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公司理财 习题库 Chap002

公司理财 习题库 Chap002
公司理财 习题库 Chap002

Multiple Choice Questions

1. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a money market instrument?

A) liquidity

B) marketability

C) long maturity

D) liquidity premium

E) C and D

Answer: E Difficulty: Easy

Rationale: Money market instruments are short-term instruments with high liquidity

and marketability; they do not have long maturities nor pay liquidity premiums.

2. Which one of the following is not a money market instrument?

A) a Treasury bill

B) a negotiable certificate of deposit

C) commercial paper

D) a Treasury bond

E) a Eurodollar account

Answer: D Difficulty: Easy

Rationale: Money market instruments are instruments with maturities of one year or less, which applies to all of the above except Treasury bonds. See Table 2.1, page 33.

3. T-bills are financial instruments initially sold by ________ to raise funds.

A) commercial banks

B) the U. S. government

C) state and local governments

D) agencies of the federal government

E) B and D

Answer: B Difficulty: Easy

Rationale: Only the U. S. government sells T-bills in the primary market.

4. The bid price of a T-bill in the secondary market is

A) the price at which the dealer in T-bills is willing to sell the bill.

B) the price at which the dealer in T-bills is willing to buy the bill.

C) greater than the asked price of the T-bill.

D) the price at which the investor can buy the T-bill.

E) never quoted in the financial press.

Answer: B Difficulty: Easy

Rationale: T-bills are sold in the secondary market via dealers; the bid price quoted in the financial press is the price at which the dealer is willing to buy the bill.

5. Commercial paper is a short-term security issued by ________ to raise funds.

A) the Federal Reserve Bank

B) commercial banks

C) large, well-known companies

D) the New York Stock Exchange

E) state and local governments

Answer: C Difficulty: Easy

Rationale: Commercial paper is short-term unsecured financing issued directly by large, presumably safe corporations.

6. Which one of the following terms best describes Eurodollars:

A) dollar-denominated deposits in European banks.

B) dollar-denominated deposits at branches of foreign banks in the U. S.

C) dollar-denominated deposits at foreign banks and branches of American banks

outside the U. S.

D) dollar-denominated deposits at American banks in the U. S.

E) dollars that have been exchanged for European currency.

Answer: C Difficulty: Moderate

Rationale: Although originally Eurodollars were used to describe dollar-denominated deposits in European banks, today the term has been extended to apply to any

dollar-denominated deposit outside the U. S.

7. Deposits of commercial banks at the Federal Reserve Bank are called __________.

A) bankers' acceptances

B) repurchase agreements

C) time deposits

D) federal funds

E) reserve requirements

Answer: D Difficulty: Easy

Rationale: The federal funds are required for the bank to meet reserve requirements, which is a way of influencing the money supply. No substitutes for fed funds are

permitted.

8. The interest rate charged by banks with excess reserves at a Federal Reserve Bank to

banks needing overnight loans to meet reserve requirements is called the_________.

A) prime rate

B) discount rate

C) federal funds rate

D) call money rate

E) money market rate

Answer: C Difficulty: Easy

9. Which of the following statements is (are) true regarding municipal bonds?

I) A municipal bond is a debt obligation issued by state or local governments.

II) A municipal bond is a debt obligation issued by the federal government.

III)The interest income from a municipal bond is exempt from federal income taxation.

IV)The interest income from a municipal bond is exempt from state and local taxation in the issuing state.

A) I and II only

B) I and III only

C) I, II, and III only

D) I, III, and IV only

E) I and IV only

Answer: D Difficulty: Moderate

Rationale: State and local governments and agencies thereof issue municipal bonds on which the interest income is free from all federal taxes and is exempt from state and local taxation in the issuing state.

10. Which of the following statements is true regarding a corporate bond?

A) A corporate callable bond gives the holder the right to exchange it for a specified

number of the company's common shares.

B) A corporate debenture is a secured bond.

C) A corporate indenture is a secured bond.

D) A corporate convertible bond gives the holder the right to exchange the bond for a

specified number of the company's common shares.

E) Holders of corporate bonds have voting rights in the company.

Answer: D Difficulty: Easy

Rationale: Statement D is the only true statement; all other statements describe

something other than the term specified.

11. In the event of the firm's bankruptcy

A) the most shareholders can lose is their original investment in the firm's stock.

B) common shareholders are the first in line to receive their claims on the firm's assets.

C) bondholders have claim to what is left from the liquidation of the firm's assets after

paying the shareholders.

D) the claims of preferred shareholders are honored before those of the common

shareholders.

E) A and D.

Answer: E Difficulty: Moderate

Rationale: Shareholders have limited liability and have residual claims on assets.

Bondholders have a priority claim on assets, and preferred shareholders have priority over common shareholders.

12. Which of the following is true regarding a firm's securities?

A) Common dividends are paid before preferred dividends.

B) Preferred stockholders have voting rights.

C) Preferred dividends are usually cumulative.

D) Preferred dividends are contractual obligations.

E) Common dividends usually can be paid if preferred dividends have been skipped.

Answer: C Difficulty: Easy

Rationale: The only advantages of preferred dividends over common dividends are that preferred dividends must be paid first and any skipped preferred dividends must be paid before common dividends may be paid.

13. Which of the following is true of the Dow Jones Industrial Average?

A) It is a value-weighted average of 30 large industrial stocks.

B) It is a price-weighted average of 30 large industrial stocks.

C) The divisor must be adjusted for stock splits.

D) A and C.

E) B and C.

Answer: E Difficulty: Easy

Rationale: The Dow Jones Industrial Average is a price-weighted index of 30 large industrial firms and the divisor must be adjusted when any of the stocks on the index split.

14. Which of the following indices is (are) market-value weighted?

I)The New York Stock Exchange Composite Index

II)The Standard and Poor's 500 Stock Index

III)The Dow Jones Industrial Average

A) I only

B) I and II only

C) I and III only

D) I, II, and III

E) II and III only

Answer: B Difficulty: Moderate

Rationale: The Dow Jones Industrial Average is a price-weighted index.

15. The Dow Jones Industrial Average (DJIA) is computed by:

A) adding the prices of 30 large "blue-chip" stocks and dividing by 30.

B) calculating the total market value of the 30 firms in the index and dividing by 30.

C) adding the prices of the 30 stocks in the index and dividing by a divisor.

D) adding the prices of the 500 stocks in the index and dividing by a divisor.

E) adding the prices of the 30 stocks in the index and dividing by the value of these

stocks as of some base date period.

Answer: C Difficulty: Easy

Rationale: When the DJIA became a 30-stock index, response A was true; however, as stocks on the index have split and been replaced, the divisor has been adjusted. In

January 2003 the divisor was 0.146.

Use the following to answer questions 16-18:

Consider the following three stocks:

Stock Price N um ber of shares outstanding

Stock A$40 200

Stock B$70 500

Stock C$10 600

16. The price-weighted index constructed with the three stocks is

A) 30

B) 40

C) 50

D) 60

E) 70

Answer: B Difficulty: Easy

Rationale: ($40 + $70 + $10)/3 = $40.

17. The value-weighted index constructed with the three stocks using a divisor of 100 is

A) 1.2

B) 1200

C) 490

D) 4900

E) 49

Answer: C Difficulty: Moderate

Rationale: The sum of the value of the three stocks divided by 100 is 490: [($40 x 200) + ($70 x 500) + ($10 x 600)] /100 = 490.

18. Assume at these prices the value-weighted index constructed with the three stocks is

490. What would the index be if stock B is split 2 for 1 and stock C 4 for 1?

A) 265

B) 430

C) 355

D) 490

E) 1000

Answer: D Difficulty: Moderate

Rationale: Value-weighted indexes are not affected by stock splits.

19. The price quotations of Treasury bonds in the Wall Street Journal show an ask price of

104:08 and a bid price of 104:04. As a buyer of the bond what is the dollar price you expect to pay?

A) $10,480.00

B) $10,425.00

C) $10,440.00

D) $10,412.50

E) $10,404.00

Answer: B Difficulty: Moderate

Rationale: You pay the asking price of the dealer, 104 8/32, or 104.25% of $10,000, or $10,425.00.

20. An investor purchases one municipal and one corporate bond that pay rates of return of

8% and 10%, respectively. If the investor is in the 20% marginal tax bracket, his or her after tax rates of return on the municipal and corporate bonds would be ________ and ______, respectively.

A) 8% and 10%

B) 8% and 8%

C) 6.4% and 8%

D) 6.4% and 10%

E) 10% and 10%

Answer: B Difficulty: Moderate

Rationale: r c = 0.10(1 - 0.20) = 0.08, or 8%; r m = 0.08(1 - 0) = 8%.

21. If a Treasury note has a bid price of $975, the quoted bid price in the Wall Street Journal

would be

A) 97:50.

B) 97:16.

C) 97:80.

D) 94:24.

E) 97:75.

Answer: B Difficulty: Easy

Rationale: Treasuries are quoted as a percent of $1,000 and in 1/32s.

22. In calculating the Standard and Poor's stock price indices, the adjustment for stock split

occurs:

A) by adjusting the divisor.

B) automatically.

C) by adjusting the numerator.

D) quarterly, on the last trading day of each quarter.

E) none of the above.

Answer: B Difficulty: Easy

Rationale: The calculation of the value-weighted S&P indices includes both price and number of shares of each of the stocks in the index. Thus, the effects of stock splits are automatically incorporated into the calculation.

23. Which of the following statements regarding the Dow Jones Industrial Average (DJIA)

is false?

A) The DJIA is not very representative of the market as a whole.

B) The DJIA consists of 30 blue chip stocks.

C) The DJIA is affected equally by changes in low and high priced stocks.

D) The DJIA divisor needs to be adjusted for stock splits.

E) The value of the DJIA is much higher than individual stock prices.

Answer: C Difficulty: Easy

Rationale: The high priced stocks have much more impact on the DJIA than do the lower priced stocks.

24. The index that includes the largest number of actively traded stock is:

A) the NASDAQ Composite Index.

B) the NYSE Composite Index.

C) the Wilshire 5000 Index.

D) the Value Line Composite Index.

E) the Russell Index.

Answer: C Difficulty: Easy

Rationale: The Wilshire 5000 is the largest readily available stock index, consisting of the stocks traded on the organized exchanges and the OTC stocks.

25. A 5.5% 20-year municipal bond is currently priced to yield 7.2%. For a taxpayer in the

33% marginal tax bracket, this bond would offer an equivalent taxable yield of:

A) 8.20%.

B) 10.75%.

C) 11.40%.

D) 4.82%.

E) none of the above.

Answer: B Difficulty: Moderate

Rationale: 0.072 = r m (1-t); 0.072 = r m / (0.67); r m = 0.1075 = 10.75%.

26. If the market prices of each of the 30 stocks in the Dow Jones Industrial Average (DJIA)

all change by the same percentage amount during a given day, which stock will have the greatest impact on the DJIA?

A) The stock trading at the highest dollar price per share.

B) The stock with total equity has the higher market value.

C) The stock having the greatest amount of equity in its capital structure.

D) The stock having the lowest volatility.

E) All will have an equal impact.

Answer: A Difficulty: Moderate

Rationale: Higher priced stocks affect the DJIA more than lower priced stocks; other choices are not relevant.

27. The Value Line Index is an equally weighted geometric average of the return of about

1,700 firms. What is the value of an index based on the geometric average returns of three stocks, where the returns on the three stocks during a given period were 20%, -10%, and 5%?

A) 4.3%

B) 5.0%

C) 11.7%

D) 13.4%

E) 12.2%

Answer: A Difficulty: Moderate

Rationale: [(1.2)(0.9)(1.05)]1/3 - 1 = 4.28%.

28. The stocks on the Dow Jones Industrial Average

A) have remained unchanged since the creation of the index.

B) include most of the stocks traded on the NYSE.

C) are changed occasionally as circumstances dictate.

D) consist of stocks on which the investor cannot lose money.

E) B and C.

Answer: C Difficulty: Easy

Rationale: The stocks on the DJIA are only a small sample of the entire market, have been changed occasionally since the creation of the index, and one can lose money on any stock. See text box on page 50 for a list of DJIA stock changes.

29. Federally sponsored agency debt

A) is legally insured by the U. S. Treasury.

B) would probably be backed by the U. S. Treasury in the event of a near-default.

C) has a small positive yield spread relative to U. S. Treasuries.

D) B and C.

E) A and C.

Answer: D Difficulty: Easy

Rationale: Federally sponsored agencies, such as the FHLB, are not government owned.

These agencies' debt is not insured by the U.S. Treasury, but probably would be backed by the Treasury in the event of an agency near-default. As a result, the issues are very safe and carry a yield only slightly higher than that of U. S. Treasuries.

30. Brokers' calls

A) are funds used by individuals who wish to buy stocks on margin.

B) are funds borrowed by the broker from the bank, with the agreement to repay the

bank immediately if requested to do so.

C) carry a rate that is usually about one percentage point lower than the rate on U.S.

T-bills.

D) A and B.

E) A and C.

Answer: D Difficulty: Easy

Rationale: Brokers' calls are funds borrowed from banks by brokers and loaned to

investors in margin accounts.

31. A form of short-term borrowing by dealers in government securities is

A) reserve requirements.

B) repurchase agreements.

C) banker's acceptances.

D) commercial paper.

E) brokers' calls.

Answer: B Difficulty: Easy

Rationale: Repurchase agreements are a form of short-term borrowing where a dealer sells government securities to an investor with an agreement to buy back those same securities at a slightly higher price.

32. Which of the following securities is a money market instrument?

A) Treasury note

B) Treasury bond.

C) municipal bond.

D) commercial paper.

E) mortgage security.

Answer: D Difficulty: Easy

Rationale: Only commercial paper is a money market security. The others are capital market instruments.

33. The call provision in Treasury securities

I)is used with Treasury Notes.

II)is used with Treasury Bonds.

III)gives the Treasury the right to repurchase the security at par.

IV)gives the Treasury the right to repurchase the security at a premium over par.

A) II and III are correct.

B) II and IV are correct.

C) I, II and III are correct.

D) I, II and IV are correct.

E) Only II is correct.

Answer: A Difficulty: Moderate

Rationale: Call provisions, giving the Treasury the right to repurchase the security at par, are included in some Treasury Bonds. No callable bonds have been issued since 1984.

34. The yield to maturity reported in the financial pages for Treasury securities

A) is calculated by compounding the semiannual yield.

B) is calculated by doubling the semiannual yield.

C) is also called the bond equivalent yield.

D) is calculated as the yield-to-call for premium bonds.

E) Both B and C are true.

Answer: E Difficulty: Easy

Rationale: The yield to maturity shown in the financial pages is an APR calculated by doubling the semi-annual yield.

35. Which of the following is not a mortgage-related government or government sponsored

agency?

A) The Federal Home Loan Bank

B) The Federal National Mortgage Association

C) The U.S. Treasury

D) Freddie Mac

E) Ginnie Mae

Answer: C Difficulty: Easy

Rationale: Only the U.S. Treasury issues securities that are not mortgage-backed. 36. The Tax Reform Act of 1986 limited the issue of mortgage revenue and tax-exempt

bonds

A) to $150 billion per state.

B) to the larger of $50 per capita or $150 million per state.

C) to the amount outstanding in 1980.

D) to maturities of 20 years or less.

E) None of the above statements are correct.

Answer: B Difficulty: Moderate

Rationale: The Tax Reform Act of 1986 limited the issue of mortgage revenue and tax exempt bonds for each state to $50 per capita or $150 million in order to limit the drain of potential tax revenue from the Federal Government.

37. In order for you to be indifferent between the after tax returns on a corporate bond

paying 8.5% and a tax-exempt municipal bond paying 6.12%, what would your tax

bracket need to be?

A) 33%

B) 72%

C) 15%

D) 28%

E) Cannot tell from the information given

Answer: D Difficulty: Moderate

Rationale: .0612 = .085(1-t); (1-t) = 0.72; t = .28

38. Which of the following are true about Treasury Bills?

A) T-Bills are capital market instruments.

B) T-Bills yields are quoted in the financial pages as effective annual rates of return.

C At the T-Bill's maturity, the holder receives the face value of the Bill.

C) Both A and C are correct.

D) All of the above.

Answer: D Difficulty: Moderate

39. What does the term, “negotiable” mean with regard to negotiable certificates of deposit?

A) The CD can be sold to another investor if the owner needs to cash it in before its

maturity date.

B) The rate of interest on the CD is subject to negotiation.

C) The CD is automatically reinvested at its maturity date.

D) The CD has staggered maturity dates built in.

E) The interest rate paid on the CD will vary with a designated market rate.

Answer: A Difficulty: Easy

40. Freddie Mac and Ginnie Mae were organized to provide

A) a primary market for mortgage transactions.

B) liquidity for the mortgage market.

C) a primary market for farm loan transactions.

D) liquidity for the farm loan market.

E) a source of funds for government agencies.

Answer: B Difficulty: Easy

41. The type of municipal bond that is used to finance commercial enterprises such as the

construction of a new building for a corporation is called

A) a corporate courtesy bond.

B) a revenue bond.

C) a general obligation bond.

D) a tax anticipation note.

E) an industrial development bond.

Answer: E Difficulty: Easy

42. Suppose an investor is considering a corporate bond with a 7.17% before-tax yield and a

municipal bond with a 5.93% before-tax yield. At what marginal tax rate would the investor be indifferent between investing in the corporate and investing in the muni?

A) 15.4%

B) 23.7%

C) 39.5%

D) 17.3%

E) 12.4%

Answer: D Difficulty: Moderate

Rationale: t m = 1-(5.93%/7.17%) = 17.29%

43. An individual can invest in student loan securities by buying

A) Sallie Maes

B) Ginnie Maes

C) Fanny Maes

D) Freddie Macs

E) Stacey Joes

Answer: A Difficulty: Easy

44. Which of the following are characteristics of preferred stock?

I)It pays its holder a fixed amount of income each year, at the discretion of its

managers.

II)It gives its holder voting power in the firm.

III)Its dividends are usually cumulative.

IV)Failure to pay dividends may result in bankruptcy proceedings.

A) I, III, and IV

B) I, II, and III

C) I and III

D) I, II, and IV

E) I, II, III, and IV

Answer: C Difficulty: Moderate

45. Bond market indexes can be difficult to construct because

A) they cannot be based on firms' market values.

B) bonds tend to trade infrequently, making price information difficult to obtain.

C) there are so many different kinds of bonds.

D) prices cannot be obtained for companies that operate in emerging markets.

E) corporations are not required to disclose the details of their bond issues.

Answer: B Difficulty: Moderate

46. With regard to a futures contract, the long position is held by

A) the trader who bought the contract at the largest discount.

B) the trader who has to travel the farthest distance to deliver the commodity.

C) the trader who plans to hold the contract open for the lengthiest time period.

D) the trader who commits to purchasing the commodity on the delivery date.

E) the trader who commits to delivering the commodity on the delivery date.

Answer: D Difficulty: Easy

47. In order for you to be indifferent between the after tax returns on a corporate bond

paying 9% and a tax-exempt municipal bond paying 7%, what would your tax bracket need to be?

A) 17.6%

B) 27%

C) 22.2%

D) 19.8%

E) Cannot tell from the information given

Answer: C Difficulty: Moderate

Rationale: .07 = .09(1-t); (1-t) = 0.777; t = .222

48. In order for you to be indifferent between the after tax returns on a corporate bond

paying 7% and a tax-exempt municipal bond paying 5.5%, what would your tax bracket need to be?

A) 22.6%

B) 21.4%

C) 26.2%

D) 19.8%

E) Cannot tell from the information given

Answer: B Difficulty: Moderate

Rationale: .055 = .07(1-t); (1-t) = 0.786; t = .214

49. An investor purchases one municipal and one corporate bond that pay rates of return of

6% and 8%, respectively. If the investor is in the 25% marginal tax bracket, his or her after tax rates of return on the municipal and corporate bonds would be ________ and ______, respectively.

A) 6% and 8%

B) 4.5% and 6%

C) 4.5% and 8%

D) 6% and 6%

E) None of the above

Answer: D Difficulty: Moderate

Rationale: r c = 0.08(1 - 0.25) = 0.06, or 6%; r m = 0.06(1 - 0) = 6%.

50. An investor purchases one municipal and one corporate bond that pay rates of return of

7.2% and 9.1%, respectively. If the investor is in the 15% marginal tax bracket, his or

her after tax rates of return on the municipal and corporate bonds would be ________ and ______, respectively.

A) 7.2% and 9.1%

B) 7.2% and 7.735%

C) 6.12% and 7.735%

D) 8.471% and 9.1%

E) None of the above

Answer: B Difficulty: Moderate

Rationale: r c = 0.091(1 - 0.15) = 0.07735, or 7.735%; r m = 0.072(1 - 0) = 7.2%.

51. For a taxpayer in the 25% marginal tax bracket, a 20-year municipal bond currently

yielding 5.5% would offer an equivalent taxable yield of:

A) 7.33%.

B) 10.75%.

C) 5.5%.

D) 4.125%.

E) none of the above.

Answer: A Difficulty: Moderate

Rationale: 0.055= r m(1-t); 0.0733 = r m / 0.75).

52. For a taxpayer in the 15% marginal tax bracket, a 15-year municipal bond currently

yielding 6.2% would offer an equivalent taxable yield of:

A) 6.2%.

B) 5.27%.

C) 8.32%.

D) 7.29%.

E) none of the above.

Answer: D Difficulty: Moderate

Rationale: 0.062= r m(1-t); 0.062 = r m / (0.85); r m = 0.0729 = 7.29%.

53. With regard to a futures contract, the short position is held by

A) the trader who bought the contract at the largest discount.

B) the trader who has to travel the farthest distance to deliver the commodity.

C) the trader who plans to hold the contract open for the lengthiest time period.

D) the trader who commits to purchasing the commodity on the delivery date.

E) the trader who commits to delivering the commodity on the delivery date.

Answer: E Difficulty: Easy

54. A call option allows the buyer to

A) sell the underlying asset at the exercise price on or before the expiration date.

B) buy the underlying asset at the exercise price on or before the expiration date.

C) sell the option in the open market prior to expiration.

D) A and C.

E) B and C.

Answer: E Difficulty: Easy

Rationale: A call option may be exercised (allowing the holder to buy the underlying asset) on or before expiration; the option contract also may be sold prior to expiration.

55. A put option allows the holder to

A) buy the underlying asset at the striking price on or before the expiration date.

B) sell the underlying asset at the striking price on or before the expiration date.

C) sell the option in the open market prior to expiration.

D) B and C.

E) A and C.

Answer: D Difficulty: Easy

Rationale: A put option allows the buyer to sell the underlying asset at the striking price on or before the expiration date; the option contract also may be sold prior to expiration.

56. The ____ index represents the performance of the German stock market.

A) DAX

B) FTSE

C) Nikkei

D) Hang Seng

E) None of the above

Answer: A Difficulty: Easy

57. The ____ index represents the performance of the Japanese stock market.

A) DAX

B) FTSE

C) Nikkei

D) Hang Seng

E) None of the above

Answer: C Difficulty: Easy

58. The ____ index represents the performance of the U.K. stock market.

A) DAX

B) FTSE

C) Nikkei

D) Hang Seng

E) None of the above

Answer: B Difficulty: Easy

59. The ____ index represents the performance of the Hong Kong stock market.

A) DAX

B) FTSE

C) Nikkei

D) Hang Seng

E) None of the above

Answer: D Difficulty: Easy

60. The ultimate small stock index in the U.S. is the

A) Wilshire 5000.

B) DJIA.

C) S&P 500.

D) Russell 2000.

E) None of the above.

Answer: A Difficulty: Easy

61. The ____ is an example of a U.S. index of large firms.

A) Wilshire 5000

B) DJIA

C) DAX

D) Russell 2000

E) All of the above

Answer: B Difficulty: Easy

62. The ____ is an example of a U.S. index of small firms.

A) S&P 500

B) DJIA

C) DAX

D) Russell 2000

E) All of the above

Answer: D Difficulty: Easy

Short Answer Questions

Use the following to answer questions 63-64:

P Q P Q P Q

Stock A

Stock B

Stock C

公司理财原版题库Chap010

Chapter 10 Return and Risk: The Capital-Assets-Pricing Model Multiple Choice Questions 1. When a security is added to a portfolio the appropriate return and risk contributions are A) the expected return of the asset and its standard deviation. B) the expected return and the variance. C) the expected return and the beta. D) the historical return and the beta. E) these both can not be measured. Answer: C Difficulty: Medium Page: 255 2. When stocks with the same expected return are combined into a portfolio A) the expected return of the portfolio is less than the weighted average expected return of the stocks. B) the expected return of the portfolio is greater than the weighted average expected return of the stocks. C) the expected return of the portfolio is equal to the weighted average expected return of the stocks. D) there is no relationship between the expected return of the portfolio and the expected return of the stocks. E) None of the above. Answer: C Difficulty: Easy Page: 261 3. Covariance measures the interrelationship between two securities in terms of A) both expected return and direction of return movement. B) both size and direction of return movement. C) the standard deviation of returns. D) both expected return and size of return movements. E) the correlations of returns. Answer: B Difficulty: Medium Page: 258-259 Use the following to answer questions 4-5: GenLabs has been a hot stock the last few years, but is risky. The expected returns for GenLabs are highly dependent on the state of the economy as follows: State of Economy Probability GenLabs Returns Depression .05 -50% Recession .10 -15 Mild Slowdown .20 5 Normal .30 15% Broad Expansion .20 25 Strong Expansion .15 40

《公司理财》习题及答案

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公司理财 习题库 Chap002

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罗斯公司理财题库全集

Chapter 20 Issuing Securities to the Public Multiple Choice Questions 1. An equity issue sold directly to the public is called: A. a rights offer. B. a general cash offer. C. a restricted placement. D. a fully funded sales. E. a standard call issue. 2. An equity issue sold to the firm's existing stockholders is called: A. a rights offer. B. a general cash offer. C. a private placement. D. an underpriced issue. E. an investment banker's issue. 3. Management's first step in any issue of securities to the public is: A. to file a registration form with the SEC. B. to distribute copies of the preliminary prospectus. C. to distribute copies of the final prospectus. D. to obtain approval from the board of directors. E. to prepare the tombstone advertisement. 4. A rights offering is: A. the issuing of options on shares to the general public to acquire stock. B. the issuing of an option directly to the existing shareholders to acquire stock. C. the issuing of proxies which are used by shareholders to exercise their voting rights. D. strictly a public market claim on the company which can be traded on an exchange. E. the awarding of special perquisites to management.

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罗斯公司理财题库全集

Chapter 30 Financial Distress Multiple Choice Questions 1. Financial distress can be best described by which of the following situations in which the firm is forced to take corrective action? A. Cash payments are delayed to creditors. B. The market value of the stock declines by 10%. C. The firm's operating cash flow is insufficient to pay current obligations. D. Cash distributions are eliminated because the board of directors considers the surplus account to be low. E. None of the above. 2. Insolvency can be defined as: A. not having cash. B. being illiquid. C. an inability to pay one's debts. D. an inability to increase one's debts. E. the present value of payments being less than assets. 3. Stock-based insolvency is a: A. income statement measurement. B. balance sheet measurement. C. a book value measurement only. D. Both A and C. E. Both B and C. 4. Flow-based insolvency is: A. a balance sheet measurement. B. a negative equity position. C. when operating cash flow is insufficient to meet current obligations. D. inability to pay one's debts. E. Both C and D.

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罗斯公司理财Chap004全英文题库及答案

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罗斯公司理财题库全集

Chapter 13 Risk, Cost of Capital, and Capital Budgeting Answer Key Multiple Choice Questions 1. The weighted average of the firm's costs of equity, preferred stock, and after tax debt is the: A. reward to risk ratio for the firm. B. expected capital gains yield for the stock. C. expected capital gains yield for the firm. D. portfolio beta for the firm. E. weighted average cost of capital (WACC). Difficulty level: Easy Topic: WACC Type: DEFINITIONS 2. If the CAPM is used to estimate the cost of equity capital, the expected excess market return is equal to the: A. return on the stock minus the risk-free rate. B. difference between the return on the market and the risk-free rate. C. beta times the market risk premium. D. beta times the risk-free rate. E. market rate of return. Difficulty level: Easy Topic: CAPM Type: DEFINITIONS

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Chap002金融机构管理课后题答案

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罗斯公司理财题库cha16

Chapter 16 Capital Structure: Basic Concepts Multiple Choice Questions 1. The use of personal borrowing to change the overall amount of financial leverage to which an individual is exposed is called: A. homemade leverage. B. dividend recapture. C. the weighted average cost of capital. D. private debt placement. E. personal offset. 2. The proposition that the value of the firm is independent of its capital structure is called: A. the capital asset pricing model. B. MM Proposition I. C. MM Proposition II. D. the law of one price. E. the efficient markets hypothesis. 3. The proposition that the cost of equity is a positive linear function of capital structure is called: A. the capital asset pricing model. B. MM Proposition I. C. MM Proposition II. D. the law of one price. E. the efficient markets hypothesis. 4. The tax savings of the firm derived from the deductibility of interest expense is called the: A. interest tax shield. B. depreciable basis. C. financing umbrella. D. current yield. E. tax-loss carry forward savings.

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CHAPTER 12 Some Lessons from Capital Market History I. DEFINITIONS RISK PREMIUM a 1. The excess return required from a risky asset over that required from a risk-free asset is called the: a. risk premium. b. geometric premium. c. excess return. d. average return. e. variance. VARIANCE b 2. The average squared difference between the actual return and the average return is called the: a. volatility return. b. variance. c. standard deviation. d. risk premium. e. excess return. STANDARD DEVIATION c 3. The standar d deviation for a set of stock returns can b e calculated as the: a. positive square root of the average return. b. average squared difference between the actual return and the average return. c. positive square root of the variance. d. average return divided by N minus one, where N is the number of returns. e. variance squared. NORMAL DISTRIBUTION d 4. A symmetric, bell-shaped frequency distribution that is completely defined by its mean and standard deviation is the _____ distribution. a. gamma

陈雨露《公司理财》配套题库-章节题库(财务报表分析)【圣才出品】

第二章财务报表分析 一、单选题 1.假定甲公司向乙公司赊销产品,并持有丙公司的债券和丁公司的股票,且向戊公司支付公司债利息。在不考虑其他条件的情况下,从甲公司的角度看,下列各项中属于本企业与债权人之间财务关系的是()。(南京大学2011金融硕士) A.甲公司与乙公司之间的关系 B.甲公司与丙公司之间的关系 C.甲公司与丁公两之间的关系 D.甲公司与戊公司之间的关系 【答案】D 【解析】甲公司与乙公司是商业信用关系;甲公司为丙公司的债权人;甲公司是丁公司的股东;戊公司是甲公司的债权人。 2.杜邦财务分析体系的核心指标是()。(浙江财经学院2011金融硕士) A.总资产报酬率 B.可持续增长率 C.ROE D.销售利润率 【答案】C 【解析】杜邦分析体系是对企业的综合经营理财及经济效益进行的系统分析评价,其恒

等式为:ROE=销售利润率×总资产周转率×权益乘数。可以看到净资产收益率(ROE)反映所有者投入资金的获利能力,反映企业筹资、投资、资产运营等活动的效率,是一个综合性最强的财务比率,所以净资产收益率是杜邦分析体系的核心指标。 3.影响企业短期偿债能力的最根本原因是()。(浙江财经学院2011金融硕士)A.企业的资产结构 B.企业的融资结构 C.企业的权益结构 D.企业的经营业绩 【答案】D 【解析】短期偿债能力比率是一组旨在提供企业流动性信息的财务比率,有时也被称为流动性指标。它们主要关心企业短期内在不引起不适当压力的情况下支付账单的能力,因此,这些指标关注企业的流动资产和流动负债,但短期偿债能力比率的大小会因行业类型而不同,影响企业短期偿债能力的最根本原因还是企业的经营业绩。 4.市盈率是投资者用来衡量上市公司盈利能力的重要指标,关于市盈率的说法不正确的是()。(浙江工商大学2011金融硕士) A.市盈率反映投资者对每股盈余所愿意支付的价格 B.市盈率越高表明人们对该股票的评价越高,所以进行股票投资时应该选择市盈率最高的股票 C.当每股盈余很小时,市盈率不说明任何问题 D.如果上市公司操纵利润,市盈率指标也就失去了意义

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