardiovascular health. Strength training, such as lifting weights, helps build muscle and bone density. Flexibility training, such as yoga and stretching, improves range of motion and reduces the risk of injury.It is recommended that adults engage in at least 150 minutes ofmoderate-intensity aerobic exercise or 75 minutes of vigorous-intensity aerobic exercise per week. In addition, it is important to include strength training exercises at least two days per week.While exercise is beneficial for everyone, it is especially importantfor older adults. Regular exercise can help prevent falls, maintain independence, and improve quality of life.41. What is the main purpose of the passage?A) To explain the benefits of exercise.B) To describe different types of exercise.C) To recommend specific exercises for older adults.D) To discuss the importance of exercise for cardiovascular health.42. What are the benefits of aerobic exercise?A) It improves cardiovascular health.B) It strengthens bones and muscles.C) It improves mental health.D) All of the above43. What is the recommended amount of aerobic exercise for adults?A) 30 minutes per dayB) 150 minutes per weekC) 75 minutes per weekD) 300 minutes per week44. What is the main benefit of strength training?A) It improves cardiovascular health.B) It strengthens bones and。

2024年高考全国甲卷英语试题和答案第一部分听力（共两节,满分30分）第一节（共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分）听下面5段对话。

每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。

听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。

每段对话仅读一遍。

1.Where are the speakers going?A.A new restaurant.B.A convenience store.C.Their office.2.When is the class presentation according to Vicky?A.On Thursday.B.On Wednesday.C.On Tuesday.3.Why does the woman make the call?A.To check the price.B.To make an apology.C.To cancel her order.4.What is the probable relationship between the speakers?A.Husband and wife.B.Boss and employee.C.Salesperson and customer.5.What are the speakers mainly talking about?A.Their move to a new place.B.Tom's friends at school.C.A sports center.第二节（共15小题;每小题1.5分,满分22.5分）听下面5段对话或独白。

每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。

听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。

每段对话或独白读两遍。

听第6段材料,回答第6、7题。

2019年普通高等学校招生全国统一考试英语注意事项:1．答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、考生号等填写在答题卡和试卷指定位置上。

2．回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。

如需改动,用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。

回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上，写在本试卷上无效。

3．考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。

第一部分听力（共两节,满分30分）做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。

录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。

第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分)听下面5段对话。

每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。

听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。

每段对话仅读一遍.例：How much is the shirt?A. £19.15 。

B。

£9。

18。

C. £9.15。

答案是C。

1. Where does this conversation take place?A。

In a classroom。

B。

In a hospital。

C. In a museum。

2。

What does Jack want to do?A. Take fitness classes.B。

Buy a pair of gym shoes.C. Change his work schedule。

3. What are the speakers talking about?A. What to drink。

B. Where to meet。

C。

When to leave。

4。

What is the relationship between the speakers?A。

Colleagues。

B。

Classmates. C. Strangers.5。

Why is Emily mentioned in the conversation？A. She might want a ticket.B。

2018年高考英语试题（全国卷1）第二部分阅读理解(共两节，满分40分)第一节(共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分)AWashington, D.C.Bicycle ToursCherry Blossom Bike Tour in Washington, D.C.Duration TourThis small group bike tour is a fantastic way to see a world-famous cherry trees with beautiful flowers of Washington,D.C.Your guide will provide a history lesson about the trees and the famous monuments where they blossom.Reserve your spot before availability—the cherry blossoms—disappear!Washington Capital Monuments Bicycle TourDuration:3hours(4miles)Join a guided bike tour and view some of the most popular monuments in Washington, D.C. Explore the monuments and memorials on the National Mall as your guide shares unique facts and history at each stop.Guided tour includes bike,helmet,cookies and bottled water.Capital City Bike Tour In Washington, D.C.Duration:3hoursMorning or Afternoon,this bike tour is the perfect tour for D.C.newcomers and locals looking to experience Washington, D.C.in a healthy way with minimum effort.Knowledgeable guides will entertain you with the most,interesting stories about Presidents,Congress,memorials,and parks.Comfortable bikes and a smooth tour route(路线）make cycling between the sites fun and relaxing. Washington Capital Sites at Night Bicycle TourDuration:3hours(7miles)Join a small group bike tour for an evening of exploration in the heart of Washington,D.C.Get up close to the monuments and memorials as your bike the sites of Capitol Hill and the National Mall.Frequent stops are made for photo taking as your guide offers unique facts and history.Tour includes bike,helmet,and bottled water.All riders are equipped with reflective vests and safety lights.21.Whichtour do you need to book in advance?A.Cherry Blossom like Tour in Washington,D.C.B.Washington capital Monuments Bicycle Tour.C.Capital City Bike Tour in Washington,D.C.D.Washington Capital Sites at Night Bicycle Tour.22.What will you do on the Capital City Bike Tour?A.Meet famous people.B.Go to a national park.C.Visit well-known museums.D.Enjoy interesting stories.23.Which of the following does the bicycle tour at night provide?A.City maps.B.Cameras.C.MealsD.Safety lightsBGood Morning Britain’ｓS usannaReid is used to grilling guests on the sofa every morning,but。

2018年高考英语真题试卷（全国卷Ⅰ含答案）第一节(共15小题:每小题2分,满分30分)阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中,选出最佳选项。

AWashington, D. C Bicycle ToursCherry Blossom Bike Tour in Washington, D.C.Duration:3 hoursThis small group bike tour is a fantastic way to see the world famous cherry trees with beautiful flowers of Washington，D.C. Your guide will provide a history lesson about thetrees and the famous monuments where they blossom. Reserve your spot before availability-and the cherry blossoms-disappear！Washington Capital Monuments Bicycle TourDuration: 3 hours(4 miles)Join a guided bike tour and view some of the most popular monuments in Washington, D.C.Explore the monuments and memorials on the National Mall as your guide shares uniquefacts and history at each stop. Guided tour includes bike, helmet, cookies and bottled water.Capital City Bike Tour in Washington, D. CDuration: 3 hoursMorning or Afternoon, this bike tour is the perfect tour for D. C. newcomers and locals looking to experience Washington, D.C. in a healthy way with minimum effort. Knowledgeable guides will entertain you with the most interesting stories about Presidents，Congress, memorials, and parks. Comfortable bikes and a smooth tour route(路线)make cycling between the sites fun and relaxing.Washington Capital Sites at Night Bicycle TourDuration:3 hours (7 miles)Join a small group bike tour for an evening of exploration in the heart of Washington, D.C.Get up close to the monuments and memorials as you bike the sites of Capitol Hill and theNational Mall. Frequent stops are made for photo taking as your guide offers unique factsand history. Tour includes bike, helmet, and bottled water. All riders are equipped with reflective vests and safety lights.21. Which tour do you need to book in advance?A Cherry Blossom Bike Tour in Washington, D.C.B Washington Capital Monuments Bicycle Tour.C Capital City Bike Tour in Washington, D. CD Washington Capital Sites at Night Bicycle Tour.22. What will you do on the Capital City Bike Tour?A Meet famous people.B Go to a national park.C Visit well-known museums.D Enjoy interesting stories.23. Which of the following does the bicycle tour at night provide？ACity maps.BCameras.CMeals.DSafety lights.BGood Morning Britain's Susanna Reid is used to grilling guests on the sofa every morning，but she is cooking up a storm in her latest role - showing families how to preparedelicious and nutritious meals on a tight budget。