2020?2021学年第一学期高三年级期中质量监测
英语试卷
（考试时间：上午10：00——12：00）
说明：本试卷为闭卷笔答，答题时间120分钟，满分150分（不含听力）。请将第一卷试题答案填在第二卷卷首的相应位置。
第I卷
第一部分听力（共两节，满分30分）
做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转写到答题卡上。
第一节（共5小题;每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。答案写在答题卡上。
例：How much is the shirt?
A. ￡ 19.15.
B. ￡9.18.
C. ￡9.15.
答案是C。
1. Where does the conversation probably take place?
A. In the street.
B. In a supermarket.
C. In the subway station.
2. What are the speakers talking about?
A. A new museum.
B. The woman's job.
C. The national history.
3. What does Sunny do?
A. She's a pet seller.
B. She's a volunteer.
C. She's a zoo keeper.
4. How much did Alex pay for his new jacket?
A. $80.
B. $90.
C. $180.
5. Why does the woman ask for leave?
A. She has a toothache.
B. There is a problem with her work.
C. Her son needs to see the dentist.
第二节（共15小题;每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。答案写在答题卡上。
听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。
6. What will the woman do this weekend?
A. Have a dinner party.
B. Go to the local park.
C. Work in the company.
7. What's the possible relationship between the speakers?
A. Colleagues.
B. Host and guest.
C. Husband and wife. 听第7段材料，回答第8、9题。
8. What are the speakers trying to do?
A. Find a convenience store.
B, Get familiar with a new area.
C. Look for a place to play tennis.
9. What are the speakers going to do next?
A. Ask someone for help.
B. Find the location on a map.
C. Buy a new mobile phone.
听第8段材料，回答第10至12题。
10. Where are the speakers?
A. At a gift store.
B. At a post office.
C. At the woman's office.
11. What does the woman think of boxing up the package?
A. It is unnecessary.
B. It is too expensive.
C. Its price is reasonable.
12. What will the woman do?
A. She will send a regular mail.
B. She might fax a letter this afternoon.
C. She will deliver the letter via overnight mail.
听第9段材料，回答第13至16题。
13. What do the woman’s family like best?
A. Shopping.
B. Travelling.
C. Swimming.
14. Why does the woman like the beaches?
A. They are clean.
B. They are empty.
C. They are quiet.
15. What are the restaurants like according to the woman?
A. Wait time is long.
B. The food is delicious.
C. The waiters are impolite.
16. What advice docs the woman give the man?
A. Improving the bus service.
B. Providing free sightseeing buses.
C. Offering more bike-sharing service.
听第10段材料,回答第17至20题。
17. Who is the announcer?
A. A sports fan.
B. A stadium worker.
C. A soccer player.
18. What’s the purpose of ma king the announcement?
A. To introduce the stadium.
B. To attract more soccer fans.
C. To declare rules to the audience.
19. When can the fans enter the field?
A. At no time.
B. Before the game.
C. After the game.
20. What may happen if the fans don't observe the rules?
A. They may be warned.
B. They may be heavily fined.
C. They may be asked to leave.
第二部分阅读理解（共两节，满分60分）
第一节（共15小题;每小题3分，满分45分），
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。答案写在答题卡上。
Transfer Students — August Orientation （迎新日）Schedule
You and your family are welcome to attend August orientation for a comprehensive introduction to the university, including meeting academic advisors and registering for classes.
Registration TUESDAY ,AUGUST2.0
8:00am - 4:30pm
Get your student ID card at the Campus Service Center at 034 Campus Avenue Building. If you have uploaded a photo for your ID, you'll simply pick up your card; otherwise, staff will take your picture and print the ID card while you wait.
Check into your residence hall （if you're to live on campus）, Your ID card functions as your residence hall room key.
ORIENTATON DAY: WEDNESDAY ,AUGUST21
8:00am - 10:30am Check-in & Welcome
Check in and receive your orientation materials. Explore banking options and open a bank account. You will get welcome from the Vice President of Student Affairs.
11:00am - 11:50am Small Group Meeting - various locations
You will meet your Student Orientation Undergraduate Leader (SOUL) in small groups. Each group will discuss highlights about your possible majors, your questions (about anything) and the volunteer consultants arc ready to help you.
12:00pm - 2:00pm Lunch & Resource Fair
You and your family members can purchase lunch at Armstrong Student Center. During lunch, you'11 learn about university resources and involvement opportunities at the Resource Fair Staff will be available to let you know about the resources and support for the students.
2:00pm-3:25pm Career Advising
Career Center staff will introduce career items and lead an activity to help you begin to identify your career interest and plan your future professions in advance.
3:30pm - 4:00pm Student Life & Campus Safety
Learn about life outside the classroom. Small groups will work together to solve your life challenges. Information about campus safety wilt also be shared.
4:00pm - 4:45pm Community Expectations
A representative from the Office of the Dean of Students will discuss the expectations for you as a member of the community, and address campus values.
5:50pm - 6:00pm Announcements & Closing
'21. What are you required to do on the day of registration?
A. Print the pictures.
B. Live on campus.
C. Get the student ID card
D. Visit the communities.
22. At what time will you expect to learn about your professional development plan?
A. 11:00am.
B. 2:00pm.
C. 3:30pm.
D. 4:00pm.
23. What do you have to pay for according to the text?
A. Getting orientation materials.
B. Accessing academic resources.
C. Consulting the advisors or the staff.
D. Having lunch at Armstrong Student Center.
B
The COVID-19 lockdown worried me. I worried about what the weeks and months ahead might look like. I decided to take the idea of " love the neighbour" seriously, though I had only met them from the kitchen window.
On a Saturday morning, I made a sign that said, **H ave a nice day,“ and stuck it on my kitchen window, with a smiley face. A while later that day, the neighbour living across from me, taped up a sign on the window with a message for us, "Thank you. You too!" We went on like this for a few days, back and forth, like an echo, and I thought of how this would be a nice story for us all: move from strangers in the beginning to good friends in the end.
Somewhere around Day 5, I positioned “Beaker the Muppet" in the window, and they responded with a cute stuffed dog. Then I put a note of a Mary Oliver poem about spring to raise the bar. Maybe I was showing off. Sure enough, no “echo" this time.
The next day, Dewey was barking at their dog in the backyard. I saw one of the guys when I went out to stop my dog. "Sorry, we didn't find a poem," he said. "We meant to," he added, “And then we never did.” "That's okay,"
I replied. And we both went back inside.
During the following days, I also ran into the neighbour in the driveway some times as we walked our dogs, and found the note already started to feel a little silly. What if my notes were a chore to them, and not a charm?
For months, I had avoided my favourite blocks sidewalk that cut through my neighbourhood. Going for walks these days made me sad, or mad, because the story had no good ending.
I kept thinking, “How do I love you, my neighbour, like I'm supposed to?” I have decided after this is all over, I will finally have all my neighbours over for dinner. I will write this invitation on a piece of paper and stick it on my
kitchen window for them to read, for old, bad times ' sake. Maybe we can have a little laugh together about how we tried to be kind. We' 11 say even during the hard time, nothing can lock us.
24. Which of the following can explain the underlined expression "raise the bar" in paragraph 3 ?
A. Have more fun.
B. Make it more difficult.
C. Remove the barrier.
D. Invite them out for a drink.
25. How did the author feel after meeting with her neighbor physically?
A. She became annoyed.
B. She felt relieved.
C. She became uneasy.
D. She felt closer to the neighbour.
26. What can we infer from the text?
A. The idea of "Love the neighbour" kept the author positive.
B. Communication cannot last long without meeting face to face.
C. The author changed the walk routes in order to take a shortcut.
D. A social gathering can solve all the problems of neighbourhood.
27. Which of the following can be the best title for the text?
A. Trust the Next-door Strangers
B. Get "Unlocked" at the Lockdown
C. Unsuccessful lee Breaking Between Neighbours
D. Strangers in the Beginning, Good Friends in the End
C
“Ni Hao! Lao Tie! I am your foreign friend. Just have a bite of our organic apples and place your orders here!” Erik Nilsson, a Swedish traveler, greeted through TikTok livestreams in a village of Jiangxi Province. His appearance online increased that day's sale greatly. After experiencing a special day in the rural area, Erik said jokingly, "I wish I could change my job.”
This village is not alone. Nowadays, China's e-commerce platforms have helped open up the market for Chinese farmers' produce, bringing an increasing number of sales online. This new trend has made livestreaming a new way to rid farmers of poverty, with mobile phones becoming “new farm tools”.
"Everyone has brought their own agricultural products. How can you make the audiences believe that they’re delicious through the screen in front of you? Now, let's feel the look on your face during the livestreaming!" The Farmers , Education Training Center (FETC) in Hainan Province invites professionals such as directors and makeup stylists to teach farmers a variety of skills ranging from short video editing to livestreaming sales skills. "However, at first, only a few villagers had a strong desire. We helped them get training in livestreaming, short video marketing, and other courses. It wasn't fancy, but simple, practical, and effective."
"Everybody, please take a look. This is the best coconut. Taste it." said Pei Yanqin. 59, speaking Mandarin with a strong local accent and communicating smoothly with netizens through her livestreaming software. Just over a year ago, she was one of those villagers with the least intention to get training.
In 2018, the demonstration project of national e-commerce for rural areas was launched. Today, the village has developed eight e-commerce livestreaming courtyards. Some presenters work alone, while others are husband and wife teams. In the next step, the government will train more farmer presenters and develop in the direction of multi-variety sales.
28. What is the purpose of the first paragraph?
A. To lead in the topic.
B. To add to the atmosphere.
C. To introduce culture contrast.
D. To give background knowledge.
29. How did most of the poor farmers first respond to the training?
A. Thrilled.
B. Doubtful.
C. Disappointed.
D. Impressed.
30. Which of the following statements is true according to the text?
A. Erik wants to seek for a new job.
B. E-commerce is a family business.
C. Livestreaming is the best way to remove poverty.
D. Government helps farmers become skilled in marketing online.
31. Where is this text most likely taken from?
A. A travel log.
B. A government report.
C. A research paper.
D. A frontpage article.
D
The more parents talk to their children, the faster those children's vocabularies grow and the better their intelligence develops. Dr. Hart and Dr. Risley published their study in 1995.
They found a close relationship between the number of words a child's parents had spoken to him by the time he was three and his academic success at the age of nine. At three, children born into professional families had heard 30 million more words than those from a poorly performed family. Besides, recent studies show that words should be spoken directly to a child, rather than simply heard in the home. Leaving children in front of the television does not have the same effect. Neither does letting them sit at the feet of academic parents while the grown-ups talk about Plato.
The effects can be seen directly in the brain. Babies are born with about 100 billion neurons （神经元）more or less, and connections between these neurons form at an exponentially（以指数
方式）rising rate in the early years of life. It is the pattern of these connections that determines how well the brain works, and what it learns. By the time a child is three years old, there will be about 1,000 trillion connections in his brain, and that child's experiences continuously determine which are strengthened and which decreased. This process—gradual and irreversible（不可逆的）， has shaped the path of the child's life.
Fortunately, there are tools that can help those silent parents. One such is a Language Environment Analysis （LENA） device. It is like a pedometer, but instead of recording users , walking steps, this device keeps track of words by analysing the speech children hear. Parents use it to monitor and improve their patterns of words, much as a pedometer-wearing couch potato might try to reach 10,000 steps a day. Plus, parents are taught to make the words they speak to their children more enriching. In this way parents can make sure of an enough input.
32. Which factor influences the children's intelligence development most according to the text?
A. The wealth of households.
B. Parents' academic success.
C. Babies' inborn language ability.
D. Effective vocabulary input by parents.
33. What can we learn from paragraph 3?
A. The number of neurons at birth varies a lot.
B. Neurons connections can be decided by experiences.
C. Individual efforts can also shape the kids' development.
D. School education leads to faster increase of the connections.
34. Why is the "pedometer" mentioned in the last paragraph?
A. To give parents two options.
B. To offer two possible solutions.
C. To show the similarity to LENA.
D. To tell the difference from LENA.
35. What should parents do for their babies according to the text?
A. Involve in their games.
B. Share more quality time with them.
C. Enlarge their vocabulary through media.
D. Expose them to being spoken to directly.
第二节（共5小题;每小题3分，满分15分）’
根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。答案写在答题卡上。
It is not just doctors and nurses that work at Children's National Hospital in Michigan. There are also two furry friends on the staff.36.
Their main responsibility is to comfort the young patients at the hospital. Their work is called animal-assisted therapy （疗法）.37. Research shows that animal therapy can lower stress and anxiety levels, increase patient mobility, and provide an alternative focus from pain.
Facility dogs are expertly trained dogs who partner with a facilitator working in a health care, visitation or education setting. They would visit kids for a hug or paw shake. More than just dogs can be animal therapists.38. They are kids' favorites to comfort patients and families through bedside visits, as well as motivating and assisting during certain types of therapy and rehabilitation （修复）.
39. Therapaws of Michigan uses a strict screening agreement to ensure the selection of well-mannered dogs of sound temper and good health. Under the supervision of trained volunteers, these special animals visit patients in a variety of settings: in their inpatient rooms; in waiting rooms and in other settings considered appropriate by hospital staff. Then they were specifically matched to patients based on needs and types.
This year, for safety reasons, the hospital had to pause the animal therapy program. But Allison Proctor still runs her program.40. Even special requests for dog visits outside regularly schedule can be accommodated as long as her team is available.
A. The program focuses on a medical goal
B. Small horses would sometimes hang out
C. Each has an important job as a facility dog
D. It is known to have many positive effects on patients
E. These animals usually have to go through special training
F. Each team had one dog, plus one human in charge of the dog
G. Her commitment to the treatment with the human-animal bond never stops
第三部分语言知识运用（共两节，满分55分）第一节（共20小题;每小题2分，满分40分）阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。答案写在答题卡上。
The morning was dark and cold. Stars twinkled down from the sky and a half 41 was still hanging there. "Varrow, wake up, " Gramps whispered, 42 me gently, "It's sea turtle time." I rubbed my eyes and 43 my way in the dark, dizzy and woozy. Then, the repeated "sea turtle time" 44 me completely.
Gramps and I 45 our heavy waterproof boots over our pajamas and threw rain jackets on our shoulders 46 .
I pushed the front door open and ran out onto the 47 , Gramps not far behind. There, I held my 48 . Thousands of baby sea turtles were 49 out on the endless stretch of sand and racing to the ocean. We took in the amazing scene 50 . But Gramps and I weren't there just to watch. We had a 51 .
52 , we made our way through the mess of broken shells and the little lovely sea turtles to 53 those that needed help. Soon enough, I 54 one. A baby turtle was flipped（翻转） on its back, 55 to roll over no matter how hard it kicked its legs. Reaching my hand down, I gently picked the fragile baby up and flipped it over and got it right back to its 56 to the ocean. "Nice job, Varrow." Gramps patted me on the shoulder, his eyes twinkling and his mouth stretching into a smile. I felt a rush of pride and became even more 57 because of Gramps' compliment for the next few hours. By 7:00, the last sea turtles had crawled into the water and we finally sat down on the soft sand, 58 . We couldn't be more satisfied with our hard work.
As the sun rose from the horizon, golden beams of sunlight stretching ever outwards onto the deep 59 . The colourful world woke up. What a 60 for those in their deep sleep! They missed the amazing natural gifts right under their nose.
41. A. sun B. moon C. ray D. shadow
42. A. waving B. moving C. shaking D. observing
43. A. felt B. pushed C. changed D. made
44. A. covered B. awoke C. struck D. surrounded
45. A. relied on B. gave away C. pulled on D. kicked off
46. A. hurriedly B. formally C. awkwardly D. unwillingly
47. A. board B. boat C. square D. beach
48. A. attention B. breath C. strength D. records
49. A. hatching B. breaking C. sleeping D. sliding
50. A. in response B. in detail C. in horror D. in wonder
51. A. mission B. rest C. curiosity D. secret
52. A. Hopefully B. Luckily C. Carefully D. Confidently
53. A. dig out B. take away C. pass by D. search for
54. A. realised B. released C. stopped D. spotted
55. A. uncertain B. unable C. struggling D. managing
56. A. shell B. desire C. journey D. space
57. A. comfortable B. independent C. touched D, motivated
58. A. exhausted B. curious C. defeated D. astonished
59. A. red B. blue C. island D. ground
60. A. surprise B. relief C. pity D. passion
答题卡
61. 62. 63. 64. 65. . 66. 67. 68. 69. 70. .
第II卷
第二节(共10小题;每小题1.5分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式,答案写在答题卡上。
Nowadays, more and more Chinese are aware of food waste issues. Even young people tend to take home their leftovers when dining out, most of 61 would pack the dish in a doggie bag if the leftovers are still in good shape and there are also a lot left, according to the survey 62 (conduct) by China Youth Daily.The people born in the 1980s or 1990s believe that 63 (save) food is a virtue.
Young people also gave their opinions on how 64 (help) reduce food waste. Some advised restaurants to offer the serving chopsticks, which would be instrumental for customers to pack the leftovers. Others said it might be useful to promote 65 (small) or half portion dishes. Another good 66 (suggest) is that catering businesses give away coupons (优惠券) for customers who clear their plates at dinner.
China launched a campaign against food waste in 2013 and 67 (renew) the call early this year to create an 68 (increasing) prosperous society. We can all play 69 part in reaching the national food waste reduction goal — to reduce food waste 70 50% in the next 10 years.
第四部分写作(共两节，满分35分)
第一节短文改错(共10小题;每小题1分，满分10分)
假定英语课上老师要求同桌之间交换修改作文，请你修改你同桌写的以下作文。文中共有10处语言错误,每句中最多有两处。每处错误仅涉及一个单词的增加、删除或修改。
增加:在缺词处加一个漏字符号(∧),并在其下面写出该加的词。
删除:把多余的词用斜线（\）划掉。
修改:在错的词下划一横线，并在该词下面写出修改后的词。
注意：1.每处错误及其修改均仅限一词；
2.只允许修改10处，多者（从第11处起）不计分。
In order to celebrated National Day and the Mid-Autumn Festival, and we had an 8-day holiday. After it, my classmates and I were talking about how to do during the holiday excitedly. Then we decided to go to help the farmers instead of stay at home. As soon as we arrived at farm, we were attracted by the apples hanging on the branches. We couldn't wait to pick the apples, which were the most interesting work. Particular, we were allowed to choose what we liked best and taste them. We didn't feel boring at all even though the job was tiring. We worked for 5 hours happily unless the sun set.
第二节书面表达（满分25分）
最近,你校组织了 5公里的迷你马拉松（mini-marathon）比赛,请你向21世纪英文报投稿,
介绍比赛的情况。内容包括：
1.时间、地点和参加人员；
2.比赛过程；
3.比赛的意义。
注意：1.词数100左右；
2.可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。
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2020-2021学年第一学期高三年级期中质量监测
英语参考答案及评分建议
（满分150分）
选择题答案
第一部分听力
1. A
2. A
3. B
4. B
5. C
6. B 7, A 8. C 9. A 10. B
1LC 12. B 13.C 14. A 15. B
16. C 17. B 18. C 19. A 20. C
第二部分阅读理解供20小题；每小题3分，满分60分）
21. C 22. B 23. D 24. B 25. C
26. A 27. B 28. A 29. B 30. D
31. D 32. D 33. B 34. C 35. D
36. C 37. D 38. B 39. E 40. G
第三部分语言知识运用（共20小题；每小题2分，满分40分）
41. B 42. C 43. A 44. B 45. C
46. A 47. D 48. B 49. A 50. D
51. A 52. C 53. D 54. D 55. B
56. C 57. D 58. A 59. B 60. C
非选择题答案
第三部分语言知识运用（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
61. whom 62. conducted 63. saving 64. to help 65. smaller
66. suggestion 67. renewed 68. increasingly 69. a 70. by
第四部分写作
第一节（共10小题;每小题1分，满分10分）
第二节（满分25分）
Possible version:
Last Friday witnessed the successful 5K Mini-marathon in our school playground. Approximately 100 athletes, consisting of students, parents and teachers, had taken part in it, all of whom were thrilled to warm up in the early morning. At 9am, the starting gun blasted and off went the eager runners, who, though not professional, tried the very best to finish their first “marathon”. Despite the fact that their results varied a lot, not a single participant quit halfway. Rounds of deafening cheers encouraged them to hold on to the end. Finally, all were awarded medals in praise of their performance.
This event is beneficial not only by enabling the students to work out with bravery and perseverance, but also providing an outlet for students under pressure and form a new bond with their parents and teachers.
书面表达评分标准
第五档：（21?25分）完全完成了试题规定的任务。
覆盖所有内容要点，应用了较多的语法结构和词汇，语法结构或词汇方面有些许错误，但为尽力使用较复杂结构或较高级词汇所致，有效地使用了语句间的连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。完全达到了预期的写作目的。
第四档：（16?20分）
完成了试题规定的任务。
虽漏掉1、2个次重点，应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求，语法结构或词汇方面应用基本准确，些许错误主要是因尝试较复杂语法结构或词汇所致，应用简单的语句间连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。达到了预期的写作目的。
第三档：（11?15分）
基本完成了试题规定的任务。
虽漏掉一些内容，但覆盖了主要内容，应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求，有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，但不影响理解，应用简单的语句间的连接成分，使全文内容连贯。整体而言，基本达到了预期的写作目的。
第二档：（6?10分）
未恰当完成试题规定的任务。
漏掉或未描述清楚一些主要内容，写了一些无关内容，语法结构单调、词汇知识有限，有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响了对写作的理解，较少使用语句间的连接成分，内容缺少连贯性。信息未能清楚地传达给读者。
第一档：（1~5分）
未完成试题规定的任务。
明显遗漏了主要内容，写了一些无关内容，原因可能是未理解试题要求，语法结构单调，词汇知识有限，较多语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响对写作内容的理解，缺乏语句间的连接成分，内容不连贯。信息未能传达给读者。
(0分）未能传达给读者任何信息，内容太少，无法评判；所写的内容均与所要求的内容无关或所写内容无法看清。