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山东省泰安市泰山区2015-2016学年七年级(五四制)下学期期末考试英语试卷

泰安市泰山区2015-2016学年七年级(五四制)下学期期末考试

英语试卷

本试卷分第I卷(选择题)和第II卷(非选择题)两部分。考试时间100分钟,满分120分。

第I卷(选择题共65分)

第一部分听力(共20小题;每小题1分,满分20分)

(一)听句子,选择适当的应答语。每个句子读两遍。

1. A. I have to do my homework. B. Yes, I do. C. No, I don't.

2. A. That's all right. B. That sounds good. C. Sorry, Mr. Smith.

3. A. Terrible. B. Windy. C. Snowing.

4. A. They're students. B. They're playing soccer. C. It's raining.

5. A. Sorry, I don't know. B. Yes, please. C. Thank you.

(二)听五段对话,选择正确答案。每段对话读两遍。

6. What does Tom always do in the classroom?

A. He always listens to music.

B. He always eats something.

C. He always runs around.

7. When can the boy watch TV at home?

A. On Sunday.

B. On Saturday.

C. On Friday.

8. What is Tom doing?

A. He is playing baseball.

B. He is playing volleyball.

C. He is playing basketball.

9. What's the weather like in Harbin?

A. It's hot.

B. It's warm.

C. It's windy and cool.

10. Is there a bank near here?

A. No, there isn't.

B. Yes, there is.

C. Yes. it is.

(三)听两段长对话,选择正确答案。每段对话读两遍。听每段对话前,你将有10秒钟的时间阅读对应的3个小题。

听第一段对话,回答11至13小题。

11. Can Lucy go out on school nights?

A. Yes, she can.

B. No, she can't.

C. Sorry, I don't know.

12. What does Lucy have to do after dinner?

A. Play the piano.

B. Clean her room.

C. Do the dishes.

13. What does Jim have to do every morning?

A. Clean his room.

B. Watch basketball games.

C. Help his mom cook breakfast.

听第二段对话,回答14至16小题。

14. Who is having a birthday party?

A. Mary.

B. Tony.

C. Mary and Tony.

15. How's the weather in Shanghai?

A. It's cold and rainy.

B. It's rainy and hot.

C. It's sunny and hot.

16. What is Mary doing in Shanghai?

A. She is visiting her grandmother.

B. She is having a birthday party.

C. She is having a meeting.

(四)听短文,选择正确答案。短文读两遍。听录音前你将有20秒钟的时间阅读下面4个小题。

17. What does Mr. Smith teach?

A. English.

B. Japanese.

C. Chinese.

18. Does Mr. Smith go to Chinese classes?

A. Yes, but not very often.

B. Yes, every night.

C. No, he doesn't.

19. How many children does Mr. Smith have?

A. Two.

B. Three.

C. Four.

20. Who is dancing now?

A. Mr. Smith.

B. Jim.

C. Lucy and Lily.

第二部分语言知识运用(共两节,满分25分)

第一节语法和词汇(共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分)

从每小题A、B、C、D四个选项中,选出能填入相应空白处的最佳选项。

21. -What can you see in the picture?

-I can see __________ elephant and __________ lion in it.

A. a; an

B. an; a

C. an; an

D. a; a

22. -__________?

-I'm listening to music.

A. Where are you

B. How are you

C. What do you like doing

D. What are you doing

23. -__________ the weather today?

-It's windy.

A. What is

B. How is

C. What does

D. How does

24. -Do you like tigers?

-No. I think they're __________ scary.

A. kinds of

B. a kind of

C. kind of

D. a kind

25. -__________?

-Because they're smart.

A. Where are the monkeys from

B. Do you like monkeys

C. What color are the monkeys

D. Why do you like monkeys

26. -Excuse me, is there a hotel near here?

-Yes. Turn right __________ the second crossing and the hotel is __________ your left.

A. at; on

B. in; at

C. at; in

D. in; on

27. -Is your mother watching TV now?

-__________. She is cleaning the room.

A. Yes, she does

B. Yes, she is

C. No, she doesn't

D. No, she isn't

28. -What __________ the twins __________ every evening?

-They play chess.

A. are; do

B. do; do

C. are; doing

D. does; do

29. -Tom, where is Miss Li?

-She __________ the students in the hallway.

A. talks to

B. talking with

C. is talking

D. is talking with

30. -__________ is it from your home to our school?

-About two kilometers.

A. How long

B. How

C. How far

D. How many

31. -__________ does Jim have to do at home?

-He has to do the dishes after dinner.

A. What

B. When

C. Where

D. How

32. Look! There __________ a lot of people in front of the hospital.

A. have

B. has

C. is

D. are

33. -Hey, Mike, __________ music in class.

-Oh, sorry, Mr. Smith.

A. don't

B. don't listen to

C. listen to

D. don't listen

34. -How long __________ it __________ you to finish your homework every day?

-About two hours.

A. is; take

B. is; spend

C. does; take

D. does; spend

35. -May I speak to David, please?

-_____________

A. Yes, I am David.

B. Who are you?

C. Yes, are you Jim?

D. Speaking.

第二节完形填空(共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)

阅读下面短文,掌握其大意,然后从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中,选出能填入短文相应空白处的最佳选项。

Welcome to Center Street. Center Street is a great place to have 36 . There 37 many stores on it. Many people and cars are there. It's a 38 street. If(如果) you are hungry(饿了), you can go to the 39 . It is 40 from the big hospital. There is also a new 41 next to the hospital. There are many trees and flowers in it. It is clean and quiet. You can 42 a walk in the park. If you want to read 43 , you can go to the new library. It's 44 the supermarket and the park.

Please come and 45 the street, you may like it.

36. A. time B. funny C. fun D. great

37. A. is B. are C. be D. have

38. A. quiet B. clean C. small D. busy

39. A. cinema B. clothes store C. restaurant D. radio station

40. A. across B. next C. between D. near

41. A. park B. library C. hospital D. school

42. A. enjoys B. has C. make D. take

43. A. books B. games C. movies D. animals

44. A. down B. between C. through D. in

45. A. visiting B. buy C. visit D. buying

第三部分阅读理解(共20小题;每小题1分,满分20分)

阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中,选出能回答所提问题或完成所给句子的最佳选项。

A

My name is Jack. I come from the United States. Now I'm in China with my grandparents. There is a big zoo in our neighborhood. I like to spend time there on weekends.

On weekends, I often go to the zoo with my friends. We like different kinds of animals. I like elephants a lot because they are very smart. They can remember very well. Elephants can also draw very well. And elephants can do a lot of things for people. Lucy likes koalas. She thinks they are cute and interesting. Kate likes giraffes. She thinks they are smart and friendly. Bob likes lions. He thinks lions are exciting but scary.

We often spend all the day in the zoo and watch the animals. We sometimes take photos of them. They're our good friends.

46. Where does Jack like to spend time on weekends?

A. At home.

B. At School.

C. In the zoo.

D. In the library.

47. Who does Jack often go to the zoo with?

A. His parents.

B. His grandparents.

C. His brother

D. His friends.

48. What animals does Lucy like?

A. Elephants.

B. Koalas.

C. Giraffes.

D. Lions.

49. Why does Kate like giraffes?

A. Because they are smart and remember well.

B. Because they can draw very well.

C. Because they are smart and friendly.

D. Because they are exciting.

50. How many kinds of animals are mentioned(被提到) in the passage?

A. 2.

B. 3.

C. 4.

D. 5.

B

Hello, everyone. Welcome to the school reading room. We hope(希望) you have a good time here. Before you go into the reading room, there is something you need to remember.

A. Ten hours.

B. Nine hours.

C. Seven hours.

D. Eight hours.

52. What can you take into the reading room?

A. The bag.

B. The student card.

C. Hamburgers.

D. Orange juice.

53. How many books can you take from the bookshelf at a time?

A. One.

B. Two.

C. Three.

D. Four.

54. What does the underlined(划线的) word "return" mean in Chinese?

A. 回家

B. 带走

C. 整理

D. 放回

55. Which of the following is TRUE?

A. You can eat and drink in the reading room.

B. You can take all your favorite books to your seat.

C. You can read in the reading room at 4:00 p. m. on Saturday.

D. You can take only one book home at a time.

C

Dear Dad and Mom,

How are you? I'm happy here, but I miss you very much. It's Sunday today, I don't have any classes. I am writing an e-mail to you in the computer room now.

There are lots of students in the computer room. Some students are talking with their friends on QQ. Some students are playing computer games. Some students are watching movies on computers. My new friends, Peter and Bill, are here with me. Peter is buying a T-shirt on the Internet. And what is Bill doing? Oh, he is reading a book on the computer. They're friendly and they often help me with my study and life. When you come to Shanghai, I want you to meet them.

I'm OK in Shanghai. Please don't worry (担心) about me. I hope you are happy and well.

Love,

Jenny

56. Where is Jenny now?

A. At home.

B. In the supermarket.

C. In the library.

D. In the computer room.

57. What's Peter buying?

A. A sweater.

B. A T-shirt.

C. A book.

D. A basketball.

58. What is Bill doing?

A. He is talking with his friends on QQ.

B. He is playing computer games.

C. He is reading a book on the computer.

D. He is watching a movie on the computer.

59. What does Jenny think of her two new friends?

A. They are friendly.

B. They are funny.

C. They are smart.

D. They are strict.

60. What can we learn from the e-mail?

A. Jenny doesn't have fun at school.

B. Jenny can speak Chinese well.

C. Jenny is in China now.

D. Jenny doesn't like Chinese food.

D

My name is Mike. I'm a student of No. 14 Middle School. Our school is on Guangming Street. It's next to the People's Library. There is a big park across from our school. The pay phone is between our school and the post office. I live near the school. I often walk to school. It takes me five minutes.

There are three buildings (建筑物) in our school, the students' building, the teachers' building and a library building. The teachers in our school are very good and friendly. Our school is very beautiful.

If you come to our school from the airport (机场), you can take a taxi. It takes about thirty minutes to get to our school by taxi. Now let me tell you the way to our school. First, go along Bridge Street and turn left when you see Guangming Street. Go along Guangming Street, you can see the People's Library on your left. Our school is next to it. If you can't find it, you can call me at 010-********.

61. Where is Mike's school?

A. It's across from the People's Library.

B. It's on Bridge Street.

C. It's across from a big park.

D. It's between the post office and the pay phone.

62. There is __________ between No. 14 Middle School and the post office.

A. a library

B. a school

C. a park

D. a pay phone

63. How many buildings are there in No. 14 Middle School?

A. Four.

B. Three.

C. Seven.

D. Six.

64. How long does it take to get to No. 14 Middle School from the airport by taxi?

A. About five minutes.

B. About half an hour.

C. About ten minutes.

D. About fifteen minutes.

65. Where is the People's Library?

A. Next to No. 14 Middle School.

B. On Bridge Street.

C. Between the park and the post office.

D. In front of the airport.

第Ⅱ卷(非选择题共55分)

第四部分书面表达(共四节)

第一节词汇运用(共两题,满分20分)

(一)根据句意、首字母、音标或汉语提示完成单词。(共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)

66. Gina wants to j ___________ the chess club.

67. December is the t ___________ month of the year.

68. Zongzi tastes d ___________. I like eating zongzi very much.

69. We can't a ___________ late for class.

70. -Could you help me with my math?

-Sure, no p ___________.

71. My family and I are on a ___________ (假期) in Taian now.

72. Lily often ___________ (忘记) to do her homework.

73. In Taian, it is hot in s ___________ and it is cold in winter.

74. There is a bank ___________our school.

75. My teacher says English is very ___________.

(二)综合填空(共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)

根据短文内容,用方框中所给词语的适当形式填空,使文章通顺、完整。(每词限用一次)

First, you can see a (77)___________ from Jilin. Don't be afraid of it. It's not (78)___________. Next, you can see an elephant (79)___________ South Africa. It's very friendly. What's that in the (80)___________? Oh, it's a koala. It's from (81)___________. The koala is very young. It's only two (82)___________ old. It's very cute and smart. Lots of (83)___________ like it. But it's best to come to see it at night, because it usually (84)___________in the day. We also have many other animals like lions, giraffes and pandas.

Please come to our zoo and you can have (85)___________ here.

第二节阅读表达(共5小题;每小题2分,满分10分)

阅读下面的短文,并根据文章后的要求答题(请注意问题后的词数要求)。

Han Met is a 12-year-old girl. She loves her family very much.

But she doesn't feel happy. She says there are many rules in her family. She has to get up at six o'clock every morning. She can't play with her friends after school because she has to look after her little brother. She has a lot of homework, (88)__________ she can't watch TV on school nights. And she has to go to bed before ten o'clock. (89) On weekends, she has to clean her room and wash her clothes. Then she has to help mom cook dinner. Later she has to practice playing the piano. She says she doesn't have any fun.

86. What time does Han Mei have to get up every morning? (no more than 10 words 不超过10个单词)

87. Why can't Han Mei play with her friends after school? (no more than 10 words 不超过10个单词)

88. Fill in the blanks with a proper word. 请在空白处填上一个恰当的单词。

89. Translate the underlined sentence into Chinese. 将文中划线句子译成汉语。

90. 给短文拟一个恰当的英文标题。

第三节翻译句子(共10题,每小题1分,满分10分)

根据汉语完成句子,每空词数不限。

91. 我妹妹喜欢读书,她经常去图书馆。

My sister _______________ books. She often goes to the library.

92. 周四我们没有历史课。

We don't have history_______________.

93. 玛丽不得不每天走着去上学。

Mary _______________ to school every day.

94. 现在托尼没在做作业。

Tony _______________ his homework now.

95. 看!孩子们在拍照。

Look! The children ______________.

96. 人们大量砍伐树木,大象正逐渐失去家园。

People ______________ many trees so elephants are losing their homes.

97. 你能给他捎个信儿吗?

Could you ______________ for him?

98. 大象可以走很长时间,并且从不迷路。

Elephants can walk for a long time and never ______________.

99. 公园在图书馆前面。

The park is ______________ the library.

100. 沿着东岳大街走,看到邮局时右拐。

Go along Dongyue Street and ______________ when you see the post office.

第四节写作(共1题,满分15分)

假如你叫李华,今年13岁,来自四川。你来到了一个新学校,你的老师请你用英语做一下自我介绍。请根据以下提示写一篇发言稿。

提示:1. 你的生日、个人爱好、喜欢的学科;

2. 你的日常活动;

3. 你家离学校多远,每天怎样上学;

4. 你家有哪些家规。

注意:1. 词数:70词左右,开头已给出,不计入总词数;

2. 包含上述提示要点,可适当发挥,以使行文连贯;

3. 文中不要出现真实校名和人名。

Hello, everyone! I'm happy to come to this school. My name is Li Hua. _________________

___________________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________________ ___________________________________________________________________________ ___________________________________________________________________________

参考答案

第I卷(65分)

注:第I卷共65小题;每小题1分,满分65分。

第Ⅱ卷(55分)

第四部分:书面表达(共四节,满分55分)

第一节词汇运用(共两题,满分20分)

(一)单词拼写(共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)

66. join 67. twelfth 68. delicious 69. arrive 70. problem

71. vacation 72. forgets 73. summer 74. behind 75. useful

(评分要求:所填单词只要符合题意,语法正确,拼写无误,都可得分;否则不得分。)

(二)综合填空(共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)

76. animals 77. tiger 78. scary 79. from 80. tree

81. Australia 82. years 83. children 84. sleeps 85. fun

(评分要求:所填词语只要符合题意,语法正确,拼写无误,都可得分;否则不得分。) 第二节阅读表达(共5小题;每小题2分,满分10分)

86. At six o'clock every morning. /At 6: 00 a.m. / She has to get up at six o'clock every morning.

87. Because she has to look after her little brother.

88. so

89. 周末,她不得不打扫房间洗衣服。

90. Han Mei's family rules

(评分要求:根据文章合理作答,与答案意思相近,语言准确。)

第三节翻译句子(共10题,每小题1分,满分10分)

91. enjoys reading/likes reading 92. on Thursday 93. has to walk

94. isn't doing 95. are taking photos 96. cut down

97. take a message 98. get lost 99. in front of 100. turn right

第四节写作(共1题,满分15分)

One possible version:

Hello, everyone! I'm happy to come to this school. My name is Li Hua. I'm thirteen years old. I'm from Sichuan. I like playing chess and swimming. I'm good at playing the piano. I practice the piano every evening. My favorite subject is math because it's interesting.

My home is about 5 kilometers from school. It's a little far. So I usually take a bus to school. At my home, I have a lot of rules. I can't go out with my friends because I have to do my homework. I can't watch TV on school nights. My parents are strict with me. I think the rules can help me study hard.

I'm happy to be friends with all of you. Thanks!

(二)评分说明:

1. 评分原则

(1)评分时,先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次,然后以该档次的要求来衡量,确定或调整档次,最后给分。

(2)评分时,应注意的主要内容为:内容要点、应用词汇和语法结构的数量和准确性及上下文的连贯性。

(3)拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面,评分时,应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。

(4)如果书写较差,以至影响交际,将分数降低一个档次。

2. 各档次的给分范围和要求

第一档(13-15分)很好地完成了试题规定的任务。

覆盖所有内容要点;应用了较丰富的语法结构和词汇;用词准确、句子通顺、行文连贯、表达清楚,没有或基本没有语言错误;书写工整;字数符合要求。完全达到了预期的写作目的。

第二挡(10-12分)较好地完成了试题规定的任务。

虽漏掉1、2个次重点,但覆盖所有主要内容;应用的语言结构和词汇虽不太丰富,但能满足任务的要求;句子较通顺、表达较清楚;有少量语言错误;书写工整;字数基本符合要求。达到了预期的写作目的。

第三档(6-10分)基本完成了试题规定的任务。

虽漏掉一些内容,但覆盖所有主要内容;应用的语言结构单一;句子不够通顺,行文不够连贯;语言错误较多;书写不够工整,字数较少。整体而言,基本达到了预期的写作目的。

第四档(0-5分)未恰当完成试题规定的任务。

漏掉或未描述清楚一些主要内容,写了一些无关内容;应用的语言结构单一且不规范;句子不通顺,行文不连贯;语言错误多;书写潦草,字数不足50。信息未能清楚地传达给读者。

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