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北京市顺义区2012届高三尖子生综合素质展示_英语试题[1]1

北京市顺义区2012届高三尖子生综合素质展示_英语试题[1]1
北京市顺义区2012届高三尖子生综合素质展示_英语试题[1]1

顺义区2012届高三尖子生综合素质展示

第二部分:知识运用(共两节,45分)

第一节单项填空(共15小题;每小题1分,共15分)

从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中,选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。

21. It is said that ______ wool produced in Australia is of ______ high quality.

A. 不填; 不填

B. the; 不填

C. the; a

D. the; the

22. Mum likes this old house in downtown better than the huge one in the country, but it costs almost ______ .

A. twice as much

B. twice as many

C. twice so much

D. twice so many

23. — God! My cell phone is missing.

— Y ou ______ have left it at home. I heard you telephone our daughter in the bathroom.

A. shall

B. must

C. would

D. could

24. — My mum is not in Beijing now. She has gone to Paris.

— Oh, can you tell me when she ______?

A. is leaving

B. would leave

C. has left

D. left

25. — I wonder if you could go with me to the post office.

—I’d like to, but I ______ my experiment report and have to finish it this afternoon.

A. wrote

B. was writing

C. have written

D. am writing

26. American Thanksgiving Day, ______ falls on Nov. 24 this year, takes on an entirely different look in China.

A. that

B. when

C. which

D. what

27. In Bangkok severe flooding, many major roads ______ north, towards the areas worst affected by the flooding,

were largely impassable.

A. to lead

B. leading

C. led

D. to be led

28. Living with cancer has made her realize how important it is to take every chance to live her life ______ the

fullest.

A. at

B. on

C. to

D. with

29. I ran all the way to school yesterday, otherwise I ______ late for the annual talent show.

A. was

B. had been

C. would be

D. would have been

30. Though ______ of danger, sightseers have been flocking to the site where the world’s biggest terrorist Bin Laden

lived.

A. warned

B. warning

C. being warned

D. having warned

31. It is obvious that people hold different opinions about ______ voluntary services should be financially rewarded.

A. that

B. what

C. how

D. whether

32. It is easy to be thankful for the good things, ______ a life of rich fulfillment comes to those who are also thankful

for the setbacks.

A. that

B. which

C. while

D. when

33. — Have you got any idea for the summer vacation?

—Y es. I’m going to a peaceful place, especially ______ suitable for relaxation.

A. one

B. the one

C. that

D. this

34. Whom do you expect to have ______ the problem of over-loaded school buses?

A. solve

B. to solve

C. solved

D. solving

35. The decision ______ for almost a year because of the local residents’ com plaints that the newly-built factory

would disturb the quietness of the place.

A. has been delayed

B. was delayed

C. would be delayed

D. will be delayed

第二节完形填空(共20小题;每小题1.5分,共30分)

阅读下面短文,掌握其大意,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中,选出最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。

Mary Lou

I t was my first day to Miss Hargrove’s seventh grade. Past ―newcomer‖ experiences had been difficult, so I was very 36 to fit in. After being introduced to the class, I bravely put on a smile and took my seat.

Lunchtime was a pleasant surprise when the girls all crowded around my table. They were friendly, so I began to 37 . My new classmates told me about the school, the teachers and the other kids. They 38 out the class nerd

(书呆子) to me: Mary Lou. She was a pretty girl with dark eyes and olive-skin, 39 she wore a long woolen skirt and an old-fashioned blouse. She looked stupid. The girls whispered and giggled 40 Mary Lou walked by. She ate alone.

After school, the girls invited me to 41 them in front of the school. I was thrilled to be a(n) 42 of the club. We waited. For what, I didn’t know. Then Mary Lou came down the school steps. The girls started making fun of her, shouting rudely, biting comments. I 43 , then joined right in. Mean remarks fell from my 44 . No one could 45 I’d never done this before. The other girls stepped back and started cheering for me. Feeling 46 , I pulled on her backpack and then pushed her. Her backpack broke, Mary Lou fell and I backed off. Everyone was laughing. I 47 in. I was a leader.

I was not proud. Something inside me 48 . If you’ve ever picked a wing off a butterfly, you know how I felt.

Mary Lou got up, 49 her books and left without a tear or saying anything. She held her head 50 as blood ran down from her knee. I 51 her limp away down the street.

I turned to leave with my 52 friends and noticed a man standing beside his car. He must have been Mary Lou’s father ––– he had the same olive skin, dark hair and handsome look. He remained still and watched the 53 girl walk toward him. Only his eyes ––– shining with both sadness and pride ––– followed. As I passed, he looked at me in silence with burning tears that reminded me of my 54 .

Mary Lou’s father’s eyes taught me a good lesson that day. I never again hurt someone for my own 55 .

36. A. anxious B. excited C. eager D. afraid

37. A. talk B. hesitate C. relax D. suspect

38. A. picked B. pointed C. worked D. found

39. A. because B. so C. and D. but

40. A. as B. before C. after D. since

41. A. consult B. fight C. support D. join

42. A. leader B. member C. assistant D. organizer

43. A. paused B. refused C. hurried D. escaped

44. A. eyes B. heart C. lips D. mind

45. A. tell B. say C. report D. announce

46. A. ashamed B. guilty C. encouraged D. powerful

47. A. turned B. went C. took D. fitted

48. A. sank B. hurt C. touched D. screamed

49. A. tore B. closed C. gathered D. grasped

50. A. cautiously B. casually C. low D. high

51. A. watched B. noticed C. glared D. glanced

52. A. caring B. laughing C. puzzling D. satisfying

53. A. silly B. only C. lonely D. friendly

54. A. pain B. pity C. weakness D. shame

55. A. loss B. gain C. effort D. duty

第三部分:阅读理解(共两节,40分)

第一节(共15小题;每小题2分,共30分)

阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中,选出最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。

A

Does a T ea Break Make Y ou More Efficient?

China has been drinking tea since the time of Shennong, 5,000 years ago. Britain’s relationship with tea is much shorter, but tea enjoys pride of place as the UK’s national drink. According to the UK Tea Council, British people drink an average of three cups a day or a national total of 165 million cups every day.

With figures like these, it is no surprise that time spent taking tea affects the working day in Britain. A recent survey found that 24 minutes a day are lost to making, buying and drinking tea and coffee. That is, £400 a year is lost in working hours per employee, or 190 days over a lifetime. So, should employers be worried about this lost working time, or does the tea break make up in other ways?

One argument is that caffeine improves mental state: a drink of tea or coffee can make you active and focus on work.

Professor Rogers of the University of Bristol disagrees. After years of studying caffeine he sees nothing can prove that. ―Workers would perform equally well if not drinking it at all,‖ he says. ―But if they’re often drinking it and then go without, they’ll feel tired and won’t work well.‖

Psychologist Cooper instead emphasizes the role tea breaks play in office life, and in building social relationships. ―We need to make people more active and see other people. The tea break is one way of doing this,‖ says Cooper.

And Professor Rogers also points out the comfort effect of a hot drink: ―We warm our hands on them on a cold day; they’re comforting and play a big role in our everyday life. Whatever the caffeine’s doing, I’d say these 24 minutes aren’t wasted.‖

56. What is the passage mainly about?

A. Tea Breaks cannot make people more active at work.

B. British people drink more tea than people in other countries.

C. Tea break plays an important role in people’s life in Britain.

D. A lot of time has been wasted drinking tea in the working day.

57. We learn from a recent survey that in Britain _______.

A. £400 is lost in working hours for each person

B. tea breaks take up 24 minutes in a working day

C. people spends 190 days drinking tea and coffee each year

D. people drink 165 million cups in working hours every day

58. What’s Psychologist Coopers’ attitude towards tea break?

A. Doubtful.

B. Uncertain.

C. Negative.

D. Positive.

B

The first time I went for a walk around my father-in-law’s neighbo rhood was garbage day, and I was shocked to see what people were throwing out.

It was back in 1981, and I saw many people gathered in someone’s front yard. As I went nearer to see what was happening I got my first introduction to yard sales. For the few dollars I had in my wallet, I was able to buy a seven-inch black-and-white portable TV. I also bought a flashlight.

The following weekend, at another yard sale, I saw a 14-inch color TV being sold for almost nothing. I felt I could not miss the offer and bo ught it. Now I had two sets and couldn’t wait to see what else I could afford the next weekend.

Spring ended, and by then I had accumulated almost every type of electronic equipment I had always wished to have back home.

Then this new idea came to mind. I had heard about a man who traveled back home every few months. He drove a truck filled with boxes of new and used stuff that people were sending to relatives. So I told my father that I would send as many types of items as I could so that he could start his resale business.

Every few months I would gather several boxes of American ―junk‖ ––– televisions, toasters, fans, hair dryers, etc. and send them home. As word got out about my father’s ―trash‖ market, people all came to buy these things.

Three years later, when I visited my family for the first time since leaving home, I learned that many of the families in our neighborhood had a piece of ―trash‖. It proved that I had the responsibility to keep people back home up to date with the latest technology you no longer need.

59. According to the text, a yard sale is a place where people _______.

A. sell their front yards at a low price

B. sell unwanted things in their own yards

C. gather in someone’s yard to enjoy things

D. throw away their trash in someone’s y ard

60. The author felt he could not miss the offer because _______.

A. the second TV set was bigger

B. the second TV set was color TV

C. the second TV set was very cheap

D. he wanted two TV sets very much

61. What did the author think of the ―junk‖ he bought?

A. He thought they were valuable.

B. He thought they were worth buying.

C. He was not surprised to see them thrown away.

D. He thought he could sell them for a good price.

62. From the passage we can infer that _______.

A. The author comes from a poor country

B. The author often goes home to sell the ―junk‖

C. The author buys the ―junk‖ only to make profits

D. The ―junk‖ is not welcomed in the author’s home country

C

The Man Booker Prize for Fiction is awarded every year for a novel written by a writer from the Commonwealth or the Republic of Ireland and it aims to represent the very best in contemporary fiction. The prize was originally called the Booker-McConnell Prize, which was the name of the company that sponsored it, though it was better-know n as simply the ―Booker Prize‖. In 2002, the Man Group became the sponsor and they chose the new name, keeping ―Booker‖.

Publishers can submit books for consideration for the prize, but the judges can also ask for books to be submitted they think should be included. Firstly, the Advisory Committee formed by sponsors give advice if there have been any changes to the rules for the prize and select the people who will judge the books. The judging panel (group) changes every year and usually a person is only a judge once.

Great efforts are made to ensure that the judging panel is balanced in terms of gender and professions within the industry, so that a writer, a critic, an editor and an academic are chosen along with a well-known person from wider society. However, when the panel of judges has been finalized, they are left to make their own decisions without any further involvement or interference from the prize sponsor.

The Man Booker judges include critics, writers and academics to maintain the consistent quality of the prize and its influence is such that the winner will almost certainly see the sales increase considerably, in addition to the £50,000 that comes with the prize.

Worth £60,000 to the winner, the Man Booker International Prize is awarded every two years to a living author who has published fiction either originally in English or whose work is generally available in translation in the English language. The winner is chosen solely at the mercy of the judging panel; there are no opinions from publishers.

The Man Booker International Prize reflects and reinforces the annual Man Booker Prize for Fiction in that literary excellence will be its sole focus. The Man Booker International Prize is significantly different from the annual Man Booker Prize for Fi ction in that it highlights one writer’s overall contribution to fiction on the world stage. In

seeking out literary excellence the judges consider a writer’s body of work rather than a single novel.

63. We can learn from the passage that _______.

A. books can be submitted by writers

B. the judging panel doesn’t include women

C. the judging panel advises on changes to the rules

D. the sponsors are involved in choosing the judges

64. The consistent quality of the prize is guaranteed by _______.

A. the prize money

B. the gender of the judges

C. the make-up of the panel of judges

D. by the increase in sales of the winner

65. The Man Booker Prize for Fiction is quite different from the Man Booker International Prize in that _______.

A. it focuses on a single novel

B. it highlights an author’s overall work

C. it offers much less money to the winner

D. it is named after the company that sponsored it

66. This passage suggests that both prizes mentioned in it _______.

A. are not awarded to women writers

B. benefit the English literature greatly

C. are awarded only to the English writers

D. aim to promote book sales in the market

D

The brown widow spider became established in Southern California in early 2000 and has become part of the local spider family in urban Los Angeles and San Diego. The brown widow spider is continuing its expansion in Southern California and could possibly move northward into Central California.

The brown widow is suspected to have evolved in Africa although it was first described from South America, which adds confusion as to where it might have originated. It is a tropical and subtropical spider having established populations in Hawaii, Florida, parts of Australia, South Africa and Japan. In North America, the brown widow was restricted for many decades to the Florida peninsula. However, around the year 2000, it started showing up in other Gulf Coast states. Brown widows are now known from Texas to Georgia and South Carolina.

The brown widow builds its web in protected sites around homes and in woody vegetation with branches. Some typical sites selected by brown widows for web building are empty containers such as buckets and nursery pots, mail boxes, entry way corners, under eaves, storage closets and garages, undercarriages of motor vehicles that are stationary for long periods, and the undersides of outdoor furniture. They choose places that are more exposed than sites chosen by black widows and therefore, appear to be at higher risk for interactions with humans as far as bites are concerned.

One recent study demonstrates that the brown widow spider is less poisonous than other widow species. The reason for the weaker effect of brown widow bites on humans is possibly because the brown widow does not have much poison as its larger relatives, but it is really a threat to humans as to its poison. The two major symptoms of a brown widow bite were that the bite hurt when it was given and it left a red mark. These two symptoms are not much different from the bite of normal household spiders.

There is no specific information regarding the control of brown widows by farm chemicals. Most current advice is what is used for controlling spiders in general. Therefore, most commercially available farm chemicals should

work on brown widows. A voiding a mess of the house and the garage should reduce nest sites for them. Also, one should store garage items in plastic bags where there might be interactions with spiders. These items include rarely worn garments such as gardening clothes and gloves, recreational items like sports equipment (i.e., baseball gloves) and other items where spiders can crawl up into holes where fingers can be inserted.

67. The author wrote this article to _______.

A. announce the result of a research on spiders

B. introduce the ways to get rid of the spiders

C. report a new finding of the widow species

D. warn readers against the brown widow

68. From the passage we can conclude that _______.

A. brown widows are spreading northward

B. the brown widow originated from Africa

C. brown widows now can be found in all countries

D. there used to be no brown widows in North America

69. The third paragraph is mainly about _______.

A. the brown widow’s web building

B. the characteristics of the brown widow

C. the habitat preferences of the brown widow

D. the brown widow’s threaten to human beings

70. It can be inferred that _______.

A. brown widows can be killed with any farm chemicals

B. at present people can only control brown widow spiders

C. the brown widow has more poison than the black widow

D. victims bitten by the brown widow needn’t see the doctor

第二节(共5小题;每小题2分,共10分)

根据短文内容,从短文后的七个选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项

为多余选项。

The hardest language

People often ask which is the most difficult language to learn, and it is not easy to answer because there are many factors to take into consideration. Firstly, in a first language the differences are unimportant as people learn their mother tongue naturally. 71

A native speaker of Spanish, for example, will find Portuguese much easier to learn than a native speaker of Chinese, for example, because Portuguese is very similar to Spanish, while Chinese is very different. 72 The greater the differences between the second language and our first, the harder it will be for most people to learn.

73 Teachers and the circumstances in which the language is learned also play an important role, as well as each learner’s motivation for learning. If people learn a language because they need to use it professionally, they often learn it faster than people studying a language that has no direct use in their day to day life.

Apparently, British diplomats and other embassy staff have found that the second hardest language is Japanese, which will probably come as no surprise to many, but the language that they have found to be the most problematic is Hungarian, which has 35 forms of a nouns according to whether it is subject, object, etc.

74 In the case of Hungarian for British learners, it is not a question of the writing system, which uses a similar alphabet, but the grammatical complexity, though native speakers of related languages may find it easier, while struggling with languages that the British find relatively easy.

No language is easy to learn well, though languages which are related to our first language are easier. Learning a completely different writing system is a huge challenge, but that does not necessarily make a language more difficult

than another. 75

A. In this case, first language can affect learning a second language.

B. Therefore, it is difficult to gain a good knowledge of every language.

C. Some people seem to learn languages readily, while others find it very difficult.

D. This does not mean that Hungarian is the hardest language to learn for everyone.

E. Individuals from different cultures will find different languages more difficult.

F. It is impossible to say that there is one language that is the most difficult language in the world.

G. So the question of how hard a language is to learn is only relevant when learning a second language.

第四部分:书面表达(共两节,35分)

第一节情景作文(20分)

假设你是光明中学高三(1) 班的学生李华,今天学校组织了消防演习。请根据以下四幅图的先后顺序,写一篇英语日记,叙述整个演习过程,并谈谈自己的感想。

注意: 1. 日记的开头已为你写好。

2. 词数不少于60。

This morning, our school held a fire drill.

______________________________________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________

(请务必将情景作文写在答题卡指定区域内)

第二节开放作文(15分)

请根据下面提示,写一篇短文。词数不少于50。

In your spoken English class, your teacher shows you the following picture. Y ou are asked to describe the picture and explain how you understand it.

______________________________________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________

顺义区2012届高三尖子生综合素质展示

英语试题参考答案及评分标准

第一部分:听力理解(共三节,30分)

第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,共7.5分)

1. B

2. A

3. C

4. A

5. C

第二节(共10小题;每小题1.5分,共15分)

6. A

7. C

8. A

9. B 10. B 11. C 12. A13. C 14. A15. B 第三节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,共7.5分)

★每小题超过一个词不计分;★拼写错误不计分;★大小写、单复数错误扣0.5分。

16. Danrtsey 17. 93/ninety-three 18. shocked19. blood 20. minutes

第二部分:知识运用(共两节,45分)

第一节单项填空(共15小题;每小题1分,共15分)

21.B 22. A23. B 24. D 25. D 26. C 27. B 28. C 29. D 30. A 31. D 32. C 33. A34. A35. B

第二节完形填空(共20小题;每小题1.5分,共30分)

36. A37. C 38. B 39. D 40. A41. D 42. B 43. A 44. C 45. A 46. C 47. D 48. B 49. C 50. D 51. A52. B 53. C 54. D 55. B 第三部分:阅读理解(共两节,40分)

第一节(共15小题;每小题2分,共30分)

56. C 57. B 58. D 59. B 60. C 61. A62. A63. D 64. C 65. A 66. B 67. D 68. A69. C 70. B

第二节(共5小题;每小题2分,共10分)

71. G 72. A73. C 74. E 75.F

第四部分:书面表达(共两节,35分)

第一节情景作文(20分)

一、评分原则:

1.本题总分为20分,按5个档次给分。

2.评分时,先根据文章的内容和语言质量初步确定其档次,然后以该档次的要求来衡量,确定或调整档次,最后给分。

3.评分时应考虑:内容要点的完整性、上下文的连贯、词汇和句式的多样性及语言的准确性。

4.拼写、标点符号或书写影响内容表达时,应视其影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。

5.词数少于60,从总分中减去1分。

二、内容要点:

1、警铃大作

2、撤出教室

3、撤离途中

4、演习总结

三、各档次的给分范围和要求:

第一档完全完成了试题规定的任务。

·覆盖了所有内容要点;

·运用了多样的句式和丰富的词汇;

·语法或用词方面有个别错误,但为尽可能表达丰富的内容所致;体现

18分-20分

了较强的语言运用能力;

·有效地使用了语句间的连接成分,所写内容连贯、结构紧凑。

完全达到了预期的写作目的。

第二档完全完成了试题规定的任务。

·覆盖了所有内容要点;

·运用的句式和词汇能满足任务要求;

·语法和用词基本准确,少许错误主要为尽可能表达丰富的内容所致;

·使用了简单的语句间连接成分,所写内容连贯。

达到了预期的写作目的。

15分-17分

第三档基本完成了试题规定的任务。

·覆盖了内容要点;

·运用的句式和词汇基本满足任务要求;

12分-14分

·语法和用词方面有一些错误,但不影响理解。

基本达到了预期的写作目的。

第四档未恰当完成试题规定的任务。

·漏掉或未描述清楚主要内容;

·所用句式和词汇有限;

6分-11分

·语法或用词方面的错误影响了对所写内容的理解。

未能清楚地传达信息。

第五档未完成试题规定的任务。

1分-5分·明显遗漏主要内容;

·句式单调、词汇贫乏;

·语法或用词方面错误较多,严重影响了对所写内容的理解。

0分未能传达任何信息;所写内容与要求无关。

四、Possible versions

This morning, our school held a fire drill. We were listening to the teacher attentively in the math class when we heard the fire alarm from the speaker on the wall. The teacher stopped teaching immediately and organized / instructed us to exit the classroom in order. When we got into the passageway, we found we were surrounded by smoke everywhere. It was choking and our tears ran down. We students bent down, covered our mouth with handkerchiefs, and ran downstairs rapidly into the open on the playground, just as we had been taught before.

When we came back to our classroom, we students gave a summary of this fire drill. I think fire disasters are often seen on TV and read about in the newspaper. We should know the skill to escape from the fire in case of emergency.

第二节开放作文(15分)

一、评分原则:

1.本题总分为15分,按4个档次给分。

2.评分时,先根据文章的内容和语言质量初步确定其档次,然后以该档次的要求来衡量,确定或调整档次,最后给分。

3.评分时应考虑:文章是否扣题,结构是否完整,内容是否充实、健康,思维是否活跃,逻辑是否清晰,语言是否规范,交际是否得体。

4.拼写、标点符号或书写影响内容表达时,应视其影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。

5.词数少于50,从总分中减去1分。

二、各档次的给分范围和要求:

第一档完全完成了试题规定的任务。

·内容充实,体现了活跃的思维和清晰的逻辑;

·交际得体,表达时充分考虑到了交际对象的需求;

·体现出较强的语言运用能力。

完全达到了预期的写作目的。

13分-15分

第二档基本完成了试题规定的任务。

·内容、逻辑和交际等方面基本符合要求;

·所用语法和词汇满足了任务的要求;

·语法或用词方面有一些错误,但不影响理解。

基本达到了预期的写作目的。

9分-12分

第三档未恰当完成试题规定的任务。

·表达未能切题;

·所用词汇有限,语法或用词方面的错误影响了对写作内容的理解。

未能清楚地传达信息。

4分-8分

第四档未完成试题规定的任务。

·写了少量相关信息;

·语法或用词方面错误较多,严重影响了对写作内容的理解。

1分-3分

0分未传达任何信息;所写内容与要求无关。

三、Possible versions

As we can see from the picture, it is raining hard, and there, under the broken umbrella, stands a man holding a small but good umbrella in his hand.

In my opinion, the picture tries to tell us that it’s not the size but the quality that we should focus on. When it is raining cats and dogs, the large one cannot prevent you from being showered, or it doesn’t work or function as it should, because it is broken or of poor quality, while the other one, small as it is, can protect you from the rain.

In our daily life, sometimes we pay too much attention to the size or appearance. In fact, what we should concentrate on is the quality. Only in this way can we benefit from what we have.

其它可接受的立意:

1、大伞虽破,却也有使用的价值,遮挡了一些雨水。

2、多重保护确保安全。

3、利用一切所能够利用的为我们服务。

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