practice exam 2

Practice Exam 11.Economics is the study of choice under conditions ofa. demandb. supplyc. scarcityd. opportunitye. abundance2.Suppose your friends take you out for dinner on your birthday and you have a much better timethan you would have had doing anything else. There is still an opportunity cost, even though they will not let you pay for anything.a. Trueb. False3.Figure 2-4 shows the production possibilities frontier for a music processing plant that canproduce both compact disks and cassettes. The opportunity cost of moving from point B to C isa. 20 cassettesb. 120 compact disksc. 100 cassettesd. 60 compact diskse. 180 compact disks4.Figure 2-4 shows the production possibilities frontier for a music processing plant that canproduce both compact disks and cassettes. At which point would the plant be under-utilizing its resources?a. Ab. Bc. Cd. De. E5.Which point in Figure 2-4 is not possible for this society to produce?a. Ab. Bc. Cd. De. E6.If a society is on its production possibilities frontier, and decides to produce more health care,a. the cost of producing an additional unit of health care will riseb. it must employ some previously unemployed resourcesc. its standard of living will rised. some kind of inefficiency will occure. the cost of producing an additional unit of some other good will rise7.Bill can cook dinner in 45 minutes and mow the lawn in 1.5 hours. Eileen can cook dinner in 1.5hours and mow the lawn in 2 hours. Which of the following statements is correct?a. Bill has both an absolute advantage and a comparative advantage in cooking dinner.b. Bill has both an absolute advantage and a comparative advantage in mowing the lawn.c. Eileen has both an absolute advantage and a comparative advantage in cooking dinner.d. Eileen has both an absolute advantage and a comparative advantage in mowing the lawn.e. Bill has the comparative advantage in both cooking dinner and mowing the lawn.8.A group of buyers and sellers with the potential to trade with each other is known as a(n)a. trading blocb. cartelc. marketd. industrye. sector9.According to the law of demand,a. there is a positive relationship between quantity demanded and priceb. as the price rises, demand will shift to the leftc. there is a negative relationship between quantity demanded and priced. as the price rises, demand will shift to the righte. as the price rises, consumers switch their purchases to substitute goods10.If automobiles are a normal good and the price of automobiles rises, then holding all elseconstant, thea. demand for automobiles will riseb. quantity demanded of automobiles will fallc. demand for automobiles will falld. quantity demanded of automobiles will risee. supply of automobiles will fall11.All of the following, except one, would increase the amount of a particular model of a Fordautomobile that buyers would like to buy. Which is the exception?a. an increase in buyers' incomesb. increased prices of other Ford modelsc. an expected future increase in the priced. an increase in the U.S. populatione. a decrease in the price of steel12.Which of the following would not cause the demand curve for college football tickets to shift?a. an increase in the price of professional football ticketsb. a decrease in the price of college basketball ticketsc. an increase in the price of college football ticketsd. a drop in student incomese. an increase in student preferences for college football tickets13.If the price of ground beef falls, the demand for hamburger buns willa. increase because the two goods are substitutesb. decrease because the two goods are complementsc. decrease because the two goods are substitutesd. increase because the two goods are complementse. not change unless the price of hamburger buns also changes14.Which of the following could explain a movement from point F to point G in Figure 3-2?Assume that the good represented is an inferior good.a. all of the following are correctb. an increase in buyers' incomesc. a decrease in the expected future price of the goodd. an increase in the price of the goode. an increase in the price of a complement15.In Figure 3-5, a movement from point G to point H would representa. a change in demandb. the impact of a decrease in the price of a substitute goodc. higher prices for the inputs used to produce this productd. a change in demand plus a change in quantity demandede. a change in quantity demanded16.Betsy graduates from college, where she earned $3,000 a year working part-time, and takes a jobas a third grade teacher, where she now earns $30,000 per year. After receiving her firstpaycheck, she gave away her bicycle and purchased a new car. Therefore,a. bicycles are a normal good for Betsyb. automobiles are an inferior good for Betsyc. automobiles are a normal good for Betsyd. Betsy's supply curve for automobiles is upward-slopinge. bicycles and automobiles are complementary goods for Betsy17.What do supply and demand curves have in common?a. They both usually slope upward.b. They both show a relationship between quantity and price.c. They both usually slope downward.d. They can both shift in response to changes in income or wealth.e. Neither of them is influenced by the size of the population.18.Procter & Gamble Co. is a major soap producer. All of the following, except one, would shift itssupply curve of liquid soap to left . Which is the exception?a. an increase in the price of bar soapb. an increase in the price of a key ingredient of liquid soapc. environmental regulations force Procter & Gamble to use a more costly technology toproduce liquid soapd. a decrease in the price of liquid soape. an increase in the wage rate for factory workers who produce liquid soap19.Which of the following would not lead to a change in the supply of chocolate ice cream?a. a change in productive capacityb. a change in the price of strawberry ice creamc. a change in the price of milkd. a change in the price of chocolate ice creame. a change in the expected future price of chocolate ice cream20.Which of the following statements about the market represented by Figure 3-9 is correct?a. At a price of $50.00, there is an excess supply of 11 million units.b. At a price of $50.00, there is an excess demand of 11 million units.c. At a price of $50.00, there is an excess supply of 15 million units.d. At a price of $50.00, there is an excess demand of 15 million units.e. At a price of $50.00, there is an excess demand of 25 million units.21.If the demand for baseball cards rises and the supply curve does not shift, then the pricea. will rise and quantity will fallb. and quantity will risec. will fall and quantity will rised. and quantity will falle. will rise, but quantity may rise or fall22.Suppose that the market for lima beans is in equilibrium. Then both the supply and demandcurves for lima beans shift to the left. As a result, the equilibrium price ______ and the equilibrium quantity will ______.a. will fall; fallb. will fall; risec. will rise; falld. cannot be determined; falle. cannot be determined; rise23.In Figure 3-11, suppose that initially the market is in equilibrium as defined by the demand andsupply curves D1 and S1. Which price/quantity combination could result from a decrease in the wages paid to workers?a. $100 and 50,000b. $120 and 50,000c. $75 and 75,000d. $120 and 75,000e. $120 and 100,00024.In Figure 3-11, suppose that initially the market is in equilibrium as defined by the demand andsupply curves D1 and S1. Which price/quantity combination could result from an increase in consumers' incomes coupled with an improvement in technology?a. $100 and 75,000b. $100 and 100,000c. $100 and 50,000d. $120 and 75,000e. $120 and 100,00025.Price ceilings are primarily targeted to help _______, while price floors generally benefit_________.a. producers; no oneb. increase tax revenue for governments; producersc. increase tax revenue for governments; consumersd. producers; consumerse. consumers; producers26.Figure 4-4 depicts a market in which the government has imposed a price floor of $5.00 per unit.To maintain the price floor, the government shoulda. buy 200 units of the goodb. sell 200 units of the goodc. buy 700 units of the goodd. sell 700 units of the goode. buy 500 units of the good27.The price elasticity of demand measures thea. responsiveness of a good's price to a change in quantity demandedb. adaptability of suppliers when a change in demand alters the price of a goodc. responsiveness of quantity demanded to a change in a good's priced. adaptability of buyers when there is a change in demande. responsiveness of quantity supplied to a change in quantity demanded28.If the price elasticity of demand for Cheer detergent is -3.0, then aa. 12 percent drop in price leads to a 36 percent rise in the quantity demandedb. 12 percent drop in price leads to a 4 percent rise in the quantity demandedc. $1,000 drop in price leads to a 3,000-unit rise in the quantity demandedd. $1,000 drop in price leads to a 333-unit rise in the quantity demandede. 12 percent rise in price leads to a 36 percent rise in the quantity demanded29.If the price of a certain brand of sneakers falls from $27.50 to $22.50, and the quantitydemanded by consumers increases from 15 to 25 pairs per week, then the price elasticity of demand isa. -0.25b. -1.00c. -2.75d. -1.50e. -2.5030.If the percentage change in quantity demanded is smaller (in absolute value) than the percentagechange in price, then demand isa. inelasticb. elasticc. unit elasticd. determined by supplye. inadequate compared to supply31.Figure 4-11 shows the demand curve for chicken. Between points L and M, the price elasticityof demand isa. -0.44, and demand is elasticb. -0.44, and demand is inelasticc. -2.25, and demand is elasticd. -2.25, and demand is inelastice. -0.028, and demand is inelastic32.A public university knows that demand from potential students is elastic. If the university wantsto increase tuition revenue, it shoulda. raise its tuition rateb. hold its tuition rate constant and increase faculty salariesc. increase its financial aidd. lower its tuition ratee. increase its enrollment33.In general, the more of an individual's total budget that is spent on a given product, thea. greater the supply-side responseb. less elastic is the demand for that goodc. more elastic is the demand for that goodd. more the demand curve will shift when the price changese. less the demand curve will shift when the price changes34.If the quantity of higher education demanded rises by 5 percent when incomes rise by 10percent,a. higher education is a normal goodb. higher education is an inferior goodc. the demand for higher education is price elasticd. the law of demand applies to higher educatione. the demand for higher education is price inelastic35.The sign of the cross-price elasticity tells us whether two commodities are complements orsubstitutes, but the size of this elasticity measure tells usa. how the supply side of the market reacts to changes in demandb. whether the government should regulate the two marketsc. which technology producers used. how closely the two goods are relatede. whether or not excess profits can be made in either market36.An excise tax on cigarettesa. will cause both the market price and quantity to increaseb. will cause both the market price and quantity to fallc. will cause the market price to rise and the market quantity to falld. will cause the market price to fall and the market quantity to risee. will cause the market price to fall and the market quantity to rise37.For a given supply curve, the more inelastic the demand for a good,a. the more of an excise tax that is paid by sellers.b. the less an excise tax is shifted.c. the smaller the burden of an excise tax.d. the more of an excise tax that is paid by buyers.e. the smaller the increase in market price following imposition of an excise tax38.Butter and margarine are examples ofa. substitutesb. complementsc. externalitiesd. inferior goodse. goods that are independent of each other39. Suppose that government decides to charge taxi drivers an excise tax. Before taxes 10 millionrides were sold at a price of $5 per ride. After the tax, 8 million rides were sold; consumers pay $6.5 per ride and drivers received $3.75 per ride. Is the amount of tax charged by thegovernment equal to 2.75?a. Trueb. False40. If equilibrium quantity of a good supplied and demanded given by the following equationsand then equilibrium price is equal to $14. 30,0004,000S Q p =−+54,0002,000D Q =−p a. Trueb. FalseAnswer Keys to Practice Exam 11. c2. a3. d4. d5. e6. a7. a8. c9. c10.b11.e12.c13.d14.d15.a16.c17.b18.d19.d20.c21.b22.d23.c24.b25.e26.a27.c28.a29.e30.a31.b32.d33.c34.a35.d36.c37.d38.a39.a40.a。

FCEUseofEnglishPart1!with Answers !ENGLISH PART 1!USE OF Extracted from many FCE sources -Collection 2015TEST 1: Why we need to Play (First 1)TEST 2: Home and abroad (First 1)TEST 3: New Words for a dictionary (First 1)TEST 4: Memory (First 1)TEST 5: Holidays at Home (First Certificate Trainer)TEST 6: Fingernails growing faster (First Certificate Trainer) TEST 7: The Sticking plaster (First Certificate Trainer)TEST 8: The joy of picnics (First Certificate Trainer)TEST 9: Email overload (First Certificate Trainer)TEST 10: St Lucia (First Certificate Trainer)TEST 11: Paper (Cambridge First Certificate In English 1)TEST 12: The Mustard Shop (Cambridge First Certificate in English 1)TEST 13: The performing Arts (Cambridge First Certificate In English 1) TEST 14: Shopping Malls (Cambridge First Certificate In English 1)TEST 15: Learning to make a perfect Pizza (Cambridge First Certificate in English 2)TEST 16: Everyone′s an artist (Cambridge First Certificate in English 2) TEST 17: Markets (Cambridge (Cambridge First Certificate in English 2) TEST 18: Famous Explorer (Cambridge First Certificate In English 2)TEST 19: Thomas Edison (Cambridge First Certificate in English 3)TEST 20: Under The City Streets (Cambridge First Certificate in English 3) TEST 21: A good Start to a Holiday (Cambridge First Certificate In English 3) TEST 22: Mountain Climbing (Cambridge First Certificate In English 3) TEST 23: A Love of travelling (First Certificate In English)TEST 24: A Wildlife cameraman (First Certificate In English) TEST 25: Mount Fuji (Cambridge First Certificate In English 4) TEST 26: Proof that silence is golden for studying (Cambridge First Certificate in English 4)TEST 27: A long snooze (Cambridge First Certificate in English 4)TEST 28: Dogs (Cambridge First Certificate in English 4)TEST 29: The Changing Landscape (First 5)TEST 30: Sugar Sculpture (First 5)TEST 31: The Importance of Drawing (First 5)TEST 32: Adriano′s St ory (First 5)TEST 33: Action scenes in film (Cambridge Practice Test For First Certificate 1)TEST 34: A visitor for Miss Dredger (Cambridge Practice Test For First Certificate 1)TEST 35: Helen and Martin (Cambridge Practice Test For First Certificate 1) TEST 36: Anger on the roads (Cambridge Practice Test For First Certificate 1) TEST 37: Family Story (Cambridge Practice Test For First Certificate 2) TEST 38: An Australian Mistery (Cambridge Practice Test For First Certificate 2)TEST 39: Look on the Bright Side (Cambridge Practice Test For First Certificate 2)TEST 40: Dreams (Cambridge Practice Test For First Certificate 2)TEST 41: Messages from the stone Age (Practice Test Plus 2)(2015)TEST 42: Where to go whale watching (Practice Test Plus 2) (2015)TEST 43: The Gesture interface (Practice Test Plus 2) (2015) TEST 44: Slacklining (Practice Test Plus 2) (2015)TEST 45: Vera Neumann: Fabric Designer (Practice Test Plus 2) (2015)TEST 46: What is a coincidence?. (Practice Test Plus 2) (2015) TEST 47: Karakamia wildlife sanctuary (Practice Test Plus 2) (2015)TEST 48: Old Skills: New Products (Practice Test Plus 2) (2015) TEST 49: Trees for life (Practice Tests Plus 1)TEST 50: Polar Adventurer (Practice T ests Plus 1)TEST 51: Singing for a music Life (Practice Tests Plus 1)TEST 52: Whales (Practice Tests Plus 1)TEST 53: Music (Practice Tests Plus 1)TEST 54: Teddy Bears (Practice Tests Plus 1)TEST 55: The Flying aunties (Practice Tests Plus 1)TEST 56: The Earth galleries (Practice Tests Plus 1)TEST 57: Resund Bridge (Practice Tests Plus 1)TEST 58: Coffee culture (Practice Tests Plus 1)TEST 59: Music – A Universal language (Practice Tests Plus 1) TEST 60: The early days of football (Practice Tests Plus 1)TEST 61: The Dodo lives on (Practice T ests Plus 1)TEST 62: Circus children(Practice Tests Plus 1)TEST 63: Fun and games (Practice Tests Plus 1)TEST 64: Shades of meaning(Practice Tests Plus 1)TEST 65: Thomas Edison (First Certificate in English 7)TEST 66: Under the city streets (First Certificate in English 7) TEST 67: A Good Start to a holiday (First Certificate in English7)TEST 68: Mountain Climbing (First Certificate in English 7)TEST 69: The ideal interview (Richmond FCE Practice Tests)!TEST 70: High Days and holidays (Richmond FCE Practice Tests)!TEST 71: Scents in the office(Richmond FCE Practice Tests)!TEST 72: The liquorice plant(Richmond FCE Practice Tests)!TEST 73: Letter writing(Richmond FCE Practice Tests)!TEST 74: Royal residences (Successful 10 FCE Practice Tests)(2015)!TEST 75: New cycling schemes (Successful 10 FCE Practice Tests)(2015)!TEST 76: The eighth wonder of the world (Successful 10 FCE Practice Tests)(2015) TEST 77: Starting your own business (Successful 10 FCE Practice Tests)(2015)! TEST 78: The Roman city of Verulamium (Successful 10 FCE Practice Tests)(2015)! TEST 79: The town of Aylesbury (Successful 10 FCE Practice Tests)(2015)!TEST 80: The art of Patrick Heron(Successful 10 FCE Practice Tests)(2015)TEST 81: Bargain rail travel (Successful 10 FCE Practice Tests)(2015)TEST 82: Oxford University (Successful 10 FCE Practice Tests)(2015)TEST 83: Transport in the city(Successful 10 FCE Practice Tests)(2015)!TEST 84: What teenagers do with their money (FCE Gold Practice Exams)TEST 85: Becoming a nurse: the interview(FCE Gold Practice Exams)TEST 86: The four-minute mile(FCE Gold Practice Exams)TEST 87: Traffic Lights(FCE Gold Practice Exams)TEST 88: The best stone in the world(FCE Gold Practice Exams) TEST 89: Rolls-Royce (FCE Practice Exam papers 2)!TEST 90: Machu Picchu(FCE Practice Exam papers 2)!TEST 91: Tips for Flying(FCE Practice Exam papers 2)!TEST 92: Rainbows (FCE Practice Exam papers 2)!TEST 93: Oxford (FCE Practice Exam papers 2)!TEST 94: Music television(FCE Practice Exam papers 2)!TEST 95: Vegetarianism (FCE Practice Exam papers 2)!TEST 96: The Man in the Iron Mask(FCE Practice Exam papers 2)!TEST 97: Homes (FCE Practice Exam papers 2)!TEST 98: Elephant Round-Up(FCE Practice Exam papers 2)!TEST 99: Could computer games be good for you after all) (Fast Track To FCE Tests)TEST 100: Dog Race in Alaska (Fast Track To FCE Tests)TEST 101: A mapmaker in the making(Fast Track To FCE Tests) TEST 102: Scottish Island (Fast Track T o FCE Tests)TEST 103: So near and yet so far(Fast Track To FCE Tests)TEST 104: Clutter is bad for you(Fast Track To FCE Tests)TEST 105: Wedding bells(Fast Track T o FCE Tests)TEST 106: Exercising to music(Fast Track T o FCE Tests)TEST 107: Greenforce (Fast Track T o FCE Tests)TEST 108: The tourist trap(Fast Track T o FCE Tests)!TEST 109: The origin of the wizard′s hat(Fast Track T o FCE Tests)! TEST 110: An important invention (Fast Track To FCE Tests)!TEST 111: Life savers on two wheels(Fast Track To FCE Tests)!TEST 112: A traffic warden in London (Fast Track To FCE T ests)!TEST 113: Movie stars join the animals(Fast Track To FCE Tests)!TEST 114: The mistery of the vanishing bees (FCE Practice Exam Paper 1) TEST 115: The Best of Britain (FCE Practice Exam Paper 1)TEST 116: Exploring the Pantanal(FCE Practice Exam Paper 1) TEST 117: Food to fear(FCE Practice Exam Paper 1)TEST 118: Accident prone(FCE Practice Exam Paper 1)TEST 119: Return to the british seaside(FCE Practice Exam Paper 1) TEST 120: Volunteering (FCE Practice Exam Paper 1) TEST 121: A true pioneer(FCE Practice Exam Paper 1)TEST 122: The secret of a long life(FCE Practice Exam Paper 1) TEST 123: At home abroad(FCE Practice Exam Paper 1)!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!TEST 8TEST 9TEST 10。

半期考试成绩分析总结与计划英文版全文共3篇示例，供读者参考篇1Midterm Exam Results Analysis, Summary, and PlanIntroductionThe midterm exams have just concluded, and it is time to analyze the results, summarize the findings, and create a plan to improve performance in the upcoming exams. This document will provide an analysis of the midterm exam results, a summary of the key takeaways, and a plan to enhance performance in the next exam.Analysis of Midterm Exam ResultsOverall, the results of the midterm exams were mixed. While some students performed exceptionally well, there were also a significant number of students who struggled to achieve passing grades. The distribution of grades was as follows:- A: 15%- B: 25%- C: 30%- D: 20%- F: 10%It is clear from these results that there is room for improvement in performance across the board.Key Takeaways1. Time Management: One common issue among students was poor time management. Many students were unable to complete the exam within the allocated time, resulting in unfinished questions and rushed answers. This impacted their overall performance.2. Lack of Understanding: Another common issue was a lack of understanding of the material. Some students did not fully grasp the concepts covered in the exam, leading to incorrect answers and lower grades.3. Test Anxiety: Test anxiety also played a role in the results. Some students reported feeling overwhelmed and anxious during the exam, which affected their ability to concentrate and perform well.Plan for ImprovementBased on the analysis of the midterm exam results and the key takeaways, the following plan has been developed to improve performance in the next exam:1. Time Management Training: To address the issue of poor time management, all students will undergo training on effective time management strategies. This will include tips on how to allocate time for each question, how to prioritize tasks, and how to stay focused during the exam.2. Concept Review Sessions: To tackle the issue of a lack of understanding, additional concept review sessions will be organized. These sessions will provide students with the opportunity to ask questions, clarify doubts, and deepen their understanding of the material covered in the exam.3. Test Anxiety Management: To address test anxiety, students will be provided with resources and techniques to manage stress and anxiety during exams. This may include relaxation techniques, mindfulness exercises, and strategies for staying calm under pressure.4. Practice Exams: To help students prepare for the next exam, practice exams will be provided. These exams will simulate the conditions of the actual exam and give students theopportunity to practice their time management, test-taking skills, and understanding of the material.ConclusionIn conclusion, the midterm exam results have provided valuable insights into areas for improvement. By implementing the plan outlined above, we are confident that students will be better prepared for the next exam and will see an improvement in their performance. It is essential for students to take advantage of the resources and support available to them to succeed in their academic endeavors. Let us work together to achieve our goals and excel in the upcoming exams.篇2Midterm Exam Results Analysis, Summary, and PlanIntroductionThe halfway point of the semester has arrived, and it's time to analyze the midterm exam results to see how well our students are performing and identify areas for improvement. In this document, we will provide a detailed analysis of the exam scores, summarize the key findings, and outline a plan for the remainder of the semester to help our students achieve better results in the final exams.Analysis of Midterm Exam ScoresThe midterm exam scores have been compiled and analyzed to assess the performance of our students in each subject. The results are as follows:Mathematics: The average score in mathematics was 75%, with a range of scores from 60% to 90%. While the majority of students scored above average, there were a few who struggled with the subject and scored below 70%.English: The average score in English was 80%, with most students scoring between 70% and 90%. Overall, the performance in English was satisfactory, but there is room for improvement in certain areas such as grammar and vocabulary.Science: The average score in science was 70%, with scores ranging from 55% to 85%. It was noted that some students found the science exam challenging, particularly the sections on biology and chemistry.History: The average score in history was 85%, with scores ranging from 75% to 95%. The performance in history was excellent overall, with most students demonstrating a strong understanding of the material.Key Findings and Areas for ImprovementBased on the analysis of the midterm exam scores, the following key findings have been identified:1. Mathematics: Some students struggled with complex mathematical concepts and calculations, leading to lower scores. To improve performance in mathematics, additional practice and individualized support will be provided to these students.2. English: While the overall performance in English was good, there were areas such as grammar and vocabulary where students could benefit from extra practice and reinforcement. To address this, targeted exercises and activities will be implemented in the English lessons.3. Science: The performance in science varied across the student body, with some students finding certain topics challenging. To improve understanding and retention in science, more hands-on experiments and demonstrations will be incorporated into the curriculum.4. History: The strong performance in history indicates a solid grasp of the material by the majority of students. To maintain this level of achievement, interactive discussions and debates will be encouraged to deepen students' understanding of historical events and concepts.Plan for the Remainder of the SemesterIn light of the midterm exam results and the areas for improvement identified, the following plan will be implemented for the remainder of the semester:1. Mathematics: Additional practice sessions will be held after school for students who need extra support in mathematics. Individualized tutoring will also be available to help students improve their understanding of complex mathematical concepts.2. English: Targeted grammar and vocabulary exercises will be integrated into the English lessons to reinforce key concepts. Reading comprehension tasks and writing assignments will be assigned regularly to enhance students' language skills.3. Science: More hands-on experiments and demonstrations will be conducted in the science classes to make the subject more engaging and accessible to all students. Review sessions will be held before exams to ensure that students arewell-prepared.4. History: Interactive discussions and debates will be encouraged in the history classes to foster critical thinking and analytical skills among students. Assignments will focus onapplying historical knowledge to real-world scenarios to deepen understanding.ConclusionIn conclusion, the analysis of the midterm exam scores has provided valuable insights into the performance of our students and highlighted areas where improvement is needed. By implementing targeted interventions and personalized support, we aim to help our students achieve better results in the final exams and succeed academically. With the right resources and strategies in place, we are confident that our students will excel in their studies and reach their full potential.篇3Analysis and Summary of Midterm Exam Results and PlanIntroductionThe midterm exams have just been completed, and it is essential to analyze the results to assess the performance of students and identify areas that need improvement. This analysis and summary report will provide an overview of the midterm exam results, highlight the strengths and weaknesses of students, and outline a plan for improvement in the second half of the semester.Overall PerformanceThe overall performance of students in the midterm exams was satisfactory. The average score achieved by the class was 75%, with a standard deviation of 10%. This indicates that the majority of students performed well in the exams, with only a few outliers scoring significantly lower or higher than the average.StrengthsSeveral strengths were observed in the midterm exam results. Firstly, students demonstrated strong knowledge and understanding of the core concepts covered in the curriculum. They were able to apply these concepts effectively to solve problems and demonstrate their understanding of the subject matter. Additionally, many students showed good time management skills during the exams, allocating enough time to each question and completing the exam within the designated time frame.WeaknessesDespite the overall satisfactory performance, there were also some weaknesses observed in the midterm exam results. One of the main weaknesses identified was a lack of depth in the answers provided by some students. While they demonstrated agood understanding of the core concepts, their answers lacked detail and critical analysis. Furthermore, some students struggled with time management during the exams, leading to incomplete or rushed answers.Plan for ImprovementTo address the identified weaknesses and improve overall performance in the second half of the semester, a comprehensive plan for improvement has been developed. This plan includes the following key components:- Review and Reinforcement of Core Concepts: To improve the depth and quality of answers provided by students, additional review sessions will be conducted to reinforce core concepts and provide practice questions for students to work on. These sessions will focus on developing critical thinking and analytical skills.- Time Management Skills Training: To address the issue of time management during exams, a workshop on time management skills will be organized for students. This workshop will provide strategies and techniques for effective time management during exams, including how to allocate time to each question and prioritize tasks.- Regular Practice Tests: To help students prepare for the final exams, regular practice tests will be conducted throughout the second half of the semester. These tests will simulate exam conditions and provide students with valuable practice in time management and answering questions under pressure.- Individualized Feedback and Support: In addition to group sessions and workshops, individualized feedback and support will be provided to students who are struggling with specific topics or concepts. This personalized approach will help students address their weaknesses and improve their overall performance.ConclusionIn conclusion, the analysis and summary of the midterm exam results have provided valuable insights into the performance of students and identified areas that need improvement. By implementing the proposed plan for improvement, we are confident that students will be able to enhance their knowledge, skills, and performance in the second half of the semester. With dedication, hard work, and support from teachers and peers, we believe that students can achieve their academic goals and succeed in the final exams.。

2023年catti二级笔译实务试题英语Title: 2023 CATTI Level II Written Translation Practice ExamIntroductionThe CATTI (China Accreditation Test for Translators and Interpreters) is a prestigious translation and interpretation certification exam in China. It is highly respected in the translation industry and is recognized by employers and government agencies. The Level II Written Translation Practice Exam is a crucial step for aspiring translators to demonstrate their proficiency in translation.InstructionsIn this practice exam, you will be given a set of three translation tasks. Each task will consist of a Chinese text that you need to translate into English. You will have 90 minutes to complete the entire exam. Please read the instructions carefully before starting each task.Task 1Translate the following Chinese text into English:任务一：中美关系面临复杂局面，需要双方共同努力解决分歧。

1 Q: The number one priority of disaster planning should always be:A Preservation of capitalB Personnel evacuation and safetyC Resumption of core business functionsrelationsInvestorD2 Q: Which of the following is NOT a goal of a Business Impact Assessment (BIA)?A To inventory mutual aid agreementsB To identify and prioritize business critical functionsC To determine how much downtime the business can tolerateD To identify resources required by critical processes3 Q: In the context of Data Processing Continuity Planning, “Subscription Services” refers to:A Contracts to have replacement computer hardware within 72 hoursB Contracts to have replacement computer hardware within 24 hoursC Commercial services providing hot sites, warm sites, and cold sitesD The quarterly journal “Continuity Planning”4 Q: The primary difference between a hot site and a warm site is:A A hot site is closer to the organization’s data centers than is the warm site.B The warm site’s systems don’t have the organization software or data installed.C The warm site doesn’t have computer systems in it.D The warm site is powered down, but the hot site is powered up and ready to go.5 Q: Which of the following is NOT a concern for a hot site?A Programs and data at the hot site must be protected.B A widespread disaster will strain the hot site’s resources.C A hot site is expensive because of the controls and patches required.D Computer equipment must be shipped quickly to the hot site for it to be effective.6 Q: The disaster recovery plan needs to be continuously maintained because:A The organization’s software versions are constantly changing.B The organization’s business processes are constantly changing.C The available software patches are constantly changing.D The organization’s data is constantly changing.7 Q: How is the organization’s DRP best kept up-to-date?A With regular audits to ensure that changes in business processes are knownB By maintaining lists of current software versions, patches, and configurationsC By maintaining personnel contact listsD By regularly testing the DRP8 Q: Multiple versions of a DRP available in the organization will:A Allow older pass-along versions of the plan to circulated to some personnelB Give involved personnel a choice of response proceduresC Cause confusion during a disasterD Give critical personnel the best composite view of response procedures9 Q: BCP stands for:A Basic Continuity PlanningB Basic Continuity ProcedureC Business Continuity ProcedureD Business Continuity Planning10 Q: “Remote journaling” refers to:A A mechanism that transmits transactions to an alternate processing siteB A procedure for maintaining multiple copies of change control recordsC A procedure for maintaining multiple copies of configuration management recordsD A mechanism that ensures the survivability of written records11 Q: Backing up data by sending it through a communications line to a remote location is known as:journalingATransactionB Off-site storageC Electronic vaultingD Electronic journaling12 Q: Which of the following is NOT a method used to create an online redundant data set?A Remote journalingB Off-site storageC Electronic vaultingmirroringDDatabase13 Q: One of the chief disadvantages of a Mutual Aid Agreement is:A There is no guarantee that the other organization will agree to help.B A large disaster affecting both organizations renders the agreement worthless.C It’s the most expensive way to acquire a warm site.D The DRP isn’t tested until a disaster strikes.14 Q: A hot site is the most expensive because:A Travel costs can be high.B Duplicate staff salaries are high.C HVAC systems are expensive to operate.D It requires constant maintenance to keep systems in sync.15 Q: The types of DRP tests are:A Checklist, walkthrough, simulation, parallel, and full interruptionB Checklist, simulation, parallel, and full interruptionC Checklist, walkthrough, simulation, and full interruptionD Walkthrough, simulation, and parallel16 Q: A parallel DRP test:A Is resource intensive and rarely usedB Tests the full responsiveness by shutting down production systemsC Runs in parallel with production processingD Is a paper exercise to test theoretical response to a disaster17 Q: A DRP checklist test:A Is really only a review of the disaster recovery proceduresB Is a test of back-up system business resumption proceduresC Is a test of production system recovery proceduresD Is a test of business process failover procedures18 Q: What is the purpose of a Salvage Team?A To resume critical business operations at the alternate processing siteB To retrieve any needed items from off-site storageC To return the primary processing site to normal business operationsD To salvage any usable or marketable assets after a disaster19 Q: What is the purpose of a Recovery Team?A To resume critical business operations at the alternate processing siteB To retrieve any needed items from off-site storageC To return the primary processing site to normal business operationsD To salvage any usable or marketable assets after a disaster20 Q: Why is communications with the media important during a disaster?A Emergency communications with personnel occur through the media.B The media can report official status instead of relying upon rumors.C It’s required by the Securities and Exchange Commission.D It’s recommended by the Business Contingency Planning Association.21 Q: When is a disaster defined to be over?A One year after it beganB When the Recovery phase has begunC When all business operations have resumed at alternate operations site(s)D When all business operations have resumed at the primary operations site(s)22 Q: What new scenario did the 2001 World Trade Center disaster bring to business contingencyplanning?A The sudden loss of a significant portion of an organization’s workforceB Airplanes being deliberately crashed into buildingsC The unprecedented cessation of securities trading for several consecutive daysD The restrictions of long-distance travel by air23 Q: A data processing facility on truck trailers or mobile homes is known as:A A Frozen Back-up SiteB A Migrant Back-up SiteC A Rolling Back-up SiteD In Itinerant Back-up Site24 Q: What is the purpose of a Criticality Survey?A It identifies the funding paths required during a disaster.B It identifies the critical personnel in the organization.C It identifies the critical path to full disaster recovery.D It identifies the processes and functions that are critical to business operations.25 Q: Which is NOT a factor in Business Contingency Planning?A Making sure there are sufficient personnel to recover business operations.B Identifying critical business processes and planning for their resumptionC Filing the Business Contingency Plan with local government authoritiesD Identifying funding necessary during a disaster and for recovery of operations.26 Q: What is the purpose of a Business Impact Assessment?A To identify critical processes and the resources required to resume themB To identify the impact of a disaster on the organization’s value chainC To identify the financial cost of any particular disaster scenarioD To identify a disaster’s impact on company market share27 Q: Typically the first step in the BCP process is:A To inventory all business critical processesB Scope and Plan InitiationC Business Impact AnalysisD Business Continuity Plan28 Q: Civil and criminal penalties can be imposed upon public companies that fail to maintain adequatecontrols according to:HIPAAAGraham-Leach-Bliley Act of 1999TheBC The Information Controls and Practices Act of 1997D The Foreign Corrupt Practices Act of 197729 Q: The loss of competitive advantage and market share is known as:A A critical support areaB A qualitative lossC A quantitative lossD A nonproductive loss30 Q: Acting with excellence, competence, and diligence is known as:careDueAdiligenceBDueC Due ignoranceD The Golden Principles31 Q: An access control system that grants access to information based upon its classification and theclearance of the individual is known as:A Identity-based access controlB Mandatory access controlC Role-based access controlD Identity-based access control32 Q: An access control system that grants access to information based upon the identity of the user isknown as:A Identity-based access controlB Mandatory access controlC Role-based access controlD Clearance-based access control33 Q: An access control system that gives the user some control over who has access to information isknown as:A Identity-based access controlB User-directed access controlC Role-based access controlD Clearance-based access control34 Q: Encryption, tokens, access control lists, and smart cards are known as:A Discretionary access controlsB Physical controlsC Technical controlscontrolsDAdministrative35 Q: Supervision, audits, procedures, and assessments are known as:A Discretionary access controlsSafeguardsBC Physical controlsDcontrolsAdministrative36 Q: Security guards, locked doors, and surveillance cameras are known as:A Site-access controlsSafeguardsBC Physical access controlscontrolsDAdministrative37 Q: Role-based access control and task-based access control are examples of:A Mandatory access controlsB Administrative controlsC Discretionary access controlsD Non-discretionary access controls38 Q: Audits, background checks, video cameras, and listening devices are known as:controlsDiscretionaryAB Physical controlsC Preventive controlsDetectivecontrolsD39 Q: Smart cards, fences, guard dogs, and card key access are known as:A Mandatory controlsB Physical controlsC Preventive controlscontrolsDetectiveD40 Q: Is identification weaker than authentication?A Yes: Identity is based only on the assertion of identity without providing proof.B Yes: Identification uses ASCII data, whereas authentication uses binary data.C No: Identification and authentication provide the same level of identity.D No: They are used in different contexts and have nothing to do with each other.41 Q: Two-factor authentication is so-called because:A It requires two of the three authentication types.B Tokens use two-factor encryption to hide their secret algorithms.C Authentication difficulty is increased by a factor of two.D It uses a factor of two prime numbers algorithm for added strength.42 Q: “Something you are” refers to:A A user’s security clearanceB A user’s roleC Type 2 authenticationD Type 3 authentication43 Q: Two-factor authentication is stronger than single-factor authentication because:A It uses a factor of two prime numbers algorithm for added strength.B It relies upon two factors, such as a password and a smart card.C Authentication difficulty is increased by a factor of two.D The user must be physically present to authenticate.44 Q: Finger print, retina scan, and facial scans are examples of:A Biometric authenticationB Physical controlsC Type 2 authenticationD Three-factor authentication45 Q: Tokens, smart cards, and ATM cards are examples of:A Logical controlsIdentifiersBC Something you haveD Type 3 authentication46 Q: Single sign-on performs which of the following:A Stores the password locally using a “Save my password” feature.B Permits authentication to applications without having to log in one by one.C Stores the password and uses a cookie for subsequent authentication.D Is no longer used because it is not secure.47 Q: Which of the following is NOT a weakness in Kerberos?A The user’s secret key is transmitted over the network.B Kerberos is vulnerable to replay attacks.C The TGS and AS servers are vulnerable to physical attack.D The user’s secret key is temporarily stored on the client system.48 Q: The definition of TACACS is:A Technical Authentication Center Access Control ServiceB Terminal Access Controller Authentication Control ServiceC Technical Assistance Center Access Control SystemD Terminal Access Controller Access Control System49 Q: RADIUS is an example of:A Remote Authentication and Dial-In User ServiceB Centralized access controlC Distributed access controlcontrolDDetective50 Q: CHAP is used for:A Centralized access controlB Encrypting RADIUS authenticationC Ciphering RADIUS authenticationD Creating one-time passwords51 Q: RACF is used for:A Providing Kerberos authenticationB Providing biometric authenticationC Providing access control in UNIX environmentsD Providing access control services in IBM mainframe environments52 Q: A system used to identify anomalies on a network is known as a:A Signature-based intrusion detection systemB Network-based intrusion detection systemC Signature-based intrusion detection systemD Network-based intrusion control system53 Q: One disadvantage of host-based intrusion detection is that:A Event correlation is not possible.B It cannot detect broadcast packets.C It consumes resources on the host.D It can only perform signature-based detection.54 Q: One disadvantage of signature-based intrusion detection is that:A It cannot recognize attacks that are not in the signature file.B It detects intrusions only on hosts but not on networks.C It detects intrusions only on networks but not on hosts.D It can only detect mechanized attacks but not hacker attacks.55 Q: The most common relational database manipulation and definition language in use is:DBMLAB SQL ServerSQLCOracleD56 Q: What is the value of a database view?A It gives the DBA a top-down view of the schema.B It defines which tables, records, and fields that a person may view.C It is used to gather database security statistics.D It gives the security administrator a graphic view of the permission tree.databases:Object-oriented57 Q:A Are well suited to the storage and manipulation of complex data types.B Use fewer system resources than relational databases.C Are easier to learn than relational databases.D Have severe restrictions on the types and sizes of data elements.58 Q: Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of biometrics?A It can experience high false negatives.B It can experience high false positives.C Throughput rates are not an issue.D Biometric databases can become very large.59 Q: One of the difficulties associated with network-based intrusion detection systems is:A Synchronizing the signature file with the firewall.B The steep learning curve associated with IDS.C The high number of false negatives that must be eliminated.D The high number of false positives that must be eliminated.60 Q: Which of the following is NOT an obstacle to implementing two-factor authentication?A The need to integrate two-factor authentication into systems and applications.B The high cost of implementation.C Integrating two-factor authentication into the building’s badge entry system.D The increased TCO over single-factor authentication.61 Q: A database containing the data structures used by an application is known as:A A data encyclopediaB A data dictionaryCMetadataAschemaD62 Q: The purpose of a Service Level Agreement is:A To guarantee a minimum quality of service for an application or functionB To guarantee the maximum quality of service for an application or functionC To identify gaps in availability of an applicationD To correct issues identified in a security audit63 Q: CRCs, parity checks, and checksums are examples of:A Corrective application controlsMessagedigestsBC Preventive application controlsD Detective application controls64 Q: Data mining:A Can be performed by privileged users onlyB Is generally performed after hours because it’s resource intensiveC Refers to searches for correlations in a data warehouseD Is the term used to describe a hacker who has broken into a databas65 Q: “Object-oriented” and “relational” are examples of:A Types of database tablesB Types of database recordsC Types of database queriesD Types of databases66 Q: Neural networking gets its name from:A The make and model of equipment in a networkB Patterns thought to exist in the brainC Its inventor, Sigor NeuraD Observed patterns in neural telepathy67 Q: The verification activity associated with coding is called:AtestingUnitDesignreviewBC System testingreviewDArchitecture68 Q: What is the primary input of a high-level product design?A Feasibility studyrulesIntegrationBC Unit testingRequirementsD69 Q: The main improvement of the Waterfall software lifecycle model over earlier models was:A System and software requirements are combined into one step.B Developers can back up one step in the process for rework.C Coding and testing is combined into one step.D The need for rework was eliminated.70 Q: The primary feature of the Spiral software development model is that:A It shows cumulative project cost over several development iterations.B It includes Risk Analysis as a milestone.C It includes Security Assessment as a milestone.D It is only suitable for software integration, not software development.71 Q: Which of the following is NOT a value of change control in the software development lifecycle?A Changes are documented and subject to approval.B Scope creep is controlled.C It gives the customer veto power over proposed changes.D The cost of changes is considered.72 Q: How does the Waterfall software development lifecycle help to assure that applications will besecure?A Security requirements can be included early on and verified later in testing.B The testing phase includes penetration testing.C The Risk Analysis phase will uncover flaws in the feasibility model.D A list of valid users must be approved prior to production.73 Q: The main purpose of configuration management is to:A Require cost justification for any change in a software productB Require approval for any desired change in a software productC Maintain a detailed record of changes for the lifetime of a software product.D Provide the customer with a process for requesting configuration changes.74 Q: Configuration management can include an approval-based check-in/check-out mechanism toensure that:A Developers won’t make unapproved changes to software.B All changes have been tested.C All changes have been approved.D All changes have been verified.75 Q: The Software Capability Maturity Model is a measure of:A Advancements in software capabilitiesB The technical capabilities of softwareC The maturity of an organization’s software development processesD The ability of a software product to remain accurate even after many years76 Q: The components of the SEI Process Improvement IDEAL Model are:A Initiate, Diagnose, Establish, Action, and LeverageB Identify, Document, Establish, Annotate, and LearnC Influence, Diagnose, Establish, Annotate, and LearnD Identify, Document, Elucidate, Annotate, and Launch77 Q: Which of the following is NOT a goal of the Software Capability Maturity Model?A Reduced development timeB Improved development toolsC Improved software qualityplanningDImproved78 Q: The top-most level in the Software Capability Maturity Model has to do with:A Continuous and institutionalized process improvementB Complete lack of processes and controlsC Fully normalized and optimized softwareD Fully tested and validated software79 Q: The purpose of a Build List is:A To obtain approval at the Detailed Design step of the software lifecycleB To ensure that the compiler includes all necessary components during a buildC To ensure that all the necessary components are present during a buildD A record of the versions of all components of each copy of a product80 Q: In which steps are Security Specifications used in the software lifecycle?A Coding onlyB Product Design onlyC Product Design and Detailed DesignD Product Design, Detailed Design, and Coding81 Q: What is the purpose of a Software Library?A It’s an official software source code repository.B It’s a location where developers can store tools, code fragments, and utilities.C It’s the location where unit test plans are developed.D It’s the local copy of the Software Vault.82 Q: Objects in object-oriented systems communicate with other objects via:ApipesNamedQueuesBPipesCMessagesD83 Q: The software code in an object-oriented environment is known as the:CodeAMethodBInstanceCBehaviorD84 Q: The maturity levels in the Software CMM areA Reactive, Proactive, Managed, and OptimizingB Reactive, Responsive, Defined, Managed, and OptimizingC Initiating, Defined, Repeatable, Managed, and OptimizingD Initiating, Repeatable, Defined, Managed, and Optimizing85 Q: Software products are the most secure when:A They’re run in B2 environments.B They’re run in C2 environments.C Security requirements and architectures are known as early as possible.D Security is layered in as the last step of development.86 Q: The platform-independent mechanism developed by the OMG is:ACORBACOBRABVIPERCDDCOM87 Q: Fuzzification is most often used in:networksASynapticB Magnetic media degaussersC Expert systemsD Database caching algorithms88 Q: The term “sandbox” is used to describe:A The portion of virtual memory that maps to physical memoryB The closed environment in which a Java applet runsC The location where temporary compilation files are storedD The location where developers write and test code89 Q: Which of the following is NOT a security concern about ActiveX?A ActiveX has a robust sandbox that protects the rest of the system.B There is no way to prevent malicious ActiveX code from damaging a client.C An ActiveX control has complete access to the entire client system.D The digital signature on an ActiveX control only tells it is genuine.90 Q: RAID is also known as:A Recoverable Array of Independent DisksB Risk Analysis Initiation DetailC Redundant Array of Independent DisksD Robust Array of Inexpensive Disks91 Q: The process of breaking the key and/or plaintext from an enciphered message is known as:DecryptionASteganographyBCryptanalysisCExtractionD92 Q: The method of encryption in which both sender and recipient possess a common encryption keyis known as:digestMessageAB Hash functionC Public key cryptographyD Secret key cryptography93 Q: Why would a user’s public encryption key be widely distributed?A So that cryptographers can attempt to break it.B Because it’s encrypted.C Because the user’s private key can’t be derived from their private key.D So that the user can decrypt messages from any location.94 Q: Reading down the columns of a message that has been written across is known as:A A columnar transposition cipherB Calculating the hashC Calculating the checksumD Calculating the modulo95 Q: An asymmetric cryptosystem is also known as:digestMessageAB Hash functionC Public key cryptosystemD Secret key cryptosystem96 Q: The process of hiding a message inside of a larger dataset is known as:DecryptionASteganographyBCCryptanalysisExtractionD97 Q: Steganography is not easily noticed because:A Monitor and picture quality are so good these days.B Most PCs’ speakers are turned off or disabled.C The human eye often can’t sense the noise that steganography introduces.D Checksums can’t detect most steganographed images.98 Q: What historic event was the backdrop for breakthroughs in strategic cryptography?A The Gulf WarB World War IC World War IID The Six Day War99 Q: Non-repudiation refers to:A The technology that shoots down the “I didn’t send that message” excuseB Re-verification of all CA certificate serversC The annual competency review of system and network authentication mechanismsD The annual competency review of system and network authentication mechanisms100 Q: The amount of effort required to break a given ciphertext is known as the:functionWorkAB Effort functionCryptanalysisCExtractionD101 Q: What is one disadvantage of an organization signing its own certificates?A The certificate signing function is labor intensive.B Anyone outside the organization will receive warning messages.C The user identification process is labor intensive.D It is much more expensive than having certificates signed by a CA.102 Q: The ability for a government agency to wiretap a data connection is implemented in the:A Skipjack chipB Magic lanternC Cutty chipD Clipper chip103 Q: The cipher device used by Germany in World War II is known as:AM-922M-902BCEnigmaTuringD104 Q: The problem of WTLS-to-SSL transactions existing temporarily “in the clear” is called the:A GATT GAPproblemBKnapsackGAPCWEPD WAP GAP105 Q: Why would a user’s public encryption key be widely distributed?A So that cryptographers can attempt to break it.B Because it’s encrypted.C So that any person can send an encrypted message to the user.D So that the user can decrypt messages from any location.106 Q: Which of the following is NOT a solution for securing e-mail?A MIME Object Security Services (MOSS)BS/MIMESETCPGPD107 Q: An algorithm that is easy to compute in the “forward” direction but difficult to compute “backwards” is known as:A A block grantB A stream cipherC A public key functionD A one-way function108 Q: What technology advancement led to the breaking of DES?VLSIchipsAB Decrease in cost of computersnetworksNeuralCD Expert systems109 Q: Why does PGP not scale well in larger environments?A Users certify each other, which can result in too large a web of trust.B The system or security administrator must manually sign every new key.C Storing the public keys will take more space than previously believed.D Not enough computing power exists to encrypt and decrypt all the e-mail traffic.110 Q: What party in an organization signs a subscriber’s digital certificate?RepositoryAB Subscriber’s supervisorSubscriberCAuthorityDCertificate。

全国医护英语水平考试应试指南2听力全文共3篇示例，供读者参考篇1A Guide to the National Medical English Proficiency Test Part2 ListeningIntroductionThe National Medical English Proficiency Test is an important assessment for healthcare professionals in China. Part 2 of the test focuses on listening skills, which are crucial for effective communication in a medical setting. In this guide, we will provide tips and strategies to help you prepare for the listening section of the test.Tips for preparing for the listening test1. Practice listening to EnglishOne of the best ways to improve your listening skills is to regularly listen to English. You can listen to English podcasts, radio programs, or watch English movies and TV shows. This will help you become more familiar with the rhythm and intonation of the language.2. Take practice testsFamiliarize yourself with the format of the listening test by taking practice tests. This will help you understand the types of questions that are asked and the pace of the listening passages. Practice tests can also help you identify areas where you need to improve.3. Focus on key informationDuring the listening test, focus on key information such as names, dates, and medical terminology. Make sure to listen carefully for any instructions or details that are important for answering the questions.4. Improve your listening skillsTo improve your listening skills, try to listen to different accents and dialects of English. This will help you become more comfortable with diverse ways of speaking English. You can also practice listening to fast-paced speech to help you keep up with the speed of the listening passages.Strategies for answering listening questions1. Read the questions firstBefore listening to the passage, read the questions carefully. This will help you understand what information you need to listen for. Pay attention to keywords in the questions that can help guide your listening.2. Take notesWhile listening to the passage, take notes on key points and details. Write down names, dates, and any other important information that can help you answer the questions. Organize your notes in a way that makes it easy for you to refer back to them when needed.3. Use context cluesIf you are unsure about the meaning of a word or phrase in the listening passage, use context clues to help you figure it out. Pay attention to the surrounding information to make an educated guess about the meaning of the word.4. Review your answersAfter completing the listening test, take a few minutes to review your answers. Make sure that you have answered all the questions and that your responses are clear and accurate. Double-check for any spelling or grammar mistakes that could affect your score.ConclusionThe listening section of the National Medical English Proficiency Test Part 2 can be challenging, but with practice and preparation, you can improve your listening skills and perform well on the test. By following the tips and strategies outlined in this guide, you can enhance your ability to understand spoken English and successfully answer listening questions. Good luck with your test preparation!篇2National Medical English Proficiency Exam Guide ListeningIntroduction:The National Medical English Proficiency Exam is an important assessment for healthcare professionals in China to demonstrate their English language skills. The listening section of the exam plays a crucial role in evaluating candidates' ability to understand spoken English in medical contexts. This guide provides tips and strategies for mastering the listening section of the exam.Section Overview:The listening section of the exam consists of multiple choice questions based on a set of recorded dialogues and monologues. Candidates will be required to listen to each recording carefully and answer the corresponding questions within a specific time frame. The topics covered in the recordings may include patient consultations, medical procedures, and healthcare protocols.Tips for Success:1. Practice Regularly: Listening to English audio materials ona regular basis can help improve your listening skills. Try listening to podcasts, news broadcasts, and medical lectures to familiarize yourself with different accents and speech patterns.2. Predict the Topic: Before listening to each recording, try to predict the topic based on the context provided in the question. This will help you focus on relevant information and anticipate key points during the listening task.3. Take Notes: During the listening task, take notes on important details such as names, dates, locations, and medical terms. Use abbreviations and symbols to quickly jot down essential information without getting distracted.4. Stay Focused: Concentrate on listening to the recordings without getting distracted by background noise or externalfactors. Focus on understanding the main ideas and supporting details to answer the questions accurately.5. Review Your Answers: After completing the listening section, review your answers carefully to ensure accuracy. Double-check any uncertain responses and make corrections if necessary.Sample Practice Questions:1. What is the main topic of the dialogue?A. Patient's medical historyB. Treatment optionsC. Doctor's scheduleD. Hospital facilities2. What does the speaker recommend for the patient?A. SurgeryB. MedicationC. Physical therapyD. Rest and relaxation3. When is the next appointment scheduled for?A. MondayB. TuesdayC. WednesdayD. ThursdayConclusion:Mastering the listening section of the National Medical English Proficiency Exam requires regular practice, focused attention, and effective test-taking strategies. By following the tips provided in this guide and practicing with sample questions, candidates can improve their listening skills and perform well on the exam. Good luck!篇3National Medical English Proficiency Examination Listening Test 2 Test GuideThe National Medical English Proficiency Examination (NMEE) is an important test for medical professionals in China to assess their English language proficiency. One of the key components of the NMEE is the listening test, which evaluates candidates' ability to understand spoken English in medical contexts. In thisguide, we will provide some tips and strategies to help you prepare for the listening test.First of all, it is important to familiarize yourself with the format of the listening test. The test consists of multiple-choice questions based on a series of audio recordings. The recordings may include conversations between healthcare professionals and patients, lectures on medical topics, and instructions for medical procedures. Make sure you understand the instructions for each question type, such as multiple choice, matching, or true/false.To improve your listening skills, it is essential to practice listening to a variety of English accents. In the NMEE, you may encounter speakers with different accents, including British, American, Australian, and others. Try to expose yourself to different accents by listening to podcasts, watchingEnglish-language movies and TV shows, and talking to native English speakers.During the test, focus on understanding the main ideas and key details of the audio recordings. Pay attention to keywords and phrases that signal important information, such as numbers, dates, names, and medical terms. Take notes while you listen to help you remember key points and answer the questions accurately.When answering the questions, read the options carefully and eliminate the choices that are obviously incorrect. Make educated guesses if you are not sure about the correct answer, and do not leave any questions unanswered. Remember that there is no penalty for guessing, so it is better to make an educated guess than to leave a question blank.In addition to practicing listening to English audio materials, you can also improve your listening skills by participating in English language workshops and courses. These programs can help you improve your listening comprehension, vocabulary, and pronunciation, which are important for success in the NMEE listening test.Overall, preparing for the NMEE listening test requires consistent practice and dedication. By following these tips and strategies, you can improve your listening skills and increase your chances of success on the test. Good luck with your preparation, and remember to stay focused and confident during the exam!。

"At our core, human‎being‎s are socia‎l creat‎u res," says Micha‎l Chick‎, CEO of Corne‎r ston‎e Initi‎a tive‎s, a manag‎e ment‎and techn‎o logy‎consu‎l ting‎firm in San Diego‎, Calif‎o rnia‎. "The fact is that no one perso‎n could‎have built‎our railr‎o ads or progr‎a mmed‎Micro‎s oft Windo‎w s. Like it or not, we are all team playe‎r s." He adds that while‎our cultu‎r e still‎tends‎to worsh‎i p stars‎, the most respe‎c ted stars‎have tende‎d to be indiv‎i dual‎s who also made their‎teams‎bette‎r. “在我们的团‎队中，人是一种社‎会属性的生‎物”，迈克奇科，一家加利福‎尼亚圣迭戈‎的管理与技‎术过问公司‎，基石主动的‎首席执行官‎说，“事实上，没有单独一‎个人可以完‎成我们铁路‎的建设或者‎设计实施W‎i ndow‎s操作系统‎。

不论你喜不‎喜欢，所有人类都‎是团队成员‎。

他还强调，当我们的文‎化还在对星‎星崇拜的时‎代，最令人敬佩‎的星星就是‎那些可以为‎其他成员带‎来益处的星‎星。

"In the workp‎l ace, it is essen‎t ial to be perce‎i ved as a team playe‎r," says Libby‎Sarta‎i n, vice presi‎d ent of South‎w est Airli‎n es. "Being‎a team playe‎r will lead to promo‎t ion, while‎not being‎a team playe‎r will limit‎caree‎r and promo‎t iona‎l oppor‎t unit‎i es. I canno‎t think‎of a job at South‎w est Airli‎n es that doesn‎'t requi‎r e teamw‎o rk.在工作场所‎，做为团队的‎一员而被考‎虑是非常重‎要的”，Libby‎Sarta‎i n，西南航空的‎副总裁说，“具有团队精‎神的成员会‎得到升迁，而非团队精‎神的成员的‎职业和升迁‎机会会受到‎限制。

公共英语4级备考资料Public English Level 4 Preparation Resources.Preparing for the Public English Level 4 exam can be a challenging yet rewarding experience. With the right resources and a focused approach, candidates can successfully master the language skills required to achieve a passing score. In this article, we will explore some essential preparation materials and strategies to help you prepare effectively for the exam.1. Official Exam Guide:The first step in your preparation should be to obtain the official exam guide. This guide provides detailed information about the exam format, question types, and the skills and knowledge areas that will be tested. Studying the guide will give you a clear understanding of what to expect on the exam and help you focus your preparation efforts.2. Practice Tests:Practice tests are crucial for exam preparation. They allow you to familiarize yourself with the exam format, manage your time effectively, and identify areas where you need to improve. Find reliable practice tests online or in preparation books and take them under timed conditions to simulate the real exam environment.3. Vocabulary and Grammar Resources:A strong vocabulary and grasp of grammar rules are essential for success in the Public English Level 4 exam. Use vocabulary books, online resources, and mobile applications to build your vocabulary and practice using new words in context. Similarly, refresh your grammar knowledge by referring to reliable grammar guides and practicing exercises.4. Reading Comprehension Materials:Reading comprehension is a key skill tested in the exam. Improve your reading skills by reading a variety ofmaterials such as newspapers, magazines, and onlinearticles. Focus on understanding the main ideas, details, and the author's intent. Practice reading comprehension exercises to familiarize yourself with the types of questions you may encounter on the exam.5. Listening Comprehension Resources:Listening comprehension is another critical skill inthe exam. Improve your listening skills by listening to English podcasts, news reports, and conversations. Practice listening comprehension exercises, such as dictation and answering questions based on what you hear.6. Writing Practice:The exam may include a writing section, so it's important to practice your writing skills. Start by writing short essays on different topics to develop your ideas and organize your thoughts. Gradually progress to longercompositions and practice writing in different styles and formats. Get feedback on your writing from teachers, friends, or online writing communities to identify areasfor improvement.7. Speaking Practice:Speaking skills are also tested in the exam, so it's essential to practice speaking English fluently and confidently. Join language exchange groups, participate in conversation clubs, or find partners to practice speaking with. Focus on improving your pronunciation, vocabulary usage, and grammar accuracy. Practice speaking in different scenarios and prepare yourself to discuss a range of topics.8. Study Schedules and Time Management:Develop a study schedule that allows you to allocate sufficient time to each area of the exam. Prioritize your weak areas and allocate more time to those sections.Practice time management by simulating the exam conditions and ensuring you can complete each section within theallocated time.Conclusion:Preparing for the Public English Level 4 exam requires a comprehensive approach that covers all areas of the exam. By utilizing official exam guides, practice tests, vocabulary and grammar resources, reading and listening comprehension materials, writing and speaking practice, and effective time management, you can increase your chances of achieving a passing score. Remember to stay motivated and committed to your preparation, and you will be well on your way to exam success.。

CompTIA 220-604: Practice ExamI T认证题库资源网QUESTION NO: 1When rebooting a computer running Windows XP Home, a technician observes an error message stating, 'illegal I/O port address.' Which of the following can be done to resolve this error?A. Upgrade the motherboard BIOS.B. Upgrade to Windows XP Professional.C. Upgrade the CPU on the motherboard.D. Return to Windows 2000 Professional.Answer: AQUESTION NO: 2When experiencing video problems, which of the following should be performed FIRST to ensure that the monitor is not causing the problem?A. Check for the latest video drivers.B. Install a known-good video adapter.C. Attach the monitor to a known-good computer.D. Replace the monitor.Answer: CQUESTION NO: 3Which of the following item colorizes the paper using a two-component laser printer?A. tonerB. laser beamC. developerD. ribbonAnswer: AQUESTION NO: 4A computer has been upgraded with a new hard drive and after reassembling the computer and turning the computer on, the drive LED remains lit and an error message during power-on self test (POST) states, 'No Drive Present.' Which of the following would MOST likely be the cause?A. The motherboard was damaged and needs replacing.B. The floppy drive was not reconnected.C. A configuration disk was left in the floppy drive.D. The ribbon cable has been installed incorrectly.Answer: DQUESTION NO: 5Which of the following would be the correct way to dispose of a laptop battery?A. Place the battery on a shelf for storage.B. Place the battery in a trash compactor separately from the laptop.C. Dispose of the battery in the same manner as the laptop.D. Refer to the disposal information located on the battery.Answer: DQUESTION NO: 6Which of the following is a type of motherboard? (Select TWO).A. PCI daughter boardB. IDE controller boardC. SATA controller boardD. micro ATXE. standard ATXAnswer: D,EQUESTION NO: 7A technician receives a dot matrix printer for repair and the work order states that the printer is only printing one-half of each character. Which of the following should the technician replace?A. print headB. fuserC. injectorD. print nozzleAnswer: AQUESTION NO: 8A laser printer has a vertically repetitive print defect. Before attempting to repair the printer, a technician should determine:A. the distance between the spots.B. which paper tray was used to print the document.C. which driver was used to print the document.D. which application was used to print the document.Answer: AQUESTION NO: 9A technician receives a new printer for repair and the work order states that when powered on the printer makes a loud noise and will not print. Which of the following actions should the technician take?A. Install new drivers on the computer.B. Install a new ink cartridge.C. Install a print head on the printer.D. Remove the packing tape from the print head.Answer: DQUESTION NO: 10A technician is troubleshooting a CD/DVD drive. There is a disk in the drive and the tray wont eject. Which of the following actions should the technician take FIRST?A. Shutdown, restart and verify that the BIOS recognizes the drive and try again.B. Replace the CD/DVD drive.C. Pry the tray open with a small, flat head screwdriver.D. Place the end of a paper clip in the emergency eject pinhole on the CD/DVD drive.Answer: DQUESTION NO: 11When installing a new Plug and Play sound card, a technician should turn off and unplug the computer; remove the computer's cover; locate the sound card slot, insert and secure the card in the slot and:A. plug in and turn on the computer; let Windows recognize the new hardware and install the driver.B. plug in the computer; let Windows recognize the new hardware and plug in the speakers.C. let Windows recognize the new hardware; install the driver and plug in the speakers.D. turn on and plug in the computer; let Windows recognize the new hardware and install the driver.Answer: AQUESTION NO: 12A technician receives a work order requesting the installation of an NLX motherboard into a micro ATX case. Which of the following should the technician recognize?A. A standard ATX power supply will not be able to connect to the NLX adapter.B. The system will not start up.C. The case is too small for the motherboard.D. The motherboard was not meant for this style of case.Answer: DQUESTION NO: 13A technician receives a computer for repair and observes that the fan on the power supply is not moving. Which of the following should the technician do?A. Move the power supply voltage switch to 220 volts.B. Add an additional fan to help cool the computer.C. Replace the cable that attaches the power supply to the motherboard.D. Replace the power supply.Answer: DQUESTION NO: 14Which of the following can be used to determine the amount of physical memory installed in a laptop? (Select TWO).A. Check Device Manager Snap-in.B. Type WINVER in the command prompt.C. Check the BIOS.D. Check System Information in the Accessibility folder.E. Check System Information.Answer: C,EQUESTION NO: 15Which of the following would be the safest environmental condition for working on multiple systems at one time?A. A tiled room with anti-static mats and wrist straps.B. A clean, carpeted room with anti-static mats and wrist straps.C. A tiled room in a warehouse with outside ventilation.D. A clean, carpeted room with air purifiers and dehumidifiers.Answer: AQUESTION NO: 16A technician receives a laptop that is running out of battery power more quickly than expected. Which of the following can the technician do to correct the problem?A. Note on the work order that the laptop is losing battery capabilities and the laptop must be replaced.B. Replace the battery by purchasing a new battery from the manufacturer.C. Stop using the battery and use alternating current (AC) power for the laptop.D. Replace the AC adaptor by purchasing a new adapter from the manufacturer.Answer: BQUESTION NO: 17A new computer is displaying the wrong amount of memory. Which of the following may be the cause?A. The module is installed backwards.B. A USB device is using some memory.C. An onboard video card is using some memory.D. The CPU is using some memory.Answer: CQUESTION NO: 18Which of the following printer types uses thin print pins to transfer ink from a fiber or ribbon?A. impactB. laserC. solid inkD. ink jetAnswer: AQUESTION NO: 19Which of the following would be the way to prevent the Num Lock LED from being turned on automatically when a laptop is booted?A. Hold the function Num Lock key down during POST.B. Go into the Windows Keyboard applet and deselect the 'Num Lock on boot' option.C. Create a Windows profile to disable the feature during power-on self test (POST).D. Turn the feature off in the BIOS.Answer: DQUESTION NO: 20A user reports that the display on the laptop appears blurred. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause?A. The LCD is not running in its native resolution.B. LCD monitors do not appear blurred.C. The drivers are improperly installed.D. More video memory needs to be allocated.Answer: AQUESTION NO: 21A user reports that when trying to print a document nothing comes out of the printer and states that the only printer in the printer dialog box is 'Microsoft Office Document Image Writer.' The technician should understand that the problem is that the printer:A. has not been installed on the user's computer.B. is not turned on.C. driver is corrupt.D. cable is unplugged.Answer: AQUESTION NO: 22Which of the following should be considered when upgrading memory? (Select TWO).A. speed of memoryB. memory slot colorC. type of memoryD. CPU speedE. BIOS versionAnswer: A,CQUESTION NO: 23Which of the following RAID configurations takes advantage of mirroring?A. RAID 1B. RAID 5C. RAID 0D. RAID 2Answer: AQUESTION NO: 24Which of the following will help protect an operating system from vulnerability?A. Download free anti-virus programs from the Internet.B. Perform updates from the manufacturers website regularly.C. Using the operating systems email program only to open attachments.D. Monitoring what is displayed on the screen.Answer: BQUESTION NO: 25When a computer does not recognize an internal modem, a technician should determine whether: (Select TWO).A. the modem is seated properly.B. the number being dialed is valid.C. there are resource conflicts.D. there is power to the modem.E. the modem speaker is enabled.Answer: A,CQUESTION NO: 26When installing an inkjet printer for the first time, which of the following should be done FIRST?A. Print a test page from the Printer icon under the printers tab.B. Select the new printer as the default printer.C. Run the printhead alignment within the Tools folder of the printer.D. Ensure that the printer is set for bi-directional printing.Answer: CQUESTION NO: 27In which of the following locations would a technician set the LBA mode for a hard drive?A. Jumper SettingsB. Disk ManagerC. Device ManagerD. System BIOSAnswer: DQUESTION NO: 28A work order states that a customer used Windows updates and after rebooting the computer, the video driver was corrupted and the computer was in safe mode. Which of the following would be the BEST action to take?A. Download and install the correct video driver from the manufacturer's web site.B. Remove the video driver and reboot the computer.C. Use the Driver Roll Back feature in Device Manager.D. Go back to Windows update and specify the correct video driver.Answer: CQUESTION NO: 29When connecting a laser printer to a network for the first time, a technician should FIRST:A. configure the network settings on the printer.B. ensure the cable is set to TCP/IP.C. enable the printer in the BIOS.D. configure the printer as bi-directional in Windows.Answer: AQUESTION NO: 30Which of the following would be an example of a biometric device?A. encryption passwordB. thumb print readerC. USB security keyD. smart card readerAnswer: BQUESTION NO: 31To force a user to use Ctrl-Alt-Delete to log into the computer, a technician can go to Control Panel then:A. Windows Firewall.B. Security Center.C. User accounts and the Advanced tab.D. Accessibility options.Answer: CQUESTION NO: 32During boot up, a laptop screen displays vertical colored lines and then the LCD screen goes blank. There are no display problems when connected to an external monitor. Which of the following actions should be taken to resolve the problem?A. Replace the laptop.B. Replace the LCD screen.C. Replace the LCD pixels.D. Re-select the LCD in Device Manager.Answer: BQUESTION NO: 33Which of the following desktop hardware should a technician be MOST concerned with disposing of correctly?A. batteriesB. power cordsC. disk drivesD. hard drivesAnswer: AQUESTION NO: 34Which of the following would be the maximum number of devices in a single chain that USB technology will allow?A. 98B. 127C. 254D. 120Answer: BQUESTION NO: 35A shipping department is reporting that a laser printer in the receiving area is becoming jammed because the printer attempts to pull several sheets of paper for each print. Which of the following may be the cause?A. Humidity is causing the paper to stick together.B. The paper is sticking to the corona wire and causing the jam.C. A4 paper is being used and may not be supported by laser printers.D. The fusion roller is dirty and pulling too many sheets of paper.Answer: AQUESTION NO: 36A technician receives a printer that is printing ink smudges on random sheets of paper. Which of the following should the technician try FIRST?A. Replace the printer.B. Replace print head assembly.C. Clean the print head.D. Use a different brand of paper.Answer: CQUESTION NO: 37A technician is working on a new computer running Windows XP and the hard drive is formatted at 20GB but is an 80GB hard drive. There is not another partition and no extra space can be found under Windows explorer. Which of the following would be the BEST way to partition the remainder of the hard drive without data loss?A. Add another hard drive and use that available space.B. Run FDISK.C. Use the Disk Management tool.D. Back up all important data to an external drive then reformat the hard drive.Answer: CQUESTION NO: 38A printer takes a long time to print high-end graphics. Which of the following would be the FIRST action to take?A. Replace the toner cartridge.B. Recommend the use of smaller graphics.C. Check the amount of memory installed.D. Recommend connecting fewer users to the printer.Answer: CQUESTION NO: 39Which of the following represents a safety hazard?A. liquid on the floorB. a tiled floorC. a concrete floorD. carpetAnswer: AQUESTION NO: 40A customer has security concerns about classified local data being compromised if the laptop is stolen. The customers laptop has Windows 2000 utilizing the FAT16 file system. Which of the following actions should be taken?A. Upgrade the operating system to Windows XP Home.B. Have the customer convert to NTFS and enable data encryption.C. Tell the customer that a laptop should not be used for classified data.D. Configure the wireless adapter to only connect to secure networks.Answer: BQUESTION NO: 41A technician is performing preventive maintenance on the hardware components in a workstation. Which of the following actions should the technician take?A. Remove the case front and clean the air vents.B. Unplug the capacitors from the board and clean the contacts.C. Remove the processor and clean the pins with an eraser.D. Remove the processor and clean any dust that has collected between the processor and the heatsink.Answer: AQUESTION NO: 42A technician receives a laptop work order stating that the mouse pointer from the touchpad is moving randomly around the screen. Which of the following should the technician do FIRST?A. Reboot the computer.B. Replace the touchpad.C. Clean the touchpad.D. Update the driver.Answer: CQUESTION NO: 43A technician receives a laptop that is running out of battery power more quickly than expected. Which of the following can the technician do to correct the problem?A. Stop using the battery and use alternating current (AC) power for the laptop.B. Note on the work order that the laptop is losing battery capabilities and the laptop must be replaced.C. Replace the AC adaptor by purchasing a new adapter from the manufacturer.D. Replace the battery by purchasing a new battery from the manufacturer.Answer: DQUESTION NO: 44Which of the following makes toner stick to paper?A. corona transfer wireB. fuser assemblyC. drum assemblyD. pickup roller assemblyAnswer: BQUESTION NO: 45An 8X AGP video card will not fit into the AGP slot. Which of the following may be the cause?A. The motherboard only supports 3.3v AGP Cards.B. The motherboard only supports universal cards.C. The video card is defective.D. The slot covers are misaligned.Answer: AQUESTION NO: 46A technician is performing scheduled preventive maintenance on a laser printer. Which of the following should the technician clean or replace?A. transfer coronaB. ozone filterC. primary coronaD. fuserAnswer: BQUESTION NO: 47Which of the following is used to produce the best LCD image on a laptop?A. Dual scanB. Active matrixC. Passive matrixD. Active scanningAnswer: BQUESTION NO: 48Which of the following is the voltage that an ATX molex connector delivers to an IDE device? (Select TWO).A. -3.3 VoltsB. 24 VoltsC. 120 VoltsD. 12 VoltsE. 5 VoltsAnswer: D,E。