罗斯《公司理财》(第9版)章节题库(第1~5章)【圣才出品】

罗斯《公司理财》第9版笔记和课后习题（含考研真题）详解[视频详解]第4章折现现金流量估价[视频讲解]4.1复习笔记当前的1美元与未来的1美元的价值是不同的，因为当前1美元用于投资，在未来可以得到更多，而且未来的1美元具有不确定性。

这种区别正是“货币的时间价值”。

货币的时间价值概念是金融投资和融资的基石之一，资本预算、项目决策、融资管理和兼并等领域均有涉及。

因此有必要理解和掌握相关的现值、终值、年金和永续年金的概念和计算公式。

1．现值与净现值现值是未来资金在当前的价值，是把未来的现金流按照一定的贴现率贴现到当前的价值。

以单期为例，一期后的现金流的现值：其中，C1是一期后的现金流，r是适当贴现率。

在多期的情况下，求解PV的公式可写为：其中，C T是在T期的现金流，r是适当贴现率。

净现值的计算公式为：NPV=-成本+PV。

也就是说，净现值NPV是这项投资未来现金流的现值减去成本的现值所得的结果。

一种定量的财务决策方法是净现值分析法。

产生N期现金流的投资项目的净现值为：NPV=其中，-C0是初始现金流，由于它代表了一笔投资，即现金流出，因而是负值。

2．终值一笔投资在多期以后终值的一般计算公式可以写为：FV=C0×（1+r）T其中，C0是期初投资的金额，r是利息率，T是资金投资持续的期数。

一项投资每年按复利计息m次的年末终值为：其中：C0是投资者的初始投资；r是名义年利率。

当m趋近于无限大时，则是连续复利计息，这时T年后的终值可以表示为：C0×e rT。

连续复利在高级金融中有广泛的应用。

3．名义利率和实际利率名义年利率是不考虑年内复利计息的，不同的银行或金融机构有不同的称谓，比较通用的是年百分比利率（APR）；实际利率（EAR）是指在年内考虑复利计息的，然后折算成一年的利率。

名义利率和实际利率之间的差别在于名义利率只有给出计息间隔期下才有意义。

4．年金年金是指一系列稳定有规律的，持续一段固定时期的现金收付活动，即在一定期间内，每隔相同时期（一年、半年或一季等）收入或支出相等金额的款项。

罗斯《公司理财》（第9版）课后习题第1章公司理财导论一、概念题1．资本预算（capital budgeting）答：资本预算是指综合反映投资资金来源与运用的预算，是为了获得未来产生现金流量的长期资产而现在投资支出的预算。

资本预算决策也称为长期投资决策，它是公司创造价值的主要方法。

资本预算决策一般指固定资产投资决策，耗资大，周期长，长期影响公司的产销能力和财务状况，决策正确与否影响公司的生存与发展。

完整的资本预算过程包括：寻找增长机会，制定长期投资战略，预测投资项目的现金流，分析评估投资项目，控制投资项目的执行情况。

资本预算可通过不同的资本预算方法来解决，如回收期法、净现值法和内部收益率法等。

2．货币市场（money markets）答：货币市场指期限不超过一年的资金借贷和短期有价证券交易的金融市场，亦称“短期金融市场”或“短期资金市场”，包括同业拆借市场、银行短期存贷市场、票据市场、短期证券市场、大额可转让存单市场、回购协议市场等。

其参加者为各种政府机构、各种银行和非银行金融机构及公司等。

货币市场具有四个基本特征：①融资期限短，一般在一年以内，最短的只有半天，主要用于满足短期资金周转的需要；②流动性强，金融工具可以在市场上随时兑现，交易对象主要是期限短、流动性强、风险小的信用工具，如票据、存单等，这些工具变现能力强，近似于货币，可称为“准货币”，故称货币市场；③安全性高，由于货币市场上的交易大多采用即期交易，即成交后马上结清，通常不存在因成交与结算日之间时间相对过长而引起价格巨大波动的现象，对投资者来说，收益具有较大保障；④政策性明显，货币市场由货币当局直接参加，是中央银行同商业银行及其他金融机构的资金连接的主渠道，是国家利用货币政策工具调节全国金融活动的杠杆支点。

货币市场的交易主体是短期资金的供需者。

需求者是为了获得现实的支付手段，调节资金的流动性并保持必要的支付能力，供应者提供的资金也大多是短期临时闲置性的资金。

第9章 股票估值9.1 复习笔记1．普通股估值（1）股利与资本利得①股票价格等于下期股利与下期股价的折现值之和。

②股票价格等于所有未来股利的折现值之和。

（2）不同类型股票的估值①零增长股利 股利不变时，股票的价格由下式给出：()120211Div Div Div P R R R =++=++在这里假定Div 1＝Div 2＝…＝Div 。

②固定增长率股利 如果股利以恒定的速率增长，那么一股股票的价格就为：()()()()()()2302341111111Div g Div g Div g Div Div P R R gR R R +++=++++=+-+++式中，g 是增长率；Div 是第一期期末的股利。

③变动增长率股利分阶段进行折现，注意折现的时间点。

【例9.1】假设某企业每年净利润固定是4400万元，并且该企业每年将所有净利润都作为股息发放给投资者，该企业共发行了1100万股的股票，假设该企业股息对应的折现率是10%，并且股息从一年后开始第一次发放，那么该企业股票今天的价格是多少？（）[清华大学2015金融硕士]A．4元B．44元C．400元D．40元【答案】D【解析】该企业每年发放的固定股息为：4400÷1100＝4（元/股），利用零增长股利模型，该企业股票今天的价格为：4÷10%＝40（元）。

【例9.2】A公司普通股刚刚支付了每股2元的红利，股票价格当前为100元每股，可持续增长率为6%，则该公司普通股的资本成本为（）。

[中央财经大学2015金融硕士] A．6.4%B．7.3%C．8.1%D．8.8%【答案】C【解析】根据固定增长股票的价值模型：10D P R g=- 则该公司普通股的资本成本为：()10216%6%8.12%100D R g P ⨯+=+=+=【例9.3】今年年底，D 公司预期红利为2.12元，红利会以每年10%的速度增长，如果该公司的必要收益率为每年14.2%，其股票现价＝内在价值，下一年预期价格为（ ）元。

罗斯公司理财第九版课后习题答案中文版(总95页)本页仅作为文档封面，使用时可以删除This document is for reference only-rar21year.March申明：转载自第一章1.在所有权形式的公司中,股东是公司的所有者。

股东选举公司的董事会,董事会任命该公司的管理层。

企业的所有权和控制权分离的组织形式是导致的代理关系存在的主要原因。

管理者可能追求自身或别人的利益最大化,而不是股东的利益最大化。

在这种环境下,他们可能因为目标不一致而存在代理问题。

2.非营利公司经常追求社会或政治任务等各种目标。

非营利公司财务管理的目标是获取并有效使用资金以最大限度地实现组织的社会使命。

3.这句话是不正确的。

管理者实施财务管理的目标就是最大化现有股票的每股价值，当前的股票价值反映了短期和长期的风险、时间以及未来现金流量。

4.有两种结论。

一种极端,在市场经济中所有的东西都被定价。

因此所有目标都有一个最优水平，包括避免不道德或非法的行为，股票价值最大化。

另一种极端,我们可以认为这是非经济现象,最好的处理方式是通过政治手段。

一个经典的思考问题给出了这种争论的答案:公司估计提高某种产品安全性的成本是30美元万。

然而,该公司认为提高产品的安全性只会节省20美元万。

请问公司应该怎么做呢”5.财务管理的目标都是相同的,但实现目标的最好方式可能是不同的,因为不同的国家有不同的社会、政治环境和经济制度。

6.管理层的目标是最大化股东现有股票的每股价值。

如果管理层认为能提高公司利润，使股价超过35美元,那么他们应该展开对恶意收购的斗争。

如果管理层认为该投标人或其它未知的投标人将支付超过每股35美元的价格收购公司,那么他们也应该展开斗争。

然而,如果管理层不能增加企业的价值,并且没有其他更高的投标价格,那么管理层不是在为股东的最大化权益行事。

现在的管理层经常在公司面临这些恶意收购的情况时迷失自己的方向。

7.其他国家的代理问题并不严重,主要取决于其他国家的私人投资者占比重较小。

附录B各章习题及部分习题答案APPENDIXB第一部分公司理财概览第1章公司理财导论3概念复习和重要的思考题4微型案例麦吉糕点公司5第2章财务报表、税和现金流量6本章复习与自测题7本章复习与自测题解答7概念复习和重要的思考题8思考和练习题9微型案例Sunset Boards公司的现金流量和财务报表13第二部分财务报表与长期财务计划第3章利用财务报表17本章复习与自测题18本章复习与自测题解答19概念复习和重要的思考题20思考和练习题21微型案例针对S&S飞机公司的财务比率分析24第4章长期财务计划与增长27本章复习与自测题28本章复习与自测题解答28概念复习和重要的思考题29思考和练习题30微型案例S&S飞机公司的比率与财务计划35第三部分未来现金流量估价第5章估价导论：货币的时间价值39本章复习与自测题40本章复习与自测题解答40概念复习和重要的思考题40思考和练习题41第6章贴现现金流量估价43本章复习与自测题44本章复习与自测题解答44概念复习和重要的思考题46思考和练习题46微型案例读MBA的决策52第7章利率和债券估价54本章复习与自测题55本章复习与自测题解答55概念复习和重要的思考题55思考和练习题56微型案例基于债券发行的S&S飞机公司的扩张计划59第8章股票估价60本章复习与自测题61本章复习与自测题解答61概念复习和重要的思考题61思考和练习题62微型案例Ragan公司的股票估价64目录Contents第四部分资本预算第9章净现值与其他投资准绳69本章复习与自测题70本章复习与自测题解答70概念复习和重要的思考题71思考和练习题73第10章资本性投资决策77本章复习与自测题78本章复习与自测题解答78概念复习和重要的思考题80思考和练习题80微型案例贝壳共和电子公司（一）85第11章项目分析与评估86本章复习与自测题87本章复习与自测题解答87概念复习和重要的思考题87思考和练习题88微型案例贝壳共和电子公司（二）91第五部分风险与报酬第12章资本市场历史的一些启示95本章复习与自测题96本章复习与自测题解答96概念复习和重要的思考题96思考和练习题97微型案例S&S飞机公司的职位99第13章报酬、风险与证券市场线101本章复习与自测题102本章复习与自测题解答102概念复习和重要的思考题103思考和练习题104微型案例高露洁棕榄公司的β值108第六部分资本成本与长期财务政策第14章资本成本111本章复习与自测题112本章复习与自测题解答112概念复习和重要的思考题112思考和练习题113第15章筹集资本117本章复习与自测题118本章复习与自测题解答118概念复习和重要的思考题118思考和练习题120微型案例S&S飞机公司的上市121第16章财务杠杆和资本结构政策123本章复习与自测题124本章复习与自测题解答124概念复习和重要的思考题124思考和练习题125微型案例斯蒂芬森房地产公司的资本重组127第17章股利和股利政策129概念复习和重要的思考题　130思考和练习题　130微型案例电子计时公司　133第七部分短期财务计划与管理第18章短期财务与计划137本章复习与自测题　138本章复习与自测题解答　138概念复习和重要的思考题　139思考和练习题　140微型案例Piepkorn制造公司的营运成本管理　145III第19章现金和流动性管理147本章复习与自测题　148本章复习与自测题解答　148概念复习和重要的思考题　148思考和练习题　149微型案例Webb公司的现金管理　150第20章信用和存货管理151本章复习与自测题　152本章复习与自测题解答　152概念复习和重要的思考题　152思考和练习题　153微型案例豪利特实业公司的信用政策　155第八部分公司理财专题第21章国际公司理财159本章复习与自测题　160本章复习与自测题解答　160概念复习和重要的思考题　160思考和练习题　161微型案例S&S飞机公司的国际化经营　163部分习题答案　165IV。

罗斯《公司理财》第9版精要版英文原书课后部分章节答案详细»1 / 17 CH5 11，13，18，19，20 11. To find the PV of a lump sum, we use: PV = FV / (1 + r) t PV = $1,000,000 / (1.10) 80 = $488.19 13. To answer this question, we can use either the FV or the PV formula. Both will give the same answer since they are the inverse of each other. We will use the FV formula, that is: FV = PV(1 + r) t Solving for r, we get: r = (FV / PV) 1 / t –1 r = ($1,260,000 / $150) 1/112 – 1 = .0840 or 8.40% To find the FV of the first prize, we use: FV = PV(1 + r) t FV = $1,260,000(1.0840) 33 = $18,056,409.94 18. To find the FV of a lump sum, we use: FV = PV(1 + r) t FV = $4,000(1.11) 45 = $438,120.97 FV = $4,000(1.11) 35 = $154,299.40 Better start early! 19. We need to find the FV of a lump sum. However, the money will only be invested for six years, so the number of periods is six. FV = PV(1 + r) t FV = $20,000(1.084)6 = $32,449.33 20. To answer this question, we can use either the FV or the PV formula. Both will give the same answer since they are the inverse of each other. We will use the FV formula, that is: FV = PV(1 + r) t Solving for t, we get: t = ln(FV / PV) / ln(1 + r) t = ln($75,000 / $10,000) / ln(1.11) = 19.31 So, the money must be invested for 19.31 years. However, you will not receive the money for another two years. From now, you’ll wait: 2 years + 19.31 years = 21.31 years CH6 16，24，27，42，58 16. For this problem, we simply need to find the FV of a lump sum using the equation: FV = PV(1 + r) t 2 / 17 It is important to note that compounding occurs semiannually. To account for this, we will divide the interest rate by two (the number of compounding periods in a year), and multiply the number of periods by two. Doing so, we get: FV = $2,100[1 + (.084/2)] 34 = $8,505.93 24. This problem requires us to find the FV A. The equation to find the FV A is: FV A = C{[(1 + r) t – 1] / r} FV A = $300[{[1 + (.10/12) ] 360 – 1} / (.10/12)] = $678,146.38 27. The cash flows are annual and the compounding period is quarterly, so we need to calculate the EAR to make the interest rate comparable with the timing of the cash flows. Using the equation for the EAR, we get: EAR = [1 + (APR / m)] m – 1 EAR = [1 + (.11/4)] 4 – 1 = .1146 or 11.46% And now we use the EAR to find the PV of each cash flow as a lump sum and add them together: PV = $725 / 1.1146 + $980 / 1.1146 2 + $1,360 / 1.1146 4 = $2,320.36 42. The amount of principal paid on the loan is the PV of the monthly payments you make. So, the present value of the $1,150 monthly payments is: PV A = $1,150[(1 – {1 / [1 + (.0635/12)]} 360 ) / (.0635/12)] = $184,817.42 The monthly payments of $1,150 will amount to a principal payment of $184,817.42. The amount of principal you will still owe is: $240,000 – 184,817.42 = $55,182.58 This remaining principal amount will increase at the interest rate on the loan until the end of the loan period. So the balloon payment in 30 years, which is the FV of the remaining principal will be: Balloon payment = $55,182.58[1 + (.0635/12)] 360 = $368,936.54 58. To answer this question, we should find the PV of both options, and compare them. Since we are purchasing the car, the lowest PV is the best option. The PV of the leasing is simply the PV of the lease payments, plus the $99. The interest rate we would use for the leasing option is the same as the interest rate of the loan. The PV of leasing is: PV = $99 + $450{1 –[1 / (1 + .07/12) 12(3) ]} / (.07/12) = $14,672.91 The PV of purchasing the car is the current price of the car minus the PV of the resale price. The PV of the resale price is: PV = $23,000 / [1 + (.07/12)] 12(3) = $18,654.82 The PV of the decision to purchase is: $32,000 – 18,654.82 = $13,345.18 3 / 17 In this case, it is cheaper to buy the car than leasing it since the PV of the purchase cash flows is lower. To find the breakeven resale price, we need to find the resale price that makes the PV of the two options the same. In other words, the PV of the decision to buy should be: $32,000 – PV of resale price = $14,672.91 PV of resale price = $17,327.09 The resale price that would make the PV of the lease versus buy decision is the FV ofthis value, so: Breakeven resale price = $17,327.09[1 + (.07/12)] 12(3) = $21,363.01 CH7 3，18，21，22，31 3. The price of any bond is the PV of the interest payment, plus the PV of the par value. Notice this problem assumes an annual coupon. The price of the bond will be: P = $75({1 – [1/(1 + .0875)] 10 } / .0875) + $1,000[1 / (1 + .0875) 10 ] = $918.89 We would like to introduce shorthand notation here. Rather than write (or type, as the case may be) the entire equation for the PV of a lump sum, or the PV A equation, it is common to abbreviate the equations as: PVIF R,t = 1 / (1 + r) t which stands for Present V alue Interest Factor PVIFA R,t = ({1 – [1/(1 + r)] t } / r ) which stands for Present V alue Interest Factor of an Annuity These abbreviations are short hand notation for the equations in which the interest rate and the number of periods are substituted into the equation and solved. We will use this shorthand notation in remainder of the solutions key. 18. The bond price equation for this bond is: P 0 = $1,068 = $46(PVIFA R%,18 ) + $1,000(PVIF R%,18 ) Using a spreadsheet, financial calculator, or trial and error we find: R = 4.06% This is thesemiannual interest rate, so the YTM is: YTM = 2 4.06% = 8.12% The current yield is:Current yield = Annual coupon payment / Price = $92 / $1,068 = .0861 or 8.61% The effective annual yield is the same as the EAR, so using the EAR equation from the previous chapter: Effective annual yield = (1 + 0.0406) 2 – 1 = .0829 or 8.29% 20. Accrued interest is the coupon payment for the period times the fraction of the period that has passed since the last coupon payment. Since we have a semiannual coupon bond, the coupon payment per six months is one-half of the annual coupon payment. There are four months until the next coupon payment, so two months have passed since the last coupon payment. The accrued interest for the bond is: Accrued interest = $74/2 × 2/6 = $12.33 And we calculate the clean price as: 4 / 17 Clean price = Dirty price –Accrued interest = $968 –12.33 = $955.67 21. Accrued interest is the coupon payment for the period times the fraction of the period that has passed since the last coupon payment. Since we have a semiannual coupon bond, the coupon payment per six months is one-half of the annual coupon payment. There are two months until the next coupon payment, so four months have passed since the last coupon payment. The accrued interest for the bond is: Accrued interest = $68/2 × 4/6 = $22.67 And we calculate the dirty price as: Dirty price = Clean price + Accrued interest = $1,073 + 22.67 = $1,095.67 22. To find the number of years to maturity for the bond, we need to find the price of the bond. Since we already have the coupon rate, we can use the bond price equation, and solve for the number of years to maturity. We are given the current yield of the bond, so we can calculate the price as: Current yield = .0755 = $80/P 0 P 0 = $80/.0755 = $1,059.60 Now that we have the price of the bond, the bond price equation is: P = $1,059.60 = $80[(1 – (1/1.072) t ) / .072 ] + $1,000/1.072 t We can solve this equation for t as follows: $1,059.60(1.072) t = $1,111.11(1.072) t –1,111.11 + 1,000 111.11 = 51.51(1.072) t2.1570 = 1.072 t t = log 2.1570 / log 1.072 = 11.06 11 years The bond has 11 years to maturity.31. The price of any bond (or financial instrument) is the PV of the future cash flows. Even though Bond M makes different coupons payments, to find the price of the bond, we just find the PV of the cash flows. The PV of the cash flows for Bond M is: P M = $1,100(PVIFA 3.5%,16 )(PVIF 3.5%,12 ) + $1,400(PVIFA3.5%,12 )(PVIF 3.5%,28 ) + $20,000(PVIF 3.5%,40 ) P M = $19,018.78 Notice that for the coupon payments of $1,400, we found the PV A for the coupon payments, and then discounted the lump sum back to today. Bond N is a zero coupon bond with a $20,000 par value, therefore, the price of the bond is the PV of the par, or: P N = $20,000(PVIF3.5%,40 ) = $5,051.45 CH8 4，18，20，22，244. Using the constant growth model, we find the price of the stock today is: P 0 = D 1 / (R – g) = $3.04 / (.11 – .038) = $42.22 5 / 17 18. The price of a share of preferred stock is the dividend payment divided by the required return. We know the dividend payment in Year 20, so we can find the price of the stock in Y ear 19, one year before the first dividend payment. Doing so, we get: P 19 = $20.00 / .064 P 19 = $312.50 The price of the stock today is the PV of the stock price in the future, so the price today will be: P 0 = $312.50 / (1.064) 19 P 0 = $96.15 20. We can use the two-stage dividend growth model for this problem, which is: P 0 = [D 0 (1 + g 1 )/(R – g 1 )]{1 – [(1 + g 1 )/(1 + R)] T }+ [(1 + g 1 )/(1 + R)] T [D 0 (1 + g 2 )/(R –g 2 )] P0 = [$1.25(1.28)/(.13 –.28)][1 –(1.28/1.13) 8 ] + [(1.28)/(1.13)] 8 [$1.25(1.06)/(.13 – .06)] P 0 = $69.55 22. We are asked to find the dividend yield and capital gains yield for each of the stocks. All of the stocks have a 15 percent required return, which is the sum of the dividend yield and the capital gains yield. To find the components of the total return, we need to find the stock price for each stock. Using this stock price and the dividend, we can calculate the dividend yield. The capital gains yield for the stock will be the total return (required return) minus the dividend yield. W: P 0 = D 0 (1 + g) / (R – g) = $4.50(1.10)/(.19 – .10) = $55.00 Dividend yield = D 1 /P 0 = $4.50(1.10)/$55.00 = .09 or 9% Capital gains yield = .19 – .09 = .10 or 10% X: P 0 = D 0 (1 + g) / (R – g) = $4.50/(.19 – 0) = $23.68 Dividend yield = D 1 /P 0 = $4.50/$23.68 = .19 or 19% Capital gains yield = .19 – .19 = 0% Y: P 0 = D 0 (1 + g) / (R – g) = $4.50(1 – .05)/(.19 + .05) = $17.81 Dividend yield = D 1 /P 0 = $4.50(0.95)/$17.81 = .24 or 24% Capital gains yield = .19 – .24 = –.05 or –5% Z: P 2 = D 2 (1 + g) / (R – g) = D 0 (1 + g 1 ) 2 (1 +g 2 )/(R – g 2 ) = $4.50(1.20) 2 (1.12)/(.19 – .12) = $103.68 P 0 = $4.50 (1.20) / (1.19) + $4.50(1.20) 2 / (1.19) 2 + $103.68 / (1.19) 2 = $82.33 Dividend yield = D 1 /P 0 = $4.50(1.20)/$82.33 = .066 or 6.6% Capital gains yield = .19 – .066 = .124 or 12.4% In all cases, the required return is 19%, but the return is distributed differently between current income and capital gains. High growth stocks have an appreciable capital gains component but a relatively small current income yield; conversely, mature, negative-growth stocks provide a high current income but also price depreciation over time. 24. Here we have a stock with supernormal growth, but the dividend growth changes every year for the first four years. We can find the price of the stock in Y ear 3 since the dividend growth rate is constant after the third dividend. The price of the stock in Y ear 3 will be the dividend in Y ear 4, divided by the required return minus the constant dividend growth rate. So, the price in Y ear 3 will be: 6 / 17 P3 = $2.45(1.20)(1.15)(1.10)(1.05) / (.11 – .05) = $65.08 The price of the stock today will be the PV of the first three dividends, plus the PV of the stock price in Y ear 3, so: P 0 = $2.45(1.20)/(1.11) + $2.45(1.20)(1.15)/1.11 2 + $2.45(1.20)(1.15)(1.10)/1.11 3 + $65.08/1.11 3 P 0 = $55.70 CH9 3，4，6，9，15 3. Project A has cash flows of $19,000 in Y ear 1, so the cash flows are short by $21,000 of recapturing the initial investment, so the payback for Project A is: Payback = 1 + ($21,000 / $25,000) = 1.84 years Project B has cash flows of: Cash flows = $14,000 + 17,000 + 24,000 = $55,000 during this first three years. The cash flows are still short by $5,000 of recapturing the initial investment, so the payback for Project B is: B: Payback = 3 + ($5,000 / $270,000) = 3.019 years Using the payback criterion and a cutoff of 3 years, accept project A and reject project B. 4. When we use discounted payback, we need to find the value of all cash flows today. The value today of the project cash flows for the first four years is: V alue today of Y ear 1 cash flow = $4,200/1.14 = $3,684.21 V alue today of Y ear 2 cash flow = $5,300/1.14 2 = $4,078.18 V alue today of Y ear 3 cash flow = $6,100/1.14 3 = $4,117.33 V alue today of Y ear 4 cash flow = $7,400/1.14 4 = $4,381.39 To findthe discounted payback, we use these values to find the payback period. The discounted first year cash flow is $3,684.21, so the discounted payback for a $7,000 initial cost is: Discounted payback = 1 + ($7,000 – 3,684.21)/$4,078.18 = 1.81 years For an initial cost of $10,000, the discounted payback is: Discounted payback = 2 + ($10,000 –3,684.21 –4,078.18)/$4,117.33 = 2.54 years Notice the calculation of discounted payback. We know the payback period is between two and three years, so we subtract the discounted values of the Y ear 1 and Y ear 2 cash flows from the initial cost. This is the numerator, which is the discounted amount we still need to make to recover our initial investment. We divide this amount by the discounted amount we will earn in Y ear 3 to get the fractional portion of the discounted payback. If the initial cost is $13,000, the discounted payback is: Discounted payback = 3 + ($13,000 – 3,684.21 – 4,078.18 – 4,117.33) / $4,381.39 = 3.26 years 7 / 17 6. Our definition of AAR is the average net income divided by the average book value. The average net income for this project is: A verage net income = ($1,938,200 + 2,201,600 + 1,876,000 + 1,329,500) / 4 = $1,836,325 And the average book value is: A verage book value = ($15,000,000 + 0) / 2 = $7,500,000 So, the AAR for this project is: AAR = A verage net income / A verage book value = $1,836,325 / $7,500,000 = .2448 or 24.48% 9. The NPV of a project is the PV of the outflows minus the PV of the inflows. Since the cash inflows are an annuity, the equation for the NPV of this project at an 8 percent required return is: NPV = –$138,000 + $28,500(PVIFA 8%, 9 ) = $40,036.31 At an 8 percent required return, the NPV is positive, so we would accept the project. The equation for the NPV of the project at a 20 percent required return is: NPV = –$138,000 + $28,500(PVIFA 20%, 9 ) = –$23,117.45 At a 20 percent required return, the NPV is negative, so we would reject the project. We would be indifferent to the project if the required return was equal to the IRR of the project, since at that required return the NPV is zero. The IRR of the project is: 0 = –$138,000 + $28,500(PVIFA IRR, 9 ) IRR = 14.59% 15. The profitability index is defined as the PV of the cash inflows divided by the PV of the cash outflows. The equation for the profitability index at a required return of 10 percent is: PI = [$7,300/1.1 + $6,900/1.1 2 + $5,700/1.1 3 ] / $14,000 = 1.187 The equation for the profitability index at a required return of 15 percent is: PI = [$7,300/1.15 + $6,900/1.15 2 + $5,700/1.15 3 ] / $14,000 = 1.094 The equation for the profitability index at a required return of 22 percent is: PI = [$7,300/1.22 + $6,900/1.22 2 + $5,700/1.22 3 ] / $14,000 = 0.983 8 / 17 We would accept the project if the required return were 10 percent or 15 percent since the PI is greater than one. We would reject the project if the required return were 22 percent since the PI。

第5章净现值和投资评价的其他方法一、概念题1．调整的内部收益率（modified IRR，MIRR）答：调整的内部收益率是指使投资成本的现值等于项目产生收益现值的贴现率。

用公式可以表示为：式中，COF t为t时刻的现金流出量；CIF t为t时刻的现金流入量；k为适当贴现率，MIRR为调整的内部收益率。

2．内部收益率的基本法则（basic IRR rule）答：内部收益率的基本法则是：若内部收益率大于折现率，项目可以接受；若内部收益率小于折现率，项目不能接受。

3．互斥项目（mutually exclusive investments）答：互斥项目，就是存在相互排斥关系的项目，对其接受或者放弃的决策受其他项目投资决策的影响。

比如可以选择A也可以选择B，或者是两者同时放弃，但不能同时采纳项目A和项目B。

4．资本配置（capital rationing）答：资本配置是指在资本不足以支付所有净现值为正的项目的情况下进行投资决策时对资本的分配。

比如，某公司的项目之间相互独立，公司只有2000万美元可供投资。

由于项目A需要初始投资2000万美元，因此公司一旦选择了项目A就不能再选择其他项目。

而项目B和C都只需要1000万美元的初始投资，这两个项目就可以同时采纳。

也就是说，有限的资本使得公司要么选择项目A，要么选择项目B和C。

在资本有限的情况下，决策者不能仅仅根据单个项目的净现值进行排序，还应根据现值和初始投资的比值进行排序（即盈利指数法则）。

另外，capital rationing在有些译著中也翻译为“资本约束”，偏重强调资本不足或资本有限本身对投资决策的“约束”。

5．净现值法（NPV rule）答：净现值法是指通过计算和比较不同投资项目的净现值来选择最佳投资方案的一种决策方法。

净现值指投资项目投入使用后的净现金流量，按资本成本或企业要求达到的报酬率折算为现值，减去初始投资以后的余额。

用公式可以表示为：其中，NPV为净现值；NCF t为第t年的净现金流量；k为适当贴现率；n为项目预计使用年限；C为初始投资额。

1、如果项目带来的是常规的现金流，而且其回收期短于该项目的生命周期，还不能准备判断其净现值的正负。

仍需要其采用的折现率和其内部收益率IRR 做对比。

当折现率小于IRRA时，净现值为正值，当折现率大于IRRA时，净现值为负值，两者相等时，净现值为零。

如果一个项目的折现回收期短于该项目的生命周期，则净现值一定为正值。

2、项目有常规的现金流，且NPV为正值，则各期流入的现金流折现总和一定大于期初项目资金流出。

而各期流入的现金流总和肯定大于折现总和，所以该项目的回收期一定短于其生命周期。

同时折现回收期是用和净现值同样的NPV计算出来的，所以折现回收期也一定短于其生命周期。

同样净现值为正值，说明初始投资所带来的后续现金流的现值大于初始投资，所以盈利指数PI一定大于1。

如果使用内部收益率折现各期现金流量时，净现值为零。

而以折现率折现各期现金流量时，净现值为正，说明折现率小于内部收益率。

3、a 回收期是指投资引起的现金流入累计到与投资相等所需要的时间。

它代表收回投资所需要的年限。

回收年限越短，方案越有利。

其缺陷就是忽略了回收期内现金流量的时间序列，也忽略了回收期以后的现金支付，同时对于回收期的选择也存在主观臆断。

选择一个具体的回收期决策标准，当项目的回收期小于标准的就可行，大于标准的则拒绝。

b 平均会计收益率是指为扣除所得税和折旧之后的项目平均收益除以整个项目期限内的平均账面投资额。

其缺陷是使用账面收益而非现金流量，忽略了折旧对现金流量的影响，忽视了净收益的时间分布对项目经济价值的影响。

当项目的平均会计收益率小于目标平均会计收益率时，则拒绝项目，反之接受。

c 内部收益率就是令项目净现值为0的折现率。

其缺点是对于特殊项目无法用一般原则进行判断，并且有些项目可能会出现多个收益率的现象。

同时对于互斥项目容易忽视其规模问题和时间序列问题。

一般原则是当折现率小于IRR时，接受该项目，反之则拒绝。

d 盈利指数是初始投资所带来的后续现金流的现值和初始投资的比值。

第2章会计报表与现金流量一、概念题1．资产负债表（balance sheet）答：资产负债表指反映企业某一特定日期财务状况的会计报表。

它是根据资产、负债和所有者权益之间的相互关系，按照一定的分类标准和一定的顺序，把企业一定日期的资产、负债和所有者权益各项目予以适当排列，并对日常会计核算工作中形成的大量数据进行高度浓缩整理后编制而成的。

资产负债表是企业最重要的对外报表之一，它能为投资者和企业管理当局提供有关企业的资源分布状况、债权人和股东对资产的要求权、企业的偿债能力和未来财务状况趋势等信息。

资产负债表的格式主要有账户式和垂直式两种，当前会计实务中采用较多的是账户式资产负债表。

账户式资产负债表分左右两方列示，左边列示企业的资产，右边列示负债和所有者权益，左右两方的合计数相等。

通常，资产负债表还提供期初数和期末数的比较资料。

2．损益表（income statement）答：损益表是指反映一个企业某一会计期间经营成果的会计报表，亦称“利润表”或“收益表”。

它把一定期间的收入与相关的费用进行配比，从而计算出企业一定期间的净利润（或净亏损）。

它反映企业生产经营的收入实现和成本耗费情况，表明企业的生产经营成果。

同时，通过该表提供不同时期的比较数字（如本月数、本年累计数、上年数），可以分析企业今后利润的发展趋势和获利能力。

损益表的结果可以分为多步式和单步式两种。

多步式损益表中的损益是通过多步配比而来的。

单步式损益表则是将本期所有的收入加在一起，然后将所有的费用加总在一起，通过一次配比求出本期损益。

3．现金流量（cash flow）答：现金流量是指某一段时期内企业现金流入和流出的数量。

如企业销售商品、提供劳务、出售固定资产、向银行借款等取得现金，形成企业的现金流入；购买原材料、接受劳务、购建固定资产、对外投资、偿还债务等而支付现金，形成企业的现金流出。

现金流量信息能够表明企业经营状况是否良好、资金是否紧缺、企业偿付能力大小，从而为投资者、债权人、企业管理者提供非常有用的信息。