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Multiple Choice Questions

Multiple Choice Questions
Multiple Choice Questions

Multiple Choice Questions

1.The net wealth of the aggregate economy is equal to the sum of _________.

(A)all financial assets (B)all real assets (C)all financial and real assets (D)all physical assets

2.Financial assets ______.

(A)directly contribute to the country's productive capacity

(B)indirectly contribute to the country's productive capacity

(C)contribute to the country's productive capacity both directly and indirectly

(D)do not contribute to the country's productive capacity either directly or indirectly

3.T-bills are financial instruments initially sold by ________ to raise funds.

(A)commercial banks (B)the U. S. government

(C) s tate and local governments (D)agencies of the federal government

4.A

5.5% 20-year municipal bond is currently priced to yield 7.2%. For a taxpayer in the 33% marginal tax bracket, this bond would offer an equivalent taxable yield of:

(A) 8.20%. (B)10.75%. (C)11.40%. (D)4.82%.

5.In order for you to be indifferent between the after tax returns on a corporate bond paying 9% and a tax-exempt municipal bond paying 7%, what would your tax bracket need to be?

(A)17.6% (B)27% (C)22.2% (D)19.8%

6.Over the past year you earned a nominal rate of interest of 10 percent on your money. The inflation rate was 5 percent over the same period. The exact actual growth rate of your purchasing power was

(A) 15.5%. (B)10.0%. (C)5.0%. (D)4.8%.

7.You purchased a share of stock for $20. One year later you received $1 as dividend and sold the share for $29. What was your holding period return?

(A)45% (B)50% (C)5% (D)40%

8.The holding period return (HPR) on a share of stock is equal to

(A)the capital gain yield over the period, plus the inflation rate.

(B) t he capital gain yield over the period, plus the dividend yield.

(C) t he current yield, plus the dividend yield.

(D)the dividend yield, plus the risk premium.

9.In words, the real rate of interest is approximately equal to

(A)the nominal rate minus the inflation rate. (B)the inflation rate minus the nominal rate.

(C)the nominal rate times the inflation rate. (E)the nominal rate plus the inflation rate.

10.The holding-period return (HPR) for a stock is equal to

(A)the real yield minus the inflation rate. (B)the nominal yield minus the real yield.

(C)the capital gains yield minus the tax rate. (D)the dividend yield plus the capital gains yield.

11.In the mean-standard deviation graph an indifference curve has a ________ slope.

(A)negative (B)zero (C)positive (D)cannot be determined

12.According to the mean-variance criterion, which one of the following investments dominates

all others?

(A)E(r) = 0.15; Variance = 0.20 (B)E(r) = 0.10; Variance = 0.20

(C)E(r) = 0.10; Variance = 0.25 (D)E(r) = 0.15; Variance = 0.25

13. Consider a risky portfolio, A, with an expected rate of return of 0.15 and a standard deviation

of 0.15, that lies on a given indifference curve. Which one of the following portfolios might

lie on the same indifference curve?

(A)E(r) = 0.15; Standard deviation = 0.20 (B)E(r) = 0.15; Standard deviation = 0.10

(C)E(r) = 0.10; Standard deviation = 0.10 (D)E(r) = 0.20; Standard deviation = 0.15

14. The standard deviation of a portfolio that has 20% of its value invested in a risk-free asset and

80% of its value invested in a risky asset with a standard deviation of 20% is ____%.

(A)18 (B)14 (C)12 (D) 16

15.Assume that a portfolio is invested in three securities. Security 'A' has an expected return of

10%, security 'B' has an expected return of 16%, and security 'C' has an expected return of 7%.

If the portfolio weights are 30%, 50%, and 20% respectively, the expected return on the

portfolio should be ___%.

(A)11.2 (B) (C)10.7 (D) 9.8

16.The Capital Allocation Line can be described as the

(A)investment opportunity set formed with a risky asset and a risk-free asset.

(B)investment opportunity set formed with two risky assets.

(C)line on which lie all portfolios that offer the same utility to a particular investor.

(D)line on which lie all portfolios with the same expected rate of return and different standard

deviations.

17.Which of the following statements regarding the Capital Allocation Line (CAL) is false?

(A)The CAL shows risk-return combinations.

(B)The slope of the CAL equals the increase in the expected return of a risky portfolio per unit

of additional standard deviation.

(C)The slope of the CAL is also called the reward-to-variability ratio.

(D)The CAL is also called the efficient frontier of risky assets in the absence of a risk-free

asset.

18.Given the capital allocation line, an investor's optimal portfolio is the portfolio that

(A)maximizes her expected profit. (B)maximizes her risk.

(C)minimizes both her risk and return. (D)maximizes her expected utility.

19.An investor invests 30 percent of his wealth in a risky asset with an expected rate of return of

0.15 and a variance of 0.04 and 70 percent in a T-bill that pays 6 percent. His portfolio's

expected return and standard deviation are __________ and __________, respectively.

(A)0.114; 0.12 (B)0.087;0.06 (C)0.295; 0.12 (D)0.087; 0.12

20. In the mean-standard deviation graph, the line that connects the risk-free rate and the optimal

risky portfolio, P, is called ______________.

(A)the Security Market Line (B)the Capital Allocation Line

(C)the Indifference Curve (D)the investor's utility line

21.Market risk is also referred to as

(A)systematic risk, diversifiable risk. (B)systematic risk, nondiversifiable risk.

(C)unique risk, nondiversifiable risk. (D)unique risk, diversifiable risk.

22.Beta is the measure of

(A) f irm specific risk. (B)diversifiable risk. (C)market risk. (D)unique risk.

23. The risk that can be diversified away is

(A)firm specific risk. (B)beta. (C)systematic risk. (D)market risk.

24.Other things equal, diversification is most effective when

(A)securities' returns are uncorrelated. (B)securities' returns are positively correlated.

(C)securities' returns are high. (D)securities' returns are negatively correlated.

25.Consider an investment opportunity set formed with two securities that are perfectly negatively

correlated. The global minimum variance portfolio has a standard deviation that is always

(A)greater than zero. (B)equal to zero.

(C)equal to the sum of the securities' standard deviations. (D)equal to -1.

26.Portfolio theory as described by Markowitz is most concerned with:

(A)the elimination of systematic risk. (B)the effect of diversification on portfolio risk.

(C)the identification of unsystematic risk. (D)active portfolio management to enhance returns.

27.The measure of risk in a Markowitz efficient frontier is:

(A)specific risk. (B)standard deviation of returns. (C)reinvestment risk. (D)beta.

28.The unsystematic risk of a specific security

(A)is likely to be higher in an increasing market. (B)results from factors unique to the firm.

(C)depends on market volatility. (D)cannot be diversified away.

29. The individual investor's optimal portfolio is designated by:

(A)The point of tangency with the indifference curve and the capital allocation line.

(B)The point of highest reward to variability ratio in the opportunity set.

(C)The point of tangency with the opportunity set and the capital allocation line.

(D)The point of the highest reward to variability ratio in the indifference curve.

30. For a two-stock portfolio, what would be the preferred correlation coefficient between the two

stocks?

(A)+1.00. (B)+0.50. (C)0.00. (D)-1.00.

31. Which of the following is not a source of systematic risk?

(A)the business cycle. (B)interest rates. (C)personnel changes (D)the inflation rate.

32.The line representing all combinations of portfolio expected returns and standard deviations

that can be constructed from two available assets is called the

(A)Capital Allocation Line (B)Security Market Line

(C)efficient frontier (D)portfolio opportunity set

33. Given an optimal risky portfolio with expected return of 14% and standard deviation of 22%

and a risk free rate of 6%, what is the slope of the best feasible CAL?

(A)0.64 (B)0.14 (C) 0.08 (D)0.36

34.According to the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) a well diversified portfolio's rate of

return is a function of

(A)market risk (B)unsystematic risk (C)unique risk. (D)reinvestment risk.

35.The market portfolio has a beta of

(A)0. (B)1. (C) -1. (D) 0.5.

36.Which statement is not true regarding the Capital Market Line (CML)?

(A)The CML is the line from the risk-free rate through the market portfolio.

(B)The CML is the best attainable capital allocation line.

(C)The CML is also called the security market line.

(D)The CML always has a positive slope.

37.According to the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM), fairly priced securities

(A)have positive betas. (B)have zero alphas.

(C)have negative betas. (D)have positive alphas.

38.According to the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM),

(A)a security with a positive alpha is considered overpriced.

(B)a security with a zero alpha is considered to be a good buy.

(C)a security with a negative alpha is considered to be a good buy.

(D)a security with a positive alpha is considered to be underpriced.

39. In a well diversified portfolio

(A)market risk is negligible. (B)systematic risk is negligible.

(C)unsystematic risk is negligible. (D)nondiversifiable risk is negligible.

40. The risk-free rate is 7 percent. The expected market rate of return is 15 percent. If you expect

stock A with a beta of 1.3 to offer a rate of return of 12 percent, you should

(A)buy stock X because it is overpriced. (B)sell short stock X because it is overpriced.

(C)sell stock short X because it is underpriced. (D)buy stock X because it is underpriced.

41.You invest $600 in security A with a beta of 1.2 and $400 in security B with a beta of 0.90.

The beta of the resulting portfolio is

(A)1.40 (B)1.00 (C)0.36 (D)1.08

42.Security A has an expected rate of return of 0.10 and a beta of 1.1. The market expected rate

of return is 0.08 and the risk-free rate is 0.05. The alpha of the stock is

(A)1.7%. (B)-1.7%. (C)8.3%. (D)5.5%.

43. Capital Asset Pricing Theory asserts that portfolio returns are best explained by:

(A)economic factors. (B) specific risk. (C)systematic risk. (D)diversification.

44.In equilibrium, the marginal price of risk for a risky security must be

(A)equal to the marginal price of risk for the market portfolio.

(B)greater than the marginal price of risk for the market portfolio.

(C)less than the marginal price of risk for the market portfolio.

(D)adjusted by its degree of nonsystematic risk.

45. The capital asset pricing model assumes

(A)all investors are price takers. (B)all investors have the same holding period.

(C)investors pay taxes on capital gains. (D)both A and B are true.

46. The CAPM applies to

(A)portfolios of securities only. (B)individual securities only.

(C)efficient portfolios of securities only. (D)all portfolios and individual securities.

47.The expected return – beta relationship of the CAPM is graphically represented by

(A)the security market line. (B)the capital market line.

(C)the capital allocation line. (D)the efficient frontier with a risk-free asset.

48. A “fairly priced” asset lies

(A)above the security market line. (B)on the security market line.

(C)on the capital market line. (D)below the security market line.

49.The index model was first suggested by ____________.

(A)Ross (B)Markowitz (C)Miller (D)harpe

50. A single-index model uses __________ as a proxy for the systematic risk factor.

(A)a market index, such as the S&P 500 (B)the current account deficit

(C)the growth rate in GNP (D)the unemployment rate

51.In a factor model, the return on a stock in a particular period will be related to ____.

(A)firm-specific events (B)macroeconomic events

(C)the error term (D)both A and B

52.___________ a relationship between expected return and risk.

(A)APT stipulates (B)CAPM stipulates

(C)Both CAPM and APT stipulate (D)Neither CAPM nor APT stipulate

53.An arbitrage opportunity exists if an investor can construct a __________ investment portfolio

that will yield a sure profit.

(A)positive (B)negative (C)zero (D)none of the above

54. The APT was developed in 1976 by ____________.

(A)Lintner (B)Modigliani and Miller

(C)Ross (D)Sharpe

55.In developing the APT, Ross assumed that uncertainty in asset returns was a result of

(A)a common macroeconomic factor. (B)firm-specific factors.

(C)neither A nor B (D)both A and B

56. Consider the one-factor APT.The standard deviation of returns on a well-diversified portfolio

is 18%.The standard deviation on the factor portfolio is 16%. The beta of the well-diversified portfolio is approximately __________.

(A)0.80 (B)1.13 (C)1.25 (D)1.56

57. Consider the multifactor APT. The risk premiums on the factor 1 and factor 2 portfolios are

5% and 3%, respectively. The risk-free rate of return is 10%. Stock A has an expected

return of 19% and a beta on factor 1 of 0.8. Stock A has a beta on factor 2 of ________.

(A)1.33 (B)1.50 (C)1.67 (D)2.00

58.The APT requires a benchmark portfolio

(A)that is equal to the true market portfolio.

(B)that contains all securities in proportion to their market values.

(C)that need not be well-diversified.

(D)that is well-diversified and lies on the SML.

59.Consider a well-diversified portfolio, A, in a two-factor economy. The risk-free rate is 6%,

the risk premium on the first factor portfolio is 4% and the risk premium on the second factor portfolio is 3%. If portfolio A has a beta of 1.2 on the first factor and 0.8 on the second factor,what is its expected return?

(A)7.0% (B)8.0% (C)9.2% (D)13.2%

60.The factor F in the APT model represents

(A)firm-specific risk.

(B)the sensitivity of the firm to that factor.

(C)a factor that affects all security returns.

(D)the deviation from its expected value of a factor that affects all security returns.

61.Consider the single-factor APT. Stocks A and B have expected returns of 12% and 14%,

respectively. The risk-free rate of return is 5%. Stock B has a beta of 1.2. If arbitrage

opportunities are ruled out, stock A has a beta of __________.

(A)0.67 (B)0.93 (C)1.30 (D)1.69

62.Suppose you are working with two factor portfolios, Portfolio 1 and Portfolio 2. The portfolios

have expected returns of 15% and 6%, respectively. Based on this information, what would be the expected return on well-diversified portfolio A, if A has a beta of 0.80 on the first factor and 0.50 on the second factor? The risk-free rate is 3%.

(A)15.2% (B)14.1% (C)13.3% (D)10.7%

63. If stock prices follow a random walk

(A) i t implies that investors are irrational. (B)it means that the market cannot be efficient.

(C)price changes are random. (D)price movements are predictable.

64.Proponents of the EMH think technical analysts

(A)should focus on relative strength. (B) s hould focus on support levels.

(C)should focus on financial statements. (D)are wasting their time.

65.If you believe in the ________ form of the EMH, you believe that stock prices reflect all

relevant information including historical stock prices and current public information about the firm, but not information that is available only to insiders.

(A) s emistrong (B)strong (C) w eak (D)none of the above

66.Proponents of the EMH typically advocate

(A)an active trading strategy. (B)investing in an index fund.

(C)a passive investment strategy. (D)B and C

67.The term structure of interest rates is:

(A)The relationship between the rates of interest on all securities.

(B)The relationship between the interest rate on a security and its time to maturity.

(C)The relationship between the yield on a bond and its default rate.

(D)All of the above.

68.The yield curve shows at any point in time:

(A)The relationship between the yield on a bond and the duration of the bond.

(B)The relationship between the coupon rate on a bond and time to maturity of the bond.

(C)The relationship between yield on a bond and the time to maturity on the bond.

(D)None of the above.

69.Which of the following is not proposed as an explanation for the term structure of interest

rates:

(A)The expectations theory. (B)The liquidity preference theory.

(C)The market segmentation theory. (D)Modern portfolio theory.

70.Given the yield on a 3 year zero-coupon bond is 7.2% and forward rates of 6.1% in year 1 and

6.9% in year 2, what must be the forward rate in year 3?

(A)7.2% (B)8.6% (C)6.1% (D)6.9%

71.A liquidity premium

(A)compensates long-term investors for the uncertainty about future selling prices.

(B)compensates short-term investors for the uncertainty about future selling prices.

(C)compensates long-term investors for the lack of liquidity in bond markets.

(D)compensates short-term investors for the lack of liquidity in bond markets.

72.The duration of a 5-year zero-coupon bond is

(A)smaller than 5. (B)larger than 5.

(C)equal to 5. (D)equal to that of a 5-year 10% coupon bond.

73.Which of the following bonds has the longest duration?

(A)An 8-year maturity, 0% coupon bond. (B) An 8-year maturity, 5% coupon bond.

(C)A 10-year maturity, 5% coupon bond. (D)A 10-year maturity, 0% coupon bond.

74. The two components of interest-rate risk are

(A)price risk and default risk. (B) reinvestment risk and systematic risk.

(C)call risk and price risk. (D)price risk and reinvestment risk.

75.An 8%, 30-year corporate bond was recently being priced to yield 10%. The Macaulay duration

for the bond is 10.20 years. Given this information, the bond's modified duration would be________.

(A)8.05 (B)9.44 (C) 9.27 (D)11.22

76.A 9%, 16-year bond has a yield to maturity of 11% and duration of 9.25 years. If the market

yield changes by 32 basis points, how much change will there be in the bond's price?

(A)1.85% (B)2.01% (C)2.67% (D) 6.44%

77. Consider a bond selling at par with modified duration of 12 years and convexity of 265. A 1

percent decrease in yield would cause the price to increase by 12%, according to the duration rule. What would be the percentage price change according to the duration-with-convexity rule?

(A)21.2% (B)25.4% (C)17.0% (D)13.3%

78.A put option on a stock is said to be out of the money if

(A)the exercise price is higher than the stock price.

(B)the exercise price is less than the stock price.

(C)the exercise price is equal to the stock price.

(D)the price of the put is higher than the price of the call.

79.The maximum loss a buyer of a stock call option can suffer is equal to

(A)the striking price minus the stock price. (B)the stock price minus the value of the call.

(C)the call premium. (D)the stock price.

80.The intrinsic value of an out-of-the-money call option is equal to

(A)the call premium. (B)zero.

(C)the stock price minus the exercise price. (D)the striking price.

81. Buyers of put options anticipate the value of the underlying asset will __________ and sellers

of call options anticipate the value of the underlying asset will ________.

(A)increase; increase (B)decrease; increase

(C)increase; decrease (D)decrease; decrease

82. The maximum loss the writer of a stock put option can suffer is equal to

(A)the put premium. (B)the striking price.

(C)the stock price minus the put premium. (D)the striking price minus the put premium.

83. A covered call position is

(A)the simultaneous purchase of the call and the underlying asset.

(B)the short sale of a share of stock with a simultaneous sale of a call on that stock.

(C)the purchase of a share of stock with a simultaneous sale of a call on that stock.

(D)the simultaneous purchase of a call and sale of a put on the same stock.

84.A covered call position is equivalent to a

(A)long put. (B)short put. (C) long straddle. (D)vertical spread.

85. A protective put strategy is

(A)a long put plus a long position in the underlying asset.

(B)a long put plus a long call on the same underlying asset.

(C)a long call plus a short put on the same underlying asset.

(D)a long put plus a short call on the same underlying asset. .

86.Consider a one-year maturity call option and a one-year put option on the same stock, both

with striking price $100. If the risk-free rate is 5%, the stock price is $103, and the put sells for $7.50, what should be the price of the call?

(A)$17.50 (B)$15.26 (C)$10.36 (D)$12.26

87.All of the following factors affect the price of a stock option except

(A)the risk-free rate. (B)he riskiness of the stock.

(C)the time to expiration. (D)the expected rate of return on the stock.

88. You purchased one AT&T March 50 put and sold one AT&T April 50 put.Your strategy is

known as

(A)a vertical spread. (B)a straddle.

(C)a horizontal spread. (D)a collar.

89.You purchased one A T&T March 50 call and sold one AT&T March 55 call. Your strategy is

known as

(A)a long straddle. (B)a horizontal spread.

(C)a vertical spread. (D)a short straddle.

90. Before expiration, the time value of an in the money stock option is always

(A)equal to zero. (B)positive.

(C)negative. (D)equal to the stock price minus the exercise price.

91.A hedge ratio of 0.70 implies that a hedged portfolio should consist of

(A)long 0.70 calls for each short stock. (B)short 0.70 calls for each long stock.

(C)long 0.70 shares for each short call. (D)long 0.70 shares for each long call.

92.A hedge ratio for a call option is ________ and a hedge ratio for a put option is ______.

(A) n egative, positive (B)negative, negative

(C)positive, negative (D)positive, positive

93.The percentage change in the stock call option price divided by the percentage change in the

stock price is called

(A)the elasticity of the option. (B)the delta of the option.

(C)the theta of the option. (D)the gamma of the option.

94.Portfolio A consists of 600 shares of stock and 300 calls on that stock. Portfolio B consists of

685 shares of stock. The call delta is 0.3. Which portfolio has a higher dollar exposure to a change in stock price?

(A)Portfolio B (B)Portfolio A

(C)The two portfolios have the same exposure (D)uncertain

95.A portfolio consists of 100 shares of stock and 1500 calls on that stock. If the hedge ratio for

the call is 0.7, what would be the dollar change in the value of the portfolio in response to a one dollar decline in the stock price?

(A)+$700 (B)+$500 (C)-$1,150 (D)-$520

96. If the hedge ratio for a stock call is 0.30, the hedge ratio for a put with the same expiration date

and exercise price as the call would be ________.

(A)0.70 (B)0.30 (C)-0.70 (D)-0.30

97.A put option is currently selling for $6 with an exercise price of $50. If the hedge ratio for the

put is -0.30 and the stock is currently selling for $46, what is the elasticity of the put?

(A)2.76 (B)2.30 (C)-2.76 (D)-2.30

https://www.doczj.com/doc/709636836.html,e the two-state put option value in this problem. S0=$100; X=$120; the two possibilities

for S T are $150 and $80.The range of P across the two states is _____; the hedge ratio is

_______.

(A)$0 and $40; -4/7 (B)$0 and $50; +4/7

(C)$0 and $40; +4/7 (D)$0 and $50; -4/7

99.Since deltas change as stock values change, portfolio hedge ratios must be constantly updated

in active markets. This process is referred to as

(A)portfolio insurance. (B)rebalancing.

(C)option elasticity. (D)dynamic hedging.

100.The hedge ratio of an option is also called the options _______.

(A)alpha (B)beta (C)sigma (D)elta

以青春为主题的演讲稿_关于青春话题的演讲稿

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