2018年普通高等学校招生全国统一考试英语（全国卷1）及答案解析
英语
第一部分听力 (共两节，满分30分
做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
第一节(共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分)
听下面5段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
例: How much is the shirt?
A. ￡19.15.
B. ￡ 9.18.
C. ￡ 9.15.
答案是C。
1. What will James do tomorrow?
A. Watch a TV program.
B. Give a talk.
C. Write a report.
2. What can we say about the woman?
A. She’s generous.
B. She’s curious.
C. She’s helpful.
3. When does the train leave?
A. At 6:30.
B. At 8:30.
C. At 10:30
4. How does the woman go to work?
A. By car
B. On foot
C. By bike.
5. What is the probable relationship between the speakers?
A. Classmates.
B. Teacher and student.
C. Doctor and patient.
第二节(共15小题; 每小题1.5分。满分22.5分)
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟，听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6、7题
6. What does the woman regret?
A. Giving up her research.
B. Dropping out of college.
C. Changing her major.
7. What is the woman interested in studying now?
A. Ecology.
B. Education.
C. Chemistry
听第7段材料，回答第8、9题。
8. What is the mam?
A. A hotel manager.
B. A tour guide.
C. A taxi driver.
9. What is the man doing for the woman?
A. Looking for some local foods.
B. Showing her around the seaside.
C. Offering information about a hotel.
听第8段材料，回答第10至12题。
10. Where does the conversation probably take place?
A. In an office.
B. At home.
C. At a restaurant.
11. What will the speakers do tomorrow evening?
A. Go to a concert.
B. Visit a friend.
C. Work extra hours.
12. Who is Alice going to call?
A. Mike.
B. Joan
C. Catherine.
听第9段材料，回答第13至16题。
13. Why does the woman meet the man?
A. To look at an apartment
B. To deliver some furniture.
C. To have a meal together.
14. What does the woman like about the carpet?
A. Its color.
B. Its design.
C. Its quality.
15. What does the man say about the kitchen?
A. It’s a good size.
B. It’s newly painted.
C. It’s adequately equipped.
16. What will the woman probably do next?
A. Go downtown.
B. Talk with her friend.
C. Make payment.
听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。
17. Who is the speaker probably talking to?
A. Movie fans.
B. News reporters.
C. College students.
18. When did the speaker take English classes?
A. Before he left his hometown.
B. After he came to America.
C. When he was 15 years old.
19. How does the speaker feel about his teacher?
A. He’s proud.
B. He’s sympathetic.
C. He’s grateful.
20. What does the speaker mainly talk about?
A. How education shaped his life.
B. How his language skills improved.
C. How he managed his business well.
答案： 1-5 BCCBA 6-10 BABCC 11-15 ABAAC 16-20 BCBCA
第二部分阅读理解 (共两节，满分40分)
第一节(共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分)
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
A
Washington, D.C. Bicycle Tours
Cherry Blossom Bike Tour in Washington, D.C.
Duration: 3 hours
This small group bike tour is a fantastic way to see the world-famous cherry trees with beautiful flowers of Washington, D.C. Your guide will provide a history lesson about the trees and the famous monuments where they blossom. Reserve your spot before availability —and the cherry blossoms —disappear!
Washington Capital Monuments Bicycle Tour
Duration: 3 hours (4 miles)
Join a guided bike tour and view some of the most popular monuments in Washington, D.C. Explore the monuments and memorials on the National Mail as your guide shares unique facts and history at each stop. Guided tour includes bike, helmet, cookies and bottled water.
Capital City Bike Tour in Washington, D.C.
Duration: 3 hours
Morning or Afternoon, this bike tour is the perfect tour for D.C. newcomers and locals looking to experience Washington, D.C. in a healthy way with minimum effort. Knowledgeable guides will entertain you with the most interesting stories about Presidents, Congress, memorials, and parks. Comfortable bikes and a smooth tour route(路线) make cycling between the sites fun and relaxing.
Washington Capital Sites at Night Bicycle Tour
Duration: 3 hours (7 miles)
Join a small group bike tour for an evening of exploration in the heart of Washington, D.C. Get up close to the monuments and memorials as you bike the sites of Capital Hill and the National Mall. Frequent stops are make for photo taking as your guide offers unique facts and history. Tour includes bike, helmet, and bottled water. All riders are equipped with reflective vests and safety lights.
21. Which tour do you need to book in advance?
A. Cherry Blossom Bike Tour in Washington, D.C.
B. Washington Capital Monuments Bicycle Tour.
C. Capital City Bike Tour in Washington,
D.C.
D. Washington Capital Sites at Night Bike Tour.
22. What will you do on the Capital City Bike Tour?
A. Meet famous people.
B. Go to a national park.
C. Visit well-known museums.
D. Enjoy interesting stories.
23. Which of the following does the bicycle tour at night provide?
A. City maps.
B. Cameras.
C. Meals.
D. Safety lights.
21. A
细节理解题。题目问“哪一个骑车游需要提前预定”，根据第一段内容中的“Reserve your spot before availability —and the cherry blossoms —disappear(在有效期和樱花消失前预约)”可知应选A。
22. D
细节理解题。题目问“首都骑车游中你能做什么”，根据第三段内容中的“Knowledgeable guides will entertain you with the most interesting stories about Presidents, Congress, memorials, and parks
23. D
细节理解题。题目问“以下哪一个是夜间骑车游提供的”，根据第四段内容中的“All riders are equipped with reflective vests and safety lights”可知应选D选项。
B
Good Morning Britain’s Susanna Reid is used to grilling guests on the sofa every morning, but she is cooking up a storm in her latest role - showing families how to prepare delicious and nutritious meals on a tight budget.
In Save Money: Good Food, she visits a different home each week and with the help of chef Matt Tebbutt offers top tips on how to reduce food waste, while preparing recipes for under ￡5 per family a day. And the Good Morning Britain presenter says she's been able to put a lot of what she's learnt into practice in her own home, preparing meals for sons, Sam, I4, Finn, 13. and Jack, 11
We love Mexican churros, so I buy them on my phone from my local Mexican takeaway restaurant," she explains, “I pay ￡5 is for a portion (一份), but Matt makes them for 26p a portion, because they are flour, water, sugar and oil. Everybody can buy takeaway food. But sometimes we're not aware how cheaply we can make this food ourselves.”
The eight-part series (系列节目)，Save Money: Good Food, follows in the footsteps of ITV's Save Money: Good Health, which gave viewers advice on how to get value from the vast range of health products on the market.
With food our biggest weekly household expenses, Susanna and Matt spend time with a different family each week. In tonight’s Faster special, they come to the aid of a family in need of some delicious inspiration on a budget. The team transforms the family’s long weekend of celebration with less expensive but still tasty recipes.
24. What do we know about Susanna Reid?
A. She enjoys embarrassing her guests.
B. She has started a new programme.
C. She dislikes working early in the morning.
D. She has had a tight budget for her family.
25. How does Matt Tebbutt help Susanna?
A. He buys cooking materials for her.
B. He prepares food for her kids.
C. He assists her in cooking matters.
D. He invites guest families for her.
26. What does the author intend to do in paragraph4?
A. Summarize the previous paragraphs.
B. Provide some advice for the readers.
C. Add some background information.
D. Introduce a new topic for the discussion.
27. What can be a suitable title for the text?
A. Keeping Fit by Eating Smart
B. Balancing Our Daily Diet
C. Making yourself a Perfect Chef
D. Cooking Well for Less
24. B.
细节题，出处可定位至第一段her latest role，为各种家庭展示如何用比较少的预算去做既好吃又有营养的饭菜；25. C.
细节题，出处定位至第二段with the help of chef Matt Tebbutt offers top tips on how to reduce food waste, while preparing recipes for under $5 per family a day. 可知Matt在烹饪事物上帮助了Susanna。
26. C.
细节题，出处定位至Save Money: Good Food, follows in the footsteps of ITV's Save Money: Good Health,…可知作者是为读者介绍了Save Money这个节目是怎么来的，即是背景信息，故选择C项。
27. D.
主旨题，主旨句一般可定位至文章的第一段，but后的关键信息点she is cooking up a storm in her latest role - showing families how to prepare delicious and nutritious meals on a tight budget.可知答案D。
C
Languages have been coming and going for thousands of years, but in recent times there has been less coming and a lot more going. When the world was sill populated by hunter-gatherers , small tightly knit (联系) groups developed their own patterns of speech independent of each other. Some language experts believe that 10000 years ago, when the world had just five to ten million people, they spoke perhaps 1200 languages between them.
Soon afterwards, many of those people started settling down to become farmers, and their languages too became more settled and fewer in number. In recent centuries, trade, industrialization, the development of the nation-state and the spread of universal compulsory education, especially globalization and better communications in the past few decades, all have caused many languages to disappear, and dominant languages such as English, Spanish and Chinese are increasingly taking over.
At present, the world has about 6800 languages. The distribution of these languages is hugely uneven. The general rule is that mild zones have relatively few languages, often spoken by many people, while hot, wet zones have lots, often spoken by small numbers. Europe has only around 200 languages; the Americas about 1000; Africa 2400; and Asia and the Pacific perhaps 3200, of which Papua New Guinea alone accounts for well over 800. The median number (中位数) of speakers is a mere 6000, which means that half the world's languages are spoken by fewer people than that.
Already well over 400 of the total of 6,800 languages are close to extinction (消亡), with only a few elderly speakers left. Pick, at random, Busum in Cameroon (eight remaining Speaker), Chiapaneco in Mexico (150), Lipan Apache in the United States (two or three) or Wadjigu in Australia (one, with a question-mark) none of these seems to have much chance of survival.
28. What can we infer about languages in hunter-gatherer times?
A. They developed very fast.
B. They were large in number.
C. They had similar patterns.
D. They were closely connected.
29. Which of the following best explains “dominant”underlined in paragraph 2?
A. Complex.
B. Advanced.
C. Powerful.
D. Modern.
30. How many languages are spoken by less than 6000 people at present?
A. About 6800
B. About 3400
C. About 2400
D. About 1200
31. What is the main idea of the text?
A. New languages will be created.
B. People’s lifestyles are reflected in fewer languages.
C. Human development results in fewer languages.
D. Geography determines language evolution.
28. B．
细节题。由hunter-gatherer times定位到第一自然段，根据when the world had just five to ten million people, they spoke perhaps 1200 languages between them. 可是当时人少，但是语言很多。
29. C.
猜题题。根据第二段后半部分dominant languages such as English, Spanish and Chinese are increasingly taking over, 列举的英语、西班牙语、中文等都是使用人数较多等语言，所以选择powerful。
30. B.
细节题。根据第三段At present, the world has about 6800 languages和The
median number (中位数) of speakers is a were 6000 ,which means that half the world's languages are spoken by fewer people than that. 可知现在有3400种语言被少于6000人说。
31. C.
主旨题，根据Languages have been coming and going for thousands of years, but in recent times there has been less coming and a lot more going .可知增加的语言少消失的语言多，且本文按照时间顺序写作，讲了随着人类发展，很多语言消失。所以选择C。
D
We may think we’re a culture that gets rid of our worn technology at the first sight of something shiny and new, but a new study shows that we keep using our old devices（装置）well after they go out of style. That’s bad news for the environment –and our wallets –as these outdated devices consume much more energy than the news ones that do the same things.
To figure out how much power these devices are using. Callie Babbitt and her colleagues at the Rochester Institute of Technology in New York tracked the environmental costs for each product throughout its life –from when its minerals are mined to when we stop using the device. This method provided a readout for how home energy use has evolved since the early 1990s. Devices were grouped by generation. Desktop computers, basic mobile phones, and box-set TVs defined 1992. Digital cameras arrived on the scene in 1997. And MP3 players, smart phones, and LCD TVs entered homes in 2002, before tablets and e-readers showed up in 2007.
As we accumulated more devices, however, we didn't throw out our old ones. “The living-room television is replaced and gets planted in the kids’room, and suddenly one day, you have a TV in every room of the house,”said one researcher. The average number of electronic devices rose from four per household in 1992 to 13 in 2007. We’re not just keeping these old devices –we continue to use them. According to the analysis of Babbitt’s team, old desktop monitors and box TVs with cathode ray tubes are the worst devices with their energy consumption and contribution to greenhouse gas emissions（排放）more than doubling during the 1992 to 2007 window.
So what's the solution（解决方案）? The team's date only went up to 2007, but the researchers also explored what would happen if consumers replaced old products with new electronics that serve more than one function, such as a tablet for word processing and TV viewing. They found that more on demand environment viewing on tablets instead of TVs and desktop computers could cut energy consumption by 44%.
32. What does the author think of new devices?
A. They are environment-friendly.
B. They are no better than the old.
C. They cost more to use at home.
D. They go out of style quickly.
33. Why did Babbitt's team conduct the research?
A. To reduce the cost of minerals.
B. To test the life cycle of a product.
C. To update consumers on new technology.
D. To find out electricity consumption of the devices.
34. Which of the following uses the least energy?
A. The box-set TV.
B. The tablet.
C. The LCD TV.
D. The desktop computer.
35. What does the text suggest people do about old electronic devices?
A. Stop using them.
B. Take them apart.
C. Upgrade them.
D. Recycle them.
32. A
根据第一段最后一句“That’s bad news for the environment –and our wallets –as these outdated devices consume much more energy than the news ones that do the same things.”可知，做同样的事，旧的过时的装置比新装置消耗更多能源，对环境有害。通过对比可知，新装置对环境有益，所以选A。
33. D
根据第二段第一句“To figure out how much power these devices are using.”可知，Babbitt 团队组织这个研究是为了弄清这些装置使用多少能源，所以选D。当题干中出现why时，在原文中找to或because。
34. B
根据第二段“This method provided a readout for how home energy use has evolved since the early 1990s…before tablets and e-readers showed up in 2007.”可知，tablet便签是最新出现的，又因为第一段最后一句“That’s bad news for the environment –and our wallets –as these outdated devices consume much more energy than the news ones that do the same things.”可知，新装置比旧装置消耗能源少，所以tablet消耗最少的能源，选B
35. A
根据最后一段“consumers replaced old products with new electronics”可知，文章建议人们用新装置代替旧装置，所以选A，停止使用旧装置。
第二节(共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分)
根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Color is fundamental in home design –something you’ll always have in every room. A grasp of how to manage color in your spaces is one of the first steps to creating rooms you’ll love to live in. Do you want a room that’s full of life? Professional? Or are you just looking for a place to relax after a long day? 36 , color is the key to make a room feel the way you want it to feel.
Over the years, there have been a number of different techniques to help designers approach this important point. 37 , they can get a little complex. But good news is that there’re really only three kinds of decisions you need to make about color in your home: the small ones, the medium ones, and the large ones.
38 . They’re the little spots of color like throw pillows, mirrors and baskets that most of us used to add visual interest to our rooms. Less tiring than painting your walls and less expensive than buying a colorful sofa, small color choices bring with them the significant benefit of being easily changeable.
Medium color choices are generally furniture pieces such as sofa, dinner tables or bookshelves. 39 . They require a bigger commitment than smaller ones, and they have a more powerful effect on the feeling of a space.
The large color decision in your rooms concern the walls, ceilings, and floors. Whether you’re looking at wallpaper or paint, the time, effort and relative expense put into it are significant. 40 .
A. While all of them are useful
B. Whatever you’re looking for
C. If you’re experimenting with a color
D. Small color choices are the ones we’re most familiar with
E. It’s not really a good idea to use too many small color pieces
F. So it pays to be sure, because you want to get it right the first time
G. Color choices in this range are a step up from the small ones in two major ways
解析：
36. B 上文中提到“你是否在寻找你意中的房间”并给出了几种选择。B选项承接了上句的问题，“无论你在寻找什么”并且引出了下句的答案“颜色是重要因素”。
37. A 选项中的them 指代上文中的 different techniques 和下文中的they 指代内容相同。
38. D 上一段末尾提到要介绍三种颜色选择，本段详细介绍第一种small color choice.
39. G 本段主要内容是medium color choice, 前半句承接上文中medium是small的升级，后半句引出下文的两种方式。
40. F 上文中提到时间、努力和相应的费用付出是巨大的，迎合F选项中so it pays to be sure.
第三部分语言知识运用 (共两节，满分45分)
第一节完型填空 (共20小题；每小题1.5分，满分30分)
阅读下面的短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
During my second year at the city college, I was told that the education department was offering a “free”course, called Thinking Chess, for three credits. I __41__ the idea of taking the class because, after all, who doesn’t want to ___42___ a few dollars? More than that, I’d always wanted to learn chess. And, even if I weren’t __43__ enough about free credits, news about our__44__was appealing enough to me. He was an international grandmaster, which __45__I wound be learning from one of the game’s __46__. I could hardly wait to __47__him.
Maurice Ashley was kind and smart, a former graduate returning to teach, and this __48__was no game for him: he meant
business. In his introduction, he made it __49__that our credits would be hard-earned. In order to __50__ the class, among other criteria, we had to write a paper on how we plan to __51__ what we would learn in class to our future professions and __52__ to our lives. I managed to get an A in that __53__ and learn life lessons that have served me well beyond the __54__ .
Ten years after my chess class with Ashley, I’m still putting to use what he __55__ me: “The absolute most important __56__ that you learn when you play chess is how to make good __57__. On every single move you have to __58__ a situation, process what your opponent (对手) is doing and __59__ the best move from among all your options.”These words still ring true today in my __60__ as a journalist.
41. A. put forward B. jumped at C. tried out D. turned down
42. A. waste B. earn C. save D. pay
43. A. excited B. worried C. moved D. tired
44. A. title B. competitor C. textbook D. instructor
45. A. urged B. demanded C. held D. meant
46. A. fastest B. easiest C. best D. rarest
47. A. interview B. meet C. challenge D. beat
48. A. chance B. qualification C. honor D. job
49. A. real B. perfect C. clear D. possible
50. A. attend B. pass C. skip D. observe
51. A. add B. expose C. apply D. compare
52. A. eventually B. naturally C. directly D. normally
53. A. game B. presentation C. course D. experiment
54. A. criterion B. classroom C. department D. situation
55. A. taught B. wrote C. questioned D. promised
56. A. fact B. step C. manner D. skill
57. A. grades B. decisions C. impressions D. comments
58. A. analyze B. describe C. rebuild D. control
59. A. announce B. signal C. block D. evaluate
60. A. role B. desire C. concern D. behavior
解析：
41. B. 考察动词词组。后文中说因为毕竟，谁不想省个几块钱呢，说明作者想要参加这次课程，jump at 表示想要积极参加，所以选择B。
A. 提出
B. 急切地想要接受
C. 尝试
D. 调小；婉拒
42. C. 考察前后文联系。前文说offering a free course，提供免费课程，所以相应选择省几块钱。
A. 浪费
B. 赚
C. 节省
D. 支付
43. A. 考察前后文联系。后文说老师的事情非常吸引我，也就是说前文需要虽然我对于学分不感兴趣。
A．兴奋的 B. 担心的 C. 感动的 D. 累的
44. D. 考察前后文联系。后文说他是一个国际大师，所以是指导老师非常吸引他。
A．标题 B. 竞争者 C. 课本 D. 指导者
45. D. 考察动词和宾语从句的搭配。前文说老师很厉害，所以这意味着我会跟本领域最厉害的人学习。
A．督促 B. 要求 C. 保持 D. 意味着
46. C. 考察形容词做名词使用。The + 形容词表示一类人，在这里表示我会跟着领域最厉害的人学习，the best 表示一类。
A．最快的人 B. 最简单的人 C. 最好的人 D. 最罕见的人
47. B. 考察前后文联系。前文说老师很厉害，所以他迫不及待想见到他。
A．面试 B. 见到 C. 挑战 D. 打败
48. D. 考察前后文联系。前文说这是要上这门课的老师，所以对于他来说，这是一份工作，而且这份工作对于他不是开玩笑。
A. 机会
B. 资质
C. 荣誉
D. 工作
49. C. 考察make的动词搭配，make sth adj.让某事怎么样，it是形式宾语，指的是后文我们的绩点很难拿到，表示他说的很清楚我们的绩点很难拿到。
A. 真正的
B. 完美的
C. 清楚的
D. 可能的
50. B. 考察动词词组。文中说为了通过这门课，所以选择B。
A. 参加
B. 通过
C. 跳过
D. 观察
51. C. 考察上下文。后文中说把我们在课上所学的应用到我们将来的职业中，所以选择C。
A. 添加
B. 暴露
C. 应用，申请
D. 比较
52. A 考察上下文。根据上文and之前应用到职业中进而最终应用到我们的生活中国，所以选择A。
A. 最终地
B. 自然地
C. 直接地
D. 正常地
53. C. 名词复现。在那个课上，指上文的围棋课。所以选择C。
A. 游戏
B. 陈述，表演
C. 课程
D. 实验
54. B. 上下文。文中说在课上学的人生哲学能够在课堂外很好的服务我，所以选择B。
A. 标准
B. 教室
C. 部门
D. 情况形势
55. A. 考察动词词组。前文中说我仍然在使用老师教给我的，所以选择A。
A. 教
B. 写
C. 质疑
D. 承若，保证
56. D. 考察上下文，文中说当你下棋时最重要的技能是学会如何做好决定，所以选择D。
A. 事实
B. 步骤
C. 方式
D. 技能
57. B. 考察动词词组。文中说当你下棋时最重要的技能是学会如何做好决定，所以选择B。
A. 年级
B. 决定
C. 印象
D. 评论
58. A. 考察动词词组。文中说每一次移动，你不得不分析形势和情况，所以选择A。
A. 分析
B. 描述
C. 重建
D. 控制
59. D. 考察动词词组。文中说每一次移动，你不得不分析形势，你的对手正在做的过程步骤，并且从你的选择汇总评估最好的移动。所以选择D。
A. 宣布
B. 发信号
C. 阻塞
D. 评估
60. A. 考察名词。文中这些话在我作为记者这个角色的工作中仍然听上去是真的，所以选择A。
A. 角色
B. 渴望
C. 关心
D. 行为
第二节(共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入 1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
According to a review of evidence in a medical journal, runners live three years 61 (long) than non-runners. You don’t have to run fast or for long 62 (see) the benefit. You may drink, smoke, be overweight and still reduce your risk of 63 (die) early by running.
While running regularly can’t make you live forever, the review says it 64 (be) more effective at lengthening life 65 walking, cycling or swimming. Two of the authors of the review also made a study published in 2014 66 showed a mere five to 10 minutes a day of running reduced the risk of heart disease and early deaths from all 67 (cause).
The best exercise is one that you enjoy and will do. But otherwise …it’s probably running. To avoid knee pain, you can run on soft surfaces, do exercises to 68 (strength) your leg muscles (肌肉), avoid hills and get good running shoes. Running is cheap, easy and it’s always 69 (energy). If you are time poor, you need run for only half the time to get the same benefits as other sports, so perhaps we should all give 70 a try.
61. longer
由than可知此处需要填写形容词比较级
62. to see
非谓语动词， don’t have to 充当谓语，see作非谓语表目的
63. dying
of介词后跟名词作宾语
64. is
谓语，一般现在时态
65. than
根据上文more effective …than…
66. that/which
定语从句修饰上文中的study
67. causes
名词变复数
68. strengthen
动词不定式，to do, strength变动词
69. energetic
主系表结构，形容词作表语
70. it
指代上一句you need run…
第四部分写作(共两节，满分35分)
第一节短文改错(共10小题；每小题l分，满分10分)
假定英语课上老师要求同桌之间交换修改作文，请你修改你同桌写的以下作文。文中共有10处语言错误，每句中最多有两处。每处错误仅涉及一个单词的增加、删除或修改。
增加：在缺词处加一个漏字符号(∧)，并在其下面写出该加的词。
删除：把多余的词用斜线(＼)划掉。
修改：在错的词下画一横线，并在该词下面写出修改后的词。
注意：
1. 每处错误及其修改均仅限一词；
2. 只允许修改10处，多者(从第11处起)不计分。
During my last winter holiday, I went to countryside with my father to visit
^
the
my grandparents. I find a big change there. The first time I went there, they were
found
living in a small house with dogs, ducks, and another animals. Last winter when
other
I went here again, they had a big separate house to raise dozens of chicken. They
there chickens
also had a small pond which they raised fish. My grandpa said last summer
^
in 或where
they earned quite a lot by sell the fish. I felt happily that their life had improved. At the
selling happy
end of our trip, I told my father that I planned to return for every two years, but he agreed. and
解析：
1. countryside农村，此处应是特指祖父母所在的农村，加the。
2. 故事叙述的是去年寒假的事，应该用一般过去时，将find改为found。
3. another是“三者或三者以上的另一个”，而other是“其他的”，因为后面animals是可数名词的复数形式，所以应该将anther改为other。
4. 根据上下文翻译，应为“那里”，而且前文有提及，所以将here变为there。
5. “dozens of”是“许多，几十”之意，后面应该用chicken的复数形式。
6. 考察定语从句，如果没有which，从句中不缺成分或者说缺状语，所以应该选用关系副词，而先行词为pond池塘，所以应该将which改为where。如果保留which，因从句缺状语，所以应补充in。
7. by为介词，介词后应用doing形式。
8. feel为系动词，后面不用副词用形容词即可。
9. every two years表示每隔两年，该时间状语前不加介词。
10. 通过翻译原文可知，应该是递进或顺承，不是转折关系。所以将but改为and。
第二节书面表达 (满分25分)
假如你是李华，你的新西兰朋友Terry将去中国朋友家做客，发邮件向你询问有关习俗，请你回复邮件，内容包括：
1. 到达时间
2. 合适的礼物
3. 餐桌礼仪
注意：1. 词数100左右
2. 可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。
例文
Dear Terry,
How are you doing? Learning that you are about to pay a visit to a Chinese friend and confused about the Chinese customs, I am writing to put forward some advice.
To begin with, I would like to suggest that you arrive 5 to 10 minutes earlier, which is common in Chinese traditional culture. In addition, if I were you, I would bring some appropriate gifts with me, such as souvenirs from my own country. Besides, table manners are also what you should pay attention to. For example, you are not supposed to stick your chopsticks into your food. Instead, laying them on your dish is a smart choice.
If you have any other problems, please don’t hesitate to contact me. May you have a wonderful day with your friend.
Yours
Li Hua
2018年普通高等学校招生全国统一考试 英语 （考试时间：120分钟试卷满分：150分） 注意事项： 1. 答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上。 2. 作答时，务必将答案写在答题卡上，写在本试卷及草稿纸上无效。 3. 考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。 第一部分听力（共两节，满分30分）（略） 第二部分阅读理解(共两节，满分40分) 第一节(共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分) 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。 A Summer Activities Students should read the list with their parents/careers, and select two activities they would like to do. Forms will be available in school and online for them to indicate their choices and return to school. Before choices are finalised, parents/careers will be asked to sign to confirm their child’s choices. 1 / 18
2 / 18
21.Which activity will you choose if you want to go camping? A.OUT. B.WBP. C.CRF. D.POT. 22.What will the students do on Tuesday with Mrs. Wilson? A. Travel to London. B. See a parade and fireworks. C. Tour central Paris. D. Visit the WWI battlefields. 23.How long does Potty about Potter last? A. Two days. B. Four days. C. Five days. D. One week. B Many of us love July because it’s the month when nature’s berries and stone fruits are in abundance. These colourful and sweet jewels form British Columbia’s fields are little powerhouses of nutritional protection. Of the common berries, strawberries are highest in vitamin C, although, because of their seeds, raspberries contain a little more protein (蛋白质), iron and zinc (not that fruits have 3 / 18
2018年全国一卷试题答案解析 A篇： 21.A由题目中的book in advance可对应第一段最后reserve your spot before availability可推知答案。reserve→预订，出现在2016年全国三卷语法填空中。 22.D由题目可定位到文章第三段原文“entertain you with the most interesting stories”可知答案。 23.D由bicycle tour可定位到文章最后一段provide v.提供（八年级下册unit3）由文 章最后两句，可知答案。 B篇： 24.B由文章第一段but后可知，这是题目的答案“but she is cooking up storm in her latest role”但是她正在烹饪在她最新的角色中。latest最新的（七年级上册）late迟的，晚的→latest adj.最新的。 25.C.由题目定位到第二段“with the help of chef Matt Tebbutt offers top tips on how to reduce food waste.”厨师Matt Tebbutt帮忙提供好的建议关于怎样减少食物浪费。 C选项“Matt”在做饭问题上给susanna提供帮助。 26.由第四段可知，在这里由8部分组成的系列节目中susanna主持.save money：good food.这个节目是紧跟着ITV’s save money：good heal+n这个节目的，交代了Good Food这一部分产生的背景。 27.文章多次体现出文章的主旨：1.第一段最后：how to prepare delicious and nutritious meals on a tight budgetc预算，济源市高三二模完形填空发现。2.susanna 主持的节目Save Money。3.最后一段中的on a budget,less expensive。 干扰项C：让你自己成为一个完美的厨师，有些片面，文章主旨是在有限的预算下， 做出同样美味的食物。 C篇： 28.B：由hunter-gatherer times定位到文章第一段第三行“devdoped their own patterns of speech independent of each other代出他们自己的独立于别人的语言类型”及最后一句“they spoke perhaps 12000 languages between them”他们彼此之间讲 说的语大概12000种。
绝密★启用前 2018年普通高等学校招生全国统一考试 英语 注意事项： 1．答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上。 2．回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上，写在本试卷上无效。 3．考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。 第一部分听力（共两节，满分30分） 做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。 第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 例：How much is the shirt? A. ￡19.15. B. ￡9.18. C. ￡9.15. 答案是C。 1. What will James do tomorrow? A. Watch a TV program. B. Give a talk. C. Write a report. 2. What can we say about the woman? A. She’s generous. B. She’s curious. C. She’s helpful. 3. When does the train leave? A. At 6:30. B. At 8:30. C. At 10:30. 4. How does the woman go to work? A. By car. B. On foot. C. By bike. 5. What is the probable relationship between the speakers? A. Classmates. B. Teacher and student. C. Doctor and patient. 英语试题第1页（共14页）
SectionⅠUse of English Directions: Read the following text. Choose the best word(s) for each numbered b lank and mark [A],[B], [C] or [D] on the ANSWER SHEET. (10 points) Why do people read negative Internet comments and do other things t hat will obviously be painful? Because humans have an inherent need to 1 uncertainty, according to a recent study in Psychological Science. T he new research reveals that the need to know is strong that people wil l 2 to satisfy their curiosity even when it is clear the answer will 3 . In a series of experiments, behavioral scientists at the University of Ch icago and the Wisconsin school of Business tested students’ willingness t o 4 themselves to unpleasant stimuli in an effort to satisfy curiosity. Fo r one 5 , each participant was shown a pile of pens that the researcher claimed were from a previous experiment. The twist? Half of the pens w ould 6 an electric shock when clicked. Twenty-seven students were told with pens were electrified; another tw enty-seven were told only that some were electrified.7 left alone in th e room. The students who did not know which ones would shock them cli cked more pens and incurred more shocks than the students who knew t hat would 8 . Subsequent experiments reproduced this effect with other stimuli, 9 the sound of fingernails on a chalkboard and photographs of disgusting insects. The drive to10 is deeply rooted in humans, much the same as the basic drives for 11 or shelter, says Christopher Hsee of the University of Chicago. Curiosity is often considered a good instinct—it can 12 ne
2018年全国普通高等学校统一考试 英语试题 （本试卷共 12 页。时间： 120 分钟 总分： 150 分） 第一部分 听力（共两节，满分 30 分） 做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷 上的答案转涂到答题卡上。 例：How much is the shirt? A. ￡9. 15 B. S. 18 C.念 15 答案是 C 。 第一节 听下面 5 段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的 A 、B 、C 三个选项中选 出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有 10 秒钟的时间来 回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 1. What does John find difficult in learning German? A. Pronunciation. B. Vocabulary. C. Grammar. 2. What is the probable relationship between the speakers? A. Colleagues. B. Brother and sister. C. Teacher and student. 3. Where does the conversation probably take place? A. In a bank. B. At a ticket office. 4. What are the speakers talking about? A. A restaurant. B. A street. 5. What does the woman think of her interview? A. It was tough. B. It was interesting. 第二节 听下面 5 段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的 A 、B 、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前，你将有 时间阅读各个 小题，每小题 5 秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出 5 秒钟的作答时间。每 C. On a train. C. A dish. C. It was successful.
2018 年普通高等学校招生全国统一考试英语Ⅲ卷 第二部分阅读理解（共两节，满分40 分） 第一节（共15 小题；每小题 2 分，满分30 分） A Welcome to Holker Hall & Garden Visitor Information How to Get to Holker By car: Follow brown signs on A590 from. J36, M6. Approximate travel times: Windermere--20 minutes, Kendal--25 minutes, Lancaster-- 45 minutes, Manchester-- l hour 30minutes By rail: the nearest station is Cark-in-Cartmel with trains to Carnforth. Lancaster and Preston for connections to major cities & airports. Opening times Sunday-Friday（closed on Saturday） 11:00 am-4;00pm, 30 March-2nd November. Admission Charges Hall & Gardens Gardens Adults: ￡12.00 ￡8.00 Gropes: ￡9.00 Special Events Producers Market 13th April Join us to taste a variety of fresh local food and drinks. Meet the producers and get some excellent recipe ideas. Holker Garden Festival 30th May The event celebrates its 22nd anniversary with a great show of the very best of gardening, making it one of the most popular events in the gardening. National Garden Day 28th August Holker once again opens its gardens in aid of the disadvantaged. For just a small donation you can take a tour with our garden guide. Winter Market 8th November This is an event for all the family! Wander among a variety of shops selling gifts while enjoying a live music show and nice street entertainment. 21. How long does it probably take a tourist to drive to Holker from Manchester? A. 20 minutes. B. 25 minutes. C.45 minutes. D. 90 minutes. 22. How much should a member of a tour group pay a visit to Hall & Gardens? A. ￡12.00. B. 9￡.00. C. ￡8.00 D. ￡5.50 23. Which event will you go to if you want to see a live music show? A. Producers Market. B. Holker Garden Festival C. National Garden Day. D. Winter Market B Cities, usually have a good reason for being where they are, like a nearby port or river. People settle in these places because they are easy to get to and naturally suited to communications and trade. New York City, for example, is near a large harbour at the mouth of the Hudson River. Over 300 years its population grew gradually from 800 people to 8 million. But not all cities develop slowly over a long period of time. Boom towns grow from nothing almost overnight. In 1896, Dawson, Canada, was unmapped
2018年考研英语一真题及答案 的更新!2018考研英语翻译真题解析：19考生应关注3个语法点翻译部分较去 2017-12-24 的更新!2018考研英语翻译真题解析：19考生应关注3个语法点翻译部分较去 2017-12-24 的更新!2018考研英语翻译真题解析：19考生应关注3个语法点翻译部分较去 2017-12-24 的更新!2018考研英语翻译真题解析：19考生应关注3个语法点翻译部分较去 2017-12-24
的更新!2018考研英语翻译真题解析：19考生应关注3个语法点翻译部分较去 2017-12-24 译文】莎士比亚出生之时，欧洲宗教戏剧正在消逝，在古典悲剧和戏剧的推动下，很多新的戏剧形式应运而生。 (47) no boy who went to a grammar school could be ignorant that the drama was a form of literature which gave glory to Greece and Rome and might yet bring honor to England. 【题目考点】定语从句;宾语从句;并列结构 【句子结构】主句主干：no boy…could be ignorant that…。who引导的定语从句修饰boy，that引导为形容词ignorant的宾语从句，which引导的定语从句修饰a form of literature，gave…and might bring honor…为先行词a form of literature的并列谓语结构。 【重点词汇】grammar school 文法学校ignorant忽视literature文学glory 荣耀 【参考译文】任何文法学校的学生都知道戏剧是一种文学形式，它曾给希腊和罗马带来荣耀，也许同样会给英格兰带来殊荣。
2018年上海市初中毕业统一学业考试 英语试卷 考生注意 本卷有7大题,共94小题 2.试卷满分150分。考试时间100分钟。 全部试题均采用连续编号。请将所有答案做在答题纸的指定位置上,做在试卷上一律不给分。 Part I Listening(第一部分听力) 1. Listening comprehension(听力理解)(共30分) A. Listen and choose the right picture(根据你听到的内容,选出相应的图片)(6分) 1、________ 2、_________ 3、__________ 4、__________ 5、__________ 6、__________ 上海市教育考试院保留版权
初中学业考试(2018)英语试卷第1页(共10页) B. Listen to the dialogue and choose the best answer to the question you hear(根据你听到的对话和问题,选出最恰当的答案)(8分) 7. A)Apple. B)Banana. C) Orange . D)Pear. 8.A)At8:45. B)At 9:00. C)At9:15. D)At 9:30. 9. A)By bus. B)By bike. C) By car. D)By underground. 10. A)Rainy. B) Cloudy. C)Sunny. D )Windy. 11. A)Visit his uncle. B)Visit his classmates. C) Go to London. D) Go to a language camp. 12. A)In a store. B)At home. C) At the cinema. D)In a restaurant. 13.A) Husband and wife. B) Doctor and patient. C)Shop assistant and customer. D)Teacher and student. 14. A) Talk to Lucy. B)Go to the supermarket. C) Eat more. D)Lose some weight. C. Listen to the dialogue and tell whether the following statements are true or false TF列句子是否符合你听到的对话内容,符合的用“T”表示,不符合的用“F”表示)(6分) 15. Mary has just become a college student. 16. Simon doesn’t enjoy classroom discussions. 17. Mary has nothing interesting to do after class. 18. Simon will volunteer for an international exhibition in Shanghai. 19. Mary and Simon will go to Shanghai together in five months. 20. Simon gives Mary some suggestions about how to choose a job in China. D. Listen to the passage and complete the following sentences(听短文,完成下列内容。每空格限填一词)(10分) 21. Kitty wanted to plant a _____ ______with beautiful flowers for Mum's birthday. 22. Dad found that the flowers were _______ ______. They were plastic. 23. Dad went to Mr. White _______ _______some flower seeds. 24. Kitty and Dad worked for _______ ______ before Mum came back.
2018年普通高等学校招生全国统一考试英语（全国卷1）及答案解析 英语 第一部分听力 (共两节，满分30分 做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。 第一节(共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分) 听下面5段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 例: How much is the shirt? A. ￡19.15. B. ￡ 9.18. C. ￡ 9.15. 答案是C。 1. What will James do tomorrow? A. Watch a TV program. B. Give a talk. C. Write a report. 2. What can we say about the woman? A. She’s generous. B. She’s curious. C. She’s helpful. 3. When does the train leave? A. At 6:30. B. At 8:30. C. At 10:30 4. How does the woman go to work? A. By car B. On foot C. By bike. 5. What is the probable relationship between the speakers? A. Classmates. B. Teacher and student. C. Doctor and patient. 第二节(共15小题; 每小题1.5分。满分22.5分) 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟，听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第6段材料，回答第6、7题 6. What does the woman regret? A. Giving up her research. B. Dropping out of college. C. Changing her major. 7. What is the woman interested in studying now? A. Ecology. B. Education. C. Chemistry 听第7段材料，回答第8、9题。 8. What is the mam? A. A hotel manager. B. A tour guide. C. A taxi driver. 9. What is the man doing for the woman? A. Looking for some local foods. B. Showing her around the seaside. C. Offering information about a hotel. 听第8段材料，回答第10至12题。 10. Where does the conversation probably take place? A. In an office. B. At home. C. At a restaurant. 11. What will the speakers do tomorrow evening? A. Go to a concert. B. Visit a friend. C. Work extra hours. 12. Who is Alice going to call? A. Mike. B. Joan C. Catherine. 听第9段材料，回答第13至16题。 13. Why does the woman meet the man? A. To look at an apartment B. To deliver some furniture. C. To have a meal together. 14. What does the woman like about the carpet? A. Its color. B. Its design. C. Its quality. 15. What does the man say about the kitchen? A. It’s a good size. B. It’s newly painted. C. It’s adequately equipped. 16. What will the woman probably do next? A. Go downtown. B. Talk with her friend. C. Make payment. 听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。 17. Who is the speaker probably talking to?
2018全国高考英语试题分析及2019届备考建议 2018高考英语 试题、答案、分析（全国1卷） 2018年高考英语全国I卷试题整体难度与往年大体相同。无论从题目的 难度，还是题型的设置上，基本都延续了2017年的出题模式，重视对学 生基础知识的考查，题型稳定，同时继续深化对英语实际使用能力的考查， 相对弱化语法，加强阅读，应用文写作愈加体现交际功能和中国文化等， 整试卷处处透露着回归英语语言本质的特色。 试卷结构 听力取材还是学生熟悉的日常话题，更加体现英语的应用性。 阅读理解体裁多样，有记叙文、说明文、应用文等，侧重考查学生的细节理解能力和推理判断能力。 完形填空和往年一样是我们常见的记叙文，着重考查实词在语篇中的准确运用，难度适中。 语法填空和短文改错涉及到动词、形容词、副词、名词等常见考点。 书面表达是学生熟悉的书信文体，话题是近几年高考重点考查的中国文化专题，形式还是熟悉的提纲作文，给考生提供了充分的拓展空间，具有开放性。
模块分析 (一)阅读理解 1. 阅读理解考查情况 2018年阅读依然是重点考查考生对文章容的细节理解、推理判断、词义猜测、主旨归纳以及文章标题的处理能力。 A、B篇题目以细节理解题和推理判断题为主，A篇是一篇典型的应用文，考生可直接抓取题目关键词定位原文解题;B篇主要介绍一档英国系列电视节目，给观众介绍如何减少食物浪费以及如何以较少的预算做出美味佳肴;而C、D篇重语篇的理解，对于词汇量有较高的要求。题材贴近生活，与时代变迁紧密相连，所宣扬的价值观也符合主流思想。
2. 阅读理解学习意义与导向 高考阅读理解旨在考查考生语言的综合运用能力，要求考生能读懂书籍、报纸、杂志中关于一般性话题的简短文段以及公告、说明、广告等，并能从中获取相关的信息。要求考生做到：理解文章主旨要义、理解文中具体信息、依据上下文推断生词词义、作出简单判断和推理、理解文章基本结构、理解作者的意图、观点和态度。 阅读理解体裁多样，以说明文、记叙文、应用文和议论文为主;话题广泛，和中学生生活密切相关，包括人物故事、前沿科技、环境保护、地理现象、历史文化、广告信息等;题型灵活多样，以细节理解题、主旨大意题、推理判断题和词义猜测题为主，突出考查考生理解和运用语言解决问题的基本能力。 (二)七选五 1. 七选五考查情况 七选五阅读的话题是室设计颜色的选择，文章采取总分结构，逻辑清晰。通过对上下文语境的理解，基本可得出正确答案。与去年七选五阅读“露营”相比，文体由记叙文变为说明文，话题较为贴近生活，对考生词汇量考查力度提升，如fundamental，commitment，grasp，approach等。出题角度，主题句、过渡句和细节题分布均匀，与往年高考题难度相当。
2018年中考英语试题及答案 考生须知： 1．本试卷满分120分，考试时间100分钟。 听力部分(20分) 一、听对话回答问题(共5小题，计10分) 听下面一段对话，回答第1和第2两个小题。现在，你有10秒钟的时间阅读这两题。 01. Why did Patrick move out? A. Because his apartment building was noisy. B. Because he couldn't pay for the apartment. C. Because his new apartment is cheaper. 02. What do the two speakers think of Patrick's moving out? A. He's made a wrong decision. B. He's made a right decision. C. He s made a strange decision. 听下面一段对话，回答第3至第5个小题。现在，你有15秒钟的时间阅读这三题。 03. What are the two speakers talking about? A. Steve's problem. B. The man speaker's problem. C. The woman speaker's problem. 04. How many reports did the boss ask Steve to write in three days? A. Two. B. Three. C. Only one. 05. Who can help Steve with his work? A. Steve himself. B. The woman speaker. C. His boss. 二、听独白完成表格(共5小题，计10分) 听下面一段独白，独白后有一张有5处空白的表格和5个相关的选项。请从每处A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听独白前，你有25秒钟的时间阅读这张表格和5个选项。听完独白后，你有25秒钟的时间来选择有关选项。 三、单项填空(15小题，计15分) 从A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳答案。 11. Mr Smith always gives me ___ hand when I am in trouble. A. a B. an C. the D. 不填 12. You ___ open the door before the train gets into the station. A. don't have to B. mustn't C. needn't D. may not 13. It was a very long day for Jack. He didn't get home from school ____ six o'clock. A. since B. to C. by D. until 14. Excuse me, waiter. We're leaving. Can you bring me the ____ , please? A. money B. note C. bill D. list 15. —Those eggs of different colours are very beautiful. —Yes, they ______ in Hangzhou. A. painted B. were painting C. were painted D. had painted 16. —Have you decided which you'd like to buy, the black skirt or the pink skirt? —Of the two, the pink one is . A. the nicest B. the nicer C. nice D. nicer 17. I never seem to lose any weight, hard I try. A. even though B. no matter how C. as if D. ever since
英语 2018年高三试卷 英语 阅读理解（本大题共小题，每小题____分，共____分。） 第一节(共15小题:每小题2分,满分30分) 阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中,选出最佳选项。 A Washington, D. C Bicycle Tours Cherry Blossom Bike Tour in Washington, D.C. Duration:3 hours This small group bike tour is a fantastic way to see the world famous cherry trees with beautiful flowers of Washington，D.C. Your guide will provide a history lesson about the trees and the famous monuments where they blossom. Reserve your spot before availability-and the cherry blossoms-disappear！ Washington Capital Monuments Bicycle Tour Duration: 3 hours(4 miles) Join a guided bike tour and view some of the most popular monuments in Washington, D.C. Explore the monuments and memorials on the National Mall as your guide shares unique facts and history at each stop. Guided tour includes bike, helmet, cookies and bottled water. Capital City Bike Tour in Washington, D. C Duration: 3 hours Morning or Afternoon, this bike tour is the perfect tour for D. C. newcomers and locals looking to experience Washington, D.C. in a healthy way with minimum effort. Knowledgeable guides will entertain you with the most interesting stories about Presidents，Congress, memorials, and parks. Comfortable bikes and a smooth tour route(路线)make cycling between the sites fun and relaxing. Washington Capital Sites at Night Bicycle Tour
初中毕业考试 英语试卷 Ⅳ单项选择从A、B、C、D 四个选项中，找出可以填 入相应空白处的最佳答案。（共15分，每小题1分） 3 21. --- Morning, class! Good luck to all of you in the exam! --- Morning, teacher. ________. A. The same to you. B. You, too. C. Thank you. D. I’m sorry I can’t. 22. --- I don’t think teenagers should drive cars. --- _______. They aren’t serious enough. A. I agree B. I don’t agree C. I think D. I don’t think 23. ---If there are ______ people driving , there will be ______ air pollution. --- Yes, the air will be fresher. A. less; less B. less; fewer C. fewer; fewer D. fewer; less 24. ---There are many volunteers ______ are helping the children in Sichuan. --- And most of them are college students. A. which B. when C. whose D. who 25. --- You always spend only a little time on your study. You really _____ me down. --- I’m sorry, Mum. I won’t do that again. A. take B. put C. let D. look 26. --- Can you_____ your little brother? I’m busy now.
2018成人学士学位英语考试试题 I. Reading comprehension Passage 1 Since its founding in 1948, McDonald's has grown from a family burger (汉堡包) stand to a global fast-food chain, with more than 30,000 locations in 118 countries. With 58 million daily customers worldwide, McDonald’s is now so ubiquitous around the globe that The Economist publishes a global ranking of currencies' purchasing power based on the prices charged at the local McDonald’s, called the Big Mac Index (巨无霸指数).That’s not to say that every nation carries the same menu items: choices vary widely depending on location. Some Asian locations serve fried shrimp in a Big Mac roll, while McDonald’s in India doesn’t serve beef at all, relying instead on burgers made from vegetables, rice and beans. Not everyone in the world has been happy to greet Ronald McDonald when he moves to town. Many see McDonald's as a symbol of American economic and cultural chauvinism (沙文主义), and European nations in particular have viewed American-style fast food as an insult to their national food. A French farmer, Jose Bove, became something of a national hero in 1999 after he and a group of people destroyed a McDonald's under construction to protest globalization and "bad food." The next year, a bomb exploded in a French McDonald’s, killing a 27-year-old employee. (76) (76)No one claimed responsibility. But regardless of whether you like their food or their policies, McDonald’s is still widely seen as one of the true pioneers of peaceful globalization. 1. According to the passage, which of the following statements is NOT TRUE. A. McDonald's was founded in 1948. B. McDonald’s has opened its restaurants in every city of the world. C. McDonald’s has over 30,000 locations in the world now. D. McDonald’s was very small in scale in the beginning. 2. The word ubiquitous in Paragraph 2 is most likely to mean ____. A. very crowded B. very dean C. existing everywhere D. occurring frequently 3. From Paragraph 2, we can conclude that ____. A. McDonald’s designs its menu to suit the local people B. millions of young adults got their first job with McDonald’s C. the McDonald’s menu sticks to old-fashioned favorites such as the Big Mac D. the low prices McDonald’s bring tens of millions of people through its doors every day 4. What did Jose Bove and his people do in 1999 to protest against McDonald's? A. They organized a strike. B. They protested outside a McDonald’s. C. They refused to go to a newly-built McDonald’s. D. They destroyed a McDonald’s under construction. 5. In ____, an employee died in a fatal bomb attack on a McDonald’s restaurant in France.