Killtest 分享920-166 题库

NZZV ]]] QORRZKYZ IT▲ Ҳ ԟ ԇThe safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams. Exam: 920-501nncss-optera metro 5000 Title:Version: DEMO1. Given an alarm on an OCI circuit pack, which resource would offer the step-by-step procedure to address this situation?A. Surveillance TabB. Nortel Technical Practices (NTP)C. Application and Planning Guide (APG)D. Emergency Recovery (ER)Answer: B2. You are commissioning multiple shelves in an OPTera Metro 5200 network. The Commissioning Wizard allows you to set the time on each shelf. What is the simplest way of ensuring all shelves are configured with the same time?A. Enable NTP in the Commissioning Wizard.B. Use your own watch and enter the time at every shelf you commission.C. Make sure the laptop you are using to commission the shelves has the accurate time then tell the Wizard to use the PC's time.D. Make sure the laptop you are using to commission the shelves has the accurate time then copy-paste it to the Wizard's window.Answer: C3. You are commissioning an OPTera Metro 5200 shelf; this shelf will need to be a non-GNE Multiple IP address shelf. Which of the following Subnet Mask, Shelf IP and DHCP addresses are suitable?A. Subnet Mask = 255.255.255.255; Shelf IP = 10.1.1.1; DHCP = 10.1.1.2B. Subnet Mask = 255.255.255.252; Shelf IP = 192.168.10.49; DHCP = 192.168.10.50C. Subnet Mask = 255.255.255.252; Shelf IP = 192.168.10.51; DHCP = 192.168.10.50D. Subnet Mask = 255.255.255.255; Shelf IP = 192.168.256.7; DHCP = 192.168.256.6Answer: B4. What happens when you use an OPTera Metro 5200 reserved IP address during commissioning of a new shelf?A. The shelf restarts.B. Communication with the OPTera Metro 5200 network fails.C. The shelf assigns a default address with a broadcast subnet.D. The shelf recognizes the reserved address and assigns a default address.Answer: B5. You are configuring shelf 5, band 6 on an OPTera Metro 5200. What would be the benefit of configuring the shelf to use DHCP?A. To connect a router to the OPTera Metro 5200 shelf.B. To enable clients to receive an IP address for accessing the Internet.C. To allow the direct connection of a PC to the OPTera Metro 5200 shelf.D. To enable servers to have connectivity to the OPTera Metro 5200 network.Answer: C6. You are commissioning an OPTera Metro 5200 shelf as the GNE and the router IP address is192.168.10.1. You have configured an IP address of 192.168.10.5 with Subnet Mask of 255.255.255.252. What will be the problem?A. The shelf restarts.B. Loss of visibility of other shelves.C. No connectivity between the Router and the GNE shelf.D. The router will receive a DHCP address of 192.168.10.6.Answer: C7. You are located at a remote single shelf OADM site with no access to the PMOM management station. You need to run System Manager in order to examine active alarms on the OPTera Metro 5200 network. Your laptop is connected to the 1X Ethernet port of the OADM shelf but this shelf was not commissioned with any DHCP IP address (Network Mask of 255.255.255.255). Can you run System Manager?A. No; you will not be able to obtain an IP address via DHCPB. No; you can still obtain a 10.x.x.2 IP address via DHCP but System Manager will not run against the10.x.x.1 IP addressC. Yes; you can still obtain a 10.x.x.2 IP address via DHCP and run System Manager against 10.x.x.1; however you will ONLY be able to manage the shelf to which you are connectedD. Yes; you can still obtain a 10.x.x.2 IP address via DHCP and run System Manager against the Shelf IP address; you will be able to manage all shelves in the ring but you will not be able to connect to the DCNnetworkAnswer: D8. A software upgrade on a shelf is being implemented. You just completed transferring the new software load to the shelf. What is the next step in the upgrade process?A. Load shelfB. Restart shelfC. Commit shelfD. Upgrade shelfAnswer: D9. You have just completed a software upgrade. Which step would you NOT perform next?A. Disable the audible alarm.B. Fill out the upgrade report.C. Perform the upgrade backout.D. Put the empty ECT slots out of service.Answer: C10. You have completed an upgrade. Which statement is true regarding an audible alarm?A. The system raises an audible alarm only if protection circuitry exists.B. The system raises an audible alarm only if a power fluctuation occurs.C. The system raises an audible alarm only when the software upgrade is aborted.D. The system raises an audible alarm even if the alarm is disabled before the upgrade.Answer: D11. You are about to initiate a software upgrade. Which step would you NOT perform next?A. Restarting the shelf.B. Identifying the OFA shelves.C. Counting the number of shelves to upgrade.D. Installing and configuring OPTera Metro System Manager.Answer:A12. A field technician has reported some issues while configuring a network. After determining that the configuration is a linear OADM topology, which limitation may not have been considered?A. A maximum of eight sites is allowed.B. Only unprotected connections are supported.C. Both protected and unprotected connections are supported.D. The same wavelength band cannot be used for more than one terminal shelf pair.Answer: B13. When configuring a linear OADM network, what must be considered when applying the system layout?A. It has two terminal sites with a one-to-one correspondence.B. It has two terminating sites at each end with OADM sites in the center.C. It includes a terminal site with two OPTera Metro shelves and two OADM sites.D. East terminal shelves have a one-to-one correspondence with west terminal shelves.Answer: B14. How many protected channels can you have in a three shelf, single ring, single-banded mesh configuration?A. 3B. 4C. 6D. 12Answer: B15. What is the total protected optical system capacity for the OPTera Metro 5200 utilizing 2.5 Gbit/s circuit cards?A. 60 Gbit/sB. 80 Gbit/sC. 120 Gbit/sD. 160 Gbit/sAnswer: B16. Given the following scenario: Shelf 1 Band 1 Site 1 Hubbing group 1, Shelf 2 Band 2 Site 1 Hubbing group 1, Shelf 3 Band 3 Site 2 Hubbing group 2, Shelf 4 Band 2 Site 2 Hubbing group 2, Shelf 5 Band 1 Site 3 Hubbing group 3, Shelf 6 Band 3 Site 4 Hubbing group 4. Which type of configuration has been created?A. Meshed ringB. Hubbed-ringC. Dual hubbed-ringD. Linear point-to-pointAnswer:A17. A customer requires a cost effective point-to-point DWDM solution to transport 32 unprotected OC-3 (STM-1) signals. How many bands and what type of OCI cards would you use?A. 1 band; each shelf using 8 SRM OCI cardsB. 2 bands; each shelf using 4 SRM OCI cardsC. 8 bands; each shelf using 4 OCI 622 Mbps cardsD. 4 bands; each shelf using 8 OCI 622 Mbps cardsAnswer:A18. To perform a graduated loopback test, the first step is to initiate a _____ loopback on the near end OCI card. The next steps (in order) are to initiate a _____ loopback on the near end OCLD card, a _____ loopback on the far end OCLD card and finally a _____ loopback on the far end OCI card.A. Facility, terminal, terminal, facilityB. Terminal, facility, facility, terminalC. Facility, terminal, facility, terminalD. Terminal, facility, terminal, facilityAnswer: C19. You are adding a connection to an OPTera Metro 5200 system with two band 1 shelves. What is the channel ID of the connection if the far end OCLD is in slot 17?A. B1C2EB. B1C3EC. B1C2WD. B1C3WAnswer: C20. After you set the performance parameters threshold, you test the settings by using a test set. You can see that performance parameter counts go up as the test set generates errors. As the current count exceeds the threshold, you check for alarms in the System Manager and you don't see any. What is the probable cause for this?A. You did not reboot the OCI card.B. The performance parameter is not self-reporting.C. You did not enable the Alarm reporting functions.D. You did not enable the TCA for the performance parameter.Answer: D。

NZZV ]]] QORRZKYZ IT▲ Ҳ ԟ ԇThe safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.Exam : 920-158Title :Version : DEMOncds-callpilot4.0 system administrator exam1. An Executive User has inadvertently deleted their Personal Distribution Lists (PDLs) from the CallPilot system. He has requested that the CallPilot system administrator restore his PDLs. Which type of archive or backup must have been performed before the inadvertent deletion in order for the system administrator to be able to restore the executive's lost PDLs?A. A User archiveB. A Prompt archiveC. A full system backupD. An Application Builder archiveAnswer:A2. Your CallPilot system handles multimedia calls. The users on the system have reported problems accessing the system. The Channel Monitor shows several channels as "yellow" rather than "blue" or "green". What does the color yellow indicate?A. idleB. activeC. no resourceD. disabled, in test, or remote alarmAnswer: D3. The administrator wants to determine the number of reports scheduled to run. Where would the administrator locate this information?A. Select the Scheduled Reports tab from the CallPilot Reporter Report home page.B. Select the desired categories and see the scheduled reports from the CallPilot Reporter Report home page.C. Select the desired categories to display the reports that are scheduled from the CallPilot Reporter home page.D. Select the desired report or alert category and then select the Scheduled or Unscheduled tab from the CallPilot Reporter System Log page.Answer: C4. When should high-traffic Operation Administration and Maintenance (OA&M) activities such as remote control sessions, large file transfers, printing, and backup and restore operations be performed on the ELAN?A. They should never be performed on the ELAN.B. High-traffic OA&M activities can be performed at any time as none of these activities will have any affect on call processing.C. Any time after normal business hours when call traffic is low so you avoid adverse affects to the call processing abilities of the Meridian 1 switch or CS 1000 system and the CallPilot server.D. Any time during normal business hours when call traffic is low so you avoid adverse affects to the call processing abilities of the Meridian 1 switch or CS 1000 system and the CallPilot server.Answer:A5. Which statement about backups and archives is true?A. The system automatically updates application archives.B. System-wide backups must be scheduled on a weekly basis.C. A new application must be manually added to the application archives.D. When Auto Archive is enabled, the choices are only Weekly or Monthly.Answer: C6. An administrator with the appropriate access level can use the CallPilot Manager Backup and Restore functionality. Which statements about the Backup and Restore function are true? (Choose three.)A. It can save system security settings.B. It can use archives to save switch data.C. It can save data to server tape or to a disk.D. It can restore customized prompts from a prompt archive.E. It can restore individual mailboxes from a system backup.Answer: ACD7. An administrator wants to use operational measurements to identify trends and patterns related to system usage. How should this be accomplished?A. Analyze the data in CallPilot Reporter.B. Export the data to a tool such as Excel or Word.C. Collect the data and export it to a database where it can be analyzed.D. Access the operational measurements from the OM configuration page in CallPilot Manager. Answer:A8. A user with administrative privileges has created custom reports on CallPilot Reporter home page. How would the user save these custom reports?A. Click Save and Exit on the CallPilot Reporter page.B. Click Save and Close on the CallPilot Reporter page.C. Click Logout and the custom reports are automatically saved in the user's profile.D. Click Save and enter the fully qualified file name of the location to save the reports from the CallPilot Reporter page.Answer: C9. Your CallPilot system handles multimedia calls. The users on the system have reported that their customers are unable to send fax messages at times. As the administrator, you need to check the fax channels. Which maintenance menu would you access to view your fax ports?A. Fax ChannelsB. Fax PerformanceC. Multimedia MonitorD. Channel AllocationAnswer: C10. Your CallPilot system recently had a component replaced. The technician requested that the administrator check the system's hardware components. What are the two alert Icons in the Maintenance Administration tree? (Choose two.)A. a large "X"B. a large "B"C. a question markD. a circle around an exclamation pointAnswer:AD。

NZZV ]]] QORRZKYZ IT▲ Ҳ ԟ ԇThe safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.Exam : 920-257Title :Version : DEMONortel Secure Router Rls. 3.0 ConfigurationManagement1. Assume the AS number is 445. Which is the correct syntax to define a BGP neighbor?A. SR/bgp 445>ip bgp neighbor ip address AS#B. SR/configure/router/bgp 445>neighbor ip addressC. SR/configure/router/bgp 445>neighbor ip address as#D. SR/configure/bgp 445>ip bgp neighbor ip address AS#Answer: C2. When you define the maximum prefix in the Nortel Secure Router BGP configuration, what are you defining?A. route mappingB. maximum number of neighborsC. defining the timers for this neighborD. maximum routes accepted from a neighborAnswer: D3. You are enabling OSPF on the Nortel Secure Router. You have already configured and tested the Ethernet ports and WAN links. Which is the next step?A. Do nothing, OSPF is enabled by default.B. Configure OSPF on the associated interfaces.C. Type router ospf from the configure prompt.D. Create a router ID using a configured IP address on the router.Answer: D4. To view all of your OSPF neighbor(s), and verify their IP address, router id and state of the connection, which command can you use?A. show ip ospf neighbor detailB. show ip route ospf neighbor detailC. show ip ospf database database_summaryD. You cannot view all that information in one command.Answer:A5. Which is the correct syntax to view only OSPF routes?A. show ip routeB. show route ospfC. show ip route ospfD. show ip ospf routeAnswer: C6. Which is not a policy attribute object of the Nortel Secure Router firewall?A. serviceB. protocolC. scheduleD. http-filterAnswer: B7. Which are attributes of a Nortel Secure Router access list filter? (Choose two.)A. They are applied to an interface with a direction.B. Filters can only be used on WAN side interfaces.C. There is an implicit Deny at the end of every filter.D. There is an implicit Allow at the end of every filter.Answer:AC8. Which is the definition of a Security Zone within the framework of the Nortel Secure Router firewall?A. A separate firewall running on each interface individually.B. A logical difference between WAN interfaces for security.C. A virtual firewall with its own inbound and outbound database.D. A representation of each firewall in your WAN and branch network.Answer:A9. Which two commands can be used to edit an access list? (Choose two.)A. editB. insertC. deleteD. includeAnswer: BC10. Which mechanism most directly manages SIP traffic on the Nortel Secure Router?A. Stateful InspectionB. SIP Audio scanningC. Source Based FilteringD. Application Level GatewayAnswer: D。

NZZV ]]] QORRZKYZ IT▲ Ҳ ԟ ԇThe safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.Exam : 920-805Title :Version : DEMONortel Data Networking Technology1. A manufacturing company is building a new plant. The equipment in the plant has been known to cause interference with the network at other sites and they want to be sure that they choose a media that is resistant to electrical interference. Which type of cable should they use?A. thick coaxial cableB. fiber optic cableC. unshielded twisted pairD. plenum twisted pairAnswer: B2. A department was moved from one floor to another. When the department was on the old floor, the users connected through a mixture of 10 Mb hubs and 10/100 Mb switches. When the department was moved all the hubs were replaced by 10/100 Mb switches.Two of the users are reporting that the network is much slower on the new floor even though the hubs were replaced. You discover that the switch ports these users connect to were used to connect to the hubs and are manually configured for 10Mb half-duplex. The PCs were connected to the switch and were manually configured for 100 Mb full-duplex.What could have been done to avoid this issue?A. Auto-negotiation only needed to be enabled on the switch.B. Auto-negotiation should have been enabled on the switch ports and on the PCs.C. Auto-sensing only needed to be enabled on the switch.D. Auto-sensing should have been enabled on the switch ports and on the PCs.Answer: B3. A corporation has decided to save money and buy remanufactured IP telephones. They purchased Phase 1 (One) IP telephones that do not support Power-over-Ethernet (PoE). The Ethernet Switches they purchased do supply PoE per the IEEE 802.3af specifications.Which statement regarding the Phase 1 IP telephones is true?A. They must be plugged into AC power outlets to function.B. They can use a power splitter to receive both power and data from the Ethernet Switch.C. They can use a power splitter to receive both power and data from the Ethernet Switch, but must alsobe attached to an AC outlet to boot and acquire an IP address.D. They must be plugged into AC power outlets to boot and acquire an IP address. After the telephone is operating, it can operate off the Ethernet Switch only.Answer: B4. Which order is correct for these components in the Ethernet frame?A. destination MAC address, source MAC address, length/type field, data, FCSB. destination MAC address, source MAC address, data, length/type field, FCSC. source MAC address, destination MAC address, length/type field, data, FCSD. source MAC address, destination MAC address, data, length/type field, FCSAnswer: A5. Which statement about broadcast domains and collision domains is false?A. When a connection is Ethernet full-duplex, the collision domain only contains two devices.B. When a connection is Ethernet full-duplex, the broadcast domain only contains two devices.C. When a hub is used to connect devices, all ports are in the same collision domain but not in the same broadcast domain.D. When a switch with multiple VLANs is used to connect devices, all ports are in the same broadcast domain.Answer: B6. Which function do Route policies on the Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS) perform?A. Route policies can flush and clear the IP routing table.B. OSPF redistribute function is used to propagate OSPF routes within a single area.C. RIP announce policies determine how RIP learned routes are represented in the routing table.D. BGP redistribute function may be used to advertise OSPF learned routes using BGP.Answer: D7. Equal Cost MultiPath (ECMP) provides the ability to load-balance Layer 3 links and also to provide redundancy. When ECMP is enabled, which set of criteria initiates its use?A. OSPF and RIP have no overlapping network advertisements.B. OSFP or RIP have learned duplicate routes with the same cost or metric.C. OSPF and RIP have identical network advertisements with the same cost.D. OSPF and RIP are used in parallel with network advertisements with different costs.Answer: B8. You are configuring a static route on an Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS). Which parameter must you specify? A.an IP address for device management purposes B.an interface IP address in the routing table for loop back C.an interface IP address of the next-hop router as a destination in the routing table D.an IP address for a network to be listed in the routing table by the network manager You are configuring a static route on an Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS). Which parameter must you specify?A. an IP address for device management purposesB. an interface IP address in the routing table for loop backC. an interface IP address of the next-hop router as a destination in the routing tableD. an IP address for a network to be listed in the routing table by the network managerAnswer: D9. An Ethernet Routing Switch is building the routing table using default route precedence values. As it considers routes from various sources, which set of criteria does the routing table use to build its information?A. All sources are considered in a Weighted Round Robin order.B. RIP routes are considered at a higher precedence value than OSPF.C. OSPF routes have a lower precedence value than Static routes.D. BGP routes are always listed first and most important in the IP Routing Table.Answer: B10. You are designing a large network and are using Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) for its efficiency with convergence times and its amount of traffic control. Which statement describes how OSPF accomplishes this?A. The metric is dynamic for each link.B. The metric is independent of the link speed.C. The metric reflects the link speed.D. The metric is the same regardless of link speed. Answer: C。

NZZV ]]] QORRZKYZ IT▲ Ҳ ԟ ԇThe safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.Exam : 920-234Title :Version : DEMONortel VPN Router Ris. 7.0 Configuration &Management(NCSS)1. A customer has a VPN Router 1750 with VPN tunneling capabilities. They want to enable subscribers to have user tunnel connections to the router. Which parameter must be configured to implement user tunnels on a VPN Router?A. a user groupB. LDAP group settingsC. password group settingsD. an IP address assignmentE. tunneling protocols settingsAnswer: D2. An engineer wants to configure a firewall policy on the VPN router, and wants to change thesystem-wide rules that are applied and processed first by the firewall. Which Stateful Firewall rules need to be modified?A. Implied RulesB. Default RulesC. Override RulesD. Interface-specific Rules.Answer: C3. Which three VPN Router models support the "SSL VPN Module 1000" hardware option card? (Choose three.)A. VPN Router 1050B. VPN Router 1100C. VPN Router 1750D. VPN Router 2750E. VPN Router 5000Answer: CDE4. A customer would like to use a VPN Router 1750 for SSL VPN and offload encryption onto multiple hardware accelerator cards. Which statement is true?A. The 1750 chassis does not support the SSL VPN module or the hardware accelerator card.B. SSL VPN module and hardware accelerator cards can not be used in the same 1750 chassis.C. The 1750 chassis does support the SSL VPN module but only a single hardware accelerator card.D. The 1750 chassis does not support the SSL VPN module but multiple hardware accelerator cards could be installed.Answer: C5. A customer has just purchased a VPN Router 1750. They want to know how much RAM it has"out-of-the-box" and if it can be upgraded. Which statement is true?A. The VPN Router 1750 chassis comes with 256MB installed and is not upgradeable.B. The VPN Router 1750 chassis comes with 128MB of RAM installed and is upgradeable to 512MB.C. The VPN Router 1750 chassis comes with 256MB of RAM installed and is upgradeable to 512MB.D. The VPN Router 1750 chassis comes with 128MB of RAM installed and is upgradeable to 256MB. Answer: D6. A customer has just purchased a VPN Router. They want to know which License Keys are available and what functions each individual key enables. Which statement is true?A. The Advanced Routing key enables RIP, OSPF and VRRP functions.B. The Premium Routing key activates OSPF, VRRP, DLSw and BGP routing functions.C. The BGP Routing key enables Border Gateway Protocol routing and Data Link Switching capabilities.D. The VPN Router Stateful Firewall key enables stateful firewall capabilities but disables the standard VPN Router firewall functions.Answer: B7. On a VPN Router Rls. 7.0 system, on which two interface types can the routing protocols RIP, OSPF and VRRP be enabled? (Choose two.)A. Single HSSIB. Single or Dual V.35C. 10/100 Ethernet port, System BoardD. 10/100 Ethernet port, Expansion ModuleAnswer: CD8. Which three QoS features are available on the VPN Router? (Choose three.)A. CLIPB. DiffServC. Demand ServicesD. Forwarding PriorityE. Resource Reservation ProtocolAnswer: BDE9. Which three statements are true regarding IPSec Mobility? (Choose three.)A. VPN tunnel connections survive lost packets.B. IPSec Mobility is activated with the Advance Routing license key.C. For IPSec Mobility to work, any VPN Client version can be running.D. NAT Traversal and IPSec Fail-over will not interoperate with IPSec Mobility.E. IPSec Mobility is provisioned at the VPN Router, and the settings are pushed down from the server. Answer: ABE10. When configuring the VPN Router 1750 system, how are the management IP address and subnet mask initially configured?A. The management IP address and subnet mask are configured by using the serial interface.B. The management IP address and subnet mask will be automatically provided by a DHCP server.C. When powered up, the VPN Router will initially be configured with a default management IP address and subnet mask.D. Having the management IP address and subnet mask configured is not initially required and can be configured from a web browser at anytime.Answer: A。

NZZV ]]] QORRZKYZ IT▲ Ҳ ԟ ԇThe safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.Exam : 920-193Title:Version : DEMOncss-Business communications manager 50(bcm50)rls.1.01. You are installing a Nortel BCM50 at a larger business site. The basic configuration is required to complete the installation. A basic configuration can be completed using different methods. Which three methods can you use to change the IP address? (Choose three.)A. Startup ProfileB. Element ManagerC. Telset AdministrationD. Maintenance ConsoleE. Norstar Remote UtilitiesAnswer: ABC2. A Nortel BCM50a customer has Internet connectivity with only one IP address from the service provider. The customer wants a secured LAN with private IP addresses. The integrated ADSL router in the Nortel BCM50a needs to be configured for the correct mode. What is the correct mode for the Nortel BCM50?A. NoneB. DHCPC. SUA onlyD. Full FeatureAnswer: C3. You are installing a Nortel BCM50 at a business site. Basic configuration will be required to complete the installation, which will include key codes installation. The system will need to have the configuration saved to an immediate backup destination following the basic configuration being completed. What are three destinations that can be used? (Choose three.)A. CDB. My ComputerC. Nortel BCM50D. BCM imaging toolE. USB storage deviceAnswer: BCE4. You are working on a Nortel BCM50 that has been moved to a new site. You want an inventory of all key components, devices, and all additional information in a readable format. This information is requiredto maintain accurate maintenance and billing records for all sites. Which part of Element Manager will you be using?A. BCM MonitorB. Application backupC. Configuration backupD. Saving programming recordsAnswer: D5. A Nortel BCM50 has been relocated to a new site. Element Manager will be used to manipulate a Nortel BCM50 lines, stations, trunks, and restrictions configuration. This repetitive information is stored in tables located in Element Manager. Which new feature has been added to Element Manager to optimize the repetitive programming?A. startup profileB. drag and dropC. tabular cut and pasteD. import programming recordAnswer: C6. You are installing a Nortel BCM50 main unit. The customer wants to use the Nortel BCM50 to provide DHCP. You must define the DHCP settings on the BCM. Which software and port do you use?A. Telnet using any LAN portB. router software using the WAN portC. Element Manager using the OAM portD. communications software via the ATA2 portAnswer: C7. You are installing and configuring a Nortel BCM50 at a business site. The system needs key code entries. The key code retrieval system for the Nortel BCM50 product family (KRS2) needs two distinct numbers. What are the two required numbers? (Choose two.)A. system IDB. authorization codeC. system model numberD. purchase order numberAnswer: AB8. A Nortel BCM50e has been relocated to a new site. The new site will be utilizing the Integrated Router for Internet connection. Element Manager is the preferred method to manage configuration. The Integrated Router button is under a folder in the Configuration Task Navigation panel. In which folder is t he button located ?A. WebGUIB. ResourcesC. ApplicationsD. Data ServicesAnswer: D9. The primary management application for the Nortel BCM50 is Element Manager, which comes with various types of documentation. Which two types of help are available? (Choose two.)A. BCM MonitorB. hover text helpC. content sensitive helpD. task navigation help panelAnswer: BC10. A Nortel BCM50 is being installed at a location that needs an increased level of reliability. The system needs protection against AC power interruptions. The system needs to shutdown in an orderly manner in the event of a power failure. Which option will accomplish this?A. a battery backupB. a surge protectorC. a smart APC UPSD. a portable generatorAnswer: C11. A Nortel BCM50 that has been moved to a new site. The customer has added CallPilot and wants to be able to launch it from Element Manager. This requires a specific setup for users. What must be done to facilitate this?A. log on to the PCB. secure the new siteC. load CallPilot managerD. use sufficient security privilegesAnswer: D12. A Nortel BCM50 installation requires music and paging. The Nortel BCM50 has a music jack. Rather than using the music jack, what is another way that music and paging can be connected?A. RJ21 cableB. set screwsC. the front panelD. RJ11 jack on chassisAnswer: A13. There are several utilities available for the Nortel BCM50 in Element Manager. One of these utilities can provide Universal ISDN protocol messages. Which utility can do this?A. ResetB. BCM MonitorC. Ethernet ActivityD. Diagnostic SettingsAnswer: B14. The security capabilities of the Nortel BCM50 are advanced. Nortel recommends changing certain default values after the system is up and running and the operation is verified. After implementation, what does Nortel recommend changing?A. account privilegesB. Nortel support default userC. security settings for systemD. all default system passwordsAnswer: D15. The security capabilities of the Nortel BCM50 are advanced. Element Manager is a new management tool for BCM50. Which security feature is in place to facilitate secure communication from Element Manager to the BCM50?A. security auditB. user accountsC. security certificateD. password complexityAnswer: C16. A Nortel BCM50e has been relocated to a new site. Element Manager can retrieve, view, and manage key codes. The key code information is under a folder in the Configuration Task Navigation panel. Which folder in the Navigation Tree has the information?A. SystemB. ResourcesC. ApplicationsD. Administration AccessAnswer: A17. You are installing a Nortel BCM50 system that needs to be completed quickly. You can develop a template for the system on a PC. Startup Profile will build a template of initial parameters which can be loaded in the system using a memory storage device. How would you install the startup profile template on the BCM50?A. OAM portB. LAN portC. USB portD. WAN portAnswer: C18. You will be installing a Nortel BCM50 at a small business site with 7 digital stations. This clients Internet access is DSL. The customer wants to connect two PCs to the Nortel BCM50 to share the Internet connection. Which two hardware configurations will support this installation? (Choose two.)A. Nortel BCM50 main unitB. Nortel BCM50a main unitC. Nortel BCM50e main unitD. Nortel BCM expansion unitAnswer: BC19. The security capabilities of the Nortel BCM50 are advanced. The customer is concerned about the access security of the Element Manager tool. How can you prevent or block the user of Element Manager from using simple passwords?A. set password level oneB. disable post login messageC. set password complexity threeD. user account lockout set to threeAnswer: C20. You have just installed a Nortel BCM50 with a WAN and LAN interface ports. The Nortel BCM50a and Nortel BCM50e both have integrated routers. The routers need to be configured. Which GUI is intended for this configuration?A. Element Manager GUIB. Telset Management GUIC. Maintenance PC WebGUID. Integrated Router WebGUIAnswer: D。

NZZV ]]] QORRZKYZ IT▲ Ҳ ԟ ԇThe safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.Exam : 920-240Title :Version : DEMONortel Wireless Mesh Network Rls. 2.3Implementation &Management1. Software running on a Wireless AP detects operational and functional anomalies that can cause fault conditions. On which three can the Wireless AP software detect status and problems? (Choose three.)A. DHCP leasesB. Network Time SynchronizationC. Wireless Gateway 7250 software errorD. Wireless AP FTP server misconfiguredE. Mobile node quarantine and IPsec tunnel statusAnswer: ABE2. A Wireless AP 7220 has reported a fault condition to Enterprise Network Management System (ENMS).A technician has identified and taken corrective action to resolve the alarm condition. Which action may be required to clear future traps?A. Restart ENMS to apply new parameter values.B. Reboot the Wireless AP 7220 to apply new parameter values.C. Drop and reestablish transit links to apply new parameter values.D. Reboot the Wireless Gateway 7250 to apply new parameter values.Answer: B3. What must be installed with Enterprise Network Management System (ENMS) to provide support for the Wireless Mesh Network?A. SNMP agent softwareB. Device Integrated ToolkitC. Wireless Mesh Network MIBD. ICMP polling and trap registrationAnswer: B4. A customer is using Enterprise Network Management System (ENMS) to manage fault data for a Wireless Mesh Network. Which two ways does ENMS collect this data? (Choose two.)A. Via polling by ENMSB. Via FTP server in NOSSC. Via traps sent by a deviceD. Via Syslog server in NOSSAnswer: AC5. A technician has implemented the Wireless AP@NAP, but there are problems downloading the FTP configuration. Sessions indicate that an IPsec tunnel is established. Which two statements describe possible causes of this problem? (Choose two.)A. The FTP server is not started.B. The private IP address Pool is exhausted.C. The configuration file is named incorrectly.D. There is an incorrect Default Gateway on AP@NAP.Answer: AC6. A university has provisioned a Wireless Mesh Network (WMN) for its campus. What is the packet flow for a standalone Wireless AP?A. Transit Link Up, Radius Authentication, IP received via DHCP, Config downloaded via FTP OSPF routes populate, IPsec Tunnel establishedB. Transit Link Up, Radius Authentication, IP received via DHCP, OSPF routes populate, IPsec Tunnel established, Config downloaded via FTPC. Transit Link Up, IP received via DHCP, OSPF routes populate, Radius Authentication, IPsec Tunnel established, Config downloaded via FTPD. Transit Link Up, IP received via DHCP, Radius Authentication, OSPF routes populate, IPsec Tunnel established, Config downloaded via FTPAnswer: B7. A university has provisioned a Wireless Mesh Network (WMN) for its campus. What is the packet flow for a mobile node joining the network?A. associate to a Wireless AP, authenticate through RADIUS, obtain IP address from DHCP server, register with home agent on the Wireless Gateway 7250B. associate to a Wireless AP, authenticate through RADIUS, register with home agent on the Wireless Gateway 7250, obtain IP address from DHCP serverC. associate to a Wireless AP, obtain IP address from DHCP server, authenticate through RADIUS, register with home agent on the Wireless Gateway 7250D. associate to a Wireless AP, register with home agent on the Wireless Gateway 7250, authenticate through RADIUS, obtain IP address from DHCP serverAnswer: A8. The Wireless Gateway 7250 has had a nonfatal fault condition; however, the Wireless Gateway 7250 has since been rebooted. What are two locations where information on the fault condition would be stored? (Choose two.)A. FTP serverB. ENMS Fault ManagerC. Crash file in the Wireless AP 7250D. Eventlog file on the Wireless Gateway 7250Answer: BD9. A technician has implemented the Wireless AP@NAP, but there are problems connecting to the 7250. Information in the event log indicates IPsec tunnel is not able to establish. Which two statements describe possible causes of this problem? (Choose two.)A. The MIP firewall filter was not configured.B. The AP@NAP IP address is set incorrectly.C. The IP address Pool for private IPs is exhausted.D. The user account for AP@NAP has the incorrect password.Answer: CD10. A university has provisioned a Wireless Mesh Network (WMN) for its campus. What is the packet flow for an AP@NAP joining the network?A. IPsec tunnel initiated, OSPF routes are populated, FTP session initiatedB. IPsec tunnel initiated, FTP session initiated, OSPF routes are populatedC. OSPF routes are populated, IPsec tunnel initiated, FTP session initiatedD. OSPF routes are populated, FTP session initiated, IPsec tunnel initiatedAnswer: C。

NZZV ]]] QORRZKYZ IT▲ Ҳ ԟ ԇThe safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.Exam : 920-322Title :Version : DEMOnncss succession 1000/1000m rls 3.0 db fortechnicians1. The executives of a company want to forward all calls to the administrative assistant when they do NOT want to be disturbed. However, they do want the assistant to be able to transfer important calls back to them even though all calls are being forwarded. How can this request be accomplished?A. The assistant can transfer the call back to the executive's telephone via a secondary Primary Dialing number (PDN) or a DN. It will follow the forward all calls path back to the assistant.B. Use The Executive Barge-In feature to allow an assistant to transfer calls back to an executive's telephone, overriding the Call Forward All Calls (CFAC) feature by using the Barge-In key to complete the transfer.C. Install a second telephone that is NOT forwarding calls with its own Telephone Number (TN) and Dialing Number (DN). It can be an analog 2500 telephone, Digital telephone or Internet Telephone. The assistant would then transfer important calls to this special non-published DN.D. Use the Secretarial Filtering feature to allow all calls to be forwarded to a second telephone. The user at the second telephone can answer the forwarded call and can choose to transfer the call back to the (PDN) of the first telephone, overriding the CFAC feature.Answer: D2. A customer has a Meridian Internet Enabled IP Trunk3.01 and BCM 3.01 in the network. They are using OTM 2.0 to administer and maintain the switch. They want to upgrade a Meridian 1 system to Succession 1000M using the coordinated cutover method. What is the first procedure that must be completed?A. Upgrade the firmware on Voice Gateway Media Cards.B. Configure and cutover an upgraded Succession 1000M Rls. 3.0 system to use IP Peer Virtual Trunks.C. Configure H323-ID endpoints for IP Trunk 3.01and BCM 3.01 on the Gatekeeper.D. Upgrade OTM 2.00 to OTM 2.10.Answer: D3. A customer wants external calls at a particular station to forward to an administrative assistant under busy or no answer conditions, but wants internal calls receiving busy or no answer to forward to voicemail. What software feature in a Succession 1000M Rls. 3.0 system would you use to meet this request?A. The Meridian Integrated Personal Call Director (MIPCD) would be required to route based on Caller ID.B. The Call Forward by Call Type (CFCT) feature to route calls receiving a no answer or busy to separately defined dialing numbers (DNs) based on whether the call is internal or external.C. The Call Forward by Call Type (CFCT) feature to only route calls receiving a no answer to separately defined dialing numbers (DNs) based on whether the call is internal or external. Busy calls will always follow the hunt DN.D. The Call Forward by Call Type(CFCT) feature to only route calls receiving a busy condition to separately defined dialing numbers (DNs) based on whether the call is internal or external. No answer calls will always follow the forward no answer (FNA) DN.Answer: B4. A customer's traffic requires two Primary Rate Interfaces (PRIs) for local service with 40 trunks, and one PRI for direct long-distance access with 20 trunks. How many trunk groups and trunks should be provisioned?A. Provision one trunk group in Load 16 and 60 trunks in Load 14.B. Provision 60 trunk groups in Load 16, one for each active channel of the 3 PRIs (20 active channels per PRI).C. Provision three trunk groups in Load 16, one for each T-1 with 20 trunks per route provisioned in Load 14, for a total of 60 trunks.D. Provision two trunk groups in Load 16, one for local service with 40 trunks provisioned in Load 14, and one for long distance access with up to 20 trunks provisioned.Answer: D5. A customer has Succession 1000M Rls. 3.0 system. They require a telephone which will be able to integrate with their LDAP protocol. Which telephone model is able to perform this function?A. i2002B. i2050C. M3903D. i2004Answer: B6. Three users are communicating with a Succession 1000M Rls. 3.0 system using Multi-User Login to make database changes. How many more users can access the system concurrently to perform administrative tasks?A. 1B. 2C. 3D. 4Answer: B7. A company wants to control costs by allowing access to trunks only through Alternate Route Selection so that the most cost effective route is used for each call. Users will need to directly access paging trunks. What can be used to meet this request?A. Class Of Service (COS) access restrictions to trunksB. Access codes on Paging (PAG) routes to prevent access to other routesC. Trunk Group Access Restrictions (TGAR) and Trunk Access Restriction Groups (TARG) on Trunk groupsD. The Trunk Barring on Central Office (CO) and Wide Area Telecommunications Service (WATS) trunks Answer: C8. A customer has a Succession 1000M Rls. 3.0 system. They want a telephone with an integrated switch for PC LAN access. Which two telephones have LAN switch built-in? (Choose two.)A. i2002 Internet TelephoneB. i2004 Internet TelephoneC. M3903 Digital TelephoneD. M3905 Digital TelephoneAnswer:AB9. Which statement best describes why a restricted Virtual Office (VO) login is applied to i2004 and i2050 TNs when end users log in using an i2002 Internet Telephone?A. the i2002 Internet Telephone does not support Virtual Office loginB. the i2002 Internet Telephone does not recognize key sequencesC. the i2002 Internet Telephone does not support feature keysD. the i2002 Internet Telephone supports only 4 feature keysAnswer: D10. A Human Resources department wants to have the "HR help line" appear on everyone's telephone (eight users) in the department. They want any available employee to answer "HR help line" calls and want to be able to receive as many simultaneous calls as there are employees (eight) in the department. What would you recommend to the customer?A. Setup an Automatic Call Distributor (ACD) queue in Load 32 and define the eight employees as agents of that ACD group.B. Define a Uniform Call Distribution (UCD) list with the DN's of the eight employees in the Human Resources department.C. Program a Multiple Appearance, Single Call Arrangement DN (SCR or SCN) as a secondary DN on the eight users' digital or Internet Telephones. It will allow as many calls to be in progress as there are appearances of the DN.D. Program a Multiple Appearance, Multiple Call Arrangement DN (MCR or MCN) as a secondary DN on the eight users' digital or Internet Telephones. It will allow as many calls to be in progress as there are appearances of the DN.Answer: D。

NZZV ]]] QORRZKYZ IT▲ Ҳ ԟ ԇThe safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.Exam : 920-246Title :Version : DEMONortel WLAN 2300 Ris.5.0 Implementation &Management1. A customer is planning protection for their WLAN. Part of their basic plan is to use a closed system. Which statement describes a closed system?A. SSID is not broadcast.B. IPSec is implemented.C. WEP encryption is used.D. Only specific MAC addresses have access to the WLAN.Answer:A2. A customer is setting up their WLAN 2300 series to provide security. They have an existing PKI environment in place, and would like to leverage the existing environment. Which supported authentication/encryption method will meet this requirement?A. PEAPB. EAP-TLSC. EAP-MD5D. WPA-PSKAnswer: B3. A customer is using the WMS 2300 planning tool to plan wireless coverage for a site. An important part of this configuration is properly configuring the layout. What is the most important consideration when configuring the layout using the WMS planning tool?A. the location of the APsB. the number of security switchesC. the proper scaling of the documentD. a location of the seed Wireless Security SwitchAnswer: C4. WLAN management system 2300 allows you to create a network plan. This plan can optionally be saved into a standard format. Which program is used to view a network plan?A. Text EditorB. Adobe AcrobatC. Microsoft PowerPointD. Standard web browserAnswer: D5. A customer is setting up their WLAN 2300 series to provide security. They need to provide for encryption and authentication via 802.1x. Which two supported authentication/encryption methods will meet this requirement? (Choose two.)A. PEAPB. EAP-TLSC. EAP-MD5D. MAC authenticationAnswer:AB6. The WLAN 2300 series support a mobility domain. The mobility domain allows for transparent roaming and consistent user experience. In providing the benefits of a mobility domain, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)A. All APs broadcast identical SSIDs.B. A mobility domain seed member must be configured.C. WMS 2300 manages all Wireless Security Switches.D. All WSSs must be a member of the same mobility domain.Answer: BD7. All communication between the WLAN Security Switch and AP is encrypted, including all control and management traffic. This feature limits the ability of the Rogue AP to join the network. Which two methods are used to secure this traffic? (Choose two.)A. WEPB. AES-CCMC. HMAC-MD5D. 802.1X/EAPAnswer: BC8. The 2330 AP can be deployed easily throughout the WLAN. It is designed for dense deployments and delivers high performance without sacrificing security. However, when deployed in a distributed topology, the 2330 has certain requirements. Which two are required in a Distributed Topology? (Choose two.)A. DHCP ServerB. SSL certificateC. Layer three device (router)D. PoE (Power over Ethernet)Answer:AD9. A customer is implementing security with the WLAN 2300 series, and they want to provide strong authentication of their users. They want the Wireless Security Switch to authenticate users directly to an external database. Which database can the Wireless Security Switch directly query?A. NTLMB. RADIUSC. Certificate AuthorityD. Active Directory (LDAP)Answer: B10. The WLAN 2300 series can use ACLs to prioritize traffic. VoIP traffic requires prioritization to ensure fast delivery of voice packets. ACLs can be used to prioritize WMM or non WMM traffic. How do ACLs prioritize traffic?A. They modify the ToS field.B. They modify the CoS field.C. They modify the IP address.D. They modify the MAC address.Answer: B。

NZZV ]]] QORRZKYZ IT▲ Ҳ ԟ ԇThe safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams. Exam: 920-250nncss-passport 8600Title:Version: DEMO1. An engineer is configuring RADIUS authentication on a Passport 8600 switch using the Command Line Interface (CLI). What is the recommended value that should be set for the attribute-value parameter of the config radius CLI command.A. TRUEB. 192C. ENABLED. 255Answer: B2. An engineer needs to change the value of the timeout parameter to 10 seconds for a RADIUS server with the IP address 47.153.22.18 previously configured on a Passport 8600. Which Command Line Interface (CLI) commands can be used to change the parameter setting for the server without having to delete then re-create the server definition?A. config radius server set 47.153.22.18 timeout 10B. config radius server reset 47.153.22.18 timeout 10C. config radius server modify 47.153.22.18 timeout 10D. config radius server 47.153.22.18 timeout 10Answer:A3. Which three can be found under the edit -> chassis, system tab? (Choose three.)A. saves runtime config to flashB. list files on flashC. disable Telnet serverD. set system timeE. enable authentication trapsF. perform hard and soft system resetsAnswer:AEF4. A technician is preparing to create a port-based VLAN on a Passport 8600 using Device Manager. Identify two rules that must be followed for successful operation of the VLAN. (Choose two.)A. the default VLAN (VLAN ID 1) must be renamedB. all access (non tagged) ports must be in separate port-based VLANsC. an access (nontagged) port can belong to one and only one port-based VLAND. all ports in the VLAN must be a subset of a single spanning tree group (if spanning tree is used) Answer: CD5. Which command would you use to create a port-based VLAN with a VLAN id =2 in Spanning Tree Group 1 (STG1)?A. config vlan stg 1 byport 2B. config vlan create byport 2C. config vlan 2 create byport 1D. config stg 1 vlan 2 create byportAnswer: C6. In the event of a network failure, a customer requires that an Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) interface detect the failure within 30 seconds. Which Command Line Interface (CLI) command must be used to ensure a network failure is detected in the required amount of time?A. config vlan <vid> ip ospf dead-interval 30B. config vlan <vid> ip ospf metric 30C. config vlan <vid> ip ospf priority 30D. config vlan <vid> ip ospf hello-interval 30Answer:A7. A Passport 8600 switch has an 8648TX card installed in Slot 1. Autonegotiation has already been disabled on Port 48 of this card. Which Command Line Interface (CLI) command should you use to set this port for Half-Duplex operation?A. config port 1/48 duplex halfB. config ethernet 1/48 duplex halfC. config port 1/48 half-duplex trueD. config ethernet 1/48 half-duplex trueAnswer: B8. Consider an Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) Broadcast network with four routers. How many adjacencies would be formed by the Backup Designated Router?A. oneB. twoC. threeD. fourAnswer: C9. A network administrator has added four, new, statically-routed VLANs to a Passport 8600 that runs Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) in Area 0.0.0.0. The four, new IP networks must be advertised into the OSPF domain, however, the administrator is uncomfortable with the concept of IP routing policies. What alternate technique can be used to achieve the same result?A. Leave OSPF enable globally on the Passport 8600 but keep it disabled on each new VLAN.B. Enable OSPFon each VLAN, and check the box "Advertise When Down" in the Device Manager menu VLAN->IP->OSPF.C. Configure each new VLAN into a different OSPF area, and define each of these new areas as a Stub Area.D. Enable OSPF on each VLAN, and in the Device Manager menu VLAN->IP->OSPF configure the interface type as "Passive".Answer: D10. An engineer needs to provision a new port-based VLAN on a Passport 8600 switch. The new VLAN will have a VLAN ID of 30 and the ID must be included in the default Spanning Tree Group (STG). Which Command Line Interface (CLI) command should the engineer use to create this new VLAN?A. config vlan 30 create byport 1B. config port vlan 30 stg 1 createC. config port vlan 30 create stg 1D. config vlan 30 stg1 create byportAnswer:A。

NZZV ]]] QORRZKYZ IT▲ Ҳ ԟ ԇThe safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.Exam : 920-162Title :Version : DEMOcallpilot 4.0 installation and maintenance exam1. When installing a CallPilot system using a 201i server and a CS 1000 system, how do you connect the SCSI connection to the server?A. by using the low profile right-angle SCSI connector on the NTRH3502SCSI cable attached to the SCSI connector on the 201i server faceplateB. by using the backplane connector in the Media Gateway or Media Gateway Expansion with the multi I/O cable (NTRH0912) to the next device in the SCSI chainC. by using the CD-ROM drive SCSI cable NTRH1408 attached from the SCSI connector on the 201i server faceplate to the SCSI adapter A0763912 on the CD-ROM driveD. by using the Intermediate SCSI cable NTRH1408 that connects from the SCSI connector on the 201i server faceplate to the I/O panel connector and the NTRH1410 SCSI cableAnswer:A2. When configuring the switch to support CallPilot services, which programming can you perform to provide for uninterrupted call processing in case the link or CallPilot is disabled?A. At the Night Call Forward (NCFW) prompt, forward the primary Control Directory Number to the attendant.B. At the Night Call Forward (NCFW) prompt, forward the primary Control Directory Number (CDN) to a secondary CDN.C. At the Local Default ACD DN (DFDN) prompt, direct all Control Directory Numbers to an appropriate phantom directory number depending on media type required.D. At the Local Default Automatic Call Distribution directory number (DFDN) prompt, direct all the CallPilot associated Control Directory Numbers to a Default ACD DN, typically an attendant.Answer: D3. You are preparing to set up, install, and configure a CallPilot system. There are several tasks involved with any server installation. Several guidelines should be followed whenever handling switch and server components. What are three guidelines? (Choose three.)A. Use electrostatic discharge precautions.B. Hard drives do not need special handling.C. Do not slide printed circuit boards on any surface.D. Use firm and steady force to seat printed circuit boards.E. Handle printed circuit boards by the backplane edge connector.Answer: ACD4. During installation you prepare to connect the 703t server to the ELAN. One end of the cable connects to the server. Where do you connect the other end of the cable?A. the ELAN hubB. the CLAN hubC. the ELAN gatewayD. the customer routerAnswer:A5. The CallPilot 703t server has one MPB96 card. The PBX it is connecting to will require Mgate cards. How many MGate cards are needed to support 80 voice channels?A. 1 MGate cardsB. 2 MGate cardsC. 3 MGate cardsD. 4 MGate cardsAnswer: C6. The CallPilot TRP server has been connected to a PBX. The server should have several devices connected to it, e.g., the PBX. These devices must all be connected to the same ground. What are three of these devices? (Choose three.)A. modemB. MGate cardC. server monitorD. CallPilot Manager standalone web serverE. ELAN switch/hub and optional CLAN switch/hubAnswer:ACE7. Click the Exhibit button. Prior to installing a CallPilot system, you review the Configuration Wizard worksheet. The customer has provided category 5 cable connections to their corporate LAN for the Switch Ethernet connection, the CallPilot Server Customer LAN (CLAN) Ethernet connection, and the CallPilot Server Embedded LAN (ELAN) Ethernet connection. The network address information (shown in the exhibit) for the Switch IP address, the CallPilot Server ELAN IP address, and the CallPilot Server CLAN IP address integrate with the customer's internal network. What action would you take?A. Proceed with the installation using the category 5 cable connections, IP addresses and Subnet masks provided by the customer.B. Proceed with the installation, but use a separate category 5 cable that connects directly from the switch to the ELAN network interface connector on the server.C. Inform the customer that IP addresses beginning with 192.168 are private addresses and if used the ELAN will not be able to be connected to the Internet.D. Inform the customer that the ELAN must be on a separate IP network isolated from the CLAN, and recommend they use a dedicated hub for the ELAN, and different IP addresses for the switch and the ELAN NIC.Answer: D8. On a 1001rp running CallPilot release 2.0, which three checks does the Upgrade Wizard perform? (Choose three.)A. checks the software versionB. checks for the correct 4.0 Image CDC. checks for the correct RAID firmwareD. checks that the data in the database is validE. checks that the database and computer names are in syncAnswer:ADE9. Click on the Exhibit button. You are installing a CallPilot 201i server in a Meridian 1 Option 51C switch. You connect the 50-pin Amphenol connector on the multi I/O cable (NTRH0912) to the newly installed backplane cable (NTRH3501) on the I/O panel at the rear of the switch. Where will you connect the Embedded LAN (ELAN) connector on the multi I/O cable?A. Connect the ELAN connector on the multi I/O cable (NTRH0912) to the ELAN hub.B. Connect the ELAN connector on the multi I/O cable (NTRH0912) directly to a hub or router on the Customer's LAN (CLAN).C. Connect the ELAN connector on the multi I/O cable (NTRH0912) directly to the Ethernet transceiver at the rear of the switch cabinet.D. Connect the ELAN connector on the multi I/O cable (NTRH0912) to the RJ-45 female-to-female gender change jack and a cross-over network cable.Answer:A10. You are preparing to set up, install, and configure a CallPilot system. There are several tasks involved with any server installation. General safety precautions should always be followed. What are three precautions? (Choose three.)A. Use extension cords as needed.B. Always use grounded power systems.C. Never power-down equipment to service it.D. Use a surge protector or uninterruptible power supply.E. Ensure peripheral cables are protected and out of the way. Answer: BDE。

NZZV ]]] QORRZKYZ IT▲ Ҳ ԟ ԇThe safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.Exam : 920-806Title :Version : DemoNortel Advanced Data Networking TechnologyThe safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.1.A customer would like to limit access to the research and development network to engineers and their managers. These employees need the ability to login throughout the building on any PC and to access the network remotely.Which solution will accomplish this?A.machine-based authentication using RADIUS authenticationB.PC-based authentication using LDAP authenticationC.Extensible Authentication Protocol over LAN (EAPoL) with TACACS+D.policy-based user provisioning with Enterprise Policy Manager and RADIUSAnswer: D2.Click on the Exhibit button.A customer is using PPP to communicate between two locations that are connected by a dial-up circuit. They are having problems with the link and think that it is an issue with the CHAP authentication. They have the ability to perform a packet capture on the circuit. They will create a filter looking at the protocol field in the PPP header to reduce the volume of traffic they need to examine.Which PPP protocol should they examine to see the CHAP authentication traffic during link setup?work LayerB.Link Control Protocol (LCP)work Control Protocol (NCP)D.Datalink Control Protocol (DCP)The safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.Answer: B3.Line-of-sight is one of the boundaries of Radio Frequency (RF) waves. They are also affected by obstacles that can cause the waves to bend, bounce, or become distorted.Which type of electromagnetic wave is a radio wave?A.direct waveB.ground waveC.space waveD.fluid waveAnswer:A 4.Click on the Exhibit button.Using the exhibit, what do you call the measure of the amount of time the wave takes from the moment it hits peak intensity to the moment it hits peak intensity again?A.cycleB.amplitudeC.frequencyThe safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.D.wavelengthAnswer: D5.A large retail store has decided to use a wireless network to attach cash registers and computers to the network, so that they can rearrange the floor layout without having to pull network cable every time they rearrange displays. The issue is that when they first tried to implement IEEE 802.11b last year, there was too much interference from other WLANs and cordless telephones, and the computers received very poor signal strength.Which change would most help fix this problem?e 802.11g to increase the number of channels available.e 802.11a on the 5GHz range with more channels.e 802.11b on a non-standard channel to keep from conflicting with the other WLANs.e 802.11b on the alternate 5GHz range with more channels.Answer: B。

NZZV ]]] QORRZKYZ IT▲ Ҳ ԟ ԇThe safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.Exam : 920-110Title :Version : DEMONNCSS SL-100 Maintenance CertificationExam1. Which is true about operational measurements (OMs) for the SL-100?A. Peg registers are incremented when an event occurs.B. Associated functional groups are the SERVORD administrators.C. You set the interval for collection of usage registers between 1-256 seconds.D. High-sim registers reflect the maximum number of items in simultaneous use during the current transfer period.Answer:A2. You access the disk utility (DISKUT) for the system-load module (SLM). What is the correct command syntax to access complete syntax help on the command LISTFL (list files)?A. HELP LISTB. QUERY LISTFLC. HELP LISTFL FULLD. HELP LISTFL DISKUTAnswer: C3. A remote line-concentrating module (RLCM) has just come out of emergency stand alone (ESA) mode. Because the RLCM could NOT communicate with the CM during the ESA period, it stored and forwarded the OMs it collected to the host switch after exiting ESA. How can you get access to those OMs collected during the ESA period?A. Look for the log report that has the OM data in it.B. Use the PRT ESA OM command for the affected RLCM.C. Request an OM report for that RLCM and go to the section for ESA Associated Registers.D. At the PM level of the MAP, request an activity report for the RLCM, specifying the start and end times of the ESA period as identified in a log report.Answer:A4. The Meridian SL-100 generates the following LINE log report every few minutes: LINE205 APR01 12:00:00 2112 TBL HOST 02 1 12 28 DN 2557811999 TROUBLE CODE = LINE_CARD_FAULT INFO = Excessive Keyhits MESSAGE RECEIVED = 0004 MESSAGE IN LAST SECOND = 0003 LENGTH OF TEST (SECS) = 0002 CARD CODE = 6X21AC As a first step, you duplicated the problem by using a phone and hitting the keys multiple times. Also, a line test reveals no intermittent problems to the cable pair. Following procedures, what should you do next?A. Replace the set.B. No action is required.C. Replace the line card.D. Perform line diagnostics at the LTP level.Answer:A5. You need to add a register to an existing OM. Which CI command lets you do this?A. OMDUMPB. OMFORMATC. OMACCFLDD. OMACCGRPAnswer: C6. An attendant console has been installed. The new console is data filled as CON1, but test calls from the new console receive T120. The console is dialing 55544. What command will identify the translations issue?A. TRAVER L CON1 55544 BB. TRAVER C CON1 55544 BC. TRAVER C 55544 CON1 BD. TRAVER TR CON1 55544 BAnswer: B7. You want to create a file called EDIT You want to create a file called F2 What command sequence should you use to create the file, add lines, save the file to SFDEV; exit the EDIT Utility, and list all the files in SFDEV?A. EDIT SF2 ADD command qa (quit all); command fpa (send sink;format pack;send previous;lis all)SAVE SFDEV;LISTSF ALLB. EDIT SF2 INPUT command qa (quit all); command fpa (send sink;format pack;send previous;lis all) FILE SFDEV;LISTSF ALLC. EDIT SF2 INPUT command qa (quit all); command fpa (send sink;format pack;send previous;lis all) SAVE SFDEV;LISTSF ALLD. EDIT SF2 INPUT command qa (quit all); command fpa (send sink;format pack;send previous;lis all) FILE;LISTSF ALLAnswer: B8. Disk Drive Unit (DDU) 0 is generating excessive errors and goes into a SBSY state. You access the DDU level of the IOD menu level and note the state of the volumes on the DDU. What is the correct command syntax to busy out the DDU and continue further maintenance?A. BSYB. BSY0C. BSY FORCED. BSY 0 FORCEAnswer:A9. Which field in Table OFCENG do you change to control the order in which logs are output to a specific device?A. LOG_PRIORITYB. LOG_PRIORITIZATIONC. LOG_OUTPUT_ORDERD. LOG_OUTPUT_PRIORITYAnswer: B10. A new PRI span, PRI_2, is being turned up to a M1. The M1 will tandem calls through the SL-100 to the local CO. The carrier, D channels, and B channels are in service. Test calls from the M1 to the Directory Assistance number, 555-1212, do not complete. What command string should be used to verify that the SL-100 is correct?A. QDN 5551212B. TABLE IBNRTE;LIST ALLC. TRAVER TR PRI_2 95551212 BD. TRAVER TR PRI_2 N CDN PVT 95551212 BAnswer: D。

NZZV ]]] QORRZKYZ IT▲ Ҳ ԟ ԇThe safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.Exam : 920-141Title :Version : DEMONNCDS-Communication Server(cs)1000 release 4.01. A customer wants to configure the Enterprise Media Gateways (EMG) on their CS 1000 Rls. 4.0 system for survivability. They also need to interpret the network requirements for the system. Which configuration ensures network survivability?A. The survivable EMG TLAN IP address must be on the same TLAN subnet as the Call Server.B. The survivable EMG ELAN IP address must be on the same ELAN subnet as the Call Server.C. The survivable EMG ELAN IP address must be on a different ELAN subnet than the Call Server.D. The survivable EMG must be separated from the Call Server by a Layer 3 device networked with the two Call Servers.Answer: B2. A customer is considering the deployment of the a H.323 Gatekeeper in failsafe mode for a CS 1000 Rls. 4.0 solution. Which statement most accurately describes why you would recommend this configuration?A. Communication to the primary and secondary H.323 Gatekeepers will never be lost.B. The Failsafe H.323 Gatekeeper within a gatekeeper zone takes over gatekeeper responsibilities for all of its peers within the zone.C. If communication is lost with the primary H.323 Gatekeeper, the secondary gatekeeper will become the primary and run in failsafe mode.D. If communication is lost to both gatekeepers, the H.323 Gateway running the failsafe gatekeeper services will continue to route calls in a best-effort fashion until communication is restored.Answer: D3. A company is planning the deployment of a new CS 1000 Rls.4.0 system and requires ultra-high reliability. How would campus redundancy meet their needs?A. It provides an optionally redundant Signaling Server.B. It moves the Gatekeeper to a standalone Signaling Server.C. It duplicates the entire processing core of a CS 1000E fault resilient system.D. It provisions an Enterprise Media Gateway 1000E as a CS 1000E Call Server.Answer: C4. In the process of provisioning a CS 1000S Rls. 4.0 system, a customer wants to include a branch office into the configuration with 50 analog and 400 IP Phones. Each IP Phone carries 6 Centi-Call Seconds (CCS) each; 50% of the calls go to other IP Phones and 50% go to analog telephones. The VoiceGateway Media Cards (VGMCs) for the Enterprise Media Gateway 1000B have a call capacity of 794 CCS. How many VGMCs will be needed?A. oneB. twoC. threeD. fourAnswer:A5. What is a the benefit of networking several CS 1000S Rls 4.0 system Call Servers together through LAN or WAN connections under the control of one Network Redirect Server (NRS)?A. Double Virtual Trunk resources are used for intra-system, inter-Call Server calls.B. IP Phones with a known community of interest can be registered on the same Call Server.C. AMIS and VPIM networking of the voice messaging systems is more efficient using the NRS.D. MCDN can be enabled providing Enterprise-wide feature transparency between the systems. Answer: D6. When designing a geographic redundancy scheme for a CS 1000M Rls. 4.0 system, the failsafe Network Routing Service (NRS) must reside on which component in case network communications are lost with the Primary and Alternate NRS?A. the Signaling Server designated as the LeaderB. the Signaling Server designated as the FollowerC. on both the Follower and the Leader Signaling ServerD. the CS 1000E Call Server that resides on the secondary systemAnswer:A7. A company has a geographically dispersed workforce with laptop computers. They connect their PCs to the company intranet via cable modems and/or DSL over VPN using IPSec. They plan to deploy IP Softphone 2050s. A network assessment shows some shared Ethernet hubs between the VPN server and the CS 1000 Rls. 4.0. At a minimum, what is required to enable a deployment of the telephones?A. Layer 3 switches with gigabit uplinkB. Layer 3 switches with VLAN supportC. Layer 2 switches with 802.1p supportD. Layer 2 switches with DiffServ capabilitiesAnswer: C8. A company plans to deploy a CS 1000M-SG Rls. 4.0 system at their headquarters. Some of their call center agents are located in a branch office. They want all applications to be centrally located and managed at the headquarters. Agents are to access services via an IP connection and get local access to the PSTN through PRI connections. What should the company consider as part of their traffic plan? (Choose three.)A. the number of PRI cards for ESN accessB. the creation of private zone for the agentsC. the engineering requirements for Multimedia Processing Units (MPUs)D. the total WAN requirements for data between the branch office and the main officeE. the total WAN bandwidth required for the remote call center agent telephony needsAnswer: BDE9. In the process of designing a CS 1000 Rls. 4.0 system per the customer specifications, you need to order two Enterprise Media Gateway 1000T (EMG 1000T) and eight EMG 1000E systems. Each EMG 1000T will have three digital trunk cards (TMDI) and the EMG 1000E systems are provisioned for digital and analog lines. At a minimum, how many Clock Controllers are required?A. twoB. threeC. sixD. tenAnswer:A10. A customer has a CS 1000M-SG Rls. 4.0 system installed with one Signaling Server with 512 MB of memory. This system networks to multiple sites with VoIP using 200 IP Peer H.323 trunks. Because additional sites have been added, the customer needs to expand this network. To configure an additional 200 IP Peer H.323 trunks, what must be done?A. Add one IP Trunk card.B. Just configure the additional trunks.C. Add one additional Signaling Server.D. Just purchase additional virtual trunk licenses. Answer: D。

NZZV ]]] QORRZKYZ IT▲ Ҳ ԟ ԇThe safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.Exam : 920-191Title :Version : DEMOBCM50 Rls.1.0 Installation & Initial Configuration1. The administrator can exclude voicemail and Call Center from a backup operation. Why would the administrator want to do this?A. A backup can be performed to capture a defined set of data.B. A backup can be performed on demand to assist in software upgrades.C. A backup can be performed without impacting any services in the system.D. A backup schedule required modification to accommodate a specific training activity.Answer: C2. The customer is updating the software on the Nortel BCM50. How does the customer know which software updates to apply?A. The status of the update when viewed from the Software Management folder indicates "Ready".B. The status of the update when viewed from the Find Software Updates window indicates "Ready".C. The status of the update when viewed from the Software Management folder indicates "Available".D. The status of the update when viewed from the Find Software Updates window indicates "Available". Answer: D3. Before applying a software update to your Nortel BCM50, you must obtain the software update. From where do you obtain the software update?A. It is delivered as a tape from Nortel upon customer request.B. It is downloaded from the Nortel Technical Support Web page.C. It is downloaded by Nortel support staff to the customer FTP server upon request.D. It is downloaded from the FTP server location that is emailed to the system administrator.Answer: B4. You are performing an immediate backup to your PC. Which backup type must you select if you want to back up Nortel BCM50 configuration data and application data?A. ApplicationB. ConfigurationC. TelephonyD. VoicemailAnswer: A5. In a network configured for a Public Switched Telephone Network (PSTN) fall back, there are two connections between a Nortel BCM50 and a remote system. Which is required?A. PBX trunk and a PSTN lineB. A VoIP trunk and a PSTN lineC. A LAN connection and a PSTN lineD. A WAN connection and a PSTN lineAnswer: B6. Which statement about Nortel BCM50 line programming is true?A. You can change a PRI line to manual answer.B. A target line can be a prime line for a telephone.C. Line programming does not overwrite assigned Answer DN.D. You can copy line programming between lines on different types of modules.Answer: C7. Your Nortel BCM50 system configuration requires fewer than the standard number of channels delivered from the PRI line. Which configuration task(s) must you perform? (Choose two.)A. Provision all PRI lines.B. Enable all B-channels.C. Disable the DTM module.D. De-provision unassigned lines.E. Disable all the B-channels that are not needed.Answer: DE8. Which digital telephone supports the Key Indicator Module (KIM)?A. 7100B. 7208C. 7316ED. 7406 Answer: C。

NZZV ]]] QORRZKYZ IT▲ Ҳ ԟ ԇThe safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.Exam : 920-106Title :Version : DEMONNCSS SYMPOSIUM CALL CENTER EXAM1. When upgrading a SECC Client you get an error When upgrading a SECC Client you get an error annot overwrite C:\Nortel\Iccm\En\crp32.dll.?What must be done previous to the upgrade to resolve this issue ?A. Remove all Client peps and reboot the Server.B. Make sure that SP5 or SP6a is installed before the upgrade.C. Ensure Report Listener is closed down before upgrading the client.D. This error is intermittent and if it occurs it can be cancelled and ignored.Answer: C2. Following the installation of the Symposium Express3.0 server software, what steps must the field engineer take to install PEPs on the Symposium Express server?A. Log on to the NT server as NGenDist, shutdown all applications, and proceed with the PEP installation.B. Log on to the NT server as Administrator, shutdown screen savers, and proceed with the PEP installation.C. Log on to the NT server as NGenSys, shutdown all applications, including screen savers and proceed with the PEP installation.D. Log on to the NT server as NGenDist, shutdown all applications, including screen savers and proceed with the PEP installation.Answer: C3. Before you perform software upgrade from these versions of Symposium Web Client (04.00.037.00 to04.02.011.04 inclusive) to a version downloaded from the Nortel web site, what must you do?A. Ensure that Active Directory is installed.B. Ensure Sybase is installed in the Default directory.C. Make sure that SP5 or SP6a is installed before the upgrade.D. Download the Microsoft Windows Installer package "CRTEmplates.msi".Answer: D4. A field engineer is performing an upgrade from Symposium Call Center Server 1.5 to 4.0 on a PVI platform. The steps to restoring the database have been completed. An error during the database initialization states: "could not create database". Given that a successful integrity check on the database has been run, what steps should the field engineer perform next?A. Key the database in by hand.B. Fdisk and format all hard drives, perform the procedure again from the beginning.C. Uninstall Symposium Call Center Server, and start the procedure over from that point.D. Check the platform recovery disk for database segmentation and contact Nortel Networks support if segmentation is found.Answer: D5. A field engineer at a customer's site is preparing for a Symposium Call Center Server 1.5 to 4.0 migration. In performing the pre-upgrade checks it is discovered that the disk partitions on the 1.5 server are primary partitions. What action should the field engineer take next?A. The migration can proceed, making note of the problem. The partitions will be created correctly on the new 4.0 server.B. Schedule time with the customer to convert the drives from primary to extended partitions using individual full backups for each drive as time allows.C. Perform a database backup on the 1.5 server. Use Disk Administrator to delete the partitions andre-create them as extended partitions. Perform a database restore.D. Perform a full backup on the 1.5 server. Fdisk and format the 1.5 server drives. Perform the full restore procedure, ensuring the database drives are partitioned as extended partitions.Answer:A6. A customer is using Symposium Web Client to manage and configure a call center and its users. Active Directory and other files are used to store user data. When restoring data in the event of a system failure in this scenario, which statement is TRUE regarding where the Active Directory can be restored?A. Onto a remote directory of a network computerB. Only onto an application server other than the original serverC. Only onto the same application server where the backup was createdD. Onto the same application server where the backup was created or onto a different application server Answer: D7. Once the SMI workbench client software has been successfully installed on the client PC, what are the steps to connect the client PC with the Symposium Call Center Server 4.0?A. Select Start Menu, choose programs, SMI workbench, double click add system, enter the clan IP address.B. Select Start Menu, choose programs, double click add system, the add SMI System dialog box appears, click finish.C. Select Start Menu, choose programs, SMI workbench, double click add system, the add SMI System dialog box appears, enter the computer name.D. Select Start Menu, choose programs, SMI workbench, double click add system, the add SMI System dialog box appears, enter computer name or clan IP.Answer: D8. A customer has decided not to configure DNS service on the Web Client Win 2000 Server. Which files need to be manually updated on the Web Client 4.0 server to replace this functionality?A. config.sysB. lmhost tableC. D. autoexec.batAnswer: B9. The field engineer is preparing to use the "import configuration data" wizard to add to the Symposium Express Call Center 3.0 database automatically. What information is brought into the server using the "import configuration data" wizard?A. User, skillset, agent to skillset assignment, and call presentation classes.B. User, skillset, agent to supervisor assignment, and call presentation classes.C. Agent only users, skillset, agent to skillset assignment, and call presentation classes.D. Supervisor only users, skillset, agent to skillset assignment, and call presentation classes.Answer:A10. A field engineer is preparing a new Symposium Call Center Server 4.0 installation. What must be configured to enable the server to communicate with all required components?A. TCP/IP on the PBX switchB. TCP/IP on the TAPI ServerC. TCP/IP on the ELAN, CLAN NIC and RASD. NetBios on the Symposium Call Center Server Answer: C。

NZZV ]]] QORRZKYZ IT▲ Ҳ ԟ ԇThe safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.Exam : 920-235Title :Version : DEMONortel VPN Gateway Rls.7.0 Configuration &Management1. How does TunnelGuard protect the network after a user has authenticated to the Portal?A. The TunnelGuard agent checks the client machine for keyboard loggers and other malicious applications.B. The TunnelGuard agent checks the client machine for policy compliance at boot up and restricts network access on failure.C. The TunnelGuard agent periodically checks the client machine for policy compliance and restricts network access on failure.D. The TunnelGuard agent continually checks the client machine for suspicious activity, restricts network access, and reports problems to the network administrator.Answer: C2. Which types of certificates must be installed on the Nortel VPN Gateway (NVG) to enable end-to-end encryption?A. client certificate installed on NVG, client certificate installed on backend server(s)B. client certificate installed on NVG and server certificate installed on backend server(s)C. client certificate installed on NVG and server certificate installed on backend server(s)D. server certificate installed on NVG and server certificate installed on backend server(s)Answer: D3. Which attribute(s) can be specified in an access rules definition?A. IP address onlyB. IP address and TCP/UDP portC. IP address, TCP/UDP port, and application pathD. IP address, TCP/UDP port, application path, and cookie valueAnswer: C4. Which feature allows you to configure a policy that requires a client to have a trusted certificate in order to authenticate?A. client filterB. server filterC. TunnelGuardD. authentication filterAnswer: A5. Which CLI area enables you to configure authentication methods?A. /cfg/sys/aaaB. /cfg/vpn #/aaaC. /cfg/ssl/aaa/authD. /cfg/sys/aaa/remoteAnswer: B6. Which statement is correct with respect to PortalGuard?A. VPN authorization is disabled.B. VPN authentication is disabled.C. No additional license is required.D. Users must log into the Portal before accessing the backend Portal.Answer: B7. Which statement is correct with respect to WTS links?A. Only Internet Explorer is supported.B. The WTS link cannot be pre-configured with client settings.C. An embedded ICA client applet runs in any Web browser version.D. An embedded RDP client applet eliminates the need for a locally installed version.Answer: D8. How would a service provider differentiate backend customer networks in a hosted VPN solution?A. It would assign a unique VLAN ID to each customer.B. It would assign a unique Portal IP address to each customer.C. It would assign unique user account names to each customer.D. It would assign a dedicated authentication server to each customer.Answer: A9. Which protocol does the Nortel VPN Gateway use to secure branch office tunnels?A. IKEB. IPSecC. HTTPSD. SOCKS-over-SSLAnswer: B10. How is the SSL VPN client deployed to a client machine?A. It is installed along with the NetDirect client.B. It is automatically installed when the user connects to the Web Portal.C. It must be installed prior to the client connecting to the Nortel VPN Gateway.D. It is manually downloaded and installed after the user authenticates to the Web Portal. Answer: C。

NZZV ]]] QORRZKYZ IT▲ Ҳ ԟ ԇThe safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.Exam : 920-136Title :Version : DEMONCDS - Ethernet Switching Solutions1. A customer is adding fiber support onto an existing 48 port 5510. Their current installation is using all UTP ports on the switch. They need to install two 1000 Base-SX SFPs into the SFP slots. Which statement is true about the requirements for this installation?A. The Console port requires SFPs.B. Only one 1000 Base-SX GBIC will be supported.C. It will require ports 47 and 48 to be unplugged before using SFPs.D. It will require the power to the unit is turned off before installing GBICs.Answer: C2. Internet Group Management Protocol (IGMP) is used by IP Multicast routers to learn about the existence of host group members on their directly attached subnets. Which statement about IGMP is true?A. The IP Multicast routers get this information by listening for IP hosts broadcasting IGMP queries and reporting their host group memberships.B. The IP Multicast routers get this information by broadcasting IGMP queries and listening for IP hosts reporting their host group memberships.C. The IP Multicast routers get this information by recognizing the modified MAC address of a Multicast packet and adding that MAC address to the Multicast tree.D. The IP Multicast routers get this information by listening for Multicast Servers broadcasting IGMP queries and listening for IP hosts reporting their host group memberships.Answer: B3. An engineer implemented a core network consisting of four Ethernet Routing Switch 8600s and needs the ability to build a redundant core. Which feature would be used to provide redundancy and fail-over times?A. Spanning ForestB. Multi-Link TrunkingC. Protocol Based VLANsD. Split Multi-Link TrunkingAnswer: D4. A customer is expressing concern about reliability for their single uplink connection to the wiring closet. The switches in the wiring closet support Distributed Multi-Link Trunking (DMLT). What can be done so the Ethernet Routing Switch 8600 can eliminate a single point of failure for the lowest price?A. Add a second switch fabric module.B. Duplicate the trunk elements in software.C. Duplicate the trunks across separate modules using DMLT.D. Configure multiple Ethernet Routing Switch 8600s using Split Multi-Link Trunking (SMLT).Answer: C5. A carrier needs to support OC-12c (STM-4) and OC-3c (STM-1) on an Ethernet Routing Switch 8600. What is a minimal configuration needed to support this requirement?A. one ATM module and no MDAsB. one OC-12c/STM-4 module and one OC-3c/STM-1 moduleC. one OC-12c/STM-4 ATM MDA and one OC-3c/STM-1 ATM MDA on an ATM moduleD. one OC-12c/STM-4 ATM MDA on the first ATM module and one OC-3c/STM-1 ATM MDA on the second ATM moduleAnswer: C6. A customer is connecting a new remote office to the corporate network. The office will be connected to the network core through a fiber link that terminates at an Ethernet Routing Switch 8600 almost 40km away. It will provide 10/100 Ethernet access for ten people, two printers and one file server at the remote location. The switch that will be installed must meet the requirements below. The switch must support IEEE 802.3af Power over Ethernet. Differentiated Services (DiffServ) and advanced IP Policies must be supported to provide IP QoS. The switch must support the 1000Base-XD Gigabit Interface Connector (GBIC) or Small Form-Factor Pluggable (SFP GBIC) for the uplink connection. Which switch meets these requirements?A. Ethernet Switch 425-24TB. Ethernet Switch 470-48TC. Ethernet Routing Switch 1648TD. Ethernet Switch 460-24T-PWRAnswer: D7. A customer is implementing video conferencing devices that require Power over Ethernet (PoE). They are planning to use an Ethernet Routing Switch 8310 chassis for this deployment. They would also like to install 8600 modules in the chassis. Which statement about this customer scenario is true?A. Both PoE and 8600 modules are supported in the 8310 chassis.B. Neither PoE or 8600 modules are supported in the 8310 chassis.C. 8310 chassis does not support PoE, but will support 8600 modules.D. PoE could be supplied via the 8310 chassis, but will not support 8600 modules.Answer: D8. A customer has a stack of Ethernet Switch 470-48Ts. The uplinks to the network core are via two Gigabit uplink ports from the first Ethernet Switch 470-48T in the stack to a single Ethernet Routing Switch 8600. The links are not part of a MultiLink Trunk (MLT), and spanning tree is running. This results in one of the links always being blocked and recovery time unacceptably long when the active uplink fails. They need to have both links active to increase the bandwidth to the core, and at the same time provide better redundancy. What is the preferred Nortel solution for the customer?A. Move one of the uplinks to another Ethernet Switch 470-48T in the stack and disable spanning-tree on both uplinks.B. Move one of the uplinks to another Ethernet Switch 470-48T in the stack and enable Equal CostMulti-Path (ECMP) on the uplinks.C. Move one of the uplinks to another Ethernet Switch 470-48T in the stack, and group the two uplinks in a Distributed MultiLink Trunk (DMLT).D. Move one of the uplinks to another Ethernet Switch 470-48T in the stack, and ensure that the two uplinks terminate on different modules in the Ethernet Routing Switch 8600.Answer: C9. A customer is selecting an Ethernet Routing Switch to be installed in a wiring closet. The switch must support 10 Gbps connections and have redundant power. Which two Ethernet Routing Switches will meet these requirements? (Choose two.)A. 1600B. 5520C. 5530D. 8600Answer: CD10. A customer is selecting an Ethernet Routing Switch to be used to route legacy protocols. It must be able to route IPX traffic and dynamically advertise IPX routes in a network. Which Ethernet Routing Switch will meet these requirements?A. 1600B. 5500C. 8300D. 8600 Answer: D。

NZZV ]]] QORRZKYZ IT▲ Ҳ ԟ ԇThe safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.Exam : 920-173Title :Version : DemoNortel Contact Center Rls. 7.0 Technical Support1. A Contact Center Manager Administration (CCMA) user is also a supervisor. You want to ensure that the supervisor automatically sees only his/her agents in the following:Historical reportsReal-time displaysContact Center Manager ServerHow can this be done most effectively?A. Configure a standard partition.B. Configure a user-defined partition.C. The supervisor will automatically see all of the agents.D. Link the CCMA user to the supervisor in the reporting agents partition.Answer: D2. In a deployed Contact Center Rls. 7.0 network with several sites, which condition will occur if the Network Control Center (NCC) server experiences a hardware failure that drops the server from the network?A. all call routing and call processing in the network will stopB. calls are routed between sites but no network call-by-call data will be transferred to the NCCC. calls will not be routed between sites in the networkD. the Contact Center Manager Servers at each site in the network will also failAnswer: B3. In Contact Center Manager Administration (CCMA) Rls. 7.0, which element can be configured on the Configuration component?A. Global SettingsB. UsersC. AgentsD. PartitionsAnswer: A4. In Contact Center Manager Server (CCMS) Rls. 7.0, which set of options specifies how statistics aretreated in reports and real-time displays?A. Activity codesB. Call Presentation ClassC. Skillset AssignmentD. Threshold ClassAnswer: D5. While the Call Presentation option "After Call Break for N seconds" (break time) is in effect, which event can cancel the break time?A. An agent is reserved for an NACD call by the switch.B. An agent can put directory number calls on hold for incoming ACD calls.C. A break time between calls has been allowed and the agent returns from walk away.D. A break time between calls has been allowed and the agent releases an individual DN call.E. A break time between calls has been allowed and the caller abandons the call when on an agent set. Answer: A。

NZZV ]]] QORRZKYZ IT▲ Ҳ ԟ ԇThe safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.Exam : 920-336Title :Version : DEMO50 Rls.3.0 & BCM200/400 Rls.4.0 Installation, Config1. You are installing a Nortel BCM50 at a small business site with seven digital stations. The customer wants to connect two PCs directly to the Nortel BCM50 to share the Internet connection. The Internet access is DSL. Which two hardware configurations can support this installation? (Choose two.)A. BCM50e main unitB. BCM50 main unitC. BCM expansion unitD. BCM50a main unitE. BCM50b main unitAnswer:AD2. The Nortel Business Communications Manager 50 (BCM50) expansion unit is designed to support Media Bay Modules (MBMs). These modules are available in many configurations. What is the maximum number of MBMs that the system can support?A. oneB. twoC. fourD. sixAnswer: B3. Which Digital Telephone supports the Key Indicator Module (KIM)?A. 7100B. 7208C. 7316ED. 7406EAnswer: C4. You are installing some IP 1200 Series Phones on a BCM50 and you require 18 extra line buttons on one of the telephones. Which hardware combination meets this requirement?A. Install an IP Phone 1210 and an 18-Key LED KIM.B. Install an IP Phone 1210 and an 18-Key LED KEM.C. Install an IP Phone 1220 and an 18-Key LED KIM.D. Install an IP Phone 1220 and an 18-Key LED KEM.Answer: D5. Which three IP telephones are supported on the Nortel Business Communications Manager 50 (BCM50)? (Choose three.)A. IP Phone 1230B. IP Phone 1220C. IP Phone 2005D. IP Phone 1120eE. IP Phone 2008Answer: ABD6. You are installing an IP 2004 telephone, and you require 24 extra line buttons on the telephone. Which piece of hardware do you require?A. Key Indicator Module (KIM)B. Key Expansion Module (KEM)C. Analog Terminal Adapter 2 (ATA2)D. Station Auxiliary Power Supply (SAPS)Answer: B7. You require a Nortel Business Communications Manager 50 (BCM50) system with an Ethernet router. Which main unit must you choose?A. BCM50B. BCM50aC. BCM50bD. BCM50eAnswer: D8. You require an additional four analog lines and an additional sixteen digital telephones connected to your Nortel Business Communications Manager 50 (BCM50). Which Media Bay Modules (MBMs) should you choose?A. G4x16B. CTM 4C. DSM 16+D. GASM 4x16Answer:A9. On a Nortel Business Communications Manager 50 (BCM50), how do you program several special features at once for CallPilot mailboxes?A. Enable networking in the Class of Service.B. Assign features by selecting a Class of Service.C. Assign express messaging lines in mailbox properties.D. Purchase additional authorization codes.Answer: B10. You want to set up a guest mailbox for an out-of-town employee who is on temporary assignment at your location. How do you add the guest mailbox?A. Choose Subscriber as the mailbox type, enter the extension number.B. Choose Subscriber as the mailbox type, leave the extension number blank.C. Choose Guest as the mailbox type, leave the extension number blank.D. Choose Guest as the mailbox type, enter the extension number.Answer: B。