2014年大学生英语竞赛C类真题
Part I Listening Comprehension Section A
1. Why does Carl meet the woman?
A. He is going to interview her on media matters.
B. They are going to start a new company together.
C. He will help her cope with an interview.
D. He wants to recommend a new product to her.
2. What is the man worrying about most?
A. He can't afford what the woman may recommend to him.
B. The designer may charge him more than he should pay.
C. There is no appropriate design for him in the Armani shop.
D. The woman may spend too much on new clothes.
3. What is the woman suggesting by accepting that they can't cut the mustard?
A. She doesn't have a knife so they can’t have mustard.
B. She doesn't know how to cook mustard without a recipe.
C. They have to face the imperfect reality at the moment.
D. The man needs to calm down or he may get hurt by a knife.
4. Why did the man take up golf?
A. He enjoyed the sport when he was a child.
B. He thought golf was useful in his career.
C. It could help improve his health.
D. It was part of his New York project.
5. When did the man quit smoking this time?
A. Less than two weeks ago.
B. About two months ago.
C. Some four years ago.
D. More than ten years ago.
Section B Conversation one
6. Why did Jane phone matt?
A. She asked for a project record in Matt’s company.
B. She invited him to participate in a project release in her company.
C. She had some questions about an investment project.
D. She wanted to place a new project advertisement through him.
7. How did Jane get to know Matt’s project？
A. She got a copy of the investment proposal.
B. She got the information from another company.
C. She was informed by one of his colleagues.
D. Matt recommended the project to her before.
8. When did Matt’s company find problem of the previous deal？
A. Before they signed the contract.
B. Shortly after they started the deal.
C. When they completed the project. C. Soon after they paid the deposit.
9. Why did the deal fall through？
A. Matt’s company changed its investment policy.
B. Matt’s company was slow in delivering the money.
C. The client company broke its promise.
D. The client company had financial problems.
10. What is Jane going to do before she makes a decision on the project？
A. Discuss with her partners.
B. Submit the proposal to Emma.
C. Call some other investment companies.
D. Visit Matt’s company in person. Conversation two
11. What is Hilary Kingsley？
A. A newspaper reporter.
B. A TV columnist.
C.
A soap opera director. D. A radio commentator.
12. How did Hilary define a soup opera？
A. It is a continuing story about things that happen among family members and colleagues.
B. It is a fictional story that describes the life of people living on a special island.
C. It is a never-ending story telling about women selling soap powders.
D. It is a TV series that concentrates on men coping with difficulties.
13. When did soap operas get started according to the passage?
A. Since the 1920s and 1930s.
B. Since the 1930s and 1940s.
C. Since the 1950s and 1960s.
D. Since the 1960s and 1970s.
14. Why was the programme given the name "soap opera”?
A. Because the first soap opera was about a woman selling soap powders.
B. Because it was primarily sponsored by soap powder business.
C. Because it was broadcast mainly to promote the sale of soap powders.
D. Because the first soap opera was produced in a soap powder factory.
15. In what way does Hilary think soap operas differ from other dramas?
A. They always show how people deal with everyday problems.
B. They have changed quite a lot since they got started.
C. They have more female characters than male ones.
D. They mainly focus on men’s never-ending pursuits in career.
Section C News Items
16. What is the main finding about carbon dioxide in Roger’s report?
A. Carbon dioxide is firstly found in human history.
B. Carbon dioxide is an important factor in global warming.
C. Carbon dioxide is found reaching a quite high level.
D. Measurement of carbon dioxide is symbolic in human history.
17. How did the woman survive from the disaster?
A. She was in a hospital when the collapse happened.
B. She found water and food before she was saved.
C. She got help from a colleague who died later on.
D. She was fortunately stronger than the others.
18. Why did the government drop leaflets over the town?
A. To express the concern over a build-up of troops.
B. To warn the rebels the preparing attack on Qusair.
C. To make the people aware of the danger and leave.
D. To advertise for the government to collect more money.
19. How many megawatts will the solar capacity reach in Morocco by 2020？
A. 500
B. 2000
C. 2500
D. 3000
20. What did the survey by the American Institute of CPAs mainly find?
A. Student loans are rising because of the huge amounts of borrowers.
B. Student loan debtors tend to borrow more money to live happily.
C.60 percent of student loan debtors are regretful about the survey.
D. Student loans may have a negative influence on borrowers’ life.
Section D Dictation
Doctors often tell patients to take a certain kind of medicine in order to 21.________an illness. For example, a patient may need medicine because his or her shoulder hurts. The doctor may tell the patient that there is a brand name medicine which will help him or her. This brand name medicine is made by a famous company. However, there may also be a generic type of the same medicine.
Generic medicines are 22._______by some people because they are usually less expensive, yet they have the same ingredients as the brand name medicines. If the generic medicine has the same ingredients, this means that the medicine should have 23._______on the person as the brand name medicine. If the generic in the generic and the brand name medicines are a little different, then the generic type cannot 24. __________the same as the brand name medicine.
Generic medicines are almost always cheaper than brand name medicines. Why is this? Making any kind of medicine takes a lot of money and a lot of time. This is because a company has to pay doctors and scientists to study an illness and to find some kind of medicine to fight this illness. Then, it takes more money and more time for the company to test the medicine to 25. _________it is safe and that it works. Once a company is ready to sell its product to people, the company usually set the price of medicine very high. The company 26.________ a lot of money in order to get back all of the money that it spent making medicine. Generic medicine makers, on the other hand, copy some kind of medicine that has already been developed and tested. For this reason, they do not have to spend as much money to develop the medicine.
Generic medicines are usually not sold 27.__________.Companies that make generic medicines must wait a certain 28. ___________before then can make the same medicine. But once the generic medicine
is on the market, doctors are usually quick to offer it to their patients. This is because the price
of medicine is very expensive. Taking a generic medicine can save a patient, or his or her 29.___________,
a lot of money. Generic medicines are just as good as brand name medicine. Therefore, doctors
30.__________having their patients take these medicines.
Part II Vocabulary, Grammar & Cultures (15 marks)
Section A vocabulary and Grammar (10 marks)
31. They finally ___a conclusion that the company’s failure has been attributed to _____bad management.
A. get; full
B. draw; sheer
C. reach; whole
D. make; total
32. -- Most young people want to___ more about environmental problems.
-- Yes. But everyone knows about pollution problems, not many people have ____any solutions.
A. look up; looked into
B. find out; come up with
C. deal with; got round to
D. make out; thought over
33. I knew______ at the party, but Monica knew _____people, nearly everybody in fact.
A. hardly anybody; plenty of
B. rarely somebody; few
C. barely everybody; a few
D. scarcely nobody; many
34. She hastened to ___me that the report contained no critical comments on my department performance.
A. ensure
B. insure
C. assure
D. make sure
35. _____for his broken leg in the earlier part of the season, he ______in the England team to play Poland last May.
A. Except; would have played
B. But; might have been
C. Only; could not play
D. If it’s not; was able to be
36. _____before we depart next Thursday, we should have a wonderful dinner together.
A. Had they arriver
B. Would they arrive
C. Were they arriving
D. Were they to arrive
37. Please remember that Jeanie hasn’t been well recently, so please_____ for her if she seem a bit slow.
A. make allowances for
B. make an observation about
C. provide the opportunity for
D. are challenging
38. Great as Einstein was, many of his ideas_____ today and are being modified by the work of scientists
of our time.
A. are to be challenged
B. may be challenged
C. have been challenged
D. are challenging
39. -- Oh, I can speak only a few words of French. I’m no good at languages!
-- Come on! ______ We know you can speak five languages
A. Are you pulling my leg?
B. Keep your chip up!
C. Stop fishing for compliments!
D.A leopard can’t change its spots!
40. -- Frances, do you think you could fix up a staff meeting for me?
-- Yes, I’ll do that.______
-- Well, let’s arrange it for Friday morning and see whether everyone else is free then.
A. W hat’re you going to talk about?
B. Do you think they all
will come?
C. At what time do you stop working
D. When were you thinking of
Section B Cultures (5 marks)
41. In his famous speech, the Gettysburg Address, ______ extolled virtues for the listeners (and
the nation) to ensure the survival of America’s representative democracy, that “government of the people, by the people, for the people, shall not perish from the ear th.”
A. Franklin D. Roosevelt
B. Martin Luther King
C. John F. Kennedy
D. Abraham Lincoln
42. The Wars of the ______ were a series of dynastic wars fought between supporters of two rival branches of the royal House of Plantagenet: the houses of Lancaster and York for the throne of England. They were fought in several sporadic episodes between 1455 and 1485,although there was related fighting both before and after this period.
A. Lilies
B. Roses
C. Tulips
D. Mayflower
43. Shakespeare produced most of his known work between 1589 and 1613. His early plays were mainly comedies and histories. He then wrote mainly tragedies until ahout 1608,including Hamlet, King Lear, ______ , and Macbeth, considered some of the finest works in the English language.
A. Merchant of Venice
B. A Midsummer Night’s Dream
C. Othello
D. The Taming of the Shrew
44. ______ is awarded the 2013 Nobel Prize in Literature for her work as "master of the modern short story", and the 2009 Man Booker International Prize for her lifetime body of work.
A. Alice Munro
B. Helen Keller
C. J. K. Rowling
D. Anne Frank
45. ______ is a collegiate research university located in England, United Kingdom. Although in exact date of foundation is unclear, there is evidence of teaching as far back as 1096, making it the oldest university in the English-speaking world, and the second-oldest surviving university in the world, after the University of Bologna.
A. The University of Cambridge
B. The University of Oxford
C. The University of Wales
D. The University of Edinburgh
Part III Cloze (10 marks)
Directions: Fill in each blank with one word. Choose the correct word in one of the following three ways: according to the context, by using the correct form of the given word, or by using the given letter(s) of the word.
Birds are warm blooded animals. Though their feathers help to keep them warm, some birds such as ducks, 46._____(goose), and swans still c an’t endure harsh winter temperatures. For these reasons, birds from cold climates fly to warmer climates 47._____the winter. This seasonal movement of birds is called migration. Birds migrate to warmer places, often hundreds of miles away, where they can have the best chance of 48.sur_____.
Birds migrate naturally. Certain clues from the environment cause hormone changes in the bird’s body. As the days get 49._______(short), for example, these hormones tell the bird’s body to store fat. This is because migrating takes an 50.en_______energy. Birds don’t have a lot of time to eat while migrating, so they rely on stores of fat.
When birds migrate, they fly as a group. To minimize the energy needed to fly long distances, a group of birds 51._______(fly) together in a V-shape. The bird at the front of the “V” uses the most energy because the wind often blows 52._______him. Every so often ,the birds change positions so that each bird has a turn at the front, and everyone gets a rest.
53. Nav_______ is also an important part of the journey. Birds find where they are going by using visual clues, such as rivers, coastlines and mountain ranges. In addition, they also use the Sun and the star for guidance. 54.________(amaze),they also use the Earth’s invisib le magnetic force for direction. This gives them a natural sense of north and south, like a kind of internal compass.
Many studies indicate that migratory birds fly along same course every year. Researchers decide to test this using “bird banding”. They first captu re a migratory bird and attach a tag to its foot. This tag has an ID number on it, 55. _________is stored in a database. They then set the bird free and track its movements. Birds banding has shown that many birds follow the same route year after year.
Part IV Reading Comprehension (35 Marks)
Section A (5 marks)
Friday
Clint Black
One of the hot new artists on the country music scene, Clink Black ,will perform with one of country music’s
legends Merle Haggard and up-and-comer Lorrie Morgan at Red Rocks Amphitheatre. For ticket information, call
TicketMaster at 290-8497. Time:7:30 P.M Ticket：$19.5
42nd Street
“42nd Street” will be presented through Sunday at the Denver Auditorium Theater. The comedy includes songs by Irving Berlin, Jerome Kern, ColePorter. Call 893-4100 for tickets or for more information. Time: 8 p.m. tonight and Saturday; 7 p.m Sunday Tickets: $25-$38
Bluegrass artists
Home on the Grange concert series presents top bluegrass artists including the Bluegrass Patriots and Pete and Joan Wernick performing at Grange Hall in Niwot. For more information call 444-4537. Time: 8:30 tonight and Saturday. Tickets: $6
Saturday
Riff Performance
Riff will perform with LL Cool J at Arnold Hall Theatre at the U.S. Air Force Academy. Call 1719-472 for ticket
information. Time: 8 p.m. Tickets: $18, $15, $10
Train Rides
The Georgetown Loop Historic Mining and Railroad Park is open on weekends through May. Passengers may
board in either Georgetown or Silver Plume . The train will run daily beginning Memorial Day and continuing through
Labor Day. Call 670-1686. Time: 9:20 a.m. – 3:55 p.m. Tickets: $5-$12.5
Sunday
Morning Concert
The Azusa Pacific University Choir and Orchestra will perform at the Denver First Church of the Nazarene,3800 E. Hampden Ave. The 150-member choir will perform a variety of classical and popular songs. A free Continental breakfast will be offered before the concert. Call 761-8370 When: 8:45 a.m. breakfast, 9:45 a.m. concert Tickets: Free-will offering
Help for kids
Colorado Kids Care and Funplex are teaming up to help homeless children by accepting donations of baby items including clothing. formula and diapers at Funplex, located at South Kipling Street and West Coal Mine Avenue in Littleton. Each person who brings a donation will receive a free activity pass to Funplex. For more information, call 934-0277. Time: 11a.m.-6 p.m
Origami
The Boulder Public Library’s Sunday Specials program is presenting an origami workshop in the Convent Garden at the Library, 1000 Canyon Blvd. Participants will learn to make birds, boats and other objects using the age-old paper folding techniques. Call 441-3100 Time: 3p.m. Tickets: Free Auto Exhibit
The eighth annual Concours d’ Elegance auto exhibit will be held in the north parking lot at University Hills Mall, 2700 S. Colorado Blvd. Rare Porsches, Maseratis , Jaguars and racing cars will be featured. All proceeds benefit Denver’s United Cerebral Palsy Association. Call 355-7337 for more information. Time: 9 a.m-4 p.m. Tickets: $5
Diane Carman Entertainment Editor Weekend is published every Friday. Send all correspondence to Weekend, The Denver Post, 1560 Broadway, Denver 80202. Phone 820-1452. Copyright 2013, The Denver Post Corp.
Question 56-60Decide the following statement are true (T) or false (F) according to the passage.
56. Only those who bring donations to homeless children can attend the activity at Funplex.
57. If you are interested in gardening, you won’t want to miss the “Bluegrass artists” Frid ay night in Niwot.
58. If you are interested in buying a used car, you won’t find any useful information in this page of Weekend.
59. In the Sunday Moring Concert at the Denver First Church of the Nazarene, free breakfast and performance will be provided.
60. Participants can watch and learn paper folding techniques rather than do hands-on activities in the origami workshop.
Section B (10 marks)
One of the hardest things for any sportsperson to do is to know when to retire, Do you retire when you are at you r physical peak or do you wait until your body[or your coach] tells you that it’s time to go? But even harder is finding the answer to the question “What am I going to do with the rest of my life?”
(61)______“There’s a high risk of depression and people of ten find adjusting to a new way of life difficult”, says Ian Cockerill, a sports psychologist.“For sportspeople, there’s an extra
trauma—the loss of the glamour. That’s the hardest part.”As Eddie Araro, the US jockey says,“When
a jockey retires, he becomes just another little man.”
(62)____Perhaps they just can’t stand life without the “high” of playing professional sport. Michael Jordan, the greatest basketball player of all time, retired three times. He retired once from the Cahicago Bulls, made a successful comeback with the Bulls, then retired again. His second comeback with an inferior team ended in failure and he retired for ever at the age of 38. Jordan said, “There will never be anything I do that will fulfill me as much as competing did.”
(63)______Muhammad Ali needed the money, but his comeback fight, at the age of 39, against Trevor Berbick, was one of the saddest spectacles in modern sport. After losing to Berbick, Ali retired permanently. Three years later he developed Parkinson’s disease.
(64)______As Jimmy Greaves, an ex-England international footballer said,“I think that a lot of players would prefer to be shot once their career is over .”Many of them spend their retirement in
a continual battle against depression, alcohol, or drugs.
(65) ______ Franz Beckenbauer is a classic example of a footballer who won everything with his club, Bayern Munich. After retiring he became a successful coach with Bayern and finally president of the club. John Mcenroe, the infamous “bad boy” of tennis, is now a hi ghly respected and highly paid TV commentator. Another good example is world famous Chinese table tennis player -- Deng Yaping. After retiring at the end of the 1997 season, Deng served on the International Olympic Committee’s ethics and athletes commissions. She is also a member of the elite Laureus World Sports Academy, and a member of the Chinese People’s Political Consultative Conference. Deng becomes Deputy Secretary of China Communist Youth League Beijing Committee later. But sadly, for most sportspeople these cases are the exceptions.
Questions 61-65 Complete the article with the following sentences, there are two extra sentences.
A. For some people the pain of saying goodbye never leaves them.
B. Others can’t resist the chance of one last “pay day”.
C. However, some famous sportspersons are much easier to develop some typical psychological disease.
D. But for the lucky few, retirement can mean a successful new career.
E. Retirement for people in general is traumatic.
G. Some sportspeople go on playing too long.
Section C (10 marks)
There are two reasons why I wanted to come to southern Germany to study. I wanted to be at the center of Europe, within easy reach of other countries, and cities such as Paris and Prague. the other reason was that I was finding it very difficult to find a place to study medicine in Norway, where there are only three medical schools.
I spent my last two years at a boarding school, where I made lots of friends and learned to look after myself and integrate with other people. I was 19 when I left, and those two years had changed me; I knew I could cope with student life in another country.
First I had to learn German. I went Munich in September, a month before the term started, and spent three weeks on a language course. I stayed with a German family and was able to practice speaking the language with them. Nobody spoke Norwegian, of course, so it was a great help to find that there were other students from Norway at the university. I made friends with some of them and we were able to help one another during the first few weeks in a new city. After six months I moved into my own apartment; there is a wonderful mix of cultures and I have made many friends from different places. For three years I had a Norwegian boy friend who was also studying to be a doctor, but that ended when he left.
I would recommend studying abroad to anyone. You get a chance to learn another language and to understand the culture and traditions of another country. Munich is a fantastic city for students, especially as beer is the favorite drink of students everywhere. I didn’t like beer before, but if you live in Munich, there really is no alternative, and now I have acquired the taste. In winter I prefer to visit cafés and talk with friends, but in summer my favorite place is the Englisher Garten, with its lake and park and lots of bars. The city’s beer halls are generally full of students and tourists.
At weekends I often go skiing in the Austrian Alps with friends. We pile into a couple of cars and rent an apartment. This all costs money, and, like most students, I am living on a loan from the
government. By the time I take my final exams I shall have a big debt which must be repaid with interest. If I can’t find work, I shall have serious problem s. I hope to get a job in a hospital near Oslo.
I worked there last summer, while earning the money to go to Nepal, Thailand and Vietnam for three months.
We are a medical family. My mother and elder sisters are nurses, but my father is the odd one out: he runs a hairdressing salon.
Questions 66-70 Answer the following questions according to the passage.
66. Why did Mariann go to Germany to study besides her desire to be in the centre of Europe?
67. How long did Mariann live in German family after she reached Munich?
68. What does Mariann want to be after her graduation?
69. What makes Mariann be accustomed to drinking beer?
70. How did Mariann get the money for her three months’ travelling to other countries?
Section D (10 marks)
Would you believe that your diet can make a big difference in keeping a youthful appearance? It seems strange to think that the food we take in could result in fewer wrinkles. Wouldn’t it be better to put things on our skin rather than in our mouths?
Well, according to one scientific theory, our bodies start aging because of oxidation. This means the certain oxygen-containing molecules in our cells, called free radicals, have the capability to attach to and damage parts of our cells, including our DNA. Our bodies can repair this damage, but as we get older, these repair mechanisms start to break down, resulting in the signs of aging. Free radicals are actually reduced by our bodies, but their numbers can also increase because of the food we eat.
Besides avoiding foods which could potentially produce more free radicals, eating foods which contain certain vitamins and micro-nutrients can also contribute to keep us looking young. These vitamins help produce molecules called antioxidants, which actually help reduce the production of free radicals. Even better, foods containing antioxidants are not rare. Common antioxidants, like vitamins A and E, can be found in many dark-colored vegetables. For example, carrots, seaweed, spinach and broccoli are excellent sources of these helpful vitamins. Also, you can eat orange-colored fruits like apricots and peaches. Vitamins A and E are particularly good for helping your skin remain young-looking. These nutrients strengthen your skin and make it soft. However, if you really want to stock up quickly on nutrients that benefit your skin, you should eat cow’s liver. One small piece of cooked cow’s liver contains twice as much vitamin A as half a cup of coo ked carrots.
More recently, green tea has also been tentatively added to the list youth-promoting substances. Although research about green tea’s effects on our bodies is at an early stage, scientists certainly believe that it is good for us. Scientists, however, are still cautious about predicting its capability to keep us looking youthful. But from recent experiments, its antioxidant properties seem to be able to repair cell damage already sustained as well as prevent damage in the future. In fact, green tea works even better if you apply it directly to your skin as an ingredient in facial cream.
“You are what you eat.” This old proverb certainly seems to be true the more we find out about how our body works. Think about that the next time you sit down at the table.
Questions 71-75 Complete the summary with only one word from the passage, changing the form where necessary.
People use cosmetic surgery, facial 71. _______and cosmetics to look younger. Maybe the best way to fight wrinkles is really just to eat foods with the right vitamins and nutrients in them. Some foods we eat have the capability of 72._____our cells in that these foods can increase harmful molecules in our bodies called free radicals. But if we take in foods with vitamins A and E, for example, we can 73.______ the production of free radicals in our bodies. Others foods that seem to have healthy 74._______of antioxidants include cow's liver and green tea. Moreover, green tea is proved to be more helpful in repairing sustained damage and even preventing future damage if it is75._____ properly and directly.
Part V Translation(15 marks) Section A (5 marks) English-Chinese Translation
76. Distance learning is a formal educational process that breaks the traditional mode of classroom teaching. These are two key differences between traditional education and distance learning. Distance learning adds flexibility and availability, regardless of time, place, or pace of learning. Here
2017 年6 月大学英语六级考试真题(第1 套) Part ⅠWriting (30 minutes) Directions: Suppose you are asked to give advice on whether to attend a vocational college or a university, write an essay to state your opinion. You are required to write at least 150 words but no more than 200 words. Part ⅡListening Comprehension (30 minutes) Section A Directions : In this section, you will hear two long conversations. At the end of each conversation, you will hear four questions. Both the conversation and the questions will be spoken only once. After you hear a question, you must choose the best answer from the four choices marked A), B), C) and D). Then mark the corresponding letter on Answer Sheet 1 with a single line through the centre. Questions 1 to 4 are based on the conversation you have just heard. 1.A) He would feel insulted. B) He would feel very sad. C) He would be embarrassed. D) He would be disappointed. 2.A) They are worthy of a prize. B) They are of little value. C)They make good reading. D) They need improvement. 3.A) He seldom writes a book straight through. B)He writes several books simultaneously. C)He draws on his real-life experiences. D)He often turns to his wife for help. 4.A) Writing a book is just like watching a football match. B)Writers actually work every bit as hard as footballers. C)He likes watching a football match after finishing a book. D)Unlike a football match, there is no end to writing a book. Questions 5 to 8 are based on the conversation you have just heard. 5.A) A chievements of black male athletes in college. B)Financial assistance to black athletes in college. C)High college dropout rates among black athletes. D)Undergraduate enrollments of black athletes. 6.A) They display great talent in every kind of game. B)They are better at sports than at academic work. C)They have difficulty finding money to complete their studies. D)They make money for the college but often fail to earn a degree. 7.A) About 15%. B) Around 40%. C)Slightly over 50%. D) Approximately 70%. 8.A) Coaches lack the incentive to graduate them. B)College degrees do not count much to them. C)They have little interest in academic work. D)Schools do not deem it a serious problem. Section B
2016 National English Competition for College Students (Level C - Sample) 参考答案及评分标准 Part I. Listening Comprehension（30 marks） Section A (5 marks) 1—5 CBABD Section B (10 marks) 6—10 CBADC 11—15 CDACB Section C (5 marks) 16—20 BDBBC Section D (10 marks) 23. geographic location 24. cultural influences 21. second largest 22. spirals to 25. dates back to 26. economic revival 27. flourished in 28. multi-faceted and diverse 29. modern and enterprising 30. a chimney Part II Vocabulary, Grammar & Culture (15 marks) Section A Vocabulary & Grammar (10 marks) 31—35 CDBAA 36—40 BCACB Section B Culture (5 marks) 41—45 BBACA Part III Cloze (10 marks) contrast 49. information 50. back 46. movement 47. included 48. 51. harmony 52. others 53. individualists 54. descent 55. intellectually Part IV Reading Comprehension (35 marks) Section A 58. F 59. F 60. F 56. T 57. F Section B 61—65 ACBDE Section C (10 marks) 66.T hey notice the subjects that most people don蒺t. 67.A rtistry can be learned and developed through reading or taking lessons. 68.U nderstand the difference it makes when you remove the irrelevant and select only what really matters while taking a picture.
全国大学生英语竞赛C类资料整理 Part I听力 特别注意：听力内容均是只播放一遍！ Section A 5段短对话，分别1个小问题。 Section B 2段长对话，分别5个小问题。 前两部分的长短对话难度其实不是很大，主要是尽快让自己进入状态，听力只有一遍，上一题没听到，就赶紧猜一个，千万不要影响后面的题目。 Section C 5段短新闻，分别1个小问题，内容均是摘自BBC或VOA的新闻。 现在只剩下一个月时间，要大家一直对着BBC或是VOA广播听也不是办法，建议大家上沪江英语学习的BBC或VOA小组，里面的内容一般都是筛选过的，每天听一些，熟悉一下英美人士的发音就好。 Section D 1段长文章，共有10个空格，注意要填写的可能是单词也可能是短语。 最后就是关于考听力的一些提示，毕竟英语竞赛的听力考试是播放录音的，各考场分配到的带子质量不一，考场环境有好有坏。假设你实在太倒霉了，带子播放不清晰，环境吵杂（监考老师也很可能帮不了你，因为大多监考老师不是英语老师），也不要心慌，冷静下来尽量听到关键词，加上自己的大胆猜测，蒙对的概率也是很大的。 情景词汇大归纳 在学校：grade 等级；mark 分数；semester 学期；assignment 作业；lecture 演讲，讲稿；scholarship 奖学金；test 测试；vacation 假期；credit学分；quiz小测验；top student 优等生 在医院：medicine 药；injection 注射；diagnose 诊断；prescription 处方；patient 病人；ache 疼痛；stomachache 胃疼，肚子痛；toothache 牙痛；headache 头痛；high fever 发高烧；sore throat 嗓子痛；mumps 腮腺炎；measles 麻疹；lung cancer 肺癌；liver cancer 肝癌；heart attack 心脏病发作；physician 内科医生；surgeon 外科医生；pediatrician 儿科医生；vet 兽医；recovery (from) （病后）痊愈，恢复；operation 手术; doctor 医生；nurse 护士；ward 病房;emergency-ward 急诊病房；cough 咳嗽; temperature 体温；blood pressure 血压； 在宾馆: reception desk 接待处；front desk 前台；vacant room 空房；single room 单人间；double room双人间；reserve/book 预定；check in 登记住入；check out 结帐离开；porter 行李搬运工；tip 小费；full 客满；room service 房间服务部，服务到屋 在商店：bargain 便宜货；receipt 收据；cashier 出纳；shop assistant 售货员；salesclerk 店员；fake commodities 假冒伪劣商品；size 尺寸；color 颜色；style 式样; price 价格；guarantee 保修; expiration period 保质期；after-sale service售后服务；fashion 时髦，时尚；cheap 便宜的；expensive 昂贵的；counter 柜台 在机场：flight 航班；passport 护照；visa 签证；board 登机；reservation 预约；airhostess 空中小姐；pilot 飞行员；duty-free shop 免税店；airport 机场 在餐馆：waiter 服务员；waitress 女服务员；order 点菜；menu 菜单；bill 帐单；drink 饮料；soft drink 不含酒精的饮料；salad 色拉；soup 汤；dessert 甜点；roast beef 烤牛肉；pork 猪肉；mutton 羊肉；lamb 羔羊肉；chicken 鸡肉；fish 鱼肉；steak 牛排；go Dutch 各付各的，AA制；on the house 免费； It is my treat (it’s on me)我请客 在法院：sue 控告；legal 合法的；accuse 控告；the accused /defendant 被告；the plaintiff /accuser 原告；charge 控诉；convict 宣告有罪；client 委托人，当事人；judge 法官；sentence 判刑；imprisonment 关押，监禁；capital punishment 死罪；death penalty 死刑
2018年12月大学生英语六级考试真题卷一（听力部分）PartⅡ Listening Comprehension (30 minutes) Section A Directions: In this section, you will hear two long conversations. At the end of each conversation, you will hear four questions. Both the conversation and the questions will be spoken only once. After you hear a question, you must choose the best answer from the four choices marked A），B），C) and D). Then mark the corresponding letter on Answer Sheet 1 with a single line through the centre. Questions 1 to 4 are based on the conversation you have just heard. 1. A) It can benefit professionals and non-professionals alike. B) It lists the various challenges physicists are confronting. C) It describes how some mysteries of physics were solved. D) It is one of the most fascinating physics books ever written. 2. A) Physicists’ contribution to humanity. B) Stories about some female physicists. C) Historical evolution of modern physics. D) Women’s changing attitudes to physics. 3. A)By exposing a lot of myths in physics. B) By describing her own life experiences. C) By including lots of fascinating knowledge. D) By telling anecdotes about famous professors. 4. A) It avoids detailing abstract concepts of physics. B) It contains a lot of thought-provoking questions. C) It demonstrates how they can become physicists. D)It provides experiments they can do themselves. Questions 5 to 8 are based on the conversation you have just heard. 5. A) He is too busy to finish his assignment in time. B) He does not know what kid of topic to write on. C) He does not understand the professor’s instructions. D) He has no idea how to proceed with his dissertation. 6. A) It is too broad. B) It is outdated. C) It is challenging. D) It is interesting. 7. A) Biography. B) Nature. C) Photography. D) Beauty. 8. A) Improve his cumulative grade. B) Develop his reading ability. C) Stick to the topic assigned.
全国大学生英语竞赛写作评分标准 Task I 应用文评分标准 一、评分原则： 1. 本题满分为10分。 2. 评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量、确定或调整本档次，最后给分。 3. 词数少于80的，从总分中减去2分。 4. 如书写较差，以致影响阅卷，将分数降低一个档次。 二、各档次的给分范围和要求： 第四档：8—10分 完全符合写作格式的要求，覆盖所有内容要点，表达思想清楚，文字通顺，连贯性很好，基本上无词汇和语法错误。 第三档：6—7分 基本符合写作格式的要求，有个别地方表达思想不够清楚，文字基本通顺、连贯，有少量词汇和语法错误。 第二档：3—5分 未恰当完成写作格式的要求，漏掉内容要点，表达思想不清楚，文字多处出现词汇和语法错误，影响了对写作内容的理解。 第一档：1—2分 未完成写作格式的要求，明显遗漏主要内容，表达思想紊乱，有较多词汇和语法的重大错误，未能将信息传达给读者。 0分 白卷；作文与题目毫不相关；内容太少，无法评判；所写内容无法看清。 Task II 议论文评分标准 一、评分原则： 1. 本题满分为20分。 2. 评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量、确定或调整本档次，最后给分。 3. 词数少于120的，从总分中减去2分。 4. 如书写较差，以致影响交流，将分数降低一个档次。 二、各档次的给分范围和要求： 第四档：16—20分 完全符合写作格式的要求，覆盖所有内容要点，表达思想清楚，文字通顺，连贯性很好，基本上无词汇和语法错误。 第三档：11—15分 基本符合写作格式的要求，有个别地方表达思想不够清楚，文字基本通顺、连贯，有少量词汇和语法错误。 第二档：6—10分 未恰当完成写作格式的要求，漏掉内容要点，表达思想不清楚，文字多处出现词汇和语法错误，影响了对写作内容的理解。 第一档：1—5分 未完成写作格式的要求，明显遗漏主要内容，表达思想紊乱，有较多词汇和语法的重大错误，未能将信息传达给读者。
全国大学生英语竞赛C类试题及答案
2008 National English Contest for College Students (Level C--- Preliminary) Part I Listening Comprehension (25 minutes, 30 marks) Section A (5 marks) In this section, you will hear five short conversations. At the end of each conversation, a question will be asked about what was said. Both the conversation and the question will be read only once. After each question, there will be a pause. During the pause, read the three choices marked A, B and C, and decide which is the best answer. Then mark the corresponding letter on the Answer Sheet with a single line through the center. 1. A. To buy a newspaper. B. To find a chemist. C. To post a letter. 2. A. Their billing system has been efficient.
2015大学英语六级真题答案完整版 As is known to all, the success of a person needs the right guidance and interest is undoubtedly the best teacher. Even Albert Einstein, the world-renowned physicist, said, I have no special talents. I am only passionately curious. So it is high time that people explore and cultivate their own interest. Passionate curiosity can be developed in one s childhood or in one s sixties, but once it is ignited, it can change people s way of study, work and living. On the one hand, interest makes one s pursuit of knowledge successful and enjoyable. For instance, the pianist Langlang, who plays piano with great love, is awarded a lot of prizes at home and abroad. On the other hand, curiosity helps to resolve difficulties constantly. A worker with curiosity is more likely to dig into the essence of the problem and thus accomplish more creative tasks. I would like to end up with the famous educator Herbert Spencer s words which I can t agree more, If the interest and enthusiasm among us are cultivated smoothly in the first place, most people will become talents or geniuses. 阅读答案 选词填空答案 36. J) philosophy 37. I) mirrors 38. B) constrained 39. D) explore 40. L) sneaking 41. K) potential 42. O) violent 43. F) interacting 44. A) assess 45. N) undermines 长篇阅读
大学生英语竞赛 全国大学生英语竞赛写作范文 Sample 1 Directions: You and your friend have just finished a course and you want to arrange a party. You’ve had a meeting and made a list of your requirements. You’ve heard that your friends, Anna and Jack, who attend a nearby school, had a party on a boat last term and you want to ask them all about it. Read your notes carefully. Then write a letter to Anna and Jack telling them what you want to do and asking for information and advice. Remember to write the letter in no less than 120words on the answer sheet.
Our requirements are the following: there are 20 to 30 people to attend the party and we want to start it at 9 pm; some cold drinks are preferred and we need a place to dance. Is it possible for us to hold our party on the boat? Moreover, could you tell me how many people the boat can hold? What about the transportation to the river? Is it convenient? How about the food and the music? In addition, do we have to prepare for them by ourselves? Above all, how much does your party cost? Do you think it is worthwhile to hold the party on the boat? What are your opinions? Your opinions and comments will be of great value to our coming party. We are looking forward to your reply. Best wishes to you! Yours sincerely George Sample 2 Directions: Write on the topic given below in no less than 150 words on the answer sheet. In your essay, you should first outline your ideas, and then given examples.
全国大学生英语竞赛(NECCS)历年真题 (含完整答案) (说明：本文为word格式，下载后可编辑修改)
2012 National English Contest for College Students (Level C – Preliminary) (总分：150分时间：120分钟) Part I listening Comprehension (30 marks) Section A (5 marks) In this section, you will hear five short conversations. Each conversation will be read only once .After each conversation, there will be a twenty-second pause. During the pause, read the question and the three choices marked A, B and C, and decide which is the best answer .Then mark the corresponding letter on the answer sheet with a single line through the centre. What does the man say we can do to deal with oil crisis? A. To make full use of oil. B. To use as little oil as possible C. To find alternative energy. 2. Where does this conversation most probably take place? A. In an insurance company. B. In a bank. C. In a supermarket. 3. According to the man, who is going to take over the position they are talking about? A. Janice. B. Someone else. C. Meryl. 4. What does the woman say about the man’s report for the meeting? A. He has to get it ready before tomorrow noon. B. He has done well enough. C. He has enough time to prepare it. 5. How many people will be on the earth by the year 2020 according to the professor? A. Some 5.8 billion. B. Nearly 7 billion. C. Over 8.5 billion. Section B (10 marks) In this section, you will hear two long conversations. Each conversation will be read only once. At the end of each conversation, there will be a one-minute pause. During the pause, read the questions and the three choices marked A, Band C, and decide which is the best answer. Then mark the corresponding letter on the answer sheet with a single line through the centre Conversation One 6. What’s the main job of Simon’s organization? A. They send out radio signals to communicate with other planets. B. They look for life and intelligence on other planets. C. They study stars that have planets orbiting around them. 7. Why does the organization search for radio signals from space? A. Their presence may prove the existence of aliens.
2018年12月英语六级真题（第一套） Part I Writing (30 minutes) Directions: For this part, you are allowed 30 minutes to write an essay on how to balance job responsibilities and personal interests. You can cite examples to illustrate your views. You should write at least 150 words but no more than 200 words. PartⅡListening Comprehension (30 minutes) 关注公众号“春秋大道”，无偿得到全部英语四六级历年真题（更新至2018年12月）+听力原频 Section A Directions: In this section, you will hear two long conversations. At the end of each conversation, you will hear four questions. Both the conversation and the questions will be spoken only once. After you hear a question, you must choose the best answer from the four choices marked A)，B)，C) and D). Then mark the corresponding letter on Answer Sheet 1 with a single line through the centre. Questions 1 to 4 are based on the conversation you have just heard.
全国大学生英语竞赛C类资料整理 I听力 特别注意：听力内容均是只播放一遍！ A 5段短对话，分别1个小问题。 B 2段长对话，分别5个小问题。 前两部分的长短对话难度其实不是很大，主要是尽快让自己进入状态，听力只有一遍，上一题没听到，就赶紧猜一个，千万不要影响后面的题目。 C 5段短新闻，分别1个小问题，内容均是摘自或的新闻。 现在只剩下一个月时间，要大家一直对着或是广播听也不是办法，建议大家上沪江英语学习的或小组，里面的内容一般都是筛选过的，每天听一些，熟悉一下英美人士的发音就好。 D 1段长文章，共有10个空格，注意要填写的可能是单词也可能是短语。 最后就是关于考听力的一些提示，毕竟英语竞赛的听力考试是播放录音的，各考场分配到的带子质量不一，考场环境有好有坏。假设你实在太倒霉了，带子播放不清晰，环境吵杂（监考老师也很可能帮不了你，因为大多监考老师不是英语老师），也不要心慌，冷静下来尽量听到关键词，加上自己的大胆猜测，蒙对的概率也是很大的。 情景词汇大归纳 在学校： 等级；分数；学期；作业；演讲，讲稿；奖学金； 测试；假期；学分；小测验；优等生 在医院： 药；注射；诊断；处方；病人；疼痛；麻疹； 胃疼，肚子痛；牙痛；头痛；发高烧；腮腺炎；兽医；肝癌；嗓子痛；心脏病发作；内科医生；外科医生；儿科医生；肺癌；() （病后）痊愈，恢复；手术; 医生；护士；病房;急诊病房；咳嗽; 体温；血压； 在宾馆: 接待处；前台；空房；单人间；双人间；小费；预定；登记住入；结帐离开；行李搬运工；客满；房间服务部，服务到屋 在商店： 便宜货；出纳；售货员；店员；假冒伪劣商品；颜色；式样; 价格；保修; 保质期；售后服务；时髦，时尚；便宜的；昂贵的；柜台尺寸；收据； 在机场： 航班；护照；签证；登机；预约；空中小姐；飞行员；免税店；机场 在餐馆： 服务员；女服务员；点菜；菜单；帐单；饮料；不含酒精的饮料；色拉；汤；甜点；烤牛肉；猪肉；羊肉；羔羊肉；鸡肉；鱼肉；牛排；各付各的，制；免费； (’s )我请客 在法院： 控告；合法的；控告；被告；原告；控诉；宣告有罪；委托人，当事人；法官；判刑；关押，监禁；死罪；死刑 在邮局： 邮资；信件；明信片；邮票；信封；包裹；挂号信；航空邮件；普通邮件；快件；电报；汇款 在银行：
2016年全国大学生英语能力竞赛攻略 学长分享英语竞赛技巧： 知己知彼百战不殆”，要想在全国大学生英语竞赛中取得好成绩，平时的积累是基础，而考前对考试的研究和分析以及练习则是升华。近几年来英语竞赛也在不断调整中。对我们来说，最重要的参考资料就是当年的竞赛样题，和官网的考试说明文件，从中我们可以了解到考试的题型、分值、时间分配、难度和新变化。只有这样我们才能对症下药，合理分配考试时间，获得最好的成绩。其实考试，一言以蔽之，就是尽量的规定时间内拿到最高的分数，分数越高，就意味着你越成功。由于每年试题结构、题型等都会有所变化，下面就以2010年的英语竞赛初赛试题为例，分析一下时间安排。今年初赛试题共分为七部分，时间120分钟，满分150分。七部分分别为听力、词汇与语法结构、完形填空、阅读理解、翻译、智力测试和写作。下面就分别进行分析。 第一部分是听力，由四部分组成，第一部分是五篇短对话，然后是两篇长对话，第三部分是五篇短新闻，第四部分是听写式填空。总分是30分，总的来说，听力的难度不算很大，应该是介于四、六级之间，大部分都可以直接从对话中找到原句和答案。但是还是有一定难度的。首先，前20道选择题都只读一遍，这和一般的考试不同，所以对选手就提出了更高的要求，必须从一开始就高度集中注意力，才能不遗漏重要信息。此外，听写式填空也是对基本知识的一个考查，经常有同学听到了却不会写，这需要我们打好自己的基础。这一部分要力争拿到20分以上。 第二部分是词汇与语法结构，这也是对“双基”知识的一个考查，可以说基本上是考查基本功的，当然我们也要注意，这其中对话类的应用题目也呈逐年上升的趋势。总分15分，官方建议完成时间是十分钟。这一部分要力争拿到10分以上。 第三部分是完形填空，也是我认为全卷除了智力测试以外最难的题目，题型包括根据上下文填空、根据给出的首字母填空、根据给出的单词的适当形式填空。分值是十分，官方建议完成时间是10分钟。这题不仅考查你的基本词汇语法知识，也考查你对文章的理解和把握。可以说是阅读+词汇的结合。要拿高分很难，但是其实还是有一些分好拿的，这一部分我们要力争拿到4分以上。 第四部分是阅读理解，总分40分，官方建议完成时间是25分钟。这是全卷分值最大的一道大题，也是时间最紧的。我估计绝大多数同学在25分钟内都没办法全部完成（我也很勉强）。这一部分我觉得最重要的还是把握文章的开头和结尾，了解主旨，然后根据题目去快速定位，因为这里的题目大部分都是在原文可以找到答案的。这一部分阅读量大、题型多样（包括选择题、问答题、是/否/未提及题，摘抄题、填空题等）、也是对同学英语应用能力的有力考查，还是要熟能生巧，在平时多加练习，力争达到又对又快的境界，这一部分要力争拿到25分以上。 第五部分是翻译，包括英译汉和汉译英两部分。共20分，官方建议完成时间是15分钟。这一部分可以说是全卷最简单的题型，考查的内容都没超过四级甚至是平常练习的难度，对英译汉，还是要花点时间看看文章开头和结尾，“磨刀不误砍柴工”，很多翻译都要根据上下文进行，才能更加的到位。有时在翻译中遇到生词，也可以根据上下文进行推断。比如今年的汉译英试题中多次提到“dropout”这个单词，我考试时也忘了这是什么意思，最后还是通过文章最后
Part I Writing (30 minutes) Directions: For this part, you are allowed 30 minutes to write an essay on the importance of mutual understanding and respect in interpersonal relationships. You should write at least 150 words but no more than 200 words. PartⅡ Listening Comprehension (30 minutes) Section A Directions: In this section, you will hear two long conversations. At the end of each conversation, you will hear four questions. Both the conversation and the questions will be spoken only once. After you hear a question, you must choose the best answer from the four choices marked A)，B)，C) and D). Then mark the corresponding letter on Answer Sheet 1 with a single line through the centre. Questions 1 to 4 are based on the conversation you have just heard. 1. A) A six- month-long negotiation. B) Preparations for the party. C) A project with a troublesome client. D) Gift wrapping for the colleagues. 2. A) Take wedding photos. B) Advertise her company. C) Start a small business. D) Throw a celebration party. 3. A) Hesitant. B) Nervous. C) Flattered. D) Surprised. 4. A) Start her own bakery. B) Improve her baking skill. C) Share her cooking experience. D) Prepare for the wedding. Questions 5 to 8 are based on the recording you have just heard. 5. A) They have to spend more time studying. B) They have to participate in club activities. C) They have to be more responsible for what they do. D) They have to choose a specific academic discipline. 6. A) Get ready for a career. B) Make a lot of friends. C) Set a long-term goal. D) Behave like adults. 7. A) Those who share her academic interests. B) Those who respect her student commitments. C) Those who can help her when she is in need. D) Those who go to the same clubs as she does. 8. A) Those helpful for tapping their potential. B)Those conducive to improving their social skills. C)Those helpful for cultivating individual interests.